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Bài tập Reading comprehension ôn thi Chuyên Tiếng Anh, học sinh giỏi Tiếng Anh 9 (149 trang)
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Môn: Đề thi chọn học sinh giỏi Tiếng Anh lớp 9 186 tài liệu
Trường: Đề thi chọn HSG Tiếng Anh từ lớp 9 đến lớp 12 cấp trường, quận/ huyện, tỉnh/ thành phố 1.4 K tài liệu
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Reading
4.1. GENERAL INTRODUCTION MỤC TIÊU CHUNG
Học xong chương trình, người học đạt được chuẩn năng lực bậc 3 tiếng Anh về
Đọc theo quy định của Thông tư số 01/2014/TT-BGDĐT, ngày 24/01/2014 về việc
ban hành Khung năng lực Ngoại ngữ 6 bậc dùng cho Việt Nam và từng bước xây dựng
nền tảng kiến thức và kỹ năng tiếng Anh theo hướng các bài thi tiếng Anh quốc tế
PET, FCE, TOEIC, TOEFL và IELTS. MỤC TIÊU CỤ THỂ
Học xong chương trình, người học sẽ:
- Có thể đọc hiểu các văn bản chứa đựng thông tin rõ ràng về các chủ đề liên
quan đến chuyên ngành và lĩnh vực yêu thích, quan tâm của mình.
- Có thể xác định các kết luận chính trong các văn bản nghị luận có sử dụng các
tín hiệu ngôn ngữ rõ ràng.
- Có thể nhận diện mạch lập luận của văn bản đang đọc, dù không nhất thiết phải thật chi tiết.
- Có thể tìm thấy và hiểu các thông tin liên quan trong các văn bản sử dụng hằng
ngày như thư từ, tờ thông tin và các công văn ngắn.
- Có thể hiểu các đoạn mô tả sự kiện, cảm xúc và lời chúc trong các thư từ cá
nhân đủ để đáp lại cho người viết.
- Có thể hiểu các hướng dẫn sử dụng được viết rõ ràng, mạch lạc cho một thiết bị cụ thể.
- Có thể đối chiếu các đoạn thông tin ngắn từ một số nguồn và viết tóm tắt nội dung.
NỘI DUNG CHƯƠNG TRÌNH ÔN TẬP CHUẨN ĐẦU RA B1 (BẬC 3)
Chương trình ôn tập kỹ năng Đọc hiểu chuẩn đầu ra chương trình đào tạo Thạc sĩ
có tổng thời lượng tương đương 30 tiết học. Nội dung cụ thể như sau: - A Sample Reading Test - Test Analysis - Reading Sub-skills - Practices - Test Practices - Tests for Self-Practices - References - Answer Keys -134- Reading
4.2. A SAMPLE READING TEST
Directions: In this section of the test, you will read FOUR different passages, each
followed by 10 questions about it. For questions 1-40, you are to choose the best
answer A, B, C, or D, to each question. Then, on your answer sheet, find the number
of the question and fill in the space that corresponds to the letter of the answer you
have chosen. Answer all questions following a passage on the basis of what is stated or implied in that passage.
You have 60 minutes to answer all the questions, including the time to transfer your answers to the answer sheet.
PASSAGE 1 - Questions 1-10 Line 1
Mount Rushmore is a well-known monument in the Black Hills of South
Dakota that features the countenances of four United States presidents:
Washington, Jefferson, Roosevelt, and Lincoln. What is not so well known is
that the process of creating this national treasure was not exactly an 5 uneventful one.
Mount Rushmore was the project of the visionary sculptor John Gutzen de la
Mothe Borglum, who was born in Idaho but studied sculpture in Paris in his
youth and befriended the famous French sculptor Auguste Rodin. In 1927
Borglum was granted a commission by the federal government to create the 10
sculpture on Mount Rushmore. Though he was nearly sixty years old when
he started, he was undaunted by the enormity of the project and the obstacles
that it engendered. He optimistically asserted that the project would be
completed within five years, not caring to recognize the potential problems
that such a massive project would involve, the problems of dealing with 15
financing, with government bureaucracy, and with Mother Nature herself. An
example of what Mother Nature had to throw at the project was the fissure -
or large crack - that developed in the granite where Jefferson was being
carved. Jefferson had to be moved to the other side of Washington, next to
Roosevelt because of the break in the stone. The work that had been started
on the first Jefferson had to be dynamited away. 20
Mount Rushmore was not completed within the five years predicted by
Borglum and was in fact not actually completed within Borglum's lifetime,
although it was almost finished. Borglum died on March 6. 1941, at the age
of seventy' four, after fourteen years of work on the presidents. His son, -135- Reading
Lincoln Borglum, who had worked with his father throughout the project, 25
completed the monument within eight months of his father's death.
1. Which of the following best expresses the main idea of the passage?
A. Mount Rushmore is a famous American monument.
B. John Gutzen de la Mothe Borglum created Mount Rushmore.
C. Mount Rushmore has sculptures of four United States presidents on it.
D. Mount Rushmore was a huge project filled with numerous obstacles.
2. Which of the following best describes the relationship between Borglum and
Rodin in Borglum's early years?
A. Borglum was far more famous than Rodin as a sculptor.
B. Borglum and Rodin were friends.
C. Borglum and Rodin were born and raised in the same place.
D. Borglum studied about Rodin in Paris.
3. The word "nearly" in line 10 could best be replaced by which of the following? A. barely B. closely C. almost D. over
4. Which of the following is NOT true about Borglum?
A. He predicted that Mount Rushmore would be finished around 1932.
B. Borglum worked on Mount Rushmore for more than a decade.
C. Mount Rushmore was finished when Borglum predicted it would be.
D. He began Mount Rushmore around the age of sixty.
5. It can be inferred from the passage that Borglum was someone who ______. A. set realistic goals.
B. was always afraid that bad things were going to happen.
C. never tried anything too challenging.
D. expected the best to happen.
6. The word "fissure" in line 16 is closest in meaning to ________. A. break B. softness C. discoloration D. unevenness
7. Why does the author mention the fact that the carving of Thomas Jefferson was moved?
A. It demonstrates Borglum's artistic style.
B. It is an example of a problem caused by nature.
C. It shows what a perfectionist Borglum was.
D. It gives insight into Jefferson's character. -136- Reading
8. The pronoun "it" in line 23 refers to which of the following? A. Mount Rushmore B. The first Jefferson C. Fourteen years of work D. Borglum's lifetime
9. Which of the following is closest in meaning to the expression "within eight
months of his father's death"?
A. Less than eight months before his father's death
B. Less than eight months after his father's death
C. More than eight months after his father's death
D. More than eight months before his father's death
10. This passage would most likely be assigned reading in a course on _______. A. management B. geography C. art history D. government
PASSAGE 2 - Questions 11-20
Line Narcolepsy is a disease characterized by malfunctioning sleep mechanics. It 1
can consist of a sudden and uncontrollable bout of sleep during daylight
hours and disturbed sleep during nighttime hours. It occurs more often in men
than in women, and it commonly makes its appearance during adolescence or
young adulthood. At least a half million Americans are believed to be 5 affected by narcolepsy.
Narcolepsy can take a number of forms during daylight hours. One common
symptom of the disease during daytime hours is a sudden attack of REM
(rapid-eye movement) sleep during normal waking hours. This occurs in
some people hundreds of times in a single day, while others only have rare 10
occurrences. During a sleep attack, narcoleptics may experience automatic
behavior; even though asleep, they may continue automatically performing
the activity they were involved in prior to falling asleep. They may, for
example, continue walking, or driving, or stirring a pot until the activity is
interrupted by external forces. Others experience cataplexy during daytime 15
hours; cataplexy involves a sudden loss of muscle tone that may cause the
head to droop or the knees to wobble in minor attacks or a total collapse in
more serious attacks. Cataplexy seems to occur most often in conjunction
with intense emotion or excitement.
During sleep hours, narcolepsy can also manifest itself in a variety of ways. 20
During the transitional phase that precedes the onset of sleep, it is common -137- Reading
for hallucinations to occur. These hallucinations, known as hypnagogic
phenomena, consist of realistic perceptions of sights and sounds during the
semi-conscious state between wakefulness and sleep. Narcoleptics may also
suffer from night wakening during sleep, resulting in extremely fragmented 25
and restless sleep. Then, upon waking, a narcoleptic may experience sleep
paralysis, the inability to move, perhaps for several minutes, immediately after waking.
11. According to the passage, narcolepsy is a_______. A. syndrome B. symptom C. disease D. disorder
12. The word "malfunctioning" in line 1 is closest in meaning to _______. A. regularly waking B. improperly working C. harshly interpreting D. incorrectly classifying
13. At which of the following ages would a person be most likely to develop narcolepsy? A. 10 B. 20 C. 30 D. 40
14. Approximately how many narcoleptics are there in the United States? A. Fewer than 500,000 B. More than 500,000 C. Fewer than 1,500,000 D. More than 1,500,000
15. The word "bout" in line 2 is closest in meaning to ______. A. period B. illness C. lack D. symptom
16. Which of the following would be most likely to occur during daily activities? A. Hallucinations B. Automatic behavior C. Sleep paralysis D. Night wakening
17. Which of the following involves a complete collapse? A. Cataplexy B. Automatic behavior C. REM sleep -138- Reading D. Hallucinations
18. The word "resulting in" in line 24 is closest in meaning to _______. A. bringing on B. making up C. leading to D. getting to
19. When would hypnagogic phenomena most likely occur? A. Soon after waking B. Just after going to bed C. After getting up D. In the middle of the night
20. Which of the following would be the most appropriate title for the passage? A. Cure for Narcolepsy B. A Good Night's Sleep
C. Hallucinations during Sleep
D. An Unusual Sleep Disturbance
PASSAGE 3 - Questions 21-30 Line EARLY CINEMA 1
The cinema did not emerge as a form of mass consumption until its
technology evolved from the initial "peepshow" format to the point where
images were projected on a screen in a darkened theater. In the peepshow
format, a film was viewed through a small opening in a machine that was 5
created for that purpose. Thomas Edison's peepshow device, the Kinetoscope,
was introduced to the public in 1894. It was designed for use in Kinetoscope
parlors, or arcades, which contained only a few individual machines and
permitted only one customer to view a short, 50-foot film at any one time.
The first Kinetoscope parlors contained five machines. For the price of 25 10
cents (or 5 cents per machine), customers moved from machine to machine to
watch five different films (or, in the case of famous prizefights, successive rounds of a single fight).
These Kinetoscope arcades were modeled on phonograph parlors, which had
proven successful for Edison several years earlier. In the phonograph parlors, 15
customers listened to recordings through individual ear tubes, moving from
one machine to the next to hear different recorded speeches or pieces of
music. The Kinetoscope parlors functioned in a similar way. Edison was more
interested in the sale of Kinetoscopes (for roughly $1,000 apiece) to these
parlors than in the films that would be run in them (which cost approximately 20
$10 to $15 each). He refused to develop projection technology, reasoning
that if he made and sold projectors, then exhibitors would purchase only -139- Reading
one machine - a projector - from him instead of several.
[A] Exhibitors, however, wanted to maximize their profits, which they could
do more readily by projecting a handful of films to hundreds of customers at 25
a time (rather than one at a time) and by charging 25 to 50 cents admission.
[B] About a year after the opening of the first Kinetoscope parlor in 1894,
showmen such as Louis and Auguste Lumiere, Thomas Armat and Charles
Francis Jenkins, and Orville and Woodville Latham (with the assistance of
Edison's former assistant, William Dickson) perfected projection devices. [C] 30
These early projection devices were used in vaudeville theaters, legitimate
theaters, local town halls, makeshift storefront theaters, fairgrounds, and
amusement parks to show films to a mass audience. [D]
With the advent of projection in 1895-1896, motion pictures became the
ultimate form of mass consumption. Previously, large audiences had viewed 35
spectacles at the theater, where vaudeville, popular dramas, musical and
minstrel shows, classical plays, lectures, and slide-and-lantern shows had
been presented to several hundred spectators at a time. But the movies
differed significantly from these other forms of entertainment, which
depended on either live performance or (in the case of the slide and-lantern 40
shows) the active involvement of a master of ceremonies who assembled the final program.
Although early exhibitors regularly accompanied movies with live acts, the
substance of the movies themselves is mass-produced, prerecorded material
that can easily be reproduced by theaters with little or no active participation 45
by the exhibitor. Even though early exhibitors shaped their film programs by
mixing films and other entertainments together in whichever way they
thought would be most attractive to audiences or by accompanying them with
lectures, their creative control remained limited. What audiences came to see
was the technological marvel of the movies; the lifelike reproduction of the 50
commonplace motion of trains, of waves striking the shore, and of people
walking in the street; and the magic made possible by trick photography and
the manipulation of the camera.
With the advent of projection, the viewer's relationship with the image was no
longer private, as it had been with earlier peepshow devices such as the 55
Kinetoscope and the Mutoscope, which was a similar machine that
reproduced motion by means of successive images on individual
photographic cards instead of on strips of celluloid. It suddenly became
public - an experience that the viewer shared with dozens, scores, and even -140- Reading
hundreds of others. At the same time, the image that the spectator looked at
expanded from the minuscule peepshow dimensions of 1 or 2 inches (in
height) to the life-size proportions of 6 or 9 feet.
21. According to paragraph 1, all of the following were true of viewing films in
Kinetoscope parlors EXCEPT _______.
A. prizefights were the most popular subjects for films.
B. customers could view one film after another.
C. one individual at a time viewed a film. D. each film was short.
22. The author discusses phonograph parlors in paragraph 2 in order to______.
A. describe the model used to design Kinetoscope parlors.
B. explain Edison's financial success.
C. contrast their popularity to that of Kinetoscope parlors.
D. illustrate how much more technologically advanced Kinetoscope parlors were.
23. Which of the sentences below best expresses the essential information in the
underlined sentence from the passage?
Incorrect answer choices change the meaning in important ways or leave out
essential information.
A. Edison did not want to develop projection technology because it limited the
number of machines he could sell.
B. Edison was more interested in developing a variety of machines than in
developing a technology based on only one.
C. Edison would not develop projection technology unless exhibitors agreed to
purchase more than one projector from him.
D. Edison refused to work on projection technology because he did not think
exhibitors would replace their projectors with newer machines.
24. The word "readily" in line 24 is closest in meaning to _______. A. easily B. frequently C. intelligently D. obviously
25. The word "assistance" in line 28 is closest in meaning to_______. A. help B. leadership C. criticism D. approval
26. According to paragraph 4, how did the early movies differ from previous
spectacles that were presented to large audiences?
A. They were more educational.
B. They were viewed by larger audiences.
C. They were a more expensive form of entertainment.
D. They did not require live entertainers.
27. According to paragraph 5, what role did early exhibitors play in the
presentation of movies in theaters?
A. They often took part in the live-action performances. -141- Reading
B. They advised film-makers on appropriate movie content.
C. They decided how to combine various components of the film program.
D. They produced and prerecorded the material that was shown in the theaters.
28. The word "It" in line 57 refers to ______.
A. the viewer's relationship with the image B. the advent of projection C. a similar machine D. celluloid
29. According to paragraph 6, the images seen by viewers in the earlier
peepshows, compared to the images projected on the screen, were relatively _______. A. small in size B. unfocused C. inexpensive to create D. limited in subject matter
30. Look at the four squares [_] that indicate where the following sentence can be added to the passage.
When this widespread use of projection technology began to hurt his Kinetoscope
business, Edison acquired a projector developed by Armat and introduced it as
"Edison's latest marvel, the Vitascope." Where would the sentence best fit? A. [A] B. [B] C. [C] D. [D]
PASSAGE 4 - Questions 31-40 Line DESERT FORMATION 1
The deserts, which already occupy approximately a fourth of the Earth's land
surface, have in recent decades been increasing at an alarming pace. The
expansion of desert-like conditions into areas where they did not previously
exist is called desertification. It has been estimated that an additional one- 5
fourth of the Earth's land surface is threatened by this process.
Desertification is accomplished primarily through the loss of stabilizing
natural vegetation and the subsequent accelerated erosion of the soil by wind
and water. In some cases, the loose soil is blown completely away, leaving a
stony surface. In other cases, the finer particles may be removed, while the 10
sand-sized particles are accumulated to form mobile hills or ridges of sand.
Even in the areas that retain a soil cover, the reduction of vegetation typically
results in the loss of the soil's ability to absorb substantial quantities of water.
The impact of raindrops on the loose soil tends to transfer fine clay particles
into the tiniest soil spaces, sealing them and producing a surface that allows -142- Reading 15
very little water penetration. Water absorption is greatly reduced,
consequently runoff is increased, resulting in accelerated erosion rates. The
gradual drying of the soil caused by its diminished ability to absorb water
results in the further loss of vegetation, so that a cycle of progressive surface deterioration is established. 20
In some regions, the increase in desert areas is occurring largely as the result
of a trend toward drier climatic conditions. Continued gradual global
warming has produced an increase in aridity for some areas over the past few
thousand years. The process may be accelerated in subsequent decades if
global warming resulting from air pollution seriously increases. 25
There is little doubt, however, that desertification in most areas results
primarily from human activities rather than natural processes. The semiarid
lands bordering the deserts exist in a delicate ecological balance and are
limited in their potential to adjust to increased environmental pressures.
Expanding populations are subjecting the land to increasing pressures to 30
provide them with food and fuel. In wet periods, the land may be able to
respond to these stresses. During the dry periods that are common phenomena
along the desert margins, though, the pressure on the land is often far in
excess of its diminished capacity, and desertification results.
Four specific activities have been identified as major contributors to the 35
desertification processes: overcultivation, over-grazing, firewood gathering,
and over-irrigation. The cultivation of crops has expanded into progressively
drier regions as population densities have grown. These regions are especially
likely to have periods of severe dryness, so that crop failures are common.
Since the raising of most crops necessitates the prior removal of the natural 40
vegetation, crop failures leave extensive tracts of land devoid of a plant cover
and susceptible to wind and water erosion.
The raising of livestock is a major economic activity in semiarid lands, where
grasses are generally the dominant type of natural vegetation. The
consequences of an excessive number of livestock grazing in an area are the 45
reduction of the vegetation cover and the trampling and pulverization of the
soil. This is usually followed by the drying of the soil and accelerated erosion.
Firewood is the chief fuel used for cooking and heating in many countries.
The increased pressures of expanding populations have led to the removal of
woody plants so that many cities and towns are surrounded by large areas 50
completely lacking in trees and shrubs. The increasing use of dried animal
waste as a substitute fuel has also hurt the soil because this valuable soil -143- Reading
conditioner and source of plant nutrients is no longer being returned to the land.
The final major human cause of desertification is soil salinization resulting 55
from over-irrigation. Excess water from irrigation sinks down into the water
table. If no drainage system exists, the water table rises, bringing dissolved
salts to the surface. The water evaporates and the salts are left behind,
creating a white crustal layer that prevents air and water from reaching the underlying soil. 60
The extreme seriousness of desertification results from the vast areas of
land and the tremendous number; of people affected, as well as from the
greet difficulty of reversing or even slowing the process. Once the soil has
been removed by erosion, only the passage of centuries or millennia will
enable new soil to form. In areas where considerable soil still remains, 65
though, a rigorously enforced program of land protection and cover-crop
planting may make it possible to reverse the present deterioration of the surface.
31. The word "threatened" in line 5 is closest in meaning to _______. A. restricted B. endangered C. prevented D. rejected
32. According to paragraph 3, the loss of natural vegetation has which of the
following consequences for soil? A. Reduced water absorption
B. Increased numbers of spaces in the soil C. Increased stony content D. Reduced water runoff
33. The word "delicate" in line 27 is closest in meaning to _______. A. predictable B. fragile C. complex D. valuable
34. According to paragraph 5, in dry periods, border areas have difficulty _____.
A. adjusting to stresses created by settlement
B. providing water for irrigating crops
C. retaining their fertility after desertification
D. attracting populations in search of food and fuel -144- Reading
35. The word "progressively" in line 36 is closest in meaning to _______. A. impressively B. openly C. objectively D. increasingly
36. According to paragraph 6, which of the following is often associated with raising crops?
A. Failure to plant crops suited to the particular area
B. Excessive use of dried animal waste
C. Lack of proper irrigation techniques
D. Removal of the original vegetation
37. According to paragraph 9, the ground's absorption of excess water is a factor
in desertification because it can _____.
A. limit the evaporation of water
B. interfere with the irrigation of land C. bring salts to the surface
D. require more absorption of air by the soil
38. All of the following are mentioned in the passage as contributing to
desertification EXCEPT _____. A. soil erosion B. insufficient irrigation C. global warming D. the raising of livestock
39. Which of the sentences below best expresses the essential information in the
underlined sentence in the passage? Incorrect choices change the meaning in
important ways or leave out essential information.
A. The spread of deserts is considered a very serious problem that can be solved
only if large numbers of people in various countries are involved in the effort.
B. Slowing down the process of desertification is difficult because of population
growth that has spread over large areas of land.
C. Desertification is a significant problem because it is so hard to reverse and
affects large areas of land and great numbers of people.
D. Desertification is extremely hard to reverse unless the population is reduced in the vast areas affected.
40. As inferred from the passage, which of the following does the author most
likely believe about the future of desertification?
A. Desertification will continue to increase.
B. Desertification will soon occur in all areas of the world.
C. Governments will act quickly to control further desertification.
D. The factors influencing desertification occur in cycles and will change in the future.
This is the end of the reading paper. -145- Reading 4.3. TEST ANALYSIS
Read the following statement about the VSTEP Reading test and decide whether they are True or False
1. The Reading test is one hour. T / F
2. There are three separate reading texts or passages in the test. T / F
3. The last reading is the hardest. T / F
4. You can do the readings in any order. T / F
5. There are 10 questions in each passage. T / F
6. All questions are multiple-choice (A, B, C, D). T / F
7. You have to do the test on computers. T / F -146- Reading
4.4. READING SUB-SKILLS
4.4.1. VOCABULARY AND REFERENCE
4.4.1.1. Sub-skill 1: Understanding Vocabulary Meaning a. Tips
In the reading section of the test, you may be asked to find out the meaning of a word
or phrase in the text. That word or phrase may be the difficult one that you have never
seen before. They may also have different meanings. However, the text will provide
you an explanation or example of the meaning of that word or phrase. What you need
to do is to look at those examples or explanations in the text. This context will give
you the clue to understand the word or phrase. How to
What is the meaning of ...? identify the
The word X in line Y is closest in meaning to? question
The word X in line Y could best be replaced by?
for example, for instance, such as, including, Examples
like, as an example, cases of, instances of, type of, (e.g), …
means, called, that is, also known as, or, is Restatements
referred to as, is/are known as, by…is meant…,
similar to, can be defined as, … Types of clues
however, but, yet, in contrast, although, on the Antonyms
other hand, despite, while, in spite of, even
though, unlike, nevertheless, …
the phrases following the comma (,) dash (-), or Punctuation parentheses ( ), …
Meaning from word parts (see the table below)
1. Find the word in the passage. How to
2. Locate any structural clues. answer the
3. Read the part of the passage after the structural clue carefully. question
4. Eliminate any definitely wrong answers and choose the best
answer from the remaining choices. -147- Reading
Meanings from Word Parts PART
MEANING EXAMPLE PART MEANING EXAMPLE CONTRA (against) contrast DIC (say) dictate MAL (bad) malcontent DOMIN (master) dominant MIS (error) mistake JUD (judge) judgment SUB (under) subway MOR (death) mortal DEC (ten) decade SPEC (see) spectator MULTI (many) multiple TERR (earth) territory SOL (one) solo VER (turn) divert TRI (three) triple VIV (live) revive Example 1
Although the hazards of the trip were many – for example, the unbearable heat, the
lack of water, the possibility of getting lost, the presence of wild animals and
poisonous snakes – the man nevertheless decided that he must go.
The examples listed in the text can help you understand the meaning of the
word ‘hazards’, which means “dangers”. Example 2
I’m looking for a unique gift for my boyfriend; he appreciates unusual things.
In this sentence, the clause following explains the meaning of the kind of gift that is “unusual.” Example 3
It kept me dry and warm even though I was soaked, and all of the moisture on my body passed right through.
The word ‘soaked’ here is somehow opposite to the phrase ‘dry and warm’;
therefore, its meaning can be “wet”. Example 4 …
The incident attracted a lot of attention among journalists. First a cartoon—drawn by
Clifford K. Berryman to make fun of this situation—appeared in the Washington Post,
and the cartoon was widely distributed and reprinted throughout the country. …
In this sentence, the phrase following the dash (—) explains the meaning of the
word "cartoon" that is “drawing to make fun of this situation”. -148- Reading Example 5 Line 1
Juan Rodriguez Cabrillo was a Portuguese-born explorer who is credited with
the exploration of the coast of what is today the state of California. Sketchy
military records from the period show that early in his career he served with the
Spanish army from 1520 to 1524 in Spain's quest for subjugation of the people 5
in what are today Cuba, México, and Guatemala.
Little is known of his activities over the next decades, but apparently he
succeeded in rising up through the ranks of the military; in 1541, he was
ordered by Antonio de Mendoza, the Spanish ruler of Mexico, to explore the
western coast of North America. Cabrillo set out in June of 1542 in command 10
of two ships, the San Salvador and the Victoria; he reached San Diego Bay on
September 28th 1542, and claimed the terrain for Spain. The peninsula where
he landed is today named Cabrillo Point in his honor; the area has been
established as a national monument and park, and local residents each year
hold a celebration and re-enactment of Cabrillo's landing. 15
From San Diego, Cabrillo continued northward for further exploration of the
spectacular California coastline. By November 1542, he had reached as far
north as San Francisco Bay, although he missed the entrance of the bay due to
a huge storm. Soon after, with the approach of winter, he veered south and
headed back to Mexico. He made it as far south as the Channel Islands off the 20
coast of what is today Santa Barbara. Cabrillo, who died on San Miguel Island
in the Channel Islands, never made it back to Mexico.
1. The word "subjugation" in line 4 is closest in meaning to _____. A. religion B. flag C. control D. agreement
2. In line 6, the word "decades" is closest in meaning to _____. A. months B. centuries C. long epoch D. ten-year periods
3. In line 11, the word "terrain" is closest in meaning to _____. A. land B. population C. minerals D. prosperity
4. The word "spectacular" in line 16 is closest in meaning to _____. A. Ruggedly handsome B. Visually exciting C. Completely uneven D. Unendingly boring
5. The word "veered" in line 18 is closest in meaning to _____. A. arrived B. ran C. turned D. cooled -149- Reading b. Practice Passage 1 Line 1
Checks and balances are an important concept in the formation of the U.S.
system of government as presented in the Constitution of the United States.
Under this conception of government, each branch of government has built-in
checks and limitations placed on it by one or more different branches of 5
government in order to ensure that any one branch is not able to usurp total
dominance over the government. Under the Constitution, the United States has
a tripartite government, with power divided equally among the branches: the
presidency, the legislature, and the judiciary. Each branch is given some
authority over the other two branches to balance the power among the three 10
branches. An example of these checks and balances is seen in the steps needed
to pass a law. Congress can pass a law with a simple majority, but the president
can veto such a law. Congress can then counteract the veto with a two-thirds majority.
However, even if Congress passes a law with a simple majority or overrides a 15
presidential veto, the Supreme Court can still declare the law unconstitutional
if it finds that the law is contradictory to the guidelines presented in the Constitution.
1. The expression "dominance over" in line 6 is closest in meaning to _____. A. understanding of B. dispute over C. authority over D. rejection of
2. The word "tripartite" in line 7 suggests that something is _____. A. divided into three B. totally democratic C. powerfully constructed D. evenly matched
3. The "judiciary" in line 8 is closest in meaning to _____. A. the electorate B. the authority C. the legal system D. the government
4. The word "counteract" in line 12 is closest in meaning to _____. A. vote for B. debate C. surpass D. work against
5. "Contradictory to" in lines 16is closest in meaning to which of the following expressions? A. In agreement with B. Opposite to C. Supported by D. Similar to -150- Reading Passage 2 Line 1
Tornadoes occur throughout the world, but for reasons that scientists are not
fully able to discern, the great majority occur in the United States.
Approximately 700 tornadoes a year occur within the United States, and this
comprises three-quarters of the worldwide total. Most of the U.S. tornadoes 5
take place in the Midwest and in the southern states that border the Gulf of Mexico.
In general, a tornado cuts a path of a few hundred yards and lasts less than an
hour; an average tornado might propel itself at a speed of 15 or 20 miles per
hour and therefore cover a distance of 20 or so miles. Tornadoes, however, can
be much worse than average. The most devastating tornado on record occurred 10
on March 18, 1925, in the states of Missouri, Illinois, and Indiana. The path of
this tornado was more than 200 miles long and a mile wide. Traveling at an
average speed of 60 miles per hour, the winds at the center of the storm swirled
around at considerably more than 200 miles per hour. A total of 689 people
died, and countless more were injured, at the hands of this killer storm.
1. The word "discern" in line 2 is closest in meaning to which of the following? A. present B. understand C. cause D. misrepresent
2. The word "propel" in line 7 could best be replaced by _____. A. move B. develop C. destroy D. inhibit
3. Which of the following is closest in meaning to the word "devastating" in line 9? A. described B. delicate C. destructive D. determined
4. The word "swirled" in line 12 is closest in meaning to _____. A. decreased B. rose C. settled D. circled -151- Reading Passage 3 Line 1
The Tournament of Roses today is quite famous for the parade and football
game that take place every year on January 1. On New Year's morning every
year, a parade of flower-covered floats moves through the streets Pasadena,
California. Then in the afternoon, a football game is contested between a 5
university team from the western states and a rival team from farther east.
In its early days, the Tournament of Roses was quite different from the
tournament of today. It had its beginning in 1890, when New Year's Day was
celebrated in Pasadena with burro races and a parade of carriages covered with flowers. 10
A football game was not part of the Tournament of Roses until 1902. In that
year, the west coast team lost the game badly. Because of the defeat, another
football game was not played as part of the Tournament of Roses for another 14 years.
1. The word "famous" in line 1 is closest in meaning to _____. A. well-done B. well-known C. well-lit D. well-played
2. The phrase "take place" in line 2 could best be replaced by _____. A. run B. open C. occur D. locate
3. The word "contested" in line 4 could best be replaced by _____. A. argued B. watched C. studied D. played against
4. The phrase "different from" in line 6 could best be replaced by _____. A. unlike B. after C. near D. like
5. The word "beginning" in line 7 is closest in meaning to _____. A. entrance B. start C. movement D. set
6. The word "badly" in line 11 is closest in meaning to _____. A. interestingly B. wonderfully C. importantly D. terribly
7. The word "defeat" in line 11 is closest in meaning to _____. A. loss B. start C. fun D. win
8. The best title for this passage is _____.
A. The Tournament of Roses: Today and Yesterday
B. Football at the Tournament of Roses
C. The First Tournament of Roses
D. Future Plans for the Tournament of Roses -152- Reading
9. According to the passage, who plays in the Tournament of Roses? A. Two teams from the West B. Two teams from the East
C. Two teams from the same university.
D. Two teams from different parts of the country
10. What is NOT mentioned about the 1890 event? A. It was in Pasadena. B. It had races C. It had a parade D. It had a football game
4.4.1.2. Sub-skill 2: Recognizing referents a. Tips
This question asks you to find the referent for the pronoun it. In a pronoun reference
question, it is important to understand that a noun is generally used first in a passage,
and the pronoun that refers to it comes after. Question
The word X in line X refers to … Where to find
The pronoun or adjective is highlighted in the passage. The referent the answer
is generally in front of the highlighted word.
1. Locate the highlighted pronoun or adjective.
2. Look before the highlighted word for nouns that agree with the How to answer highlighted word. the question
3. Try each of the nouns in the context around the highlighted word.
4. Eliminate any definitely wrong answers, and choose the best
answer form the remaining choices. Example 1 Line 1
The full moon that occurs nearest the equinox of the Sun has become known as
the Harvest Moon. It is a bright moon which allows farmers to work late into
the night for several nights; they can work when the moon is at its brightest to
bring in the fall harvest. The Harvest Moon of course occurs at different times 5
of the year in the Northern and Southern Hemispheres.
In the Northern Hemisphere, the Harvest Moon occurs in September at the time
of the autumnal equinox. In the Southern Hemisphere, the Harvest Moon
occurs in March at the time of the vernal equinox.
1. The pronoun "It" in line 2 refers to _____. A. the equinox B. the Sun C. the Harvest Moon D. the night -153- Reading
2. The pronoun "they" in line 3 refers to _____. A. farmers B. nights C. times of the year
D. Northern and Southern Hemispheres Example 2 Line 1
Mardi Gras, which means "Fat Tuesday" in French, was introduced to America
by French colonists in the early eighteenth century. From that time it has
grown in popularity, particularly in New Orleans, and today it is actually a
legal holiday in several southern states. The Mardi Gras celebration in New 5
Orleans begins well before the actual Mardi Gras Day. Parades, parties, balls,
and numerous festivities take place throughout the week before Mardi Gras
Day; tourists from various countries throughout the world flock to New
Orleans for the celebration, where they take part in a week of nonstop activities
before returning home for some much-needed rest.
1. The pronoun "it" in line 2 refers to _____. A. Mardi Gras B. French C. that time D. New Orleans
2. The pronoun "they" in line 8 refers to _____. A. numerous festivities B. tourists C. various countries D. nonstop activities Example 3 Line 1
The financial firm Dow Jones and Company computes business statistics every
hour on the hour of each of the business days of the year, and these statistics
are known as the Dow Jones averages. They are based on a select group of
stocks and bonds that are traded on the New York Stock Exchange. The Dow 5
Jones averages are composed of four different types of averages: the average
price of the common stock of thirty industrial firms, the average price of the
common stock prices of twenty transportation companies, the average price of
the common stock prices of fifteen utility companies, and an overall average of -154- Reading
all the sixty-five stocks used to compute the first three averages. Probably the 10
average that is the most commonly used is the industrial average; it is often
used by an investor interested in checking the state of the stock market before
making an investment in an industrial stock.
1. The pronoun "They" in line 3 refers to _____. A. the business days B. these statistics C. stocks and bonds D. four different types
2. The pronoun "it" in line 11 refers to _____. A. the industrial average B. an investor
C. the state of the stock market D. an investment b. Practice Passage 1 Line Lascaux Cave 1
A few decades ago, four French schoolboys made an exciting discovery. They
discovered a cave full of prehistoric paintings. The paintings were from 17,000
to 20,000 years ago. The boys regularly spent their days in the outdoors. They
discovered the cave one day while they were wandering around outside with 5
their dog. The dog disappeared down a hole. The boys followed it down the
hole and discovered the paintings. The cave that the boys found has a number
of rooms. It has one big main cave and a number of smaller rooms. There are
passageways that connect the various rooms. There are paintings on the walls
throughout the cave. They show various animals, including bison, horses, 10
rhinoceroses, and wolves. The animals are painted in red, yellow, brown, and black colors.
1. The word "They" in line 1 refers to _____. A. decades. B. schoolboys. C. paintings. D. years.
2. The word "They" in line 3 refers to _____. A. paintings. B. boys. C. days. D. outdoors.
3. The word "it" in line 5 refers to _____. A. cave. B. day. C. dog. D. hole.
4. The word "It" in line 7 refers to _____. A. dog. B. hole. C. cave. D. number.
5. The word "They" in line 9 refers to _____. A. rooms. B. paintings. C. walls. D. animals. -155- Reading Passage 2 Line 1
Horatio Alger, Jr. (1832 – 1899) was the author of more than 100 books for
boys in the second half of the nineteenth century that focused on the theme of
success coming to those who work hard to achieve it. The son of a minister,
Alger came from a prominent Massachusetts family. He graduated with honors 5
from Harvard in 1852 and graduated from the Cambridge Divinity School eight
years later. He served as a minister for a short time before moving to New
York City in 1866 to devote his time to writing inspirational books for boys.
In many of his books, he wrote about the poor and homeless children of the
slums of New York City, seeing them as unfortunate pawns of society who, if 10
only given the opportunity, could improve their lot. A general plotline that he
followed often was of a poor boy who managed to achieve a respectable and
successful life by working hard and taking advantage of opportunities
presented. Though his writing style was characterized by simplicity and
repetition, it was well received by his target audience; his books were
enormously popular, selling millions of copies well into the first few decades of the twentieth century.
1. The word that in line 2 refers to _____. A. Author B. Books C. Boys D. Half
2. The word it in line 3 refers to _____. A. The second half B. The nineteenth century C. 100 D. Success Passage 3 Line Chromium Compounds 1
Most chromium compounds have brightly colored hues, and as a result they
are widely used as coloring agents, or pigments, in paints. In addition to having
a pleasing color a paint must protect the surface to which it is applied and be
easy to apply in a thin, uniform coat. 5
All paints consist of two parts. One is a powder of solid particles that is the
source of the color and the opaqueness and is known as the pigment. The other,
called the binder, is the liquid into which the pigment is blended. The binder
used in some paints is made from oily solvents such as those derived from
petroleum resources. When applied, these solvents evaporate, leaving deposits 10 of pigment on the surface.
1. The word they in line 1 refers to _____. A. chromium compounds B. brightly colored hues -156- Reading C. coloring agents D. pigments
2. The word it in line 3 refers to _____. A. a pleasing color B. a paint C. the surface D. a thin, uniform coat
3. The word that in line 5 refers to _____. A. a powder B. solid particles C. the source D. the color
4. The word which in line 7 refers to _____. A. powder B. paint C. liquid D. pigment
5. The word those in line 8 refers to _____. A. some paints B. oily solvents C. petroleum resources D. deposits of pigment 4.4.2. DETAILS
4.4.2.1. Sub-skill 3: Finding factual information a. Tips
When you are asked questions about factual information, the answers to these
multiple-choice questions are often restatements of what is given in the passage.
The following chart outlines the key information that you should remember about questions testing details.
According to paragraph X…
How to identify the It is stated in paragraph X… question
It is indicated in paragraph X….
It is mentioned in paragraph X….
1. Choose a key word or idea in the question.
2. Scan the appropriate paragraph for the key word or idea.
3. Read the sentence that contains the key word or idea How to answer the carefully. question
4. Eliminate any definitely wrong answers and choose the
best answer from the remaining choices. * Not read the whole passage -157- Reading Example 1
John went to the store and bought apples. After that, he went to the bank before
stopping at the post office to mail some letters. Back home, he just watched some TV and took a nap. 1. What did John buy? A. Apples B. Oranges C. Bananas D. Carrots
2. Why did John go to the post office? A. to mail some letters B. to buy stamps C. to talk to his friend D. to get a package Example 2
Last week, Joanie Sherer took the gold medal in the 100-meter race at the
school’s track and field competition. Joanie, a tenth-grade student in Mr. Yates’s class,
was the only junior in the race. She competed against five senior girls but still
managed to win first place. When we asked her how she did it, she said, “I’ve been
running races for over five years. I won because of how much I’ve been practicing.”
No one at the school knew Joanie had been training so much. This information made
the senior girls feel much better about their loss. Sara, last year’s winner, told us, “We
never expected to lose to a junior, but she worked hard for the win.” Here at the
School Chronicle, we expect Joanie will make front-page news again.
1. What is true about Sara?
A. She expected to lose to a junior.
B. She wants to be an Olympic runner.
C. She won the 100-meter race last year.
D. She won the 100-meter race this year Example 3
The historical definition of a computer is a device that can help in computation.
Computation includes counting, calculating, adding, subtracting, etc. the modern
definition of a computer is a little different. Today’s computers store, manipulate, and
analyze many kinds of information. -158- Reading
Historically, the first computers are very interesting. The first computer may
actually have been located in Great Britain, at Stonehenge. It is a man-made circle of
large stones. People used it to measure the weather and predict the change of seasons.
1. According to the passage, which is true of Stonehenge? A. It is manmade. B. It changed the seasons.
C. It was built by the Greeks and Romans. D. It predicted the weather. b. Practice Passage 1 Lake Baikal
Crescent-shaped Lake Baikal, in Siberia, is only the ninth largest lake in area at
385 miles (620km) in length and 46 miles (74km) in width, yet it is easily the largest
body of fresh water in the world. It holds one-fifth of the world’s total fresh water,
which is more than the total of all the water in the five Great Lakes; it holds so much
fresh water in spite of its less-than impressive area because it is by far the world’s
deepest lake. The average depth of the lake is 1,312 feet (400 meters) below sea level,
and the Olkhon Crevice, the lowest known point, is more than 5,250 feet (1,600 meters) deep.
Lake Baikal, which today is located near the center of the Asian peninsula, is
most likely the world’s oldest lake. It began forming 25 million years ago as Asia
started splitting apart in a series of great faults. The Baikal Valley dropped away,
eventually filling with water and creating the deepest of the world’s lakes.
1. What is stated in paragraph 1 about the shape of Lake Baikal?
A. It is wider than it is long. B. It is circular in shape.
C. Its width is one-half of its length.
D. It is shaped like a new moon.
2. It is indicated in paragraph 1 that the area of Lake Baikal _____.
A. is less than the area of eight other lakes
B. is one-ninth the area of Siberia
C. is greater than the area of any other freshwater lake
D. is equal to the area of the five Great Lakes
3. According to paragraph 1, Lake Baikal _____.
A. holds one-fifth of the world’s water
B. holds five times the water of the Great Lakes
C. holds one-ninth of the world’s water -159- Reading
D. holds 20 percent of the world’s fresh water
4. According to paragraph 1, the Olkhon Crevice is _____. A. outside of Lake Baikal B. 400 meters below sea level
C. the deepest part of Lake Baikal D. 5,000 meters deep
5. It is mentioned in paragraph 2 that Lake Baikal _____.
A. is not as old as some other lakes
B. formed when sections of the Earth were moving away from each other
C. was fully formed 25 million years ago
D. is today located on the edge of the Asian peninsula Passage 2 The Postage Stamp
The postage stamp has been around for only a relatively short period of time. The
use of stamps for postage was first proposed in England in 1837, when Sir Rowland
Hill published a pamphlet entitled “Post Office Reform: Its Importance and
Practicability” to put forth the ideas that postal rates should not be based on the
distance that a letter or package travels but should instead be based on the weight of
the letter or package and that fees for postal services should be collected in advance of
the delivery, rather than after, through the use of postage stamps.
The ideas proposed by Hill went into effect in England almost immediately, and
other countries soon followed suit. The first English stamp, which featured a portrait
of then Queen Victoria, was printed in 1840. This stamp, the “penny black”, came in
sheets that needed to be separated with scissors and provided enough postage for a
letter weighing 14 grams or less to any destination. In 1843, Brazil was the next nation
to produce national postage stamps, and various areas in what is today Switzerland
also produced postage stamps later in the same year. Postage stamps in five- and ten-
cent denominations were first approved by the U.S. Congress in 1847, and by 1860
postage stamps were being issued in more than 90 governmental jurisdictions worldwide.
1. According to paragraph 1, postage stamps were first suggested _____
A. in the first half of the eighteenth century
B. in the second half of the eighteenth century
C. in the first half of the nineteenth century
D. in the second half of the nineteenth century
2. It is indicated in paragraph 1 that Sir Rowland Hill believed that postage fees
A. should be paid by the sender
B. should be related to distance -160- Reading
C. should have nothing to do with how heavy a package is
D. should be collected after the package is delivered
3. What is stated in paragraph 2 about the first English postage stamp?
A. It was designed by Queen Victoria.
B. It contained a drawing of a black penny.
C. It was produced in sheets of 14 stamps.
D. It could be used to send a lightweight letter.
4. According to paragraph 2, Brazil introduced postage stamps _____. A. before England B. before Switzerland C. after the United States D. after Switzerland
5. It is mentioned in paragraph 2 that in 1847 _____.
A. postage stamps were in use in 90 different countries
B. it cost fifteen cents to mail a letter in the United States
C. two different denominations of postage stamps were introduced in the United States
D. the U.S. Congress introduced the “penny black” stamp Passage 3
There are many kinds of sugar. Some of the many kinds are cane sugar, beet
sugar, maple sugar, palm sugar, and corn sugar. The two most widely used kinds of
sugar are cane sugar and beet sugar.
It is generally believed that sugarcane was first grown in India. Sugarcane is the
plant that is used to make sugar from cane, or cane sugar. From India, the sugarcane
plant moved into other parts of Asia as well as North Africa and Europe. Christopher
Columbus was well acquainted with sugarcane because his wife’s mother owned a
sugarcane plantation on the island of Madeira. It as Christopher Columbus who
introduced sugarcane to the Americas on his second voyage there.
1. It is stated in paragraph 1 that palm sugar is ______. A. one of five kinds of sugar
B. one of the kinds of sugar that is used least
C. one of the two most widely used kinds of sugar
D. the most widely used kind of sugar
2. According to paragraph 2, sugar originally came from ______. A. India B. northern Asia C. North Africa D. Europe
4.4.2.2. Sub-skill 4: Identifying negative facts a. Tips -161- Reading
In the reading test, you will sometimes be asked to find an answer that is not
stated, or not mentioned, or not true in the passage. This type of question really means
that three of the answers are stated, mentioned or true in the passage, while one is not.
There are two kinds of answers to this type of question:
- There are three answers that are true and one that is not true according to the passage.
- There are three true answers and one that is not stated or mentioned in the passage.
The following chart outlines the key information that you should remember about
questions testing negative facts
Which of the following is not stated...? How to identify
Which of the following is not mentioned...? the question
Which of the following is not discussed...?
All of the following are true except... Where to find the
The answers to these questions are found in order in the answer passage.
1. Choose a key word in the question.
2. Scan in the appropriate place in the passage for the key word (or related idea).
3. Read the sentence that contains the key word or idea How to answer carefully. the question
4. Look for answers that are definitely true according to the passage. Eliminate those answers.
5. Choose the answer that is not true or not discussed in the passage. Example 1
A penguin is a bird that is generally found in the colder regions of the world. The
back of its body and its head are black, while the front of its body is white. This
coloring makes the penguin look like it is dressed for a formal occasion.
1. What is NOT discussed about the penguin? A. where it is found B. what it eats C. what its body looks like D. what its head looks like Example 2 -162- Reading
Elizabeth Cochrane Seaman was an American journalist at the turn of the century
who wrote for the newspaper New York World under the pen name Nellie Bly, a name
which was taken from the Stephen Foster song Nelly Bly. She achieved fame for her
exposés and in particular for the bold and adventuresome way that she obtained her stories.
She felt that the best way to get the real story was from the inside rather than as
an outside observer who could be treated to a prettified version of reality. On one
occasion she pretended to be a thief so that she would get arrested and see for herself
how female prisoners were really treated. On another occasion she faked mental illness
in order to be admitted to a mental hospital to get the real picture on the treatment of mental patients.
1. Which of the following is NOT true about Nellie Bly?
A. Nellie Bly's real name was Elizabeth Cochrane Seaman.
B. Nellie Bly was mentally ill.
C. The name Nellie Bly carne from a song.
D. The name Nellie Bly was used on articles that Seaman wrote.
2. Which of the following is NOT mentioned as something that Nellie Bly did to get a good story? A. She acted like a thief.
B. She got arrested by the police. C. She pretended to be ill.
D. She worked as a doctor in a mental hospital. b. Practice Passage 1 Fingerprints
A fingerprint is a record of the markings on the surface of the thumb or on any of
the fingers on a hand. Police detectives first began keeping records of fingerprints of
criminals around the end of the nineteenth century, and fingerprinting was first used to solve a murder in 1902.
In that year, a man named Reibel was murdered in his apartment in Paris, France.
The police detective who was in charge of solving the murder was someone who had
already started collecting the fingerprints of known criminals. In the dead man's
apartment, the detective found some broken pieces of glass with blood on them. The
detective believed that the criminal had cut himself and had left some fingerprints on
the pieces of glass. When the detective found some fingerprints on the broken glass, he
matched the fingerprints from the glass to the fingerprints that he had recorded from a
known criminal. The criminal was arrested by the police, and he admitted his guilt. He
confessed after he saw that he had left his fingerprints in the home of the murdered man.
1. What is NOT true about fingerprints, according to paragraph 1? -163- Reading
A. That they were first collected around the end of the 1800s
B. That they were first used to solve a murder in the early twentieth century
C. That they were first collected around the end of the 1900s
D. That they were used to solve a crime soon after they were first collected
2. What is NOT mentioned in paragraph 2 about Reibel? A. What happened to him B. What his job was C. Where he was murdered D. When he was murdered
3. What is NOT stated in paragraph 2 about the broken pieces of glass?
A. They were found in Reibel's apartment. B. They had blood on them.
C. They had Reibel's fingerprints on them.
D. They had the criminal's fingerprints on them.
4. What is NOT mentioned in paragraph 2 about the criminal?
A. The police took him to jail.
B. He learned that he had left his fingerprints on the glass.
C. He said that he was guilty.
D. He broke the glass before he entered Reibel's apartment. Passage 2 Limestone Caves
Limestone caves can be spectacular structures filled with giant stalactites and
stalagmites. These caves are formed when rainwater, which is a weak acid, dissolves
calcite, or lime, out of limestone. Over time, the lime-laden water drips down into
cracks, enlarging them into caves. Some of the lime is then redeposited to form stalactites and stalagmites.
Stalactites, which grow down from cave ceilings, are formed in limestone caves when
groundwater containing dissolved lime drips from the roof of the cave and leaves
a thin deposit as it evaporates. Stalactites generally grow only a fraction of an inch
each year, but over time a considerable number may grow to be several yards long. In
cases where the supply of water is seasonal, they may actually have growth rings
resembling those on tree trunks that indicate how old the stalactites are.
Stalagmites are formed on the floor of a limestone cave where water containing
dissolved lime has dripped either from the cave ceiling or from a stalactite above.
They develop in the same way as stalactites, when water containing dissolved
limestone evaporates. In some limestone caves with mature limestone development, -164- Reading
stalactites and stalagmites grow together, creating limestone pillars that stretch from
the cave floor to the cave ceiling. -165- Reading
1. It is indicated in paragraph 1 that all of the following are part of the process of
forming limestone caves EXCEPT that _____.
A. rainwater dissolves lime from limestone
B. the lime-filled water seeps into breaks in the ground
C. the lime in the water evaporates
D. the cracks in the ground develop into caves
2. According to paragraph 2, it is NOT true that stalactites _____. A. enlarge cave ceilings
B. are found in limestone caves
C. grow in a downward direction D. grow quite slowly
3. It is NOT mentioned in paragraph 2 _____.
A. how long stalactites may grow
B. how the age of the stalactite is determined
C. what one of the effects of a limited water supply is
D. what causes stalactites to disappear
4. According to paragraph 3, stalagmites are NOT formed _____. A. on cave floors
B. from lime dissolved in water C. above stalactites
D. as water containing lime evaporates
5. It is NOT indicated in paragraph 3 that limestone pillars _____.
A. result when a stalactite and a stalagmite grow together
B. are attached to both the floor and the ceiling of a cave
C. are relatively aged limestone formations
D. are more durable than stalactites and stalagmites 4.4.3. INFERENCES
4.4.3.1. Sub-skill 5: Making Inferences from Stated Facts a. Tips
You may be asked to answer a multiple-choice question by drawing a conclusion
from a specific detail or details in the passage. This type of questions contains the
words implied, inferred, likely, or probably to let you know that the answer of the
question is not directly stated. Therefore, you need to draw a conclusion from the information of the passage. -166- Reading
The following chart outlines the key information that you should remember about questions testing inferences.
It is implied in paragraph X…
How to identify the It can be inferred from paragraph X… question
It is most likely that….
What probably happened …?
1. Choose a key word or phrase in the question. How to answer the
2. Scan the passage for the key word or phrase question
3. Carefully read the sentence that contains the key. Example 1
There are two types of wheat flour, and these two types of wheat flour are hard
and soft flour. If a kind of flour is hard flour, it is not called hard flour because the
flour feels hard. Instead, the hardness of the flour is based on how much protein the
flour has. Wheat flour that has a high percentage of protein is called hard wheat flour,
while wheat flour that has a low percentage of protein is called soft wheat flour.
1. It is implied in the passage that wheat _____.
A. may or may not have a lot of protein
B. always has a lot of protein
C. always has a low amount of protein D. never has any protein Example 2
The water cycle happens every day. There is a lot of water in the ocean. The sun
heats the water in the ocean. Some of it evaporates or turns into vapor. The vapor
moves upward. The cool air makes the vapor condense into a cloud. Clouds fall out of
the sky as rain. Some rain falls on the land or ocean. The rain on the land flows into
the ground. The water becomes part of the rivers and flows back into the ocean.
1. What probably occurs after the rain goes back to the ocean?
A. the water will flow into the rivers.
B. the water will go under the ground.
C. the water will be evaporated by the sun again.
D. the water will make the ocean bigger. -167- Reading b. Practice Passage 1
Aroma therapy uses scents from many plants to aid both the body and the mind.
For years, scientists have debated the scientific merit of aromatherapy. Recently, a
number of studies have shown that aromatherapy does have medical benefits.
Many of the substances – called essential oils – used to produce scents have been
shown in studies to affect the body. Perhaps the most surprising find was the ability of
a number of oils to fight viruses. The herpes simplex virus is common in humans and
can lead to infections, sores, and even some forms of cancer. A number of oils,
including sandalwood oil and peppermint oil, were found to be effective in fighting the
virus. Scientists believe that chemicals within the oils can destroy the cells of the virus
without harming healthy cells.
More commonly, essential oils are used to help those with emotional problems.
Scientists have begun research into aromatherapy’s uses in anxiety disorders. In one
study, mice were placed into high-stress situations. The scientists monitored their
anxiety levels. Scientists released lemon oil vapors and reviewed the mice’s anxiety
levels. They found that lemon oil reduced the anxiety levels of the mice. The oil
targets a specific area in the brain that is usually responsible for increased stress levels.
1. According to paragraph 1, which of the following can be inferred about aromatherapy’s history?
A. Some scientists in history have doubted its benefits.
B. It has been in use longer than traditional medicine.
C. It had not been researched until the 20th century.
D. Ancient societies widely used aromatherapy.
2. According to paragraph 2, what can be inferred about the herpes simplex virus?
A. It is a dangerous risk to most people’s health.
B. It is more harmful than once thought.
C. It does not affect people who use aromatherapy.
D. Scientists aren’t certain how essential oils affect it Passage 2 Machu Picchu
In 1911, when explorer Hiram Bingham was out hiking in some tall mountains in
South America, the Andes in Peru, he came across an amazing discovery. He came
across the ruins of an ancient city high in the Andes that no one had seen for some -168- Reading
time. This city was situated on a ridge between two mountains. The place was called
Machu Picchu, after one of the two mountains.
Machu Picchu was an ancient religious fortress-city. It contained many temples
and houses, and it was well fortified. It was surrounded by terraces for farming, and
there were aqueducts that supplied water to the city and the farming terraces. There
was a stone road through the Andes Mountains that connected Machu Picchu to other ancient cities.
Machu Picchu was originally a city built by the Incas. It is not known exactly
how old the city is, but it is at least 500 years old.
1. It can be inferred from paragraph 1 that, in 1911, Machu Picchu was _____. A. full of people B. recently built C. very modern D. deserted
2. It is implied in paragraph 2 that citizens in the ancient city of Machu Picchu ____________________.
A. interacted with people from other cities
B. carried water to the top of the mountain
C. ate only fish and hunted animals for food
D. lived outside without any shelter
3. Based on the information in paragraph 3, it can be concluded that Machu
Picchu may have been built _____ A. in 3000 B.C. B. in 500 A.D. C. in 1500 A.D. D. in 1850 A.D.
4.4.3.2. Sub-skill 6: Inferring rhetorical purpose a. Tips
You may be asked to explain why the author includes certain words, phrases, or
sentences in a passage. You must decide which of four multiple choice answers best
explains why the author choose to include bold information. Because you are asked
about the rhetorical purpose for a certain piece of information, you must look at how
the bold information fits into the overall presentation of ideas in the passage rather
than only look at the bold information itself.
Rhetorical purpose questions may ask why the author: • Introduces a topic • Supports an idea -169- Reading • Uses an example • Makes a comparison
• Mentions a specific piece of information
The following chart outlines the key information that you should remember about
questions testing rhetorical purpose.
Why does the author mention/ talk about…? How to identify
Why is X mentioned in the passage? the question
The author mentions X in order to…
The author uses X as an example of …
1. Study the bold information carefully.
2. Study the context around the bold information and ask
yourself how the highlighted information is related to the How to answer context around it. the question
3. Draw a conclusion about the purpose of the bold information.
4. Read the answer choices, eliminate any definitely wrong answers.
5. Choose the best answer from the remaining choices. Example 1
One more familiar use of electrochemistry that has made its way into the
mainstream is xerography, a process for replicating documents that is dependent on
photoconductive materials. A photoconductive material is an insulator in the dark but
becomes a conductor when exposed to bright light. When a photocopy is being made,
and image of a document is projected onto the surface of a rotating drum, and bright
light causes the photoconductive material on the surface of the drum to become conductive.
As a result of the conductivity, the drum loses its charge in the lighted areas, and
toner (small grains to which dry ink adheres) attaches itself only to the darker parts
of the image. The grains are then carried to a sheet of paper and fused with heat. When
a laser printer is used, the image is projected by means of a laser beam, which creates a
burgher light and a greater contrast between lighter and darker areas and therefore
results in a sharper printer images. -170- Reading
1. The author places the phrase ‘small grains to which dry ink adheres’ in parentheses to _____.
A. provide information that contradicts the previous statement
B. provide another example of conductivity
C. provide further detail information about toner
D. provide an alternate explanation for the effectiveness of toner Example 2
The Hudson River is one of the most significant rivers in America, though it is
not the largest. It was named after Henry Hudson, an English explorer who charted the
river for the Dutch East India Company. The Hudson goes for 315 miles, starting in
the Adirondack Mountains in New York State. It enters the ocean around New York City.
Washington Irving, an American writer, was one of the first to write about the
Hudson River. He lived in the Hudson River Valley and wrote about the unique
characteristics of this area. He developed the first kind of American folklore and told a
story of a man named Rip Van Winkle. Rip Van Winkle fell asleep one day while
climbing the mountains around the Hudson River. He did not wake up for twenty
years. When he finally woke up, America had become a free country.
1. Why does the author mention “Washington Irving” in paragraph 2?
A. to give an example of an American writer
B. to prove that many writers live in New York
C. to explain why Rip Van Winkle did not wake up
D. to show that writers wrote about the Hudson River b. Practice Passage 1
The Amazon River is, in reality, a river system rather than a single river. There
are more than 1,000 rivers in the Amazon River system, and some of them are very
long. Seventeen of the more than 1,000 rivers in the system are each more than 1,000 miles in length.
The Amazon River system is in South America, and it is enormous. Imagine,
this huge system drains water from half of the area of South America. It starts in the
mountain tops high in the Andes Mountains in the west. It then flows through South
America to the river mouth near the equator on the Atlantic coast of South America.
1. The author mentions ‘1,000 rivers’ in paragraph 1 in order to show _____.
A. how many rivers there are in the world
B. how big the Amazon River system is
C. that the Amazon River system is actually one river
D. why the Amazon River is actually not very long -171- Reading Passage 2
The Invention of the X-Ray
German physicist Wilhelm Röntgen (1845–1923) was experimenting with
electrical current when he discovered that a mysterious and invisible “ray” would pass
through his flesh but leave an outline of his bones on a screen coated with a metal
compound. In 1895, Röntgen made the first durable record of the internal parts of a
living human: an “X-ray” image (as it came to be called) of his wife’s hand. Scientists
around the world quickly began their own experiments with X-rays, and by 1900, X-
rays were widely used to detect a variety of injuries and diseases. In 1901, Röntgen
was awarded the first Nobel Prize for physics for his work in this field. The X-ray is a
form of high energy electromagnetic radiation with a short wavelength capable of
penetrating solids and ionizing gases. As they are used in medicine, X-rays are emitted
from an X-ray machine and directed toward a specially treated metallic plate placed behind the patient’s body.
The beam of radiation results in the darkening of the X-ray plate. X-rays are
slightly impeded by soft tissues, which show up as gray on the X-ray plate, whereas
hard tissues, such as bone, largely block the rays, producing a light-toned “shadow.”
Thus, X-rays are best used to visualize hard body structures such as teeth and bones.
Like many forms of high energy radiation, however, X-rays are capable of damaging
cells and initiating changes that can lead to cancer. This danger of excessive exposure
to X-rays was not fully appreciated for many years after their widespread use.
Why does the author say “mysterious and invisible ray”?
A. To prove that German physicist Wilhelm Röntgen discovered the ray
B. To show that the technology was not fully understood at the time of its discovery
C. To show that physicists were already aware of this technology at the time
D. To introduce a technology that remains a mystery today 4.4.4. OVERALL REVIEW
4.4.4.1. Sub-skill 7: Locating specific information a. Tips
You may be asked to determine where in the passage a piece of information is
found. This type of question is worded differently. On the test, there will be a multiple-
choice question that asks where certain information is found. The answer choices will
list possible locations for that information.
The following chart outlines the key information that you should remember when
you are trying to determine where in the passage something is found: How to identify Where in the passage...? -172- Reading the question Where to find the
The answer can be in any of the lines listed in the answers to answer the question.
1. Choose a key word or idea in the question. How to answer
2. Skim the appropriate part(s) of the passage looking for the the question key word or idea.
3. Choose the answer that contains the key word or ideal. Example 1 Line 1
Meteor Crater, a great crater approximately forty miles east of Flagstaff,
Arizona, is generally thought by scientists to have formed as a result of the
impact of a 60,000-ton meteor Line about 50,000 years ago. The meteor, made
of nickel and iron, disintegrated on impact and spread half a billion tons of rock
over the surface of the land. The massiveness of the meteor can only be 5
imagined from the mammoth size of the crater, which measures a mile in
diameter and three miles around the top. The rim of the crater rises more than
150 feet above the plain where the meteor impacted and is visible for more
than ten miles on a clear day.
Where in the passage does the author discuss the composition of the meteor? A. Lines 1-2 B. Lines 3-4 C. Lines 5-6 D. Lines 7-9 Example 2 Line 1
Beavers generally live in family clusters consisting of six to ten members. One
cluster would probably consist of two adults, one male and one female, and
four to eight young beavers, or kits. A female beaver gives birth each spring to
two to four babies at a time. These baby beavers live with their parents until
they are two years old. In the springtime of their second year they are forced 5
out of the family group to make room for the new babies. These two-year-old
beavers then proceed to start new family clusters of their own.
1. Where in the passage does the author give the name of a baby beaver? A. Line 1 B. Line 2 C. Line 3 D. Lines 5-6
2. Where in the passage does the author indicate why the young beavers must
leave their parents' home? A. Line 1 B. Line 2 C. Line 3 D. Lines 5-6 -173- Reading b. Practice Passage 1 Line 1
Chamber music received its name because it was originally intended to be
performed in small rooms in private homes rather than huge concert halls or
theaters. Today it has evolved into small ensemble music in which each
performer in the ensemble plays an individual part. 5
The compositions written for this type of performance can easily be classified
into three distinct period each with its style of music and instrumentation. In
the earliest period (1450-1650), the viol and other instrumental families
developed considerably, and instrumental music took its first steps toward
equal footing with vocal music. In the second period (1650-1750), trio sonatas 10
dominated. These ensemble compositions were often written for two violins
and a cello; the harpsichord was also featured in various compositions of this
period. In the modern period (after 1750), the preponderance of chamber music
was written for the string quartet, an ensemble composed of two violins, a viola, and a cello.
1. Where in the passage does the author discuss the modern definition of chamber music? A. Lines 3-4 B. Lines 5-6 C. Lines 8-9 D. Lines 9-11 Passage 2 Line 1
It is common practice to coat metals such as iron and steel with a protective
layer of zinc or an alloy made from zinc mixed with aluminum, cadmium, or
tin in a process known as "galvanization." The purpose of galvanization is to
prevent the corrosion of the iron or steel. 5
The most common method to galvanize metal is the hot-dip galvanizing
process. In this process, the iron or steel is dipped into a hot bath of a zinc alloy
to form a protective coating approximately .003 inches thick. Another method
of galvanizing that is not as common is the process known as electro
galvanizing; in this process the metal is placed in a solution composed of zinc 10
sulphate and water and is then charged electrically. This causes a thin layer of zinc to coat the metal. -174- Reading
Zinc is effective in galvanizing metals such as iron or steel in that zinc reacts
more easily with oxygen than iron does. If iron is unprotected, it reacts with the
oxygen in the air to form iron oxide, or rust, which leads to the corrosion of the 15
iron. If, however, the iron is coated with zinc, as it is in the galvanization
process, then it is the zinc rather than the iron which interacts with the oxygen
to form zinc oxide, and the iron is not subject to corrosion.
1. Where in the passage does the author list the components of a zinc alloy? A. Lines 2-3 B. Lines 4-6 C. Lines 9-10 D. Lines 11-12
2. Where in the passage does the author present the less routinely used process of galvanization? A. Lines 1-2 B. Line 4-6 C. Lines 7-10 D. Lines 12-13
4.4.4.2. Sub-skill 8: Inserting sentences into the passage a. Tips
You may be asked to determine where to insert a sentence into a passage. This type of
question asks you to decide where a sentence could be added to one of the paragraphs.
To answer this question, you should study the sentence to be inserted and then look at
the context before and after each insertion position. How to identify
Where the following sentence can be added to the … the question paragraph of the passage? Where to find the
The place where the sentence may be inserted are marked in answer the passage.
1. Look at the sentence given for any key words or ideas at the beginning or the end of the sentence. How to answer
2. Read the context before and after the insertion options for the question
any ideas that relate to the sentence to be inserted.
3. Choose the insertion option that is most related to the sentence to be inserted. Notes:
To answer this type of question, you need to understand the following three principles: -175- Reading
1. Ideas in the paragraph are written in a general → specific formula,
meaning that an idea is introduced with general details, and then more
specific details will follow. Therefore, if the prompt sentence is the type of
sentence containing specific details, then it must be inserted after the sentence
which is more general. Vice versa, if the prompt sentence is the type of
sentence containing general information, then it must be inserted in the place
before the paragraph starts to contain specific details.
2. Pronouns are often included in the prompt sentence. Therefore, when you
see a word like “they”, “these”, “those”, or “this”, look for the sentence
that contains the information that these pronouns refer to. Then, the prompt
sentence must be inserted after that sentence.
3. A transition word is often included in the prompt sentence. Transition
words at the beginning of the sentence could give you an idea about its
connection to the surrounding sentences. These would be words like
“however”, “and”, “so”, “but”, or “therefore”. Here’s your big clue: if the
transition words are “and”, “so”, “therefore”, or one similar to these, the
sentence before the prompt will share the same ideas and opinions with the
prompt sentence. If the transition words are “yet”, “but”, “however”, or a
different contrast word, then the sentence before the prompt will contradict the
ideas or opinions from the prompt sentence. Example 1 Popcorn
[1A] One method of popping corn involved skewering an ear of corn on a stick
and roasting it until the kernels popped off the ear. [1B] Corn was also popped by first
cutting the kernels off the cob, throwing them into a fire, and gathering them as they
popped out of the fire. [1C] In a final method for popping corn, sand and unpopped
kernels of corn were mixed together in a cooking pot and heated until the corn popped
to the surface of the sand in the pot. [1D]
[2A] This traditional Native American dish was quite a novelty to newcomers to
the Americas. [2B] Columbus and his sailors found natives in the West Indies wearing
popcorn necklaces, and explorer Hernando Cortés described the use of popcorn
amulets in the religious ceremonies of the Aztecs. [2C] According to legendary
descriptions of the celebratory meal, Quadequina, the brother of Chief Massasoit,
contributed several deerskin bags of popcorn to the celebration. [2D]
1. Where the following sentence can be added to the first paragraph of the passage?
Native Americans have been popping corn for at least 5,000 years, using a variety of different methods. -176- Reading A. [1A] B. [1B] C. [1C] D. [1D]
2. Where the following sentence can be added to the second paragraph of the passage?
A century after these early explorers, the Pilgrims at Plymouth may have been
introduced to popcorn at the first Thanksgiving dinner. A. [2A] B. [2B] C. [2C] D. [2D] Example 2
Many areas of the shallow sea bottom are covered with a lush growth of aquatic
flowering plants adapted to live submerged in seawater. [A]These plants are
collectively called seagrasses. [B] Seagrass beds are strongly influenced by several
physical factors. [C] The most significant is water motion: currents and waves.
[D]Since seagrass systems exist in both sheltered and relatively open areas, they are
subject to differing amounts of water motion.
Where the following sentence can be added to the passage?
Seagrasses grow together in dense patches, or beds, with as many as 4,000 blades per square meter. A. [A] B. [B] C. [C] D. [D] b. Practice Passage 1
[A]The age of rock art in Australia has been revised several times, with earlier
dates suggested recently after new discoveries. [B] Accurate scientific proof has dated
the first appearance of surface rock in Australia to approximately 30,000 to 50,000
years ago. [C]This lengthy and astounding history of rock art in Australia makes it the
oldest art tradition known today in the world. [D]
Where the following sentence can be added to the passage?
Thanks to radiocarbon dating and technological development in studying evidence,
researchers can now give a more precise age on this type of art. A. [A] B. [B] C. [C] -177- Reading D. [D] Passage 2
Our body weight is affected by a number of factors, including gene-environment
interactions, and the number of calories we consume versus the number of calories we
burn in daily activity. If our caloric intake exceeds our caloric use, our bodies store
excess energy in the form of fat. If we consume fewer calories than we burn off, then
stored fat will be converted to energy. [A] Our energy expenditure is obviously
affected by our levels of activity, but our body’s metabolic rate also comes into play.
[B] A person’s metabolic rate is the amount of energy that is expended in a given
period of time, and there is tremendous individual variability in our metabolic rates.
[C] People with high rates of metabolism are able to burn off calories more easily than
those with lower rates of metabolism. [D]
Where would the sentence best fit?
This variability in metabolic rate is due to a variety of factors including age, gender,
physical activity, hormone function, and muscle-to-fat ratio. A. [A] B. [B] C. [C] D. [D]
4.4.4.3. Sub-skill 9: Identifying main idea/topic a. Tips
You may be asked to choose a sentence that the overall topic is given. To answer
this type of question, you must be able to recognize the rhetorical pattern of the
Information in the passage (i.e. compare and contrast, cause and effect, argument
supported by reasons), including the major ideas and the critical supporting information. - What is the best title…?
- What would be the best/most suitable headline for the article? How to identify
- Which title best summarizes the main idea of the passage? the question - What title is best for…?
- What would be the best title for…?
- What is the … most/ mainly about?
The main idea or topic sentence is usually near the beginning/
the end of the passage, pointing out the author’s main idea of Where to find the
the whole passage. Sometimes, there can be exceptions, and in answer
this case you have to skim the passage to get the general idea of the author.
1. Read the first line of each paragraph. How to answer
2. Look for a common theme or idea in the first lines. the question
3. Pass your eyes quickly over the rest of the passage to check
that you have really found the topic sentence(s). -178- Reading
4. Eliminate any definitely wrong answers and choose the best
answer from the remaining choices. Example 1
Basketball was invented in 1891 by a physical education instructor in
Springfield, Massachusetts, by the name of James Naismith. Because of the terrible
weather in winter, his physical education students were indoors rather than outdoors.
They really did not like the idea of boring, repetitive exercises and preferred the
excitement and challenge of a game. Naismith figured out a team sport that could be
played indoors on a gymnasium floor, that involved a lot of running, that kept all team
members involved, and that did not allow the tackling and physical contact of American-style football.
What is the main idea of this passage? A. The life of James Naismith B. The history of sports
C. Physical education and exercise D. The origin of basketball Example 2
Excerpt's Introduction — The potato is a staple in many western diets and is one
of the most widely used vegetables in the world.
Excerpt's Conclusion — To this day, French fries made from Idaho potatoes are
the most popular side dish across North America.
What is the passage mainly about? A. The western diet B. American fried foods C. High-quality vegetables
D. The popularity of the potato Example 3
Many people think of heat and sand when imagining a desert, but surprisingly,
Antarctica is technically the largest desert on Earth. A desert is defined as a place that
gets an extremely low amount of rainfall. A land of cold and ice, Antarctica gets less
precipitation than any other area in the world. Totaling over thirteen million
square kilometers, the Antarctic desert is almost four million square kilometers larger
than the world-famous Sahara Desert.
Which title best summarizes the passage? -179- Reading A. Lands of heat and sand B. The earth’s many deserts
C. The South Pole and Antarctica
D. The vast desert of Antarctica Example 4
Tornadoes are extreme weather events found in nature and come in a variety of
shapes and sizes. Waterspouts are known to form over bodies of water, often in
tropical areas close to the equator. These tornadoes are connected to a large cumulus
or cumulonimbus cloud. They are shaped like funnels which appear as twisting pillars
of air. There are other better-known types of tornadoes such as the landspout and the mul-tiple-vortex tornadoes.
Which title best summarizes the main idea of the passage? A. Types of Tornadoes B. Landspout Tornadoes C. Multiple-Vortex Tornadoes D. Cumulus and Cumulonimbus b. Practice Passage 1
Fort Knox, Kentucky, is the site of a U.S. army post, but it is even more
renowned for the Fort Knox Bullion Depository, the massive vault that contains the
bulk of the U.S. government's gold deposits. Completed in 1936, the vault is housed in
a two-story building constructed of granite, Line steel, and concrete; the vault itself is
made of steel and concrete and has a door that weighs more than twenty tons.
Naturally, the most up-to-date security devices available are in place at Fort Knox, and
the army post nearby provides further protection.
1. Which of the following best describes the topic of the passage?
A. The city of Fort Knox, Kentucky
B. The federal gold depository
C. The U.S. army post at Fort Knox D. Gold bullion
2. Which of the following would be the best title for this passage? A. The Massive Concrete Vault B. Fort Knox Security
C. Where the United States Keeps Its Gold D. A Visit to Kentucky Passage 2 -180- Reading
Hurricanes generally occur in the North Atlantic from May through November,
with the peak of the hurricane season in September; only rarely will they occur from
December through April in that part of the ocean. The main reason for the occurrence
of hurricanes during this Line period is that the temperature on the water's surface is at
its warmest and the humidity of the air is at its highest.
Of the tropical storms that occur each year in the North Atlantic, only about five,
on the average, are powerful enough to be called hurricanes. To be classified as a
hurricane, a tropical storm must have winds reaching speeds of at least 117 kilometers
per hour, but the winds are often much stronger than that; the winds of intense
hurricanes can easily surpass 240 kilometers per hour.
1. The passage mainly discusses _____.
A. how many hurricanes occur each year B. the strength of hurricanes
C. the weather in the North Atlantic
D. hurricanes in one part of the world
2. The best title for this passage would be _____. A. The North Atlantic Ocean
B. Storms of the Northern Atlantic
C. Hurricanes: The Damage and Destruction
D. What Happens from May through November Passage 3
Common types of calendars can be based on the Sun or on the Moon. The solar
calendar is based on the solar year. Since the solar year is 365.2422 days long, solar
calendars consist of regular years of 365 days and have an extra day every fourth year,
or leap year, to make up for the additional fractional amount. In a solar calendar, the
waxing and waning of the moon can take place at various stages of each month.
The lunar calendar is synchronized to the lunar month rather than the solar year.
Since the lunar month is twenty-nine and a half days long, most lunar calendars have
alternating months of twenty-nine and thirty days. A twelve-month lunar year thus has
354 days, 11 days shorter than a solar year.
What is the main idea of the passage?
A. All calendars are the same.
B. The solar calendar is based on the Sun.
C. Different calendars have dissimilar bases.
D. The lunar month is twenty-nine and a half days long.
4.4.4.4. Sub-skill 10: Determining the tone, purpose or course -181- Reading a. Tips
- A question about the tone is asking if the author is showing any emotion in his
or her writing. The majority of the passages are factual passages presented without any
emotion; the tone of this type of passage could be simply informational, explanatory,
or factual. Sometimes the author shows some emotion, and you must be able to
recognize that emotion to answer a question about tone correctly. If the author is being
funny, then the tone might be humorous; if the author is making fun of something, the
tone might be sarcastic; if the author feels strongly that something is right or wrong,
the tone might be impassioned.
- A question about purpose is asking what the author is trying to do in the
passage. You can draw a conclusion about the author's purpose by referring to the
main idea and the organization of details in the passage.
- In the question about the course, you should draw a conclusion about the course
by referring to the topic of the passage and organization of details. How to identify the
What is the tone of the passage? question
What is the author's purpose in this passage?
In which course would this reading be assigned?
Where to find the answer tone
Look for clues throughout the passage that
show if the author is showing some emotion
rather than just presenting facts. purpose
Draw a conclusion about the purpose from
the main idea and supporting ideas. course
Draw a conclusion about the course from
the topic of the passage and the supporting ideas. How to answer the tone
1. Skim the passage looking for clues that question
the author is showing some emotion.
2. Choose the answer that identifies the emotion. purpose
1. Study the main idea in the topic sentence
and the details used to support the main idea.
2. Draw a conclusion about the purpose. course
1. Study the main idea in the topic sentence
and the details used to support the main idea.
2. Draw a conclusion about the course. Example 1 -182- Reading
Military awards have long been considered symbolic of royalty, and thus when
the United States was a young nation just finished with revolution and eager to
distance itself from anything tasting of monarchy, there was strong sentiment against
military decoration. For a century, from the end of the Revolutionary War until the
Civil War, the United States awarded no military honors. The institution of the Medal
of Honor in 1861 was a source of great discussion and concern. From the Civil War
until World War I, the Medal of Honor was the only military award given by the
United States government, and today it is awarded only in the most extreme cases of
heroism. Although the United States is still somewhat wary of granting military
awards, several awards have been instituted since World War I.
1. The tone of this passage is _____. A. angered B. humorous C. outraged D. informational
2. The author's purpose in this passage is to _____.
A. describe the history of military awards prior to the Civil War
B. demonstrate an effect of America's attitude toward royalty
C. give an opinion of military awards
D. outline various historical symbols of royalty
3. This passage would probably be assigned reading in a course on _____. A. military science B. psychology C. American history D. interior decoration Example 2
Truman Capote’s in Cold Blood (1966) is a well-known example of the
“nonfiction novel”, a popular type of writing based upon factual events in which the
author attempts to describe the underlying forces, thoughts, and emotions that lead to
actual events. In Capote’s book, the author describes a sadistic murder of a family on a
Kansas farm, often showing the point of view of the killers. To research the book,
Capote interviewed the murderers, and he maintains that his book presents a faithful
reconstruction of the incident.
1. The purpose of this passage is to _____.
A. Discuss an example of a particular literary genre.
B. Tell the story of In Cold Blood
C. Explain Truman Capote’s reasons for writing In Cold Blood -183- Reading
D. Describe how Truman Capote researched his nonfiction novel
2. Which of the following best describes the tone of the passage? A. Cold B. Sadistic C. Emotional D. Descriptive
3. This passage would probably be assigned reading in which of the following courses? A. Criminal Law B. American History C. Modern American Novels D. Literary Research b. Practice Passage 1
Up to now, confessions that have been obtained from defendants in a hypnotic
state have not been admitted into evidence by courts in the United States. Experts in
the field of hypnosis have found that such confessions are not completely reliable.
Subjects in a hypnotic state may Line confess to crimes they did not commit for one of
two reasons. Either they fantasize that they committed the crimes, or they believe that others want them to confess.
A landmark case concerning a confession obtained under hypnosis went all the
way to the U.S. Supreme Court. In the case of Layra v. Denno, a suspect was
hypnotized by a psychiatrist for the district attorney; in a posthypnotic state the suspect
signed three separate confessions to a murder. The Supreme Court ruled that the
confessions were invalid because the confessions had been the only evidence against him.
1. Which of the following best describes the author's purpose in this passage?
A. To explain the details of a specific court case
B. To demonstrate why confessions made under hypnosis are not reliable
C. To clarify the role of the Supreme Court in invalidating confessions from hypnotized subjects
D. To explain the legal status of hypnotically induced confessions
2. The tone of this passage could best be described as _____. A. outraged B. judicial C. hypnotic D. informative
3. This passage would probably be assigned reading in a course on _____. A. American law B. psychiatric healing C. parapsychology D. philosophy Passage 2 -184- Reading
The rate at which the deforestation of the world is proceeding is alarming. In
1950 approximately 25 percent of the Earth’s land surface had been covered with
forests and less than twenty-five years later the amount of forest land was reduced to
20 percent. This decrease from 25 to 20 percent from 1950 to 1973 represents an
astounding 20 million square kilometers of forests. Predictions are that an additional
20 million square kilometers of forest land will be lost by 2020.
The majority of deforestation is occurring in tropical forests in developing
countries, fueled by the developing countries’ need for increased agricultural land and
the desire on the part of developed countries to import wood and wood products. More
than 90 percent of the plywood used in the United States, for example, is imported
from developing countries with tropical rain forests. By the mid-1980s, solutions to
this expanding problem were being sought, in the form of attempts to establish an
international regulatory organization to oversee the use of tropical forests.
1. The author’s main purpose in this passage is _____.
A. to cite statistics about an improvement on the Earth’s land surface
B. to explain where deforestation is occurring
C. to make the reader aware of a worsening world problem
D. to blame developing countries for deforestation
2. Which of the following best describes the tone of the passage? A. concerned B. disinterested C. placid D. exaggerated
3. This passage would probably be assigned reading in which of the following courses? A. Geology B. Geography C. Geometry D. Marine Biology -185- Reading 4.5. PRACTICES
READING PART 1 - Question 1-10 Line Mary’s First Job 1
When I was just fifteen, my father purchased an old hostel in the country where
we lived and decided to turn it into a luxury hotel. At the early stages of the
hotel, he experimented with everything. None of us had ever worked in a hotel
before, but my dad had a vision of what guests wanted. His standards were 5
extremely high and he believed that to reach those standards the most important thing was work.
For a month that summer I worked as a waitress at breakfast and dinner. As
part of the job, I had to lay the tables in the dining room beforehand and clean
up afterwards. This gave me the middle of the day free for studying because 10
my school report predictably had not lived up to my father’s high expectations.
Like all the other waitresses, I was equipped with a neat uniform and told to
treat the guests as though they were special visitors in my own home. Although
I felt more like a stranger in theirs, I did not express my feelings. Instead I
concentrated on doing the job as well as, if not better than, the older girls. 15
In the kitchen I learned how to deal with Gordon, the chef, who I found rather
daunting. He had an impressive chef’s hat and a terrifying ability to lose his
temper and get violent for no clear reason. I avoided close contact with him
and always grabbed the dishes he gave me with a cold look on my face. Then,
as I walked from the kitchen to the dining room, my cold expression used to 20 change into a charming smile.
I found waiting at breakfast was more enjoyable than at dinner. The guests
came wandering into the dining room from seven-thirty onwards, staring with
pleasure at the view of the sea and the islands through the dining room
window. I always made sure that everyone got their order quickly and I 25
enjoyed getting on well with the people at each table.
In the evenings it was funny how differently people behaved; they talked with
louder, less friendly voices, and did not always return my smile. However, that
all changed when Dad created a special role for me which improved my status considerably. 30
I started by making simple cakes for guests’ picnics and soon progressed to
more elaborate cakes for afternoon teas. I found that recipes were easy to -186- Reading
follow and it was amusing to improvise. This led to a nightly event known as
Mary’s Sweet Trolley. I used to enter the dining room every evening pushing a
trolley carrying an extraordinary collection of puddings, cakes and other 35
desserts. Most of them were of my own invention, I had cooked them all
myself, and some were undeniably strange.
1. The word "it" in line 2 refers to _____. A. an old hostel B. the country C. a luxury hotel D. Mary’s first job
2. What did the people working at the hotel have in common?
A. They knew what the guests expected. B. They shared all the jobs. C. They lacked experience. D. They enjoyed the work.
3. Mary’s working day was organized in order to give her _____. A. time for her school work. B. working experience. C. time at midday to relax.
D. time to have lunch with her fat her.
4. In the second paragraph, what best paraphrases the sentence “my school report
predictably had not lived up to my fathers’ high expectations”
A. The school made a report about my expectations to my father.
B. My father has not satisfied with my results at school.
C. The report from school is highly predictable to my father.
D. My father expects to receive the school report soon.
5. What does the writer mean by “daunting” in line 16? A. disgusting B. frightening C. interesting D. strange
6. What did Mary do while she walked from the kitchen to the dining room?
A. She smiled at Gordon in a friendly way.
B. She avoided touching Gordon.
C. She checked the food Gordon gave her.
D. She started to look more friendly.
7. Why did Mary enjoy serving breakfasts more than dinners?
A. She enjoyed the view from the dining room while working.
B. She had a better relationship with the guests.
C. The guests were more punctual than at dinner.
D. She worked more efficiently at breakfast.
8. How did Mary’s father improve her position in the hotel?
A. He put her in charge of the restaurant.
B. He asked her to provide entertainment for the guests.
C. He made her responsible for part of dinner.
D. He gave her a special uniform. -187- Reading
9. What was special about the food on Mary’s Sweet Trolley?
A. Mary made it following traditional recipes.
B. Mary made the same food for picnics.
C. Mary and Gordon made it together.
D. Mary made most of it without following recipes.
10. What impression does Mary give of her job throughout the passage?
A. It brought her closer to her father.
B. It was sometimes uncomfortable. C. It was always enjoyable. D. It was quite easy to do.
READING PART 2 – Question 11-20 Line 1
Long before they can actually speak, babies pay special attention to the speech
they hear around them. Within the first month of their lives, babies’ responses
to the sound of the human voice will be different from their responses to other
sorts of auditory stimuli. They will stop crying when they hear a person 5
talking, but not if they hear a bell or the sound of a rattle. At first, he sounds
that an infant notices might be only those words that receive the heaviest
emphasis and that often occur at the ends of utterances. By the time they are six
or seven weeks old, babies can detect the difference between syllables
pronounced with rising and falling inflections. Very soon, these differences in 10
adult stress and intonation can influence babies’ emotional states and behavior.
Long before they develop actual language comprehension, babies can sense
when an adult is playful or angry, attempting to initiate or terminate new
behavior, and so on, merely on the basic of cues such as the rate, volume, and melody of adult speech. 15
Adults make it as easy as they can for babies to pick up a language by
exaggerating such cues. One researcher observed babies and their mothers in
six diverse cultures and found that, in all six languages, the mothers used
simplified syntax, short utterances and nonsense sounds, and transformed
certain sounds into baby talk. Other investigators have noted that when 20
mothers talk to babies who are only a few months old, they exaggerate the
pitch, loudness, and intensity of their words. They also exaggerate their facial
expressions, hold vowels longer, and emphasize certain words.
More significant for language development than their response to general
intonation is observation that tiny babies can make relatively fine distinctions 25
between speech sounds. In other words, babies enter the world with the ability -188- Reading
to make precisely those perceptual discriminations that are necessary if they
are to acquire aural language. Babies obviously derive pleasure from sound
input, too: even as young as nine months they will listen to song or stories,
although the words themselves are beyond their understanding. For babies, 30
language is a sensory-motor delight rather than the route to prosaic meaning that is often for adults.
11. Why does the author mention a bell and a rattle in the first paragraph?
A. To contrast the reactions of babies to human and nonhuman sounds
B. To give examples of sounds that will cause a baby to cry
C. To explain how babies distinguish between different nonhuman sounds
D. To give examples of typical toys that babies do not like
12. Why does the author mention syllables pronounced with rising and falling
inflections in paragraph 1?
A. To demonstrate how difficult it is for babies to interpret emotions
B. To illustrate that a six-week-old baby can already distinguish some language differences
C. To provide an example of ways adults speak to babies
D. To give a reason for babies’ difficulty in distinguishing one adult from another
13. The word “diverse” in line 18 is closest in meaning to _____. A. surrounding B. divided C. different D. stimulating
14. The word “noted” in line 19 is closest in meaning to _____. A. theorized B. requested C. disagreed D. observed
15. The word “They” in line 21 refers to _____. A. mothers B. investigators C. babies D. words
16. The passage mentions all of the following as ways adults modify their speech
when talking to babies EXCEPT _____.
A. giving all words equal emphasis
B. speaking with shorter sentences
C. speaking with more loudly than normal D. using meaningless sounds
17. The word “emphasize” in line 22 is closest in meaning to _____. A. stress B. repeat C. explain D. leave out
18. Which of the following can be inferred about the findings described in paragraph 2?
A. Babies who are exposed to more than one language can speak earlier than
babies exposed to a single language.
B. Mothers from different cultures speak to their babies in similar ways.
C. Babies ignore facial expressions in comprehending aural language. -189- Reading
D. The mothers observed by the researchers were consciously teaching their babies to speak.
19. What point does the author make to illustrate that babies are born with the
ability to acquire language?
A. Babies begin to understand words in songs.
B. Babies exaggerate their own sounds and expressions.
C. Babies are more sensitive to sounds than are adults.
D. Babies notice even minor differences between speech sounds.
20. According to the author, why do babies listen to songs and stories, even
though they don’t understand?
A. They understand the rhythm. B. They enjoy the sound.
C. They can remember them easily.
D. They focus on the meaning of their parents’ words.
READING PART 3 – Question 21-30 Line 1
Light pollution is an excessive, wasteful and obtrusive light resulting from
human activities. It is mostly seen in densely-populated cities and
industrialized areas. The pollution includes the light used in factories and office
buildings, commercial properties, streetlights, illuminated sporting venues and 5
infrastructure. As beneficial as the invention of light and the development of
industrialization have been to humankind, their secondary effect, light
pollution, is adverse in multiple ways.
The two main types of light pollution recognized by environmentalists are
light that intrudes on a natural setting and the use of a disproportionate 10
amount of light indoors. Light pollution may also be defined according to
very specific categories into light trespass, glare and clutter. Light trespass
happens when unwanted light enters someone’s property. For example, a
neighbor turns on a bright light in his yard and this light enters a neighboring
bedroom window, causing sleep deprivation or obstructing an evening view. 15
Glare is the extreme contrast between light and dark areas such that the human
eye has difficulty in adjusting. Glare is not merely annoying, but bright lights
on dark roads can obscure night vision for motorists temporarily, with
accidents sometimes being the result. Clutter is the presence of numerous
groups of lights. It may produce confusion and distract viewers. Badly 20
designed street lights and neon advertising signs come under this category.
Even a small amount of light pollution can have a negative influence on its -190- Reading
surroundings. For the novice astronomer, a little light can make it difficult to
observe the night sky; this is the reason observatories are located in areas
where light emissions are forbidden. For the human body, excessive light is 25
detrimental. Ailments such as headaches, fatigue, stress, high blood pressure
and anxiety are common to those who are constantly exposed to light. The
effects of light pollution on animals are just as devastating. Birds that migrate
to the south for the winter are disoriented by lights on tall buildings, and they
are sometimes attracted to these lights: millions die when they collide with 30
these buildings. Zooplankton is unable to rise to the surface of a water body to
eat algae because of bright light; the algae blooms overgrow, killing off other
plants and destroying the water quality. The circadian rhythm of reptiles,
insects and other animals is affected when light keeps them awake.
Although the United States government is aware of the problem, it has been a
challenge to draw up and enforce lighting regulations for the entire country. 35
Some cities have formulated their own standards and solutions regarding
outdoor lighting, but on the whole, the same standards cannot be administered
in every city. Some solutions include minimizing the use of lights, using timers
to turn lights off automatically, utilizing the most pertinent types of light,
redesigning lighting plans and using sodium light which emits a single 40
wavelength of light that is easier to filter.
21. The word “obtrusive” in line 1 is closest in meaning to _____. A. devastating B. extractive C. conspicuous D. inaccurate
22. Which of the following is mentioned about light in paragraph 1?
A. It is most harmful in heavily-populated cities.
B. It has benefited humans considerably.
C. Its greatest convenience has been to industry.
D. It is distracting when it is bright.
23. The word “their” in line 6 refers to _____. A. Human activities
B. Densely-populated cities and industrialized areas C. Multiple ways
D. Light invention and industrialization
24. Which of the sentences below best expresses the essential information on the
highlighted sentence in the passage?
Incorrect answer choices change the meaning in important ways or leave out
essential information.
A. There is a disproportionate amount of light in cities, with the indoors having more light than the outdoors.
B. There are two essential forms of light pollution: one invades nature and the
other is an excessive quantity within a building.
C. The excessive amount of light in a natural surrounding is the worst form of light pollution. -191- Reading
D. The most destructive forms of light pollution are those that affect organisms both indoors and outdoors.
25. Why does the author mention a “neighbor” in line 12?
A. To illustrate how light can be undesired
B. To explain the different degrees of brightness
C. To describe the effects of bright light at night
D. To provide evidence that not everyone shuns light during sleep
26. The word “they” in line 28 refers to _____. A. high buildings B. animals
C. migratory birds D. reptiles
27. The word “millions” in line 29 refers to _____. A. lights B. buildings C. animals D. birds
28. According to paragraph 4, certain cities in the United States cope with light pollution by _____.
A. Following government standards
B. Developing their own solutions
C. Enforcing city-wide regulations D. Keeping lights turned off
29. The word “pertinent” in line 39 could best be replaced by _____. A. sufficient B. prosperous C. appropriate D. unanimous
30. What is the passage mainly about?
A. Main types of light pollution.
B. An injurious phenomenon known as light pollution C. Causes of light pollution.
D. Consequences of light pollutions.
READING PART 4 – Question 31 – 40 Line 1
Starting time the African continent is home to some of the poorest countries on
earth, where people struggle to feed their families on less than $2.00 a day.
Nevertheless, Africa is also the world’s fastest growing market for cell phones.
Cell phones have brought twenty-first century technology to villages where 5
people light their huts with candles and walk hours to find drinking water.
Some experts think cell phones will improve life for the 680 million African
more than any other invention of our time. Why are cell phones spreading so rapidly in Africa?
One reason is simply that other forms of communication are difficult. The
roads are terrible in many countries, making travel lengthy and expressive. 10
Regular phones require lines to be laid across Africa’s vast jungles and
desserts. Cell phones, however, send their signals from towers, which can
easily be constructed by hand, sometimes out of leftover pieces of metal.
Furthermore, with the difficult economic situation in many African countries, -192- Reading
cell phones can be extremely useful. Many Africans have had to move far from 15
their home villages to look for work. With a cell phone, they can call home
regularly and keep in touch or even send money. It is also possible in some
countries to make purchases or bank deposits with cell phones. People who run
small business can use the phones to send in orders or keep in touch with
customers. Others can make money selling phone time to those who don’t have 20 a cell phone of their own.
Recent studies have shown that where cell phone use has increased in Africa,
the economy has been strengthened and the people are better off. In Uganda,
for example, a charity group has started a new program with Uganda’s largest
cell phone company. The program, called villagePhone, helps village women 25
get started as phone owners. The women borrow small amounts of money from
banks connected to villagePhone and then use their loan money to buy a phone
and some calling minutes. Then they can sell phone time in the village to
people without phones. In very little time, these women are usually able to
repay the money they have borrowed. [A] One such woman named Fatima 30
had a small shop in her Ugandan village where she sold household goods and
food to support her four children. In the past, Fatima rarely had enough money
to buy things to sell in her store and so she made very little money from her
business. [B] However, she realized that there was a need for a telephone in her
village, since the closest phone was 6.7 miles (4 km) away. She bought phone 35
with a loan from villagePhone and ran it off an automobile battery. Since
starting her villagePhone business, Fatima’s income has grown. What’s more,
her store is now a center of village life. Fatima’s story is like many throughout
Uganda. [C] And for each woman with a phone, a whole village has access to
new economic possibilities. A similar program has started in neighboring 40
Uganda. Soon women there will be using cell phones to raise their income
level and improve their lives. [D]
31. What can be inferred about the life of African countries? A. They are very poor.
B. They are agriculture-based
C. They are technology-oriented. D. They place a great emphasis on technology.
32. Which of the following is NOT true about the African continent? A. People there live in huts.
B. Africans walk long hours to find water.
C. Africa offers a large market for mobile phones.
D. African is fighting against the popularity of mobile phones.
33. What is the main reason for the popularity of mobile phones in Africa?
A. They are convenient for communication. B. They are cheap. -193- Reading
C. They provide communication.
D. They are easy to carry around.
34. For which of the following are mobile phones NOT often used by Africans working far from home? A. calling home
B. getting in touch with family C. sending money to family D. renting phones to others
35. What can be inferred about the use of mobile phones in the life of Africans?
A. Cell phones cost African a lot.
B. The economy is getting worse with the increase of cellphone use.
C. Africans become stronger together with the use of cellphones.
D. The increase of mobile phone use helps Africans have a better life.
36. The word “better off” in line 23 is closest in meaning to A. healthy B. affluent C. greedy D. ambitious
37. What do women do with the money they borrow from the bank?
A. buying a phone and using it to find a job
B. buying a phone and selling call time C. opening a hone shop
D. going to a city to find a job
38. Which of the following best summarizes the highlighted sentence in the final paragraph?
A. Women can often pay back the loan in a very short time.
B. Women have a little time to pay back the money they borrowed.
C. The money they borrowed must be returned quickly.
D. The loan can be paid little by little.
39. What is NOT true about Fatima?
A. She benefited from villagePhone. B. She lives in a village. C. She has 4 children. D. She bought an automobile.
40. Where does the following sentence best fit?
Her villagePhone business is one of about 2,000 such success stories, with more
women joining every day. A. [A] B. [B] C. [C] D. [D] -194- Reading 4.6. TEST PRACTICES TEST 1
Directions: In this section of the test, you will read FOUR different passages, each
followed by 10 questions about it. For questions 1-40, you are to choose the best
answer A, B, C or D, to each question. Then, on your answer sheet, find the number of
the question and fill in the space that corresponds to the letter of the answer you have
chosen. Answer all questions following a passage on the basis of what is stated or implied in that passage.
PASSAGE 1 - Questions 1-10 Line SAVING LANGUAGES 1
Five hundred years ago, Europeans arrived on a new continent. They brought
new cultures and languages to this place which they called America. However,
there were already people living there who had their own cultures and
languages. And so a terrible part of history began. 5
As more Europeans arrived, there was a fight for the land with the native
American Indians. By the end of the nineteenth century, the Indian tribes were
moved to reservations. A lot of their children were taken away to boarding
schools and these children were taught to speak English. By the end of the
twentieth century more than half of the Native Americans in the US were 10
living in cities. They gave up speaking their old tribal language and only used
English. As a result, many Native American languages disappeared and with them their culture.
Some American Indian languages are still used today but they are usually
spoken by the older members of the tribes who still live on the reservations. In 15
North America there are 150–170 languages that have at least one speaker and
many of these languages have under a hundred speakers.
One ancient language which is spoken by the Northern Paiute tribe has more
than two hundred speakers. This means when the elders of the tribe get
together, they still speak it. But for most of the younger members of the tribe, 20
the everyday language is English.
But the good news is that some of these people are keeping their culture and
language alive. They are also receiving help from the National Geographic
Society’s Enduring Voices Project. [A] The aim of the project is to help
languages around the world which are dying out. Linguists and experts meet -195- Reading 25
these ‘last speakers’. [B] The team interview them and they are recorded with
video, pictures and audio. They also tell old stories which are written down in
English so people can learn more about the culture.
[C] The next stage is to pass on the language to the next generation. Some
children pick up some of the language from their parents or grandparents but 30
many tribes also offer courses in the language. [D] The Salish tribe is an
excellent example of how schools can help. The tribe lives in the Flathead
Reservation in Montana. Their language is currently spoken by about 50 people
who are aged over 75 years. No one under 50 speaks the language. So now, the
local people have set up a school. It has 30 students aged two to twelve during 35
the day and there are also courses for adults in the evening. It is schools and
projects like these which – hopefully – might save languages for the future.
1. What is true about the new continent?
A. It had a long terrible history before the Europeans came.
B. It used to be called America by the first Europeans.
C. European people had been living there for long.
D. Native people there spoke different languages.
2. What happened to the native Americans before the 20th century?
A. Their land was seized by the Europeans.
B. Their children were taken away from schools.
C. All of them were taught to speak English
D. Their cultures and languages were reserved.
3. What is NOT true about the native Americans in the 20th century? A. Their culture disappeared. B. They spoke merely English.
C. Nearly 50% of them lived in cities.
D. They no longer used their languages.
4. The word ‘They’ in line 10 refers to_______. A. reservations B. these children C. cities D. the Native Americans
5. What do the numbers 150-170 refer to?
A. The number of American Indian languages
B. The number of languages in North America.
C. The number of native American speakers.
D. The number of native Northern Americans. -196- Reading
6. What is most likely the population of the Northern Paiute tribe? A. 195 B. 200 C. 230 D. 298
7. What is the National Geographic Society’s Enduring Voices Project doing to
help preserve the native culture?
A. Translate their stories in English
B. Tell stories about them to the world
C. Give lessons about their native culture
D. Videotape and take photos of the people
8. In which of the indicated spaces does the sentence “Recording the language and
culture is only part of the project” most fit? A. [A] B. [B] C. [C] D. [D]
9. Which of the following statements is NOT true about the Salish tribe?
A. Only fifty of them speak their own native language.
B. They have set up 30 schools to teach the native language.
C. They live in the Flathead Reservation in Montana.
D. Their school offers courses for adults in the evening.
10. How many Salish speakers are there in the world now? A. approximately 50 B. 30 C. approximately 75 D. none
PASSAGE 2 - Questions 11-20 Line 1
Before the mid-nineteenth century, people in the United States ate most foods
only in season. Drying, smoking, and salting could preserve meat for a short
time, but the availability of fresh meat, like that of fresh milk, was very
limited; there was no way to prevent spoilage. But in 1810 a French inventor 5
named Nicolas Appert developed the cooking-and-sealing process of canning.
And in the 1850's an American named Gail Borden developed a means of
condensing and preserving milk. Canned goods and condensed milk became
more common during the 1860's, but supplies remained low because cans had
to be made by hand. By 1880, however, inventors had fashioned stamping and 10
soldering machines that mass-produced cans from tinplate. Suddenly all kinds
of food could be preserved and bought at all times of the year.
Other trends and inventions had also helped make it possible for Americans to
vary their daily diets. Growing urban populations created demand that
encouraged fruit and vegetable farmers to raise more produce. Railroad 15
refrigerator cars enabled growers and meat packers to ship perishables great
distances and to preserve them for longer periods. Thus, by the 1890's,
northern city dwellers could enjoy southern and western strawberries, grapes,
and tomatoes, previously available for a month at most, for up to six months of -197- Reading
the year. In addition, increased use of iceboxes enabled families to store 20
perishables. An easy means of producing ice commercially had been invented
in the 1870's, and by 1900 the nation had more than two thousand commercial
ice plants, most of which made home deliveries. The icebox became
a fixture in most homes and remained so until the mechanized refrigerator
replaced it in the 1920's and 1930's. 25
Almost everyone now had a more diversified diet. Some people continued to
eat mainly foods that were heavy in starches or carbohydrates, and not
everyone could afford meat. Nevertheless, many families could take advantage
of previously unavailable fruits, vegetables, and dairy products to achieve more varied fare.
11. What does the passage mainly discuss? A. Causes of food spoilage
B. Inventions that led to changes in the American diet
C. Commercial production of ice
D. Population movements in the nineteenth century
12. The phrase “in season” in line 2 refers to__________. A. a kind of weather B. a particular time of year C. an official schedule D. a method of flavoring food
13. The word “prevent” in line 4 is closest in meaning to________. A. estimate B. avoid C. correct D. confine
14. During the 1860's, canned food products were ________. A. unavailable in rural areas
B. shipped in refrigerator cars
C. available in limited quantities
D. a staple part of the American diet
15. It can be inferred that railroad refrigerator cars came into use________. A. before 1860 B. before 1890 C. after 1900 D. after 1920
16. The word “them” in line 16 refers to________. A. refrigerator cars B. perishables C. growers D. distances
17. The word “fixture” in line 23 is closest in meaning to ________. A. luxury item B. substance C. commonplace object D. mechanical device
18. The author implies that in the 1920's and 1930's home deliveries of ice ______. A. decreased in number
B. were on an irregular schedule C. increased in cost
D. occurred only in the summer -198- Reading
19. Which of the following types of food preservation was NOT mentioned in the passage? A. Drying B. Canning C. Cold storage D. Chemical additives
20. Which of the following statements is supported by the passage?
A. Tin cans and iceboxes helped to make many foods more widely available.
B. Commercial ice factories were developed by railroad owners.
C. Most farmers in the United States raised only fruits and vegetables.
D. People who lived in cities demanded home delivery of foods.
PASSAGE 3 - Questions 21-30 Line 1
In the United States in the early 1800's, individual state governments had
more effect on the economy than did the federal government. States chartered
manufacturing, banking, mining, and transportation firms and participated in
the construction of various internal improvements such as canals, turnpikes, 5 and railroads. The states encouraged internal improvements in
two distinct ways; first, by actually establishing state companies to build such
improvement; second, by providing part of the capital for mixed public-private
companies setting out to make a profit.
In the early nineteenth century, state governments also engaged in a 10
surprisingly large amount of direct regulatory activity, including extensive
licensing and inspection programs. Licensing targets reflected both similarities
in and differences between the economy of the nineteenth century and that of
today: in the nineteenth century, state regulation through licensing fell
especially on peddlers, innkeepers, and retail merchants of various kinds. The 15
perishable commodities of trade generally came under state inspection, and
such important frontier staples as lumber and gunpowder were also subject to
state control. Finally, state governments experimented with direct labor and
business regulation designed to help the individual laborer or consumer,
including setting maximum limits on hours of work and restrictions on price- 20 fixing by businesses.
Although the states dominated economic activity during this period, the
federal government was not inactive. Its goals were the facilitation of western
settlement and the development of native industries. Toward these ends the
federal government pursued several courses of action. It established a national -199- Reading 25
bank to stabilize banking activities in the country and, in part, to provide a
supply of relatively easy money to the frontier, where it was greatly needed for
settlement. It permitted access to public western lands on increasingly easy
terms, culminating in the Homestead Act of 1862, by which title to land could
be claimed on the basis of residence alone. Finally, it set up a system of tariffs 30
that was basically protectionist in effect, although maneuvering for position by
various regional interests produced frequent changes in tariff rates throughout the nineteenth century.
21. What does the passage mainly discuss?
A. States' rights versus federal rights
B. The participation of state governments in railroad, canal, and turnpike construction
C. The roles of state and federal governments in the economy of the nineteenth century
D. Regulatory activity by state governments
22. The word “effect” in line 2 is closest in meaning to________. A. value B. argument C. influence D. restraint
23. All of the following are mentioned in the passage as areas that involved state
governments in the nineteenth century EXCEPT_____________. A. mining B. banking C. manufacturing D. higher education
24. The word “distinct” in line 6 is closest in meaning to________. A. separate B. innovative C. alarming D. provocative
25. It can be inferred from the first paragraph that in the nineteenth century
canals and railroads were_________.
A. built with money that came from the federal government
B. much more expensive to build than they had been previously.
C. built predominantly in the western part of the country.
D. sometimes built in part by state companies.
26. The regulatory activities of state governments included all of the following EXCEPT _____________.
A. licensing of retail merchants.
B. inspecting materials used in turnpike maintenance.
C. imposing limits on price-fixing. D. control of lumber.
27. The word “setting” in line 18 is closest in meaning to__________. A. discussing B. analyzing C. establishing D. avoiding
28. The word “ends” in line 22 is closest in meaning to__________. A. benefits B. decisions C. services D. goals -200- Reading
29. According to the passage, which of the following is true of the Homestead Act of 1862?
A. It made it increasingly possible for settlers to obtain land in the West.
B. It was a law first passed by state governments in the West
C. It increased the money supply in the West.
D. It established tariffs in a number of regions.
30. Which of the following activities was the responsibility of the federal
government in the nineteenth century?
A. Control of the manufacture of gunpowder
B. Determining the conditions under which individuals worked
C. Regulation of the supply of money
D. Inspection of new homes built on western lands
PASSAGE 4 - Questions 31-40 Line 1
Galaxies are the major building blocks of the universe. A galaxy is a giant
family of many millions of stars, and it is held together by its own gravitational
field. Most of the material universe is organized into galaxies of stars, together with gas and dust. 5
There are three main types of galaxy: spiral, elliptical, and irregular. The Milky
Way is a spiral galaxy: a flattish disc of stars with two spiral arms emerging
from its central nucleus. About one-quarter of all galaxies have this shape.
Spiral galaxies are well supplied with the interstellar gas in which new stars
form; as the rotating spiral pattern sweeps around the galaxy it compresses gas 10
and dust, triggering the formation of bright young stars in its arms. The
elliptical galaxies have a symmetrical elliptical or spheroidal shape with no
obvious structure. Most of their member stars are very old and since ellipticals
are devoid of interstellar gas, no new stars are forming in them. The biggest
and brightest galaxies in the universe are ellipticals with masses of about 1013 15
times that of the Sun; these giants may frequently be sources of strong radio
emission, in which case they are called radio galaxies. About two-thirds of all
galaxies are elliptical. Irregular galaxies comprise about one-tenth of all
galaxies and they come in many subclasses.
Measurement in space is quite different from measurement on Earth. Some 20
terrestrial distances can be expressed as intervals of time: the time to fly from
one continent to another or the time it takes to drive to work, for example. By
comparison with these familiar yardsticks, the distances to the galaxies are
incomprehensibly large, but they too are made more manageable by using a
time calibration, in this case the distance that light travels in one year. On such -201- Reading 25
a scale the nearest giant spiral galaxy, the Andromeda galaxy, is two million
light years away. The most distant luminous objects seen by telescopes are
probably ten thousand million light years away. Their light was already
halfway here before the Earth even formed. The light from the nearby Virgo
galaxy set out when reptiles still dominated the animal world.
31. The world "major" in paragraph 1 is closest in meaning to__________. A. intense B. principal C. huge D. unique
32. What does the second paragraph mainly discuss? A. The Milky Way
B. Major categories of galaxies
C. How elliptical galaxies are formed
D. Difference between irregular and spiral galaxies
33. The word "which" in paragraph 2 refers to__________. A. dust B. gas C. pattern D. galaxy
34. According to the passage, new stars are formed in spiral galaxies due to_____. A. an explosion of gas B. strong radio emissions C. the combining of old stars
D. the compression of gas and dust
35. The word "symmetrical" in paragraph 2 is closest in meaning to__________. A. proportionally balanced B. commonly seen C. typical large D. steadily growing
36. According to the passage, which of the following is NOT true of elliptical galaxies?
A. They are the largest galaxies.
B. They contain a high amount of interstellar gas.
C. They mostly contain old stars
D. They have a spherical shape
37. Which of the following characteristics of radio galaxies is mentioned in the passage?
A. They are a type of elliptical galaxy.
B. They are usually too small to be seen with a telescope
C. They are closely related to irregular galaxies.
D. They are not as bright as spiral galaxies.
38. What percentage of galaxies are irregular? A. 10% B. 25% C. 50% D. 75%
39. The word "they" in paragraph 3 refers to__________. A. intervals B. yardsticks C. distances D. galaxies -202- Reading
40. Why does the author mention the Virgo galaxy and the Andromeda galaxy in the third paragraph?
A. To describe the effect that distance has on visibility
B. To compare the ages of two relatively young galaxies
C. To emphasize the vast distances of the galaxies from Earth
D. To explain why certain galaxies cannot be seen by a telescope -203- Reading TEST 2
Directions: In this section you will read FOUR different passages. Each one is
followed by 10 questions about it. For questions 1-40, you are to choose the best
answer A, B, C or D, to each question. Then, on your answer sheet, find the number of
the question and fill in the space that corresponds to the letter of the answer you have
chosen. Answer all questions following a passage on the basis of what is stated or implied in that passage.
You have 60 minutes to answer all the questions, including the time to transfer your answers to the answer sheet.
PASSAGE 1 - Questions 1-10 Line 1
A new study, conducted by scientists from Oxford University, the Chinese
Academy of Medical Sciences and the Chinese Center for Disease Control, has
warned that a third of all men currently under the age of 20 in China will
eventually die prematurely if they do not give up smoking. 5
The research, published in The Lancet medical journal, says two-thirds of men
in China now start to smoke before 20. Around half of those men will die from the habit, it concludes.
ln 2010, around one million people in China died from tobacco usage. But
researchers say that if current trends continue, that will double to two million 10
people - mostly men - dying every year by 2030, making it a "growing epidemic of premature death".
But co-author Richard Peto said there was hope -if people can be persuaded to
quit. "The key to avoid this huge wave of deaths is cessation, and if you are a
young man, don't start," he said. 15
In many parts of China, meals often fit a comfortable pattern. After putting
down their chopsticks, men commonly push their chairs back from the table
and light cigarettes. No wonder China has struggled to impose a smoking ban
in public places. Here, relationships are often built amid clouds of smoke.
Expensive brands of cigarettes, often decorated with gold detailing on the 20
cartons, are given as gifts. And ordinary brands are affordable to all but the
very poor, costing just 2.5 yuan ($0.4; £0.25) a pack.
In a country where smoking is so ingrained in daily life, few understand the -204- Reading
harmful effects of tobacco use. According to the World Health Organization
(WHO), only 25% of Chinese adults can list the specific health hazards of
smoking, from lung cancer to heart disease. 25
Perhaps it should come as no surprise, then, that only 10% of Chinese smokers
quit by choice. Instead, most are forced to give up their cigarettes because they're too sick to continue.
While smoking rates have fallen in developed countries - to less than one in
five in the US - they have risen in China, as cigarettes have become more 30
available and consumers richer.
Authorities have shown concern over the rise, with Beijing even introducing a
public smoking ban. But efforts have been hampered by the habit's popularity,
and its usefulness as a source of tax - the government collects about 428 billion
yuan (£44billion, $67billion) in tobacco taxes each year. Globally, tobacco 35
kills up to half of its users, according to the World Health Organization.
1. How many Chinese men start to smoke before the age of 20? A. one-third B. two-thirds C. half D. all of them
2. What does the word "those men" in line 6 refer to?
A. Men who smoke under the age of 20
B. Men who smoke above the age of 20 C. Men who give up smoking D. Men who smoke in public
3. By 2030, how many men in China may die from smoking every year? A. one million B. two million C. three million D. four million
4. In many areas of China, when do men usually smoke? A. Before a meal B. After a meal C. Before they go to sleep D. When they get up
5. According to WHO, only ________ of Chinese adults can list bad effects of smoking. A. one-third B. one-fourth C. one-fifth D. a half
6. The word "Beijing" in line 32 refers to ________. A. China B. The city of Beijing C. The Chinese Government D. People who live in Beijing
7. What is Richard Peto's attitude toward smoking in China?
A. He doesn't believe that people will give up smoking
B. He is disappointed with the Chinese government.
C. He thinks that people possibly stop smoking if they see reasons.
D. He is sure about the rise of future deaths in China. -205- Reading
8. Which of the following words does the word "hamper" in line 33 have closest meaning to? A. basket B. assist C. prohibit D. restrict
9. What is the writer's purpose?
A. To argue over smoking policy in China
B. To support smoking in China
C. To warn and prevent smoking in China
D. To report the result of a research paper
10. What does the writer imply about Chinese government?
A. They do not want to stop people from smoking
B. They have tried to stop people from smoking in public but with little success.
C. They have tried to close tobacco companies.
D. They do not care about smoking.
PASSAGE 2 - Questions 11-20 Line 1
The evidence that humans are causing global warming is strong, but the
question of what to do about it remains controversial. Economics, sociology,
and politics are all important factors in planning for the future.
Even if we stopped emitting greenhouse gases (GHGs) today, the Earth would
still warm by another degree Fahrenheit or so. But what we do from today 5
forward makes a big difference. Depending on our choices, scientists predict
that the Earth could eventually warm by as little as 2.5 degrees or as much as 10 degrees Fahrenheit.
A commonly cited goal is to stabilize GHG concentrations around 45O~55O
parts per million (ppm), or about twice pre-industrial levels. This is the point at 10
which many believe the most damaging impacts of climate change can be
avoided. Current concentrations are about 380 ppm, which means there isn't
much time to lose. According to the IPCC, we'd have to reduce GHG emissions
by 50% to 80% of what they're on track to be in the next century to reach this level. Is this possible? 15
Many people and governments are already working hard to cut greenhouse
gases, and everyone can help. Researchers Stephen Pacala and Robert Socolow
at Princeton University have suggested one approach that they call
"stabilization wedges.". This means reducing GHG emissions from a variety of
sources with technologies available in the next few decades, rather than relying
on an enormous change in a single area. They suggest 7 wedges that could each 20
reduce emissions, and all of them together could hold emissions at -206- Reading
approximately current levels for the next 50 years, putting us on a potential
path to stabilize around 500 ppm.
There are many possible wedges, including improvements to energy efficiency
and vehicle fuel economy (so less energy has to be produced), and increases in 25
wind and solar power, hydrogen - produced from renewable sources, biofuels
(produced from crops), natural gas, and nuclear power. There is also the
potential to capture the carbon dioxide emitted from fossil fuels and store it
underground - a process called "carbon sequestration." 30
In addition to reducing the gases we emit to the atmosphere; we can also
increase the amount of gases we take out of the atmosphere. Plants and trees
absorb CO2 as they grow, "sequestering" carbon naturally. Increasing
forestlands and making changes to the way we farm could increase the amount of carbon we're storing. 35
Some of these technologies have drawbacks, and different communities will
make different decisions about how to power their lives, but the good news is
that there are a variety of options to put us on a path toward a stable climate.
11. The word "we" in paragraph 2 refers to___________. A. humans
B. economists, sociologists, and politicians C. animals D. scientists
12. According to paragraph 2, how many degrees could the Earth warm up? A. 2.5 B. 2.5 or 10 C. 10 D. from 2.5 to 10
13. According to paragraph 3, why should we stabilize GHG concentrations
around 450-550 parts per million?
A. to avoid the most serious effects of climate change
B. to avoid all damaging impacts of climate change
C. to mend the most damaging impacts of climate change D. to stop climate change
14. What does "which" in paragraph 3 refer to? A. current concentrations
B. that current concentrations arelabout 380 ppm C. 380 ppm D. ppm
15. Why does the author mention Stephen Pacala and Robert Socolow?
A. To introduce two researchers in the field
B. To proves that researchers are working to reduce GHG emission
C. To introduce one way to reduce GHG emission
D. To introduce Princeton University -207- Reading
16. What stabilization wedges are NOT mentioned in the passage?
A. create environment-friendly materials
B. capture and store carbon dioxide underground
C. increase the use of renewable energy D. grow more trees
17. What does "them" refer to? A. researchers B. humans C. renewable resources D. wedges
18. What is the best title for this passage?
A. Arguments over Global Warming
B. Global Warming and its Causes C. Global Warming Solutions
D. Global Warming's Effect on Earth
19. The word " sequestering " in paragraph 2 refers to___________ . A. absorb B. produce C. emit D. release
20. Why does the writer mention “drawbacks" in the last paragraph?
A. To introduce the disadvantages of solutions in the following paragraph
B. To emphasize the disadvantages of the solutions in the previous paragraph
C. To recommend readers not to use the solutions
D. To emphasize the advantages of the solutions in different contexts
PASSAGE 3 - Questions 21-30 Line 1
Art communicates to us primarily through our eyes. We look at art, and we try
to find some meaning in the experience. if we are to begin to think about art
more seriously, we might do well to become more aware of the process of seeing itself. 5
Science tells us that seeing is a mode of perception, or the recognition and
interpretation of sensory data-in other words, how information comes in our
senses, and what we make of it. In visual perception our eyes take in
information in the form of light patterns; the brain processes these patterns to
give them meaning. The mechanics of perception work much the same way 10
for everyone, yet in a given situation we do not all see the same things.
We can take great pleasure in merely looking at art, just as we take pleasure in
the view of a distant mountain range or watching the sun set over the ocean.
But art, unlike nature, is a human creation. it is one of the many ways we
express ourselves and attempt to communicate. A work of art is the product of 15
human intelligence, and we can meet it with our own intelligence on equal
footing. This is where study comes in.
The understanding of process - the how - often contributes quite a lot to our -208- Reading
appreciation of art. if you understand why painting in watercolor may be
different from painting in oil, why clay responds differently to the artist's 20
hands/than does wood or glass - you will have a richer appreciation of the artist's expression.
Knowing the place of a work of art in history - what went before and came
after - can also deepen your understanding. Artists learn to make art by
studying the achievements of the past and observing the efforts of their
contemporaries. They adapt ideas to serve their own needs and then bequeath 25
those ideas to future generations of artists. For example, Matisse assumed that
his audience would know that Venus was the ancient Roman goddess of love.
But he also hoped that they would be familiar with one Venus in particular, a
famous Greek statue known as the Venus de Milo.
An artist may create a specific work for any of a thousand reasons. An 30
awareness of the why may give some insight as well. Looking at Van Gogh's
The Starry Night, it might help you know that Van Gogh was intrigued by the
belief that people journeyed to a star after their death, and that there they
continued their lives. "Just as we take the train to get to Tarascon or Rouen," he
wrote in a letter, "We take death to reach a star." This knowledge might help 35
you understand why Van Gogh felt so strongly about the night sky, and what
his painting might have meant to him.
But no matter how much you study, Van Gogh's painting will never mean for
you exactly what it meant for him, nor should it. Great works of art hold many
meanings. The greatest of them seem to speak anew to each generation and to 40
each attentive observer. The most important thing is that they mean something
for you, “that your own experiences, thoughts, and emotions find a place in them”.
21. According to paragraph 2, the process of visual perception__________.
A. is not the same for all people
B. begins with patterns of light C. is not very scientific
D. requires other senses to function
22. What did Matisse reinterpret? A. A goddess from mythology
B. A painting by another artist C. An ancient sculpture D. A man in history
23. The word "bequeath" in line 25 is closest in meaning to __________. A. make out B. pass on C. look over D. take in
24. The author mentions all of the following ways to enhance the appreciation of art EXCEPT __________. -209- Reading
A. understanding the artistic process
B. becoming familiar with the history
C. experiencing the art by copying
D. knowing about the life of the artist
25. What is the main topic of this passage?
A. Visual perception of sensory material
B. The historical context for artistic expression
C. Studying Van Gogh's The Starry Night
D. The appreciation of works of art
26. Which of the sentences below best expresses the information in the
highlighted statement in the passage?
A. We see images differently because of the mode of perception.
B. Although we see images differently, the mode of perception is similar.
C. Since the mode of perception is similar, we see images in the same way.
D. When the mode of perception is the same, we see the same images
27. Why might Van Gogh have painted The Starry Night?
A. To symbolize the journey of life after death
B. To create a dramatic contrast with the sky
C. To place a strong image in the foreground
D. To include nature from his early experience
28. The word “intrigued” in line 32 is closest in meaning to ________. A. very pleased B. very confused C. very interested D. very surprised
29. The word "them" in the last paragraph refers to __________. A. each attentive observer B. thoughts and emotions C. a lifetime of experiences D. great works of art
30. What can be inferred from the last paragraph?
A. Greatest artworks are impossible to understand.
B. The author shows negative feelings toward contemporary art.
C. People need knowledge to understand art.
D. What we see in art is determined by our emotions, experiences, and thoughts.
PASSAGE 4 - Questions 31-40 Line 1
Antibiotics block the life cycle of bacteria that invade the human body. The
first of these antibiotics, penicillin, works by blocking the molecules that
construct the cell walls of particular bacteria. The bacteria, with incomplete
cell walls, are not able to reproduce.
When penicillin was introduced during World War II, it was truly a "miracle 5
drug." Until that time, anyone who was cut or wounded stood a great risk of
infection. Once penicillin became available, the situation changed. Wounded -210- Reading
soldiers, children with ear infections, and many others began to benefit from
the ability to block the growth of bacteria.
While humanity may have won that particular battle against bacteria, the war is 10
far from over. The reason is that in any bacterial population, there are
bound to be a few bacteria that, for one reason or another, are not affected
by a particular antibiotic. For example, they may have a slightly differently
shaped enzyme that builds cell walls, so that penicillin will not fit onto that
particular shape of the enzyme. These bacteria will not be affected by that 15 particular drug.
In fact, for that small group, the antibiotic is a real godsend. It doesn’t affect
them, but it does wipe out all of their competition. They are thus free to
multiply, and, over time, all of the bacteria will have whatever properties that
made those individuals resistant. 20
Traditionally, medical scientists have dealt with this phenomenon by
developing a large number of antibiotics, each of which intervenes in the
bacterial life cycle in a slightly different way. Consequently, if you happen to
have a bacterium that is resistant to one antibiotic, probably it will succumb to
the action of another. You may, in fact, have had the experience of going to a 25
doctor with an infection, being given an antibiotic, and then finding that it
didn't work. ln all likelihood, all your doctor had to do then was prescribe a
different antibiotic and everything was fine.
The problem is that as time has passed, more and more bacteria have become
resistant to antibiotics. ln fact, currently, there is one strain of bacteria- 30
Staphylococcus-that is resistant to every commercially available antibiotic
except one, and in 1996, a bacterium with lowered resistance to that last antibiotic appeared in Japan.
The appearance of drug - resistant bacteria is not particularly surprising; in
fact, it probably should have been anticipated. Nevertheless, in the late 19805,
there was a general sense of complacency among scientists on the antibiotic 35
question. Little profit was to be made by developing the one- hundred-and-first
antibiotic. Drug companies concentrated their efforts on other areas. Therefore,
a gap developed between the production of new antibiotics and the
development of resistance among bacteria.
By the early 1990s, this gap was recognized and highlighted in several national 40
news magazines. More companies returned to develop new kinds of antibiotics,
and currently, a number are undergoing clinical trials. By early in the twenty- -211- Reading
first century, some of these new drugs will start to come on the market, and the
problem will be "solved," at least for the moment.
Additional research will focus on the processes by which cells repair the 45
constant damage to DNA, but the computer design of new drugs, the
development of new antibiotics, and techniques to combat bacteria should remain a top priority.
31. How do antibiotics treat infections?
A. They interfere with the reproductive cycle of bacteria.
B. They construct cell walls to resist bacteria.
C. They inject enzymes that explode in affected cells.
D. They increase the mitosis of healthy cells
32. The word "them" in line 17 refers to __________. A. whatever properties B. resistant bacteria C. their competition D. those individuals
33. The word "anticipated" in line 34 is closest in meaning to __________. A. predicted B. concealed C. investigated D. disregarded
34. Which of the following best expresses the main idea of this passage?
A. The "miracle drug" penicillin B. Drug-resistant bacteria C. Staphylococcus infections D. Gene therapy treatments
35. According to paragraph 4, why do some bacteria benefit from antibiotics?
A. The antibiotic eliminates competing bacteria, allowing resistant bacteria to reproduce.
B. The resistant bacteria compete with the antibiotic, and the bacteria become stronger.
C. The competition helps the resistant bacteria to multiply by reproducing with the resistant type.
D. The properties of the antibiotic are acquired by the bacteria, making it resistant to the competition.
36. The word "complacency" in line 35 is closest in meaning to __________. A. consensus of agreement B. fear of consequences C. lack of concern D. awareness of potential
37. Which of the sentences below best expresses the information in the
highlighted statement in the passage?
A. Some antibiotics affect a population of bacteria more efficiently than others.
B. There are several reasons why some bacteria do not respond to most antibiotics
C. The effect of antibiotics on bacteria is to bind them together into one population.
D. A small number of bacteria in any sample will probably be resistant to a specific antibiotic.
38. The author mentions all of the following reasons for drug resistant bacteria to appear EXCEPT __________. -212- Reading
A. there was not enough profit incentive for companies to continue developing new antibiotics
B. statistically, some drug-resistant bacteria will occur naturally in any large population of bacteria
C. the newer antibiotics were not as strong and effective as the original penicillin— based drugs
D. competing bacteria are destroyed by antibiotics, allowing resistant bacteria to prosper.
39. It can be inferred from the passage that __________.
A. research to develop new antibiotics will not be necessary in the future
B. the scientific community was not surprised by the resistant strains of bacteria
C. antibiotics are not very expensive when they’re made available commercially
D. it takes years for a new drug to be made available commercially for consumers
40. Which of the following statements is NOT a main idea of the passage?
A. Many strains of bacteria have become resistant to the antibiotics currently available.
B. Funding for the production of new antibiotics has been allocated to drug companies.
C. The first antibiotics were very effective in blocking the reproduction of bacteria.
D. New antibiotics are being developed to combat bacteria that resist the older antibiotics. -213- Reading TEST 3
Directions: In this section of the test, you will read FOUR different passages, each
followed by 10 questions about it. For questions 1-40, you are to choose the best
answer A, B, C, or D, to each question. Then, on your answer sheet, find the number
of the question and fill in the space that corresponds to the letter of the answer you
have chosen. Answer all questions following a passage on the basis of what is stated or implied in that passage.
You have 60 minutes to answer all the questions, including the time to transfer your answers to the answer sheet.
PASSAGE 1 – Questions 1-10 Line 1
It was previously believed that dinosaurs were cold-blooded creatures, like
reptiles. However, a recent discovery has led researchers to believe they may
have been warm-blooded. The fossilized remains of a 66 million-year-old
dinosaur’s heart were discovered and examined by x-ray. The basis for the 5
analysis that they were warm-blooded is the number of chambers in the heart
as well as the existence of a single aorta.
Most reptiles have three chambers in their hearts, although some do have four.
But those that have four chambers, such as the crocodile, have two arteries to
mix the oxygen-heavy blood with oxygen-lean blood. Reptiles are cold- 10
blooded, meaning that they are dependent on the environment for body heat.
Yet the fossilized heart had four chambers in the heart as well as a single aorta.
The single aorta means that the oxygen-rich blood was completely separated
from the oxygen-poor blood and sent through the aorta to all parts of the body.
Mammals, on the other hand, are warm-blooded, meaning that they generate 15
their own body heat and are thus more tolerant of temperature extremes. Birds
and mammals, because they are warm blooded, move more swiftly and have
greater physical endurance than reptiles.
Scientists believe that the evidence now points to the idea that all dinosaurs
were actually warm-blooded. Ironically, the particular dinosaur in which the 20
discovery was made was a Tescelosaurus, which translates to “marvelous
lizard”. A lizard, of course, is a reptile. -214- Reading
1. The word “they” in line 2 refers to _______. A. researchers B. dinosaurs C. reptiles D. discoveries
2. According to the author, what theory was previously held and now is being questioned?
A. That dinosaurs were cold-blooded
B. That dinosaurs were warm-blooded
C. That dinosaurs had four-chambered hearts
D. That dinosaurs were swifter and stronger than reptiles
3. What is the basis of the researchers’ new theory?
A. They performed mathematical calculations and determined that dinosaurs must
have had four- chambered hearts.
B. They found a fossil of an entire dinosaur and reviewed the arteries and veins
flowing from and to the heart.
C. They viewed a fossil of a dinosaur’s heart and discovered that it had two aortas.
D. They found a fossil of a dinosaur’s heart and discovered it had four chambers and one aorta.
4. The word “those” in line 8 paragraph refers to ______ . A. hearts B. chambers C. reptiles D. arteries
5. The author implies that reptiles______. A. are cold-blooded B. have four-chambered hearts C. have one aorta
D. are faster and have more endurance than mammals
6. The word “completely” in line 14 is closest in meaning to_______. A. constantly B. unevenly C. partially D. entirely
7. The word “generate” in line 19 is closest in meaning to________. A. use B. lose C. produce D. tolerate
8. The author implies that birds _______.
A. move slower and have less endurance than reptiles
B. move faster and have greater endurance than reptiles
C. move faster and have greater endurance than dinosaurs
D. move slower and have less endurance than dinosaurs
9. What does the author imply by the sentence:
“Ironically, the particular dinosaur in which the discovery was made was a
Tescelosaurus, which translates to “marvelous lizard”.
A. It is unusual that the creature would have a name with the suffix of a dinosaur.
B. It is surprising that the fossilized heart was discovered.
C. It is paradoxical that the dinosaur’s name includes the word lizard, because now
scientists believe it is not a lizard.
D. It should have been realized long ago that dinosaurs were warm-blooded.
10. The word “particular” in paragraph four is closest in meaning to_______. -215- Reading A. special B. specific C. sparse D. spatial
PASSAGE 2 – Questions 11-20 Line 1
Sometimes people worry about the germs that they come into contact with
daily. In fact, most people would be surprised to learn just how many microbes
actually inhabit a human’s body at any given time, in addition to the larger
visitors that come around occasionally. Such natural species that regularly 5
come into contact with our bodies include mites, lice, yeast, and fungus, just to
name a few. We are, in fact, an ecosystem much like a rain forest is to the
natural flora and fauna that call it home.
Lice, or nits, are particularly horrible to even think about. To learn that one’s
child has been found in school with head lice can cause trauma and shame. 10
People think that having lice is a symptom of being unclean, although one can
be infected by contact with somebody else who has them. Although lice are not
that common in general circles, children can easily acquire them just because
of their close contact with other children at school or play. Some large cities
host high-priced nit pickers who make a living removing head lice from children. 15
Mites on the human body are much more common, and cleanliness does not
eliminate the chance of having them. They are also microscopic, so they are
invisible to the naked eye. There are a number of different species of mites,
two of which have the human face as their natural habitat, particularly the skin 20
of the forehead. Others are very content among human hair, living among the
follicles of the eyelashes, eyebrows, and scalp hair.
Not all such inhabitants are harmful. In fact, even the annoying mite lives on
dead skin cells, actually doing us a favor by removing them. The dreaded dust
mite, for example, blamed for causing allergies, removes dead skin from bed 25
coverings. And harmless bacteria often keep potentially harmful bacteria from
being able to survive. So people should not try to eliminate mites from their
bodies, although some have tried. Some sufferers of obsessive/compulsive
disorder have scrubbed themselves raw trying to eliminate all scavengers from
their bodies, only to damage their skin, and all to no avail. 30
Certain types of yeast also regularly live on the human body, sometimes
causing annoyances. One common type lives on the oil produced in the skin of
the face or scalp, causing a condition known as pityriasis versicolor, which is a -216- Reading
scaling and discoloration of the skin.
Ailments such as athlete’s foot are caused by a fungus that grows in warm, 35
moist conditions. To avoid them or avoid a recurrence, patients are encouraged
keep their feet dry and cool, which of course may not be easy, depending on
one’s work or personal habits. Ringworm is also a fungus acquired by contact
with keratin- rich soil in many parts of the world.
Besides the tiny inhabitants, we are also regularly harassed by insects that feed 40
off of our bodies, like mosquitoes, ticks, and fleas, which sometimes deposit
harmful illnesses at the same time they probe the skin for the blood on which
they live. Mosquitoes have been known to cause malaria and yellow fever as
well as encephalitis. Fleas have transmitted bubonic plague, and ticks have caused lime disease. 45
Just like a river, an ocean, a rain forest, or any other ecological wonder in
which numerous species survive, feeding upon other inhabitants, our bodies are
natural providers of nutrition and life for various small and microscopic species.
11. The word “inhabit” in line 3 is closest in meaning to______. A. escape B. feed on C. live in D. abuse
12. The author’s main point is________.
A. to describe how the human body is host to a number of different harmful and
harmless inhabitants and visitors.
B. to describe the dangerous ailments that can result from insects and microbes.
C. to warn people about the dangers of being attacked by small life forms.
D. to describe how to rid oneself of bacteria and insects.
13. The author infers that lice and mites are different in that________.
A. lice are not harmful, but mites are.
B. mites live only on the skin, and lice live only in the hair.
C. mites are treatable, and lice are not.
D. mites are totally unavoidable, while lice may be avoidable.
14. The word “shame” in line 9 is closest in meaning to ________. A. anger B. embarrassment C. disbelief D. contentment
15. The word “their” in line 13 refers to ________. A. lice’s B. schools’ C. circles’ D. children’s
16. The word “Others” in line 19 refers to ________. -217- Reading A. foreheads B. follicles C. mite species D. habitats
17. The author indicates that lice are also known as ________. A. yeast B. nits C. microbes D. ticks
18. The author indicates that a nit picker is ________.
A. somebody who removes lice professionally
B. somebody who is afraid of mites
C. a doctor who treats patients for infection
D. somebody who has been bitten by a tick
19. The author infers that ________.
A. being host to insects and microbes is unwise
B. one can avoid infestation by microbes
C. insects are the cause of microbial infestation
D. being host to insects and microbes is inevitable
20. What does the author mean by the statement “Not all such inhabitants are
harmful” at the beginning of the fourth paragraph?
A. Mites are the same as yeast.
B. Some mites eat other harmful mites.
C. Mites actually are beneficial because they remove dead skin particles from the body and habitat.
D. The diseases mites carry do not pass to humans.
PASSAGE 3 – Questions 21-30 Line 1
The Asian migration hypothesis is today supported by most of the scientific
evidence. The first “hard” data linking American Indians with Asians appeared
in the 1980s with the finding that Indians and northeast Asians share a common
and distinctive pattern in the arrangement of the teeth. But perhaps the most 5
compelling support for the hypothesis comes from genetic research. Studies
comparing the DNA variation of populations around the world consistently
demonstrate the close genetic relationship of the two populations, and recently
geneticists studying a virus sequestered in the kidneys of all humans found that
the strain of virus carried by Navajos and Japanese is nearly identical, while 10
that carried by Europeans and Africans is quite different.
The migration could have begun over a land bridge connecting the continents.
During the last Ice Age 70.000 to 10.000 years ago, huge glaciers locked up
massive volumes of water and sea levels were as much as 300 feet lower than
today. Asia and North America were joined by a huge Subcontinent of ice-free, 15
treeless grassland. 750 miles wide. Geologists have named this area Beringia,
from the Bering Straits. Summers there were warm, winters were cold, dry and -218- Reading
almost snow-free. This was a perfect environment for large mammals-
mammoth and mastodon, bison, horse, reindeer, camel, and saiga (a goatlike
antelope). Small bands of Stone Age hunter-gatherers were attracted by these 20
animal populations. which provided them not only with food but with hides for
clothing and shelter, dung for fuel. and bones for tools and weapons.
Accompanied by a husky-like species of dog, hunting bands gradually moved
as far east as the Yukon River basin of northern Canada, where field
excavations have uncovered the fossilized jawbones of several dogs and bone 25
tools estimated to be about 27,000 years old.
Other evidence suggests that the migration from Asia began about 30,000 years
ago-around the same time that Japan and Scandinavia were being settled. This
evidence is based on blood type. The vast majority of modern Native
Americans have type 0 blood and a few have type A, but almost none have 30
type B. Because modern Asian populations include all three blood types,
however, the migrations must have begun before the evolution of type B,
which geneticists believe occurred about 30,000 years ago.
By 25,000 years ago human communities were established in western Beringia,
which is present-day Alaska. [A] But access to the south was blocked by a 35
huge glacial sheet covering much of what Is today Canada. How did the
hunters get over those 2,000 miles of deep ice? The argument is that the
climate began to warm with the passing of the Ice Age, and about 13,000
B.C.E. glacial melting created an ice-free corridor along the eastern front range
of the Rocky Mountains. [B] Soon hunters of big game had reached the Great 40 Plains.
In the past several years, however, new archaeological finds along the Pacific
coast of North and South America have thrown this theory into question. [C]
The most spectacular find, at Monte Verde in southern Chile, produced striking
evidence of tool making, house building, rock painting, and human foot prints 45
conservatively dated at 12,500 years ago, long before the highway had been
cleared of ice. [D] Many archaeologists now believe that migrants moved south
in boats along a coastal route rather than overland. These people were probably
gatherers and fishers rather than hunters of big game.
There were two Later migrations into North America. About 5000 B.C.E. the 50
Athapascan or Na-Dene people began to settle the forests in the northwestern
area of the continent. Eventually Athapascan speakers, the ancestors of the
Navajos and Apaches, migrated across the Great Plains to the Southwest. The
final migration began about 3000 B.C.E after Beringnia had been
submerged, when a maritime hunting people crossed the Bering Straits in -219- Reading 55
small boats. The Inuits (also known as the Eskimos) colonized the polar coasts
of the Arctic, the Yupiks the coast of southwestern Alaska, and the Aleuts the
Aleutian Islands. While scientists debate the timing and mapping of these
migrations, many Indian people hold to oral traditions that include a long
journey from a distant place of origin to a new homeland.
21. The word “distinctive” in line 4 is closest in meaning to ________. A. new B. simple C. particular D. different
22. According to paragraph 2, why did Stone Age tribes begin to migrate Into Beringia?
A. To hunt for animals in the area
B. To Intermarry with tribes living there
C. To trade with tribes that made tools D. To capture domesticated dogs
23. The phrase “Accompanied by” in line 21 is closest in meaning to ________. A. found with B. detoured with C. threatened by D. joined by
24. The word “which” in line 31 refers to ________. A. evolution B. migrations C. geneticists D. populations
25. Why does the author mention blood types in paragraph 3?
A. Blood types offered proof that the migration had come from Scandinavia.
B. Comparisons of blood types in Asia and North America established the date of migration.
C. The presence of type B in Native Americans was evidence of the migration.
D. The blood typing was similar to data from both Japan and Scandinavia.
26. How did groups migrate Into the Great Plains?
A. By following a mountain trail
B. By walking on a corridor covered with Ice
C. By using the path that big game had made
D. By detouring around a huge ice sheet
27. The word “Eventually” in line 50 is closest in meaning to ________.
A. in this way B. nevertheless C. without doubt D. in the end
28. Which of the sentences below best expresses the information in the
highlighted statement in the passage? The other choices change the meaning or
leave out important information.
A. Beringia sank after the last people had crossed the straits in their boats about 3000 B.C.E.
B. About 3000 B.C.E., the final migration of people in small boats across Beringia had ended.
C. Beringia was under water when the last people crossed the straits in boats about 3000 B.C.E. -220- Reading
D. About 3000 B.C.E., Beringia was flooded, preventing the last people from migrating in small boats.
29. According to paragraph 6, all of the following are true about the later
migrations EXCEPT_________.
A. The Athapascans traveled into the Southwest United States.
B. The Eskimos established homes in the Arctic polar region.
C. The Yupiks established settlements on the Great Plains.
D. The Aleuts migrated in small boats to settle coastal islands.
30. Look at the four squares [_] that indicate where the following sentence can be added to the passage.
Newly excavated early human sites in Washington State, California, and Peru have
been radiocarbon dated to be 11,000 to 12,000 years old.
Where would the sentence best fit? A. [A] B. [B] C. [C] D. [D]
PASSAGE 4 – Questions 31-40 Line 1
One of the primary ways of approaching the Greek theatre is through
archeology, the systematic study of material remains such as architecture,
inscriptions, sculpture, vase painting, and other forms of decorative art. [A]
Serious on-site excavations began in Greece around 1870, but W. Dorpfeld did 5
not begin the first extensive study of the Theatre of Dionysus until 1886. [B]
Since that time, more than 167 other Greek theatres have been identified and
many of them have been excavated. [C] Nevertheless, they still do not permit
us to describe the precise appearance of the skene (illustrations printed in
books are conjectural reconstructions), since many pieces are irrevocably lost 10
because the buildings in later periods became sources of stone for other
projects and what remains is usually broken and scattered. [D] That most of the
buildings were remodeled many times has created great problems for those
seeking to date both the parts and the successive versions. Despite these
drawbacks, archeology provides the most concrete evidence we have about the 15
theatre structures of ancient Greece. But, if they have told us much,
archeologists have not completed their work, and many sites have scarcely been touched.
Perhaps the most controversial use of archeological evidence in theatre history
is vase paintings, thousands of which have survived from ancient Greece. 20
(Most of those used by theatre scholars are reproduced in Margarete Bieber’s
The History of the Greek and Roman Theatre.) Depicting scenes from
mythology and daily life, the vases are the most graphic pictorial evidence we
have. But they are also easy to misinterpret. Some scholars have considered -221- Reading
any vase that depicts a subject treated in a surviving drama or any scene 25
showing masks, flute players, or ceremonials to be valid evidence of theatrical
practice. This is a highly questionable assumption, since the Greeks made
widespread use of masks, dances, and music outside the theatre and since the
myths on which dramatists drew were known to everyone, including vase
painters, who might well depict the same subjects as dramatists without being
indebted to them. Those vases showing scenes unquestionably theatrical are 30 few in number.
Written evidence about ancient Greek theatre is often treated as less reliable
than archeological evidence because most written accounts are separated so far
in time from the events they describe and because they provide no information 35
about their own sources. Of the written evidence, the surviving plays are
usually treated as the most reliable. But the oldest surviving manuscripts of
Greek plays date from around the tenth century, C.E., some 1500 years after
they were first performed. Since printing did not exist during this time span,
copies of plays had to be made by hand, and therefore the possibility of textual 40
errors creeping in was magnified. Nevertheless, the scripts offer us our readiest
access to the cultural and theatrical conditions out of which they came. But
these scripts, like other kinds of evidence, are subject to varying
interpretations. Certainly, performances embodied a male perspective, for
example, since the plays were written, selected, staged, and acted by men. Yet 45
the existing plays feature numerous choruses of women and many feature
strong female characters. Because these characters often seem victims of their
own powerlessness and appear to be governed, especially in the comedies, by
sexual desire, some critics have seen these plays as rationalizations by the
male-dominated culture for keeping women segregated and cloistered. Other 50
critics, however, have seen in these same plays an attempt by male authors to
force their male audiences to examine and call into question this segregation
and cloistering of Athenian women.
By far the majority of written references to Greek theatre date from several
hundred years after the events they report. The writers seldom mention their 55
sources of evidence, and thus we do not know what credence to give them. In
the absence of material nearer in time to the events, however, historians have
used the accounts and have been grateful to have them. Overall, historical
treatment of the Greek theatre is something like assembling a jigsaw puzzle
from which many pieces are missing: historians arrange what they have and 60
imagine (with the aid of the remaining evidence and logic) what has been lost.
As a result, though the broad outlines of Greek theatre history are reasonably -222- Reading
clear, many of the details remain open to doubt.
31. According to paragraph 1, why is it impossible to identify the time period for theatres in Greece?
A. It Is confusing because stones from early sites were used to build later structures.
B. There are too few sites that have been excavated and very little data collected about them.
C. The archeologists from earlier periods were not careful, and many artifacts were broken.
D. Because it is very difficult to date the concrete that was used in construction during early periods.
32. What can be inferred from paragraph 1 about the skene in theatre history?
A. Drawings in books are the only accurate visual records.
B. Archaeologists have excavated a large number of them.
C. It was not identified or studied until the early 1800s.
D. Not enough evidence is available to make a precise model.
33. The word “primary” in line 1 is closest in meaning to ________. A. important B. reliable C. unusual D. accepted
34. In paragraph 2, the author explains that all vases with paintings of masks or
musicians may not be evidence of theatrical subjects by_________
A. identifying some of the vases as reproductions that were painted years after the originals
B. casting doubt on the qualifications of the scholars who produced the vases as evidence
C. arguing that the subjects could have been used by artists without reference to a drama
D. pointing out that there are very few vases that have survived from the time of early dramas
35. In paragraph 3, the author states that female characters in Greek theatre ________.
A. had no featured parts in plays
B. frequently played the part of victims
C. were mostly ignored by critics
D. did not participate in the chorus
36. According to paragraph 3, scripts of plays may not be accurate because ________.
A. copies by hand may contain many errors -223- Reading
B. the sources cited are not well known
C. they are written in very old language
D. the printing is difficult to read
37. The word “them” in line 53 refers to _________. A. events B. writers C. sources D. references
38. Why does the author mention a jigsaw puzzle in paragraph 4?
A. To compare the written references for plays to the paintings on vases
B. To justify using accounts and records that historians have located
C. To introduce the topic for the next reading passage in the textbook
D. To demonstrate the difficulty in drawing conclusions from partial evidence
39. Which of the following statements most accurately reflects the author’s
opinion about vase paintings?
A. Evidence from written documents is older than evidence from vase paintings.
B. There is disagreement among scholars regarding vase paintings.
C. The sources for vase paintings are clear because of the images on them.
D. The details in vase paintings are not obvious because of their age.
40. Look at the four squares [_] that indicate where the following sentence can be added to the passage.
These excavations have revealed much that was previously unknown, especially about
the dimensions and layout of theatres.
Where would the sentence best fit? A. [A] B. [B] C. [C] D. [D] -224- Reading TEST 4
Directions: In this section of the test, you will read FOUR different passages, each
followed by 10 questions about it. For questions 1-40, you are to choose the best
answer A, B, C, or D, for each question. Then, on your answer sheet, find the number
of the question and fill in the space that corresponds to the letter of the answer you
have chosen. Answer all questions following a passage on the basis of what is stated or implied in that passage.
You have 60 minutes to answer all the questions, including the time to transfer your answers to the answer sheet.
PASSAGE 1 - Questions 1-10 Line 1
The influx of Americans into Oregon in the 1840s ignited a dispute between
Britain and the United States that, in its more intemperate phases, was
accompanied by shrill demands in both countries for war. The argument
originated in the fact that the boundaries of Oregon had never been clearly 5 fixed.
The name vaguely embraced the territory west of the Rockies between the
northern boundary of Mexican-held California and the southern edge of
Russian-held Alaska, which at the time extended south to parallel 54° 40’. In
1818, when America proposed a boundary at the 49™ parallel an extension of 10
the border with Canada that already existed east of the Rockies and the British
suggested a line farther south, statesmen of both nations avoided the resulting
impasse by agreeing to accept temporary "joint occupancy".
But by the early 1840s, the issue could no longer be avoided: Oregon fever and
Manifest Destiny had become potent political forces. Though many eastern 15
Americans considered Oregon country too remote to become excited about,
demands for its occupation were shouted with almost religious fervor. Senator
Thomas Hart Benton, for one, urged Congress to muster "thirty or forty
thousand American rifles beyond the Rocky Mountains that will be our effective negotiators." 20
The Democratic Party made “54°40’ or fight”, an issue of the 1844 Presidential
election and just managed to install James K. Polk, an ardent expansionist, in
the White House. But despite their seeming intransigence, neither Polk nor the
British government wanted to fight. And just about the time that Polk learned
that the land lying north of the 49th parallel was useless for agriculture, the -225- Reading
British decided the American market for goods was worth far more than 25
Oregon’s fast-dying fur trade. So, they quietly settled for the 49th parallel, the
boundary that the United States had proposed in the first place.
1. What is the main idea of this passage?
A. The disagreement over the boundaries of Oregon was peacefully solved.
B. The United States wanted more land than it needed.
C. Politicians in 1840 favored war with Britain.
D. The United States ended up by sharing Oregon with Canada.
2. The word “intemperate” in line 2 is closest in meaning to______. A. untimely B. initial C. immoderate D. uninformed
3. As used in the passage, the word “fixed” in line 5 is closest in meaning to ______. A. repaired B. adjusted C. built D. established
4. The word "remote" in line 15 is closest in meaning to ______. A. far away B. dangerous C. large D. uninteresting
5. The confrontation with Britain over Oregon boundaries came to a head in the
early 1840s for all the following reasons EXCEPT ______.
A. more people were living in Oregon at that time
B. the expansionists made the situation a political issue
C. all people were united in favoring the expansion and settlement of Oregon
D. Manifest Destiny was a major political force at this time
6. The word "ardent" in line 21 is closest in meaning to ______. A. superficial B. enthusiastic C. old D. moderate
7. The word "they" in line 26 refers to_______. A. the Americans
B. the British and the Americans C. the British D. the Democratic Party
8. It can be inferred from the passage that Senator Thomas HartBenton_____. A. was a temperate man
B. supported the occupation of Oregon by force
C. felt negotiation was the best policy
D. proposed and approved the final boundary decision
9. The 49th parallel was accepted by both parties in the border dispute for all of
the following reasons EXCEPT_______.
A. the dying fur trade in Oregon
B. the attraction of the American market for goods
C. the condition of the land north of 49°
D. the desire for a good fight -226- Reading
10. It can be inferred from the passage that in the final boundary, settlement the United States______.
A. got the land that it had originally demanded
B. got less land than it had originally demanded
C. got more land than it had originally demanded
D. had no interest in the land involved in the dispute
PASSAGE 2 - Questions 11-20 Line 1
For all their great diversity of shapes and sizes, glaciers can be divided into two
essential types: valley glaciers, which flow downhill from mountains and are
shaped by the constraints of topography, and ice sheets, which flow outward
in all directions from domelike centers of accumulated ice to cover vast 5
expanses of terrain. Whatever their type, most glaciers are remnants of great
shrouds of ice that covered the earth eons ago. In a few of these glaciers the
oldest ice is very ancient indeed; the age of parts of the Antarctic sheet may exceed 500,000 years.
Glaciers are born in rocky wombs above the snow line, where there is 10
sufficient winter snowfall and summer cold for snow to survive the annual
melting. The long gestation period of a glacier begins with the accumulation
and gradual transformation of snowflakes. Soon after they reach the ground,
complex snowflakes are reduced to compact, roughly spherical ice crystals, the
basic components of a glacier. As new layers of snow and ice, snow that 15
survives the melting of the previous summer, accumulate, they squeeze out
most of the air bubbles trapped within and between the crystals below. This
process of recrystallization continues throughout the life of the glacier.
The length of time required for the creation of glacier ice depends mainly upon
the temperature and the rate of snowfall. In Iceland, where snowfall is heavy
and summer temperatures are high enough to produce plenty of meltwater, 20
glacier ice may come into being in a relatively short time say, ten years. In
parts of Antarctica, where snowfall is scant and the ice remains well below its
melting temperature year-round, the process may require hundreds of years.
The ice does not become a glacier until it moves under its own weight, and it
cannot move significantly until it reaches a critical thickness the point at 25
which the weight of the piled-up layers overcomes the internal strength of the
ice and the friction between the ice and the ground. This critical thickness is
about 60 feet. The fastest moving glaciers have been gauged at not much more
than two and a half miles per year, and some cover less than 1/100 inch in that
same amount of time. But no matter how infinitesimal the flow, movement is -227- Reading 30
what distinguishes a glacier from a mere mass of ice.
11. This passage mainly discusses ________.
A. the size and shape of glaciers B. the formation of glaciers C. why glaciers move D. two types of glaciers
12. The word "constraints" in line 3 is closest in meaning to________. A. restrictions B. height C. beauty D. speed
13. Why does the author mention the Antarctic ice sheet in the first paragraph?
A. It is a slow-moving glacier.
B. One would expect glaciers in this part of the world.
C. It contains some of the oldest ice in existence.
D. It is an example of a well-formed ice sheet.
14. In order to describe the development of glaciers, the author uses the analogy of _______. A. birth B. snowflakes C. crystals D. Iceland
15. The word "trapped" in line 16 is closest in meaning to _______. A. enclosed B. hunted C. formed D. stranded
16. The phrase "this process" in line 17 refers to _______.
A. air bubbles being trapped below
B. snow and ice compressing the ice crystals
C. formation of ice from snow that is about to melt D. melting of summer snow
17. According to the passage, what is one of the differences between valley
glaciers and ice sheets?
A. Ice sheets move faster than valley glaciers.
B. While valley glaciers flow downhill, ice sheets flow in all directions.
C. Valley glaciers are thicker than ice sheets because of the restricting land formations.
D. Valley glaciers are not as old as ice sheets.
18. What does "it" in line 25 refer to_______. A. glacier B. weight C. ice D. critical thickness
19. The word "significantly" in line 25 is closest in meaning to_______. A. quickly B. naturally C. thoroughly D. notably
20. According to the passage, the characteristic that identifies a glacier is_______.
A. the critical thickness of the ice
B. the amount of ice accumulated C. the movement of the ice D. the weight of the ice -228- Reading
PASSAGE 3 - Questions 21-30 Line 1
Pottery refers to dishes, plates, cups and cooking pots made out of clay.
Chinese pottery was invented during the Neolithic period (5,000- 2,200 BC)
and it was molded by hand. Before this time, people had been nomadic,
making it difficult to carry heavy, breakable pieces of pottery. At first, pottery 5
was made by pushing a hole into a ball of clay or by taking a piece of clay and
coiling it up into a pot shape. Many early pots were simple lumps of clay.
However, people later discovered that clay, when placed in an open fire,
hardened. This technique, known as firing, soon became common practice in pottery production. 10
People used pottery as a way of forming their social identity or showing who
they were and how they were different from other people. Many of the designs
that were used on pottery were usually borrowed from those already found on
clothing and garments. The decoration of pottery began with simple incisions,
which were later painted on. Gradually, plants, animals, and human figures 15
were included on the vases. Mythological scenes were common as were
dancers, musicians, and images from everyday life.
[A] Pottery also has roots in ancient China where, for centuries, people
produced black, carved, and painted pieces from rough clay. It was in the Sui
dynasty, however, that the aesthetics of pottery took a major leap forward. [B] 20
Potters began experimenting with porcelain and the effect was a stunning,
shiny new look and feel for Chinese ceramics. [C] This gleaming pottery
became popular not only in China, but in West Asia as well. [D] Inevitably,
this led to a new market for cheap imitations.
After 1,200 AD, Chinese potters began using different colored glazes to create 25
designs on their pots. Chinese pottery was still the best and most expensive.
After thousands of years of advancements in technique and materials, painted
porcelain such as blue and white, tri-color, and under-glazed became successfully produced.
The Chinese often used pottery as part of the burial ritual; bronze vessels were 30
decorated with elaborate designs of plants and animals. In Chinese culture,
jade symbolizes nobility, perfection, and immortality. Jade utensils were laid
over the deceased and some were placed In the mouth or enclosed In the hand.
Liquids were placed In the vessels to help the dead in their afterlife and also to -229- Reading
aid In funerary ceremonies in which the living communicated with deceased 35
ancestors and gods in an altered state of consciousness after drinking fermented beverages.
Such vessels containing liquids have been excavated at centers near the Yellow
River, especially from burials of elite, eminent individuals. Many pottery
fragments and figurines have also been discovered in the Chang Jiang drainage area. 40
Pottery can be divided into three groups: those designed for storage, those for
preserving or holding liquids, and those for special uses. The Greeks made
pottery for many purposes. The custom of burning their dead involved using
vases to collect the ashes. Some pottery served as decorative pieces, while 45
others were used for ceremonies or during religious festivals. Amphoras were
larger vessels used to store liquids such as water or wine. Amphoras have
occasionally been found in ancient shipwrecks; some held wine and others,
were shipped empty after selling their contents off to other countries. The
Alabastron had special uses such as holding perfume or oil. The Skyphes, a
flat-bottomed bowl, was used as a drinking cup. 50
Grecian soil had many deposits of clay near rivers. This abundance of raw
material was not available to others, giving the Greeks a strategic
advantage in manufacturing material. They made full use of clay. After its
discovery, vessels were made in a wide range of sizes and shapes. Jugs, vases, 55
fruit bowls, and feeding bottles were widely used in homes. Although some
larger vessels were made of stone, glass, or metal, clay was by far the most prominent.
The ancient Egyptians used pottery and ceramic art for burial purpose. Four
vases were sometimes deposited with the mumified body, A large number of
vases which have been recovered had been buried with the dead in tombs.
Some vases are found hanging or standing upright in the tomb. They appear to
have been valued by the deceased, hence leaving them for burial in the tomb.
21. According to paragraph 1, which of the following statements is true of early pottery?
A. The first pots were made of hardened clay.
B. The nomadic nature of man before the Neolithic period prevented the widespread use of pottery.
C. Pottery was invented as a way of storing fresh fish and meats.
D. It was not possible to fashion clay into shapes for pottery.
22. The word "incisions" in line 12 is closest in meaning to________. -230- Reading A. figures B. squares C. paintings D. cuts
23. Which of the following can be inferred from paragraph 2 about pottery designs?
A. Designs helped the pot to stay together and not break.
B. The designs on pottery reflected the culture of those who made them.
C. Three basic techniques to produce pottery vessels have been used around the world.
D. Pot design was imaginative and unique in every example.
24. The word "gleaming” in line 20 the passage is closest in meaning to________. A. shiny B. dull C. delicate D. soft
25. According to the passage, whose pottery was regarded as the most valuable? A. Japanese B. Egyptian C. Chinese D. Greek
26. The author mentions "jade" in line 29 in order to_________.
A. demonstrate how stone could be carved into pottery
B. give an example of the use of expensive material in burials
C. show how different cultures value different materials
D. explain the difficulties in mining a stone for pottery
27. The word "deceased" in line 31 is closest in meaning to________. A. sick B. dying C. dead D. diseased
28. Which of the following best expresses the essential information in the
highlighted sentence? Incorrect answer choices change the meaning in important
ways or leave out essential information.
A. The use of substantial amounts of clay in Greece resulted in a culture rich in pottery.
B. The ancient Greeks had a more advanced way to construct pottery.
C. Pottery making was harder for the ancient Greeks, but pottery was important to them for storage.
D. Pottery was very convenient and useful because the raw material, clay, was
abundant and simple to shape and fire In Greek.
29. According to the passage, which of the following was NOT a use of pottery? A. storing wine B. ceremonial offerings C. holding ashes D. cooking
30. Look at the four squares [ _ ] that indicate where the following sentence can
be added to the passage.
However, it was very expensive there because it had to be carried from China on camels and donkeys. -231- Reading
Where would the sentence best fit? A. [A] B. [B] C. [C] D. [D]
PASSAGE 4 - Questions 31-40 Line 1
Louis Pasteur was arguably the greatest biologist of the 19th century. His
immense contributions were among the most varied and beneficial in the field
of science and industry. Pasteur’s methods of conducting experiments
illustrated brilliance, which started when he studied the crystal structure. He 5
observed that tartrate, when created in a laboratory, was optically inactive.
This is different from the tartrate from grapes because the artificial tartrate is
composed of two optically asymmetric crystals. Pasteur succeeded in
unraveling the asymmetric crystals from each other and showed that each regained optical activity. 10
He then theorized that living organisms only produce molecules that are of one
specific objective and that these molecules are active at all times. This
experiment contradicted ‘Mitscherlich’ who had observed only a single type of
crystal. Later in his career, Pasteur was approached by the parent of one of his
students, regarding a contamination problem in alcoholic fermentation. At the 15
time, fermentation leading to the making of wine, or beer was thought to be a
simple breakdown of sugar to the favored molecules. Yeast cells were believed
to be either a useful ingredient in maintaining or simply a product of fermentation.
The manufacturers of alcohol were having economic problems related to 20
fermentation. Wine would suddenly turn sour or into vinegar, or the quality
and taste of beer would suddenly change. Therefore, the producers would have
to start anew. Pasteur proved that yeast was an organism which did not
necessitate oxygen for fermentation to occur. This proved to Justin Von
Liebig, who had upheld that fermentation was purely chemical, that he was incorrect. 25
Pasteur was able to prove that the yeast was responsible for forming alcohol
from sugar and that contaminating microorganisms turned the fermentations
sour. Over the years, he segregated the organisms that were responsible for
normal and abnormal fermentations when producing wine or beer. He 30
demonstrated that if he heated them to mild temperatures, this would kill the
microorganisms and prevent souring. This was a major discovery and Pasteur
showed brewers how to refine the right organisms for good beer. He proposed -232- Reading
that heating milk to a high temperature before bottling it would prevent
souring. This is now known as pasteurization.
All this had given Pasteur an iconic status throughout the world. After his 35
research on fermentation, he refuted the principle of spontaneous generation.
The theory that maggots, beetles and microbes could arise spontaneously from
matter had always been a matter of speculation. Pasteur carried out ingenious
experiments wiping: out every argument in favor of spontaneous generation. In
his famous experiment using the “swan neck flask”, fermented juice was put 40
in a flask and after sterilization, the neck was heated, (this resembled the neck
of a swan). The end of the neck was then sealed. If the flask was opened by
pinching off the end of the neck, air would enter but dust would get trapped on
the inside of the neck which was wet. The fluid, however, would still be germ
free. If the flask was tipped over allowing the juice to touch the inside of the
neck, microorganisms would grow instantly. 45
Pasteur’s work with silkworm parasites and germs led to the proposal of the
germ theory of disease. After visiting the hospital wards, he became more
aware of the infections being spread by physicians from sick patients to
the healthy patients. He compelled doctors to disinfect their instruments by 50
boiling and steaming them. Surgeons were told to wash their hands and use
disinfectant. At the time, countries were suffering from anthrax, which is a
disease that affects cattle. He believed it was possible that If the animals were
intentionally infected with a very mild case of the disease, this may be enough
to prevent them from getting the disease later on. To prove this, he needed to
test his theory on live animals. 55
[A] They recovered and, when placed with cattle that did have the disease, they
remained immune. [B] Pasteur's last major research success was the
development of a vaccine against rabies. [C] Institutes were built and people
were treated for the disease in them. Pasteur was a national hero in France. [D]
He died in 1895 and was given a state funeral.
31. The word "inactive" in the passage is closest in meaning to_______. A. motionless B. occupied C. dangerous D. reactive
32. According to paragraph 2, what evidence contradicted the previous beliefs of ‘Mitscherlich’?
A. Proof of the process of fermentation
B. Molecules being active at all times
C. Observed only a single type of crystal
D. Molecules produce all living organisms
33. According to Pasteur’s experiments, what did he prove to be true?
A. The wine would change to vinegar because of fermentation. -233- Reading
B. Microorganisms were present in all alcoholic drinks.
C. Yeast was an organism that did not need oxygen to work.
D. The fermentation was a purely chemical process.
34. The word "necessitate" in the passage is closest in meaning to________. A. facilitate B. require C. produce D. consume
35. According to paragraph 5, what did Pasteur publicly refute?
A. That fermentation contributed to spontaneous generation
B. That bottle-neck glasses can keep things germ-free
C. That maggots can form suddenly from matter without warning
D. That flies were created from the maggots on dead meat
36. Why does the author describe Pasteur’s ’swan neck flask’ experiment in the passage?
A. To explain the method of scientific experimentation
B. To demonstrate the correct way to do a scientific experiment
C. To show how microbes contribute to spontaneous generation
D. To illustrate exactly how Pasteur determined his findings
37. The word "ingenious" in the passage is closest in meaning to_______. A. original B. tremendous C. controlled D. significant
38. Which of the following best expresses the essential information in the
highlighted sentence? Incorrect answer choices change the meaning in important
ways or leave out essential information.
A. Most patients became sick from being infected by doctors in the emergency room.
B. Hospital wards had become dirty and dangerous places due to the lack of proper training and space.
C. Pasteur learned that infections could be transmitted to healthy patients from
dirty, non-sterile instruments doctors had used on previous patients.
D. Healthy patients could become infected by sick people, simply by the shake of a hand or sharing a drink.
39. According to the passage, which method was NOT used in Pasteur’s experiments?
A. Sealed bottles under observation
B. Disinfection of materials and instruments
C. Heating to mild temperatures
D. Going into animal experimentation known to be scientifically unsound -234- Reading
40. Look at the four squares [ ] that indicate where the following sentence can be added to the passage.
Pasteur was successful in producing a safe version of anthrax bacteria which he then
injected into a population of cows.
Where would the sentence best fit? A. [A] B. [B] C. [C] D. [D] -235- Reading
4.7. TESTS FOR SELF-PRACTICE TEST 1
Directions: In this section of the test, you will read FOUR different passages, each
followed by 10 questions about it. For questions 1-40, you are to choose the best
answer A, B, C or D, to each question. Then, on your answer sheet, find the number of
the question and fill in the space that corresponds to the letter of the answer you have
chosen. Answer all questions following a passage on the basis of what is stated or implied in that passage.
You have 60 minutes to answer all the questions, including the time to transfer your answers to the answer sheet.
PASSAGE 1 - Questions 1-10 Line 1
It takes a long time to raise a family of owlets, so the great homed owl begins
early in the year. In January and February, or as late as March in the North, the
male calls to the female with a resonant hoot. The female is larger than the
male. She sometimes reaches a body length of twenty-two to twenty-four 5
inches, with a wingspread up to fifty inches. To impress her, the male does a
strange courtship dance. He bobs. He bows. He ruffles his feathers and hops
around with an important air. He flutters from limb to limb and makes flying
sorties into the air. Sometimes he returns with an offering of food. They share
the repast, after which she joins the dance, hopping and bobbing about as 10
though keeping time to the beat of an inner drum.
Owls are poor home builders. They prefer to nest in a large hollow in a tree or
even to occupy the deserted nest of a hawk or crow. These structures are large
and rough, built of sticks and bark and lined with leaves and feathers.
Sometimes owls nest on a rocky ledge, or even on the bare ground. 15
The mother lays two or three round, dull white eggs. Then she stoically settles
herself on the nest and spreads her feather skirts about her to protect her
precious charges from snow and cold. It is five weeks before the first downy
white owlet pecks its way out of the shell. As the young birds feather out, they
look like wise old men with their wide eyes and quizzical expressions. They 20
clamor for food and keep the parents busy supplying mice, squirrels, rabbits,
crayfish, and beetles. Later in the season baby crows are taken. Migrating
songsters, waterfowl, and game birds all fall prey to the hungry family. It is -236- Reading
nearly ten weeks before fledglings leave the nest to search for their own food.
The parent birds weary of family life by November and drive the young owls
away to establish hunting ranges of their own.
1. What is the topic of this passage?
A. Raising a family of great homed owls
B. Mating rituals of great homed owls
C. Nest building of great homed owls
D. Habits of young great homed owls
2. The phrase "a resonant hoot" in line 3 is closest in meaning to________. A. an instrument B. a sound C. a movement D. an offering of food
3. It can be inferred from the passage that the courtship of great horned owls________. A. takes place on the ground B. is an active process C. happens in the fall D. involves the male alone
4. According to the passage, great horned owls________.
A. are discriminate nest builders
B. need big nests for their numerous eggs
C. may inhabit a previously used nest D. build nests on tree limbs
5. According to the passage, which of the following is the mother owl’s job?
A. To initiate the courtship ritual B. To feed the young C. To sit on the nest D. To build the nest
6. The phrase "precious charges” in line 15 refers to________. A. the eggs B. the nest C. the hawks and crows D. other nesting owls
7. According to the passage, young owlets eat everything EXCEPT________. A. other small birds B. insects C. small mammals D. nuts and seeds -237- Reading
8. The word "they" in line 17 refers to ________. A. the wise old men B. the adult birds C. the young birds D. the prey
9. What can be inferred from the passage about the adult parents of the young great horned owls?
A. They are sorry to see their young leave home.
B. They are lazy and careless about feeding the small owlets.
C. They probably don’t see their young after November.
D. They don’t eat while they are feeding their young.
10. The phrase "weary of” in line 22 is closest in meaning to________. A. tire of B. become sad-about C. support D. are attracted to
PASSAGE 2 - Questions 11-20 Line 1
In the early 1800s, to reach the jump-off point for the West, a family from the
East of the United States could either buy steamboat passage to Missouri for
themselves, their wagons, and their livestock or - as happened more often-
simply pile everything into a wagon, hitch up a team, and begin their overland 5
trek right in their front yard.
Along the macadamized roads and turnpikes east of the Missouri JRiver, travel
was comparatively fast, camping easy, and supplies plentiful. Then, in one
river town or another, the neophyte emigrants would pause to lay in
provisions. For outfitting purposes, the town of Independence had been 10
preeminent ever since 1827, but the rising momentum of pioneer emigration
had produced some rival jump-off points. Westport and Fort Leavenworth
flourished a few miles upriver. St. Joseph had sprung up 55 miles to the
northwest; in fact, emigrants who went to Missouri by riverboat could save
four days on the trail by g staying on the paddle-wheelers to St. Joe before striking overland. 15
At whatever jump-off point they chose, the emigrants studied guidebooks and
directions, asked questions of others as green as themselves, and made their
final decisions about outfitting. They had various, sometimes conflicting,
options. For example, either pack animals or two-wheel carts or wagons could -238- Reading 20
be used for the overland crossing. A family man usually chose the wagon. It
was the costliest and slowest of the three, but it provided space and shelter for
children and for a wife who likely as not was pregnant. Everybody knew that a
5 top-heavy covered wagon might blow over in a prairie wind or be overturned
by mountain rocks, that it might mire in river mud or sink to its hubs in desert 25
sand - but maybe if those things happened on this trip, they would happen to
someone else. Anyway, most pioneers, with their farm background, were used to wagons.
11. What is the topic of this passage? A. Important river towns
B. Getting started on the trip west
C. The advantages of traveling by wagon
D. Choosing a point of departure
12. All of the following can be inferred from the passage about travel east of the
Missouri EXCEPT that it________.
A. was faster than in the West
B. was easier than in the West C. took place on good roads D. was usually by steamboat
13. The phrase "jump-off point” in line 1 is closest in meaning to________. A. a bridge across a river B. a point of departure C. a gathering place D. a trading post
14. Which of the cities that served as a jump-off point can be inferred from the
passage to be farthest west? A. Independence B. St Joseph C. Westport D. Fort Leavenworth
15. The word "preeminent" in line 8 is closest in meaning to________. A. oldest B. superior C. most easily reached D. closest
16. The author implies in the passage that the early emigrants ________. A. knew a lot about travel
B. were well stocked with provisions when they left their homes
C. left from the same place in Missouri
D. preferred wagon travel to other types of travel
17. The word "neophyte" in line 9 is closest in meaning to________. A. eager B. courageous C. prosperous -239- Reading D. inexperienced
18. All of the following were mentioned in the passage as options for modes of
transportation from the Missouri River to the West EXCEPT________. A. a wagon B. a riverboat C. a pack animal D. a two-wheel cart
19. The word "striking" in line 14 is closest in meaning to________. A. hitting B. orienting C. departing D. marking
20. All of the following features of the covered wagon made it unattractive to the
emigrants EXCEPT________.
A. speed at which it could travel B. its bulk C. its familiarity and size D. its cost
PASSAGE 3 - Questions 21-30 Line 1
Alexander the Great commissioned the city of Alexandria to create a
Mediterranean stronghold in Egypt to rival Rome and cities in Greece. He died
before his idea came to fruition, but his successors built it into one of the
greatest cities of the Hellenistic world. The Royal Library of Alexandria has 5
achieved an almost mythical status among scholars of classical studies. As with
many ancient topics, scholarship on the matter often conflicts and relies heavily
on hearsay and supposition. We will examine the importance of the library
during its heyday and how it operated.
As with many ancient landmarks, there is much debate and controversy over 10
Alexandria's library, especially regarding its destruction. The tale has been
retold by countless historians and s attributed to just as many different factions
and. rulers, not to profile this landmark of education, but as a tool for political
slander. It is estimated that there are over 4000 writings regarding its
destruction, yet very little data exists regarding the structure, layout, 15
organization, administration, or whereabouts of the complex. The accuracy of
the available information is suspect. However, 20th century scholars have
reached some general consensus from the remaining sources. -240- Reading
Most historians have come to the conclusion that the original library (also
known as the Temple of the Muses) was commissioned - by Ptolemy I,
Alexander's key general. More accurately, it was commissioned by the 20
Athenian exile Demetrius of Phaleron under Ptolemyls patronage. Traditionally
it was attributed to his son Ptolemy II. However, it was later shown that
Demetrius was ~ antagonistic toward Ptolemy II and did not survive for much
of his reign. Ptolemy II can be seen as responsible for the fruition and
completion of the library and museum complex. H.G. Wells asserts that 25
Ptolemy and his son encouraged 'a blaze of knowledge and discovery at
Alexandria' through their funding of the library and other endowments.
The library itself was not a 'library' in the modem etymology. In fact, the
library was essentially a collection of scholars and scribes encouraged to
expand scientific and philosophical wisdom and musings brought about 30
because of the ambition and drive of Ptolemy I. It was not the first
institution of its type, developing about a half-century after Plato's Academy
and Aristotle's Lyceum. About 30-50 scholars were probably permanently
housed there, fed, and funded, first by the royal family, and later, according to
an early Roman scroll, by public money. It served a religious, as well as an 35
intellectual, function and it was the centerpiece of a so-called cult of the muses, governed by a priest.
[A] The library’s output was created through observation and deduction in
math, medicine, astronomy, and geometry, the editing of texts and manuscripts,
and debating various advances in Western knowledge. [B] For two or three 40
generations, the scientific output at Alexandria was considerably good. Its
achievements included the introduction of the first steam engine, the first star
map, and an astoundingly accurate estimate of the Earth’s diameter. [C]
Famous scholars employed there included Euclid, Eratosthenes, Apollonius, and Hero. [D] 45
The library may have consisted of a group of buildings, including lecture halls,
study rooms, dining rooms, gardens, and an astronomical observatory. In
organization of the library, it is believed that, in the time of Ptolemy II, the
scrolls were haphazardly stored and grouped by general category. From the
time of Callimachus onwards, they used an early iteration of a subject catalog. 50
Subject divisions outlined by Callimachus included mathematics, medicine,
astronomy, and geometry, as well as philology. At its peak, it is estimated
about 600,000 scrolls were held within its walls, although that is likely an overstatement. -241- Reading
The Ptolemys achieved their goal of creating the largest collection of its kind 55
by varied and often forceful means. At the time of its founding, Greek libraries
were usually collections of manuscripts by private individuals. Ptolemy had a
vision to collect all accepted literature on all matters scientific, philosophical
and spiritual. The library tried to get copies of all known books and would send
agents far and wide to acquire them. Ptolemy III wrote a letter "to all the 60
world’s sovereigns" asking to borrow their books. On more than a few
occasions, scribes made copies and kept the originals. Supposedly, all ships
entering Alexandria’s harbor were searched for books to copy.
The Royal Library of Alexandria was created at an ideal time and place in
world history. It was able to combine the deductive techniques of Greek 65
thought toward the learning of other world cultures. As such, it holds a
legendary position among historians as an important center of classical
knowledge. Although much of the story has been buried with time and conflict,
the importance and significance of its contributions are clear.
21. All of the following sentences express important ideas in the passage EXCEPT ________.
A. The library was essentially a collection of scholars and scribes encouraged to
expand scientific and philosophical wisdom.
B. In the time of Callimachus, the scrolls were haphazardly stored and grouped by general category.
C. It is estimated that there were over 4000 writings about its destruction, yet very little evidence exists.
D. The library tried to get copies of all known books and would employ several methods of acquiring them.
22. The author mentions "its destruction" in line 10 in order to________.
A. introduce the idea that the destruction was caused by natural disaster
B. illustrate that there are so many arguments surrounding its demise and disappearance
C. indicate the difference between its destruction and other libraries destruction
D. highlight the difference between the library and other historic sites
23. The word "its" in line 11 refers to________. A. data B. education
C. the Royal Library of Alexandria D. destruction
24. The word "factions" in line 23 is closest in meaning to________. A. sections B. insubordinates C. cliques D. conspiracies -242- Reading
25. Which of the following best expresses the essential information in the
highlighted sentence in the passage? Incorrect answer choices change the
meaning in important ways or leave out essential information.
A. Commissioned by Ptolemy I, the Royal Library was a place where people who
wanted to learn gathered to study and record their philosophies.
B. The library was a large building where students gathered to research and study.
C. Philosophers often visited the library to further their studies.
D. Many people gathered at the Royal Library in Alexandria in order to socialize with their friends.
26. According to paragraph 6, what was true about the early iteration of a subject catalog?
A. All the books were grouped within two general categories.
B. The books were chosen for their innovation, thematic impact, and popular appeal.
C. The librarians organized the collection of books systematically.
D. The library achieved an astonishing collection and many developments.
27. The word "overstatement” in line 51 is closest in meaning to________. A. estimation B. falsehood C. exaggeration D. presumption
28. Which of the following can be inferred about the Royal Library from the passage?
A. Most of the manuscripts from the library are preserved in modem museums.
B. Several writings from the library have been scanned and can be viewed on the Internet.
C. Little of the manuscripts contained in the library are in existence today.
D. The library is currently being reconstructed.
29. According to historians, all of the following were true about the Royal
Library of Alexandria EXCEPT________.
A. It probably contained over 600,000 writings.
B. Little is known of its exact location.
C. It was responsible for the first star map.
D. It was the largest and most magnificent library in history.
30. Look at the four squares [ ] that indicate where the following sentence can be added to the passage.
It remained an important intellectual center for over 500 years until numerous fires
and other problems eroded its significance.
Where would the sentence best fit? A. [A] B. [B] C. [C] D. [D] -243- Reading
PASSAGE 4 - Questions 31-40 Line 1
The Pacific Ocean contains approximately 20,000 to 30,000 islands. Islands,
excluding Australia, that are south of the Tropic of Cancer are grouped into
three divisions: Melanesia, Micronesia, and Polynesia.
Melanesia includes the nation of Papua New Guinea, provinces of Indonesia, 5
and the Solomon Islands. Micronesia means ‘small islands,’ most of which are
north of the equator. Finally, Polynesia, which means ‘many islands,’ includes
the Hawaiian Islands, Tonga, Tuvalu, and Easter Island, among others.
Migrants from South East Asian cities were the first settlers. The next wave of
migrants populated New Guinea, gradually spreading to Fiji. The last of the 10
Pacific islands to be settled was Polynesia. Hawaii was discovered sometime
between the 7th and 13th centuries.
Bats were the only mammals on these islands until the arrival of the first
humans. Birds adapted to environmental niches, like grazers and insectivores.
Due to the cool and humid location, New Zealand lost plants and animals, like 15
the giant flightless bird, that were intolerant of its climate. However, the
extinction coincided with the arrival of the Melanesians, so it was probably
caused by hunting and fires. Adding to that, mining and a natural drought
destroyed a majority of the natural habitat. This was repeated on Easter Island,
where early settlers wiped out 22 species of sea birds and land birds. By the 20
time the Europeans had arrived, most of the plant life was extinct and nearly
30% of the forests were cleared.
The invasion of New Zealand by the Europeans resulted in a complete
transformation of the island, importing over 3,198 species of plants and
animals and filling most of the wetlands. Australia also imported animals and 25
plants from many Pacific Island countries. Sheep, pigs, goats and foxes were
brought to Australia, which further disrupted the native ecosystems. Many
plants and animals are presently endangered.
The plants and animals that inhabit Pacific islands are found nowhere else on
earth. They are often adapted to specific habitats and live on a small part of a 30
few islands. New Caledonia is an island that has been isolated from other lands
for over 80 million years. 66 percent of the plant life there evolved on the
island. Numerous plant species, unique in the world, are on a small area of one
mountain and are represented by only a few specimens. -244- Reading
This varied genetic heritage is of such scientific importance that New
Caledonia has been listed as one of the ten hot spots where the primary forest is 35
in danger of extinction. It also boasts 68 species of bird, the most diverse bird
life in the Southwest Pacific.
During the first Ice Age, ocean levels were much lower than they are at
present. Levels in the shallow seas, now separating Asia from North America
near the present-day Bering strait, dropped approximately 300 feet, creating 40
1,000 miles of grassland plain. Called the ‘Bering Land Bridge,’ this linked
Asia and North America together. The Bering Sea has a long history of stable
animal populations, despite the harsh environments, which sustain human life.
Lemmings, ox, and mammoths all made the journey across the land L bridge.
Although mammoths have been extinct for quite a while now, the other two 45 have remained.
Pacific walruses inhabit shallow waters of the Bering Sea during winter. They
congregate to feed on clams, their principal food. [A] This type of feeding
releases nutrients into the water, providing food for starfish and increasing the
roughness of the sea floor. [B] Actual impact of the ecology of bottom 50
communities is unknown, but walruses along with other animals like
beavers and sea otters have huge effects on the biological communities
they occupy. [C] Animals such as seals, bowhead whales, and walruses are
important as for the subsistence of their community. [D]
Pacific islands have the same pollution and over fishing problems is as most 55
countries. Destructive forms of fishing in Asian nations have of taken their toll
on marine animals such as birds and tuna. Many of these nations have now
entered joint venture agreements to enable them to develop their marine resources more efficiently.
31. The word "populated" in line 9 is closest in meaning to________. A. inhabited B. exiled C. traveled D. governed
32. The word "it" in line 16 refers to________. A. arrival B. extinction C. climate D. hunting
33. Why does the author mention "The invasion of New Zealand it by the
Europeans" in the passage?
A. To demonstrate its destructive effect on local ecosystems
B. To explain how many of New Zealand’s species came into being
C. To show the lack of responsibility that early settlers had toward new places
D. To draw a comparison to the way Australia expanded in the Pacific -245- Reading
34. According to paragraph 5, what is unique about the Pacific Islands?
A. They have a long history of traditional management approaches for marine resources.
B. They are home to rare and unique animals.
C. They are made up of 66% plant life.
D. They have all been damaged by European settlers.
35. The word "specimens" in line 33 is closest in meaning to________. A. genres B. features C. examples D. images
36. According to paragraph 7, how has the Bering Sea aided life forms in the past?
A. By providing creatures with plentiful food
B. By being home to a diverse and varied ecosystem
C. By allowing transit across the great ice shelves in the Americas
D. By keeping creatures cool and comfortable in the ice
37. According to the passage, which of the following is true of walruses?
A. They protect the surrounding ecosystem by preventing overfishing.
B. Their unique feeding habits enrich the ecosystem with nutrients.
C. They are solitary animals which hunt and eat by themselves.
D. They are usually found living in the deepest regions of the Bering Sea.
38. Which of the following best expresses the essential information in the
Highlighted sentence? Incorrect answer choices change the meaning in important
ways or leave out essential information.
A. Although ecological impacts are hot known, many species are largely
dependent on animals occupying a sub-level.
B. The true biological diversity of all the walruses is revealed only below the species level.
C. Beavers and otters are strongly related to the walrus family because there is a
clear cause-effect relationship.
D. There is a great deal that still needs to be learned about biological communities and ecosystems.
39. According to paragraph 9, what measures have been taken to protect sea creatures?
A. Protection agencies have begun guarding areas known for high fish population.
B. Destructive fishing methods such as drag-nets have been outlawed.
C. Agreements have been made to ensure that marine resources are used carefully.
D. Restrictions have been placed on amounts permitted to be fished in certain areas. -246- Reading
40. Look at the four squares [_ ] that indicate where the following sentence can be added to the passage.
Walruses blow the clams loose with a jet of water, then suck them from their shells.
Where would the sentence best fit? A. [A] B. [B] C. [C] D. [D] -247- Reading TEST 2
Directions: In this section of the test, you will read FOUR different passages, each
followed by 10 questions about it. For questions 1-40, you are to choose the best
answer A, B, C or D, to each question. Then, on your answer sheet, find the number of
the question and fill in the space that corresponds to the letter of the answer you have
chosen. Answer all questions following a passage on the basis of what is stated or implied in that passage.
You have 60 minutes to answer all the questions, including the time to transfer your answers to the answer sheet.
PASSAGE 1 - Questions 1-10 Line 1
Scientists do not yet thoroughly understand just how the body of an individual
becomes sensitive to a substance that is harmless or even wholesome for the
average person. Milk, wheat, and egg, for example, rank among the most
healthful and widely used folds. Yet these foods can cause persons sensitive to 5
them to suffer greatly. At first, the body of the individual is not harmed by
coming into contact with the substance. After a varying interval of time,
usually longer than a few weeks, the body becomes sensitive to it, and an
allergy has begun to develop. Sometimes it’s hard to figure out if you have a
food allergy, since it can show up so many different ways. Your symptoms 10
could be caused by many other problems. You may have rashes, hives, joint
pains mimicking arthritis, headaches, irritability, or depression. The most
common food allergies are to milk, eggs, seafood, wheat, nuts, seeds,
chocolate, oranges, and tomatoes. Many of these allergies will not develop if
these foods are not fed to an infant until her or his intestines mature at around 15
seven months. Breast milk also tends to be protective. Migraines can be set off
by foods containing tyramine, phenethylamine, monosodium glutamate, or
sodium nitrate. Common foods which contain these are chocolate, aged
cheeses, sour cream, red wine, pickled herring, chicken livers, avocados, ripe
bananas, cured meats, many Oriental and prepared foods (read the labels!). 20
Some people have been successful in treating their migraines with supplements
of B-vitamins, particularly B6 and niacin. Children who hyperactive may
benefit from eliminating food additives, especially colorings, and foods high in
salicylates from their diets. A few of these are almonds, green peppers,
peaches, tea, grapes. This is the diet made popular by Benjamin Feingold, who 25
has written the book Why Child is Hyperactive, Other researchers have had
mixed results when testing whether the diet is effective. -248- Reading
1. The topic of this passage is________. A. reactions to foods B. infants and allergies C. food and nutrition D. a good diet
2. According to the passage, the difficulty in diagnosing allergies to foods is due to
A. the vast number of different foods we eat
B. lack of a proper treatment plan
C. the similarity of symptoms of the allergy to other problems
D. the use of prepared formula to feed babies
3. The word "symptoms" in line 9 is closest in meaning to________. A. indications B. diet C. diagnosis D. prescriptions
4. The phrase "set off" in line 15 is closest in meaning to________. A. relieved B. identified C. avoided D. triggered
5. What can be inferred about babies from this passage?
A. They can eat almost anything.
B. They should have a carefully restricted diet as infants.
C. They gain little benefit from being breast fed.
D. They may become hyperactive if fed solid food too early.
6. The word "hyperactive" in line 21 is closest in meaning to_________. A. overly active B. unusually low activity C. excited D. inquisitive
7. The author states that the reason that infants need to avoid certain foods
related to allergies has to do with the infant's__________. A. lack of teeth B. poor metabolism
C. underdeveloped intestinal tract
D. inability to swallow solid foods
8. The word "these” in line 23 refers to___________. A. food additives B. food colorings C. innutritious foods D. foods high in salicylates -249- Reading
9. Which of the following was a suggested treatment for migraines in the passage? A. Eating more ripe bananas
B. Avoiding all Oriental foods
C. Getting plenty of sodium nitrate
D. Using Vitamin B in addition to a good diet
10. According to the article the Feingold diet is NOT
A. verified by researchers as being consistently effective B. available in book form
C. beneficial for hyperactive children
D. designed to eliminate foods containing certain food additives
PASSAGE 2 - Questions 11-20 Line 1
Until recently, most American entrepreneurs were men. Discrimination against
women in business, the demands of caring for families, and lack of business
training had kept the number of women entrepreneurs small. Now, however,
businesses owned by women account for more than $40 billion in annual 5
revenues, and this figure is likely to continue rising throughout the 1990s. As
Carolyn Doppelt Gray, an official of the Small Business Administration, has
noted, “The 1970s was the decade of women entering management, and the
1980s turned out to be the decade of the woman entrepreneur.” What are some
of the factors behind this trend? For one thing, as more women earn advanced 10
degrees in business and enter the corporate world, they are finding obstacles.
Women are still excluded from most executive suites. Charlotte Taylor, a
management consultant, had noted, "In the 1970s women believed if they got
an MBA and worked hard they could become chairman of the board. Now
they’ve found out that isn’t going to happen, so they go out on their own." 15
In the past, most women entrepreneurs worked in "women’s" fields cosmetics
and clothing, for example. But this is changing. Consider ASK Computer
Systems, a $22-million-a-year computer software business. It was founded in
1973 by Sandra Kurtzig, who was then a housewife with degrees in math and
engineering. When Kurtzig founded the business, her first product was 20
software that let weekly newspapers keep tabs on their newspaper carriers and
her office was a bedroom at home, with a shoebox under the bed to hold the
company’s cash. After she succeeded with the newspaper software system, she
hired several bright computer-science graduates to develop additional
programs. When these were marketed and sold, ASK began to grow. It now has 25
200 employees, and Sandra Kurtzig owns $66.9 million of stock. -250- Reading
Of course, many women who start their own businesses fail, just as men often
do. They still face hurdles in the business world, especially problems in raising
money; the banking and finance world is still dominated by men, and old
attitudes die hard. Most businesses owned by women are still quite small. But 30
the situation is changing; there are likely to be many more Sandra Knrtzigs in the years ahead.
11. What is the main idea of this passage?
A. Women today are better educated than in the past, making them more attractive to the business world.
B. The computer is especially lucrative for women today.
C. Women are better at small businesses than men are.
D. Women today are opening more businesses of their own.
12. The word "excluded" in the passage is closest in meaning to_________. A. not permitted in B. often invited to C. decorators of D. charged admission to
13. All of the following were mentioned in the passage as detriments to women in
the business world EXCEPT_________.
A. women were required to stay at home with their families
B. women lacked ability to work in business
C. women faced discrimination in business
D. women were not trained in business
14. The word "that" in the passage refers to__________.
A. a woman becomes chairman of the board B. women working hard
C. women achieving advanced degrees
D. women believing that business is a place for them
15. According to the passage, Charlotte Taylor believes that women in the 1970s ____________.
A. were unrealistic about their opportunities in business management
B. were still more interested in education than business opportunities
C. had fewer obstacles in business than they do today
D. were unable to work hard enough to succeed in business
16. The author mentions the "shoebox under the bed" in the third paragraph in order to___________.
A. show the frugality of women in business
B. show the resourcefulness of Sandra Kurtzig
C. point out that initially the financial resources of Sandra Kurtzig’s business were limited
D. suggest that the company needed to expand -251- Reading
17. The word "this" in the passage refers to___________.
A. women becoming entrepreneurs
B. women buying cosmetics and clothing
C. women working in “women’s fields” D. women staying at home
18. The expression "keep tabs on" in the passage is closest in meaning to ______.
A. recognize the appearance of B. keep records of C. provide transportation for D. pay the salaries of
19. It can be inferred from the passage that the author believes that businesses
operated by women are small because__________.
A. women prefer a small intimate setting
B. women can’t deal with money
C. women are not able to borrow money easily
D. many women fail at large businesses
20. The author's attitude about the future of women in business is ____________ A. skeptical B. optimistic C. frustrated D. negative
PASSAGE 3 - Questions 21-30 Line 1
Symbiosis is a close ecological relationship between two dissimilar organisms.
They assist each other with feeding, defending, and reproducing. In symbiosis,
at least one of the pair benefits from the relationship. The other may be injured
(parasitism), unaltered (commensalism), or may also benefit (mutualism). 5
An interesting mutually dependent relationship exists between the pine and the
pinon jay. Blue pinon jays settle on the tops of pine trees and pick at the dark
round seeds from the sticky cones. They store the seeds in their throats, fly off
and hide them somewhere, and then return to repeat the process again. It seems
the reproductive cycle of a pine jay corresponds with the ripening of the
pine’s seed. Similarly, the pine is dependent on the pinon jays for distribution 10 of the seeds.
Seeds are stored in the bark of a tree or in the ground. Using their long bills,
pinon jays plant and store them for later consumption. Their throats can expand
to hold a large number of seeds; one pinon jay has been reported carrying 50
seeds in one trip. After they have planted the seeds, they return to eat them. -252- Reading 15
Using their bills like a woodpecker, they hammer the seed until the shell
breaks. Any unrecovered nuts are then grown into new trees. This fascinating
relationship has been ongoing for thousands of years.
When both species benefit each other, this is called mutualism. An example of
mutualism is a plant and fungi. The fungus occupies the cortex cells of the 20
secondary roots of the plant. This relationship is called, a ‘mycorrhiza.’ It
helps the plant absorb inorganic nitrogen and phosphorus from the soil. Some
fungi also produce antibiotics which may prevent the invasion of parasitic
fungi and bacteria. Another example of mutualism is pollination. Bees carry
pollen from one plant to the next when they seek out plants for nectar. They 25
feed themselves on the nectar, and the plants reproduce after fertilization by the pollen from other plants.
Mutualism can also bring together two very different organisms, for example, a
buffalo and an ox bird. These birds journey on the backs of African buffalo
eating their parasites. The bird receives food, and the buffalo is rid of irritating 30
insects. There are also a number of fish that provide an excellent example of
mutualism. Known as ‘cleaner fish,’ these fish get rid of parasites and dead
skin found on other fish. The best-known example is the ‘cleaner wrasse,’
which dwells in the Pacific and Indian oceans. They clean large predatory fish
by eating tissue and parasites off their skin. This relationship provides food and 35
protection for the wrasse and several health benefits for the other fish.
The other two types of symbiosis, besides mutualism, are commensalism and
parasitism. [A] Commensalism refers to a symbiotic relationship where one
organism eats the unused food of another. [B] One benefits, but the other is not
affected. Examples include the remora and the shark. The remora attaches 40
itself to the shade, when the shark feeds itself, the remora picks up scraps. [C]
One example of commensalism in humans is bacteria living in our intestines
that feed on food in our gut. [D]
In parasitism, one organism benefits and the other is harmed. Parasites live off
the body of other organisms and receive nourishment from their tissues,
while also inflicting damage on their hosts. Plants are parasitized by bacteria, 45
fungi, and a handful of other plants. Parasites cause harm by entering the tissue
of the host for their own nutritional benefit.
None of these relationships are fixed, and it is likely that what starts as a
parasitic relationship may gradually evolve into a mutualistic one. For -253- Reading
example, in 1966, amebas were discovered that had become infected with 50
bacteria. However, after five years, it was found that the core of the amebas
had become dependent on the bacteria; thus, parasitism had evolved into
mutualism. Unfortunately, the inverse is also possible; mutualistic associations
may evolve into parasitic ones.
21. According to paragraph 2, what does the pinon jay do for the pine tree?
A. It gives the tree important nutrition.
B. It provides a primary means of seed dissemination for pinon trees.
C. It keeps the tree free from parasites.
D. It helps the tree produce larger seeds.
22. The word "corresponds" in line 9 is closest in meaning to_________ . A. matches B. includes C. exposes D. protects
23. According to paragraph 3? how does the blue pinon jay store the seeds for later?
A. By holding up to 50 in its mouth
B. By burying them in the ground
C. By protecting them in its nest
D. By allowing them to develop into new trees
24. The word "It" in line 21 refers to___________. A. bacteria B. mutualism C. mycorrhiza D. fungus
25. According to paragraph 5, what is an example of a mutual relationship?
A. An animal eating parasites from another
B. An animal licking the body of another
C. An animal providing protection for another
D. An animal keeping another awake and alert
26. The author mentions "the remora and the shark” in line 40 in order to _____.
A. explain the details behind a mutualist association
B. demonstrate a connection between an active parasite picker and host
C. show how one animal can benefit from the acts of another
D. give an example of one animal causing the suffering of another
27. Which of the following best expresses the essential information in the
highlighted sentence? Incorrect answer choices change the meaning in important
ways or leave out essential information.
A. There are many types of creatures that are very well developed and have the
strength to support other species.
B. Sometimes, the organisms supplying parasites are very harmful to their hosts.
C. Some animals are selfish and only cause damage to their hosts. -254- Reading
D. Organisms which must depend on others die easily because they are not strong.
28. The word "gradually" in line 50 is closest in meaning to_________. A. lowly B. constantly C. increasingly D. rapidly
29. According to the passage, which of the following is NOT an example of mutualism? A. A plant and its fungi
B. Pollen transfer from one plant to another C. The remora and the shark D. A buffalo and an ox bird
30. Look at the four squares [ ] that indicate where the following sentence can be added to the passage.
They are completely safe and may possibly help us, hence a commensalism
relationship.
Where would the sentence best fit? A. [A] B. [B] C. [C] D. [D]
PASSAGE 4 - Questions 31-40
Line Earth has several distinct layers; the outermost of these is the crust, which has 1
an inconsistent thickness of 35-70 km in the continents and 5-10 km in the
ocean basins. The second layer is known as the mantle, which is about 2900
km thick, and-divided into an upper and lower mantle. Most of Earth’s internal
heat is situated here. The upper mantle has an area known as the low-velocity 5
zone, where secondary waves decrease rapidly and then gradually increase.
The last layer is the core. This is a thick ball of iron and nickel divided into two
layers, the inner core and the outer core.
The inner core is solid, whereas the outer core is so hot that the metal is always
molten. However, because the force at the inner core is so immense, it cannot 10
melt. Due to Earth’s rotation, the outer core spins around the inner core, which
causes the Earth’s magnetism. The inner core consists of iron, nickel and other
elements, probably a mix of carbon, oxygen, sulphur, silicon, and potassium.
The temperature is extremely high, and due to pressure, the core is solid.
Because the outer core is liquid, mainly consisting of iron, nickel and about 15
10% oxygen and sulphur, here the temperature is not as high.
Both the outer and inner cores together create the Earth’s magnetism. The core
has a huge influence on Earth. Because it is so hot, it radiates a natural heat to -255- Reading
the upper layers, setting off a current of heat, which in turn causes the
movement of the tectonic plates. Because of Earth’s rotation, the outer core 20
spins, but the inner core does not because it is solid. This provides a sort of
dynamo effect and causes the Earth’s magnetic force.
A seismic wave is a wave that travels through Earth; it is often the result of a
tectonic earthquake. There are two kinds of seismic waves, “body waves” and
“surface waves.” Other waves do exist, but are of little importance. Body 25
waves travel through the center of Earth, following ray paths which are bent by
the unstable density and stiffness of Earth’s interior. These differ according to
temperature, phase, and structure. Body waves send out the first tremors of an
earthquake as well as any later ones.
There are two kinds of body waves, “primary” and “secondary” waves. 30
Primary waves are compression waves, meaning the ground is alternately
compressed and expanded in the direction of propagation. These waves can
travel slightly faster through solids than secondary waves can, and are also able
to travel through any type of material. Through air, they take the form of sound
waves and so travel at the speed of sound. 35
Primary waves, when created by an earthquake, are less destructive than sound
waves due to their minor amplitudes. Secondary waves are tilted waves; in
other words, the ground is shifted vertically in the direction of transmission.
Here, the ground moves from one side to the other. Secondary waves are only
able to travel through solids, not liquids or gases, and thus are unable to travel 40
through Earth’s core. Primary waves are faster than secondary waves. Primary
and secondary waves are usually produced by earthquakes and volcanoes.
However, they can also be produced by people using explosives or large machinery.
Surface waves are comparable to water waves traveling just under Earth’s 45
surface. They travel at slower speeds than body waves. Surface waves can be
the most devastating type of seismic wave due to their low frequency, long
duration, and large amplitude. In theory, they are understood as a system which
relates to primary and secondary waves.
[A] The moment an earthquake occurs, seismographs try to record its 50
primary and secondary waves, but often they cannot detect the secondary
waves of a distant earthquake. [B] This may be due to the fact that secondary
waves are unable to pass through liquids. [C] This information about wave -256- Reading
travel helps scientists determine the internal structure of the planet. [D]
31. In paragraph 1, what does the author say about the presence of the low-
velocity zone in the Earth’s interior?
A. It causes the high-frequency stimulation.
B. Its width is consistent with the fault zone.
C. It induces regionally extensive oscillations.
D. It is located just above the lower crustal boundary.
32. The word "immense" in line 9 is closest in meaning to________. A. compressed B. dilated C. immeasurable D. varied
33. According to paragraph 2, which of the following is NOT true about the inner core?
A. It contributes to the Earth’s magnetic field.
B. It is always molten and liquid.
C. It is under a lot of pressure.
D. It mainly consists of iron, nickel and some lighter elements.
34. According to paragraph 3, which of the following is the reason for tectonic plate movement?
A. The convection of heat from the core
B. The gravitational effect of the core
C. The powerful magnetic forces of the core
D. The spinning of the inner and outer core together
35. Why does the author mention "a tectonic earthquake" in line 23?
A. To show that primary waves are far more powerful than secondary waves
B. To demonstrate the effect of seismic waves on the Earth
C. To develop understanding of the structure of the Earth’s interior
D. To explain that scientific detection methods are very efficient
36. The word "phase" in line 27 is closest in meaning to_________. A. change B. period C. heat D. construction
37. The word "devastating" in line 45 is closest in meaning to_________. A. faint B. destructive C. productive D. quiet -257- Reading
38. Which of the following best expresses the essential information in the
highlighted sentence? Incorrect answer choices change the meaning in important
ways or leave out essential information.
A. Although primary and secondary waves would be recorded, the secondary
waves are not strong enough to be detected at a distance.
B. Seismic waves are too small to be felt as a noticeable earthquake, but detectable by seismographs.
C. Secondary waves can be generated as a result of nonlinear interaction, so
seismographs cannot detect them.
D. Because of extensive fault repetition, the primary wave is the most powerful force in an earthquake.
39. It can be inferred from the passage that the author most likely believes which
of the following about earthquakes in the world?
A. Volcanoes would not exist if earthquakes never happened.
B. They are caused by the force of primary waves hitting the crust.
C. They are primarily caused by the heat from the Earth’s core.
D. There is no more destructive thing in the world.
40. Look at the four squares [ ] that indicate where the following sentence can be added to the passage.
For example, with the use of secondary waves, scientists were able to suggest that
Earth has a liquid outer core.
Where would the sentence best fit? A. [A] B. [B] C. [C] D. [D] -258- Reading TEST 3
Directions: In this section of the test, you will read FOUR different passages, each
followed by 10 questions about it. For questions 1-40, you are to choose the best
answer A, B, C or D, to each question. Then, on your answer sheet, find the number of
the question and fill in the space that corresponds to the letter of the answer you have
chosen. Answer all questions following a passage on the basis of what is stated or implied in that passage.
You have 60 minutes to answer all the questions, including the time to transfer your answers to the answer sheet.
PASSAGE 1 - Questions 1-10 Line 1
This rapid transcontinental settlement and these new urban industrial
circumstances of the last half of the 19th century were accompanied by the
development of a national literature of great abundance and variety. New
themes, new forms, new subjects, new regions, new authors, new audiences all 5
emerged in the literature of this half century. As a result, at the onset of World
War I, the spirit and substance of American literature had evolved remarkably,
just as its center of production had shifted from Boston to New York in the late
1.880s and the sources of its energy to Chicago and the Midwest. No longer
was it produced, at least in its popular forms, in the main by solemn, typically 10
moralistic men from New England and the Old South; no longer were polite,
well-dressed, grammatically correct, middle-class young people the only
central characters in its narratives; no longer were these narratives to be set in
exotic places and remote times; no longer, indeed, were fiction, poetry, drama,
and formal history the chief acceptable forms of literary expression; no longer, 15
finally, was literature read primarily by young, middle class women. In sum,
American literature in these years fulfilled in considerable measure the
condition Walt Whitman called for in 1867 in describing Leaves of Grass: it
treats, he said of his own major work, each state and region as peers “and
expands from them and includes the world connecting an American citizen 20
with the citizens of all nations”. At the same time, these years saw the
emergence of what has been designated "the literature of argument", powerfill
works in sociology, philosophy, psychology, many of them impelled by the
spirit of exposure and reform. Just as America learned to play a role in this half
century as an autonomous international political, economic, and military 25
power, so did its literature establish itself as a producer of major works. -259- Reading
1. The main idea of this passage is____________.
A. that the new American literature was less provincial than the old
B. that World War I caused a dramatic change in America
C. that centers of culture shifted from East to West
D. that most people were wary of the new literature
2. It can be inferred that the previous passage probably discussed __________ .
A. the importance of tradition to writers
B. new developments in industrialization and population shifts
C. the fashions and values of 19th century America
D. the limitations of American literature to this time
3. The word "evolved" in line 6 is closest in meaning to__________. A. became famous B. turned back C. diminished D. changed
4. The word "it" in line 9 refers to___________. A. the population B. the energy C. American literature D. the manufacturing
5. The word "exotic" in line 12 is closest in meaning to___________. A. urban B. unusual C. well-known D. old-fashioned
6. The author uses the word "indeed" in line 13 for what purpose?
A. To emphasize the contrast he is making
B. For variety in a lengthy paragraph C. To wind down his argument
D. To show a favorable attitude to these forms of literature
7. The phrase "these years" in line 16 refers to __________. A. 1850-1900 B. the 1900s C. the early 1800s D. the present
8. It can be inferred from the passage that Walt Whitman__________. A. disliked urban life
B. was disapproving of the new literature C. wrote Leaves of Grass
D. was an international diplomat -260- Reading
9. All of the following can be inferred from the passage about the new literature EXCEPT__________.
A. It was not highly regarded internationally.
B. It introduced new American themes, characters, and settings.
C. It broke with many literary traditions of the past.
D. It spoke to the issue of reform and change.
10. This passage would probably be read in which of the following academic courses? A. European history B. American literature C. Current events D. International affairs
PASSAGE 2 - Questions 11-20 Line 1
When Daniel Boone died peacefully in bed in his son Nathan's elegant stone
Missouri farmhouse on September 26,1820, the surge of emigrants along the
Oregon Trail was still a generation away. But Boone already exemplified the
pioneer at his best. He was neither the physical giant (five feet nine) nor the 5
innocent child of nature that legend has made of him. He was an intelligent,
soft spoken family man who cherished the same wife for 57 years. He
befriended Indians, preferred company to solitude, and when he told his wife it
was time to move because a newcomer had settled some 70 miles away, he was
joking. Pennsylvania- born, Boone was one of 11 children in a family of 10
Quakers who migrated to North Carolina. There Boone was recruited at age 40
to undertake a scheme designed to open up Kentucky to settlers and establish it
as a 14th colony. He arranged a deal by which the Cherokees sold 20 million
acres for $20,000 worth of goods to Boone’s employers, the Transylvania
Company. It was all fair and square the Indians had an attorney, an 15
interpreter, and the sound advice of their squaws. The deal completed, Boone
led a party from Tennessee through the Cumberland Gap, hacked out the
Wilderness Road, and set up a town Boonesboro and a government. Elected a
legislator, he introduced on the first session’s first day a bill to protect game
against wanton slaughter and a second bill to "improve the breed of horses.” 20
He got 2,000 acres for his work, but after the Revolution in which Boone won
considerable fame as a militia commander the scheme of the Transylvania
Company was declared illegal and Boone lost his land. Undaunted, he staked
out more claims and lost them because he impatiently neglected to register his
deeds. Ever hopeful, he accepted an invitation from Spanish-held Missouri to 25
come and settle there and bring others with him. The Spanish gave him 8,500 -261- Reading
acres and made him a judge. But the Louisiana Purchase, which embraced
Missouri, again left him but not his children landless. Old and broke, Boone
cheerfully continued hunting and trapping long after his hands shook. Shortly
before he died, he was talking knowledgeably with young men about the joys 30
to be experienced in settling California.
11. What is the author’s purpose in writing this passage?
A. To chronicle the life of a model pioneer
B. To romanticize the legend of Daniel Boone
C. To show Boone's many successes on the frontier
D. To trace Boone's explorations in Kentucky, Missouri, and Louisiana
12. It can be inferred that one area in which Boone was NOT successful was _________. A. politics B. hunting and trapping C. business D. the military
13. The phrase "fair and square" in line 14 is closest in meaning to_________. A. honest B. simple C. efficient D. lucrative
14. It can be inferred from the passage that Boone who died is _________. A. a rich man B. an eternal optimist C. in California D. a lonely trapper
15. According to the passage, where is Boone’s namesake city located? A. In North Carolina B. In Transylvania C. In Kentucky D. In Missouri
16. The Transylvania Company wanted Boone to___________. A. settle Kentucky B. ensure animal rights C. be fair to the Indians D. claim Missouri
17. The word "undaunted" in line 22 is closest in meaning to__________. A. unscrupulous B. fearless C. undiscouraged D. uninformed
18. According to the passage, the Louisiana Purchase___________.
A. organized Boone’s land claim in Missouri
B. revoked the earlier Spanish bequest to Boone
C. drove the Spanish from the East
D. excluded Missouri from its jurisdiction -262- Reading
19. What can be inferred from the passage about Boone’s children?
A. They were better off financially than Boone.
B. They supported Boone’s desire to settle new areas. C. They lived in Kentucky.
D. They had no land due to Boone’s bad investments.
20. The author’s attitude toward Daniel Boone in the passage can be best described as________. A. admiring B. critical C. admonishing D. indifferent
PASSAGE 3 - Questions 21-30 Line 1
The Solar System, as we know it, contains over 178 objects which revolve
around our central star, or the Sun. Some of these objects can be seen from
Earth with the unaided eye or an earth-based telescope, but the majority have
only been detected through the development of instruments such as the Hubble 5
Space Telescope, or unmanned probes like Voyager. These instruments operate
outside Earth’s atmosphere collecting information on the composition and
behavior of objects in the Solar System, which has enabled researchers to hypothesize their origins.
[A] It is generally thought that a cloud of interstellar gas and dust known as a 10
‘nebula’, was disturbed by some major event in space, possibly a supernova,
about five billion years ago and began to collapse under its own gravity,
forming a cloud. [B] The center of the cloud became so hot that it eventually
exploded into a star with the cooler gases flowing around it. [C] In time, the
gases condensed into dust, metals, and various kinds of ice in the cold outer 15
reaches of space. [D] These solid particles collided with each other to form
larger objects, or asteroids, as they continued to spin around our central star.
As these asteroids increased in size, their gravity began to pull in all the
material in their immediate surroundings, and the largest of these went on to
become planets. The very different composition of the inner planets 20
(Mercury, Venus, Earth and Mars) and the outer planets (Jupiter, Saturn,
Neptune and Uranus) has led astronomers to hypothesize that their
distances from the Sun caused them to develop at different rates and in
different wavs. According to the most widely-held opinions, the planets
closest to the Sun, where all the ice particles were vaporized due to the 25
incredible heat, were formed mostly of rock, silicates, and metals with high -263- Reading
melting points. These particles collided and were pulled together by gravity.
These inner planets have thin atmospheres or none at all, and few, if any,
satellites, which would indicate that most of the available material was either
pulled into their own gravity or burned away in the heat of the Sun. 30
The inner and outer planets are separated by an asteroid belt, consisting of
material that was not able to form into planets due to Jupiter’s immense
gravity. Beyond this area, as more dust and ice particles escaped destruction by
the Sun, four larger planets formed over a longer period of time in a far colder
environment as material was thrown out from the center by the spinning star’s 35
centrifugal force. About a million years after the cooling of the original nebula,
the Sun began to emit a stream of charged protons and electrons known as '
solar wind which blew the remaining gases outwards, to be sucked in by the
outer planets which became gas giants. These planets attracted many objects in
their vast gravity fields, some of which are big enough to be termed 40
“satellites”, and countless smaller fragments which formed rings around the planets.
The discovery of more objects in the Solar System in recent times has led to
the need for further classification. Far beyond the outer planets lies Pluto,
which was originally considered to be the ninth planet, but which has since 45
been found to be a binary system of two dwarf planets, the other being Charon.
Pluto’s origins may be in the recently discovered Kuiper Belt, the source of
many of the comets which travel through the Solar System. This theory is
based on Pluto’s rock/ice composition which is similar to that of a comet. At
one time, also thought to be a moon of Neptune, Pluto/Charon was reclassified 50
in 2006 as one of three dwarf planets discovered so far, the others being Eris and Ceres.
Scientific knowledge is only as good as the ability of scientists to collect
evidence, so as new advances are made in astronomy, the present theories may
be disproved, as in the case of Pluto. The above account represents the
consensus of current opinions on the matter.
21. In paragraph 1, what does the author say about the role of the Hubble Space Telescope?
A. It is too defective for our scientists to come up with definite answers to the origin of the universe.
B. Scientists discovered, billions of new planets by combining measurements from
the Hubble Space Telescope with Voyager measurements. -264- Reading
C. It solved the age of the universe and measured the age of what may be the
youngest galaxy ever seen in the universe.
D. It has helped unveil many mysteries or queries about our universe.
22. The word "composition" in line 6 is closest in meaning to________. A. make-up B. musical C. evolution D. revolution
23. The word "disturbed" in line 10 is closest in meaning to A. broken B. attracted C. bothered D. imported
24. Which of the following best expresses the essential information in the
highlighted sentence in the passage? Incorrect answer choices change the
meaning in important ways or leave out essential information.
A. Planets formed from gases and dust particles after comets collided with the Sun.
B. According to scientists, the manner in which planets developed was wholly
dependent on their distance from Jupiter’s rings.
C. The dissimilar make-up of the planets closest to the Sun and those farthest from
the Sun suggests that their distance from the Sun affected their formation.
D. Scientists believe the Sun evolved from the composition of several older planets in the solar system.
25. According to paragraph 4, the inner and outer planets are separated by what? A. An asteroid belt B. A star C. Comets D. A moon
26. According to the passage, all of the following are true about our solar system EXCEPT________.
A. Planets nearest the Sun were formed mostly of rock.
B. There continue to be new discoveries as technology improves.
C. Colliding asteroids eventually formed planets.
D. Most of the comets in the solar system can be seen with the naked eye during an annular solar eclipse.
27. Why does the author mention "Pluto" in line 42?
A. To discuss Pluto's rock/ice composition
B. To introduce the concept of planet formation
C. To show that new discoveries are always occurring
D. To introduce the distinction between planets and dwarf planets
28. It can be inferred from the passage that the planets _____.
A. broke off from the rapidly spinning Moon
B. collided more frequently, to spur the formation and growth of protoplanets C. were initially asteroids
D. were formed by the collision of massive objects circling a black hole in eccentric orbits
29. According to the passage, what were the universe’s origins?
A. A nebula collapsed under its gravity.
B. A black hole exploded and merged to create the universe. -265- Reading
C. A super being wished it into existence.
D. The Sun collapsed in on itself.
30. Look at the four squares [_] that indicate where the following sentence could
be added to the passage.
This cloud began to rotate rapidly as it got smaller and denser and heated up to
several thousand degrees, causing some of its elements to vaporize into gas.
Where would the sentence best fit? A. [A] B. [B] C. [C] D. [D]
PASSAGE 4 - Questions 31-40 Line 1
Ocean Thermal Energy Conversion (OTEC) is a method of producing
electricity developed from the temperature difference that subsists between
deep and shallow waters. It converts solar radiation to electric power. The
system uses the ocean’s natural thermal gradient to direct a power-producing 5
cycle. To produce a significant amount of power, the temperature between
warm water on the surface and deep cold water should differ by about 20
degrees Celsius. On average, 23 million square miles of tropical seas absorb
an amount of solar radiation equal in heat content to about 250 million barrels
of oil. If less than one tenth of this could be converted into electric power, it 10
would provide more than 20 times the total amount of electricity utilized in America on any given day.
Oceans are a huge renewable resource with the possibility of producing
millions of watts of electric power. Some experts think the cold, deep seawater
that is used in the OTEC process is rich in nutrients and, therefore, can be used
to culture marine and plant life on shore or on land. 15
There are certain conditions which have to be met to enable OTEC to work.
First, commercial OTEC facilities must be located in an environment that is
stable enough for efficient system operation. This means that they must be built
on land or submerged on the continental shelf. In addition, the natural ocean 20
thermal gradient necessary for OTEC operation is generally found between
latitudes 20° N and 20° S. The temperature of the surface water must differ
from that of deep water and allowances should be made for a wide- open space.
Tropical islands meet the requirements for a wide space, so they are areas for
OTEC development. Land-based facilities offer advantages. For example, 25
plants do not require extensive maintenance, and they can be installed in -266- Reading
sheltered areas, safe from storms and general bad weather. Land-based sites
allow OTEC plants to function with related industries.
Thermal energy from the ocean was first proposed as far back as 1881.
However, it wasn’t until 1930 that a system was built, producing 22kw of 30
electricity. Another was constructed sometime later, but it was destroyed by
waves. In 1980, the U.S department of energy built a site for OTEC heat
exchangers on board a navy ship. Tests revealed that OTEC systems are able to
function on slow moving ships and are of little consequence to the surrounding marine environment.
In 1981, Japan established a closed-cycle plant in the Pacific Ocean, producing 35
40,000 watts of electricity. In May 1993, another 50,000 watts of electricity
was produced. However, it was an impractical energy source as the materials
used were expensive. Currently, scientists are continuing to develop more cost
effective and open-cycle OTEC systems. An integrated OTEC system can
help create harmonious., self-sustaining island communities, independent 40
of imported fossil fuels and their associated costs.
Tidal energy is another form of ocean energy caused by the gravitational pull
of the moon and sun, and the rotation of the Earth. When tides come into shore,
they can be trapped in reservoirs behind dams. Then when the tide lowers, the
water behind the dam can be released, functioning similarly to a hydroelectric 45
power plant. Tidal dams can change the tidal level. In the local basin, affecting
the navigation. The prime disadvantage is the effect a tidal station has on plants
and animals. However, tidal fences, which are also used to channel the energy
of tides, have less environmental impact than traditional sources of power such
as fossil fuels or nuclear power, and are cheaper to install. 50
Turbines are devices with blades attached to a central rod that spin when a
force hits the blades. [A] This spinning motion is extremely practical. The first
turbine used was the undershot waterwheel, probably the oldest type of
waterwheel dating back over 2,000 years. [B] Waterwheels and windmills were
the first turbines; their wooden blades captured the power of wind or rivers to 55
lift water for irrigation or to rotate huge stones to grind grain. [C] It wasn’t
until the 1880s, when the generator was first invented, that people began using
turbines to produce electricity. [D]
31. According to paragraph 1, OTEC uses what to produce power?
A. The wave energy stored in the Earth’s oceans B. The salt in the ocean -267- Reading
C. The seawater temperature differences
D. The tropical oceans’ warm surface water
32. The word "absorb" in line 7 is closest in meaning to________. A. take in B. work together with C. reject D. make efficient
33. The word "converted" in line 9 is closest in meaning to________. A. consumed B. released C. used D. transformed
34. In paragraph 3, the author mentions "The temperature of the surface water"
as an example of _________.
A. the requirements for the perfect OTEC settlement
B. the specific requirements needed for OTEC to work
C. the careful calculations and considerations needed in OTEC
D. why water-based programs are always superior to land-based ones
35. According to paragraph 5, what does the author say was the main problem
with the closed cycle plant in the Pacific Ocean?
A. It was damaged by the salt water.
B. It was environmentally damaging to the area.
C. It could not generate electricity without pollution.
D. The overall cost was far too high to be economically feasible.
36. Which of the following best expresses the essential information in the
highlighted sentence? Incorrect answer choices change the meaning in important
ways or leave out essential information.
A. The beauty of the OTEC system is that it allows islands to be self-sufficient.
B. The OTEC system could prove to lead the world in an age of co-dependency.
C. A completely autonomous, cost effective society could be created by the system.
D. The system could mean that societies are no longer dependent on fossil fuels.
37. According to paragraph 6, which of the following is true of tidal energy?
A. It is derived from the hydrological climate cycle.
B. It is based on the small fluctuation of tide in a given area.
C. It has no environmental and ecological effects on local inhabitants.
D. It needs a barrage to convert tidal energy into electricity.
38. The word "practical" in line 51 is closest in meaning to_________. A. unnecessary -268- Reading B. swift C. useful D. sensitive
39. The following are all characteristics of the OTEC system EXCEPT
A. It seeks to harness the temperature difference.
B. It is not technically feasible for the production of base load electricity.
C. It can be practiced on slow moving ships.
D. It can create self-sufficient systems.
40. Look at the four squares [_] that indicate where the following sentence can be added to the passage.
It was turned by water flowing under the wheel and striking the boards.
Where would the sentence best fit? A. [A] B. [B] C. [C] D. [D] -269- Reading TEST 4
Directions: In this section of the test, you will read FOUR different passages, each
followed by 10 questions about it. For questions 1-40, you are to choose the best
answer A, B, C or D, to each question. Then, on your answer sheet, find the number of
the question and fill in the space that corresponds to the letter of the answer you have
chosen. Answer all questions following a passage on the basis of what is stated or implied in that passage.
You have 60 minutes to answer all the questions, including the time to transfer your answers to the answer sheet.
PASSAGE 1 - Questions 1-10 Line 1
As new industrialism swept over the land in the wake of the Civil War, people
flocked to the nation’s cities in unprecedented numbers from rural regions,
villages, and foreign countries. Housing for the new city-dwellers took many
forms as new architectural styles were developed. 5
During this period of urban expansion, speculative builders discovered a
bonanza in the form of the row house. Designed for single-family occupancy,
these dwellings cost relatively little to construct because they shared common
walls with their neighbors and because many could be erected side by side on a
narrow street frontage. Along New York's gridiron of streets and avenues rose 10
block after block of row houses, which, by the 1880s, were almost invariably
faced with brownstone. In contrast, wooden row houses on the West Coast
appeared light and airy with their coats of bright paint. San Francisco
developed a particularly successful row vernacular, suitable for rich and poor
alike, as typified by clusters of homes like the Rountree group, which featured 15
Queen Anne elements in their pitched roofs and heavily decorated exteriors.
Although critics likened the facades of such structures to the "puffing, paint,
and powder of our female friends", the houses were efficiently planned,
sanitary, and well-lighted. Virtually every dwelling boasted one or more bay
windows, which were as important to sun-loving San Franciscans as 20
brownstone fronts were to New Yorkers. As an English traveler observed,
California architecture, "with all the windows gracefully leaping out at
themselves", should rightly be called the "bay-window order".
1. The main purpose of the author in this passage is _____.
A. to contrast two versions of a similar architectural form
B. to persuade people to live in row houses -270- Reading
C. to argue for the excellence of California row houses
D. to describe the effects of urbanization
2. The phrase “a bonanza” in line 4-5 is closest in meaning to _____. A. a confusing choice B. a difficult challenge C. an exciting design D. a good investment
3. The phrase “almost invariably” in line 10 is closest in meaning to _____. A. usually B. seldom C. sometimes D. never
4. According to the passage, why did speculative builders profit from row houses?
A. Because they cost very little to build.
B. Because they were for single families.
C. Because they were well-constructed.
D. Because they were attractive.
5. All of the following can be inferred about row houses from the passage EXCEPT ______.
A. they provided for high-density housing
B. they housed people of different economic classes
C. they provided a new and popular form of architectural design D. they had no front yards
6. The phrase "such structures” in line 16 refers to ______.
A. West Coast wooden row houses B. poor people’s houses
C. the homes in the Rountree group D. Queen Anne’s home
7. What can be inferred from the passage about New York row houses?
A. They were less colorful than row houses on the West Coast. B. They were windowless.
C. They were smaller than California row houses.
D. They were less similar in appearance than row houses in California.
8. In the passage, critics of California row houses commented on their _______.
A. excessive use of bay windows B. ostentatious decoration C. repetitive nature D. lack of light
9. The word "boasted” in line 18 is used to indicate the owners’_______. A. skill B. wealth C. intelligence D. pride -271- Reading
10. The author of the passage implies that the most important feature for
Californians living in row houses was _______. A. the color B. the price C. the windows
D. the heavily decorated exteriors
PASSAGE 2 - Questions 11-20 Line 1
Since water is the basis of life, composing the greater part of the tissues of all
living things, the crucial problem of desert animals is to survive in a world
where sources of flowing water are rare. And since man’s inexorable necessity
is to absorb large quantities of water at frequent intervals, he can scarcely 5
comprehend that many creatures of the desert pass their entire lives without a
single drop. Uncompromising as it is, the desert has not eliminated life but only
those forms unable to withstand its desiccating effects. No moist skinned,
water-loving animals can exist there. Few large animals are found: the giants of
the North American desert are the deer, the coyote, and the bobcat. Since desert 10
country is open, it holds more swift footed, running, and leaping creatures than
the tangled forest. Its population are largely nocturnal, silent, filled with
reticence, and ruled by stealth. Yet they are not emaciated. Having adapted to
their austere environment, they are as healthy as animals anywhere in the world. 15
The secret of their adjustment lies in a combination of behavior and
physiology. None could survive if, like mad dogs and Englishmen, they went
out in the midday sun; many would die in a matter of minutes. So most of them
pass the burning hours asleep in cool, humid burrows underneath the ground,
emerging to hunt only by night. The surface of the sun-baked desert averages
around 150 degrees, but 18 inches down the temperature is only 60 degrees. 20
An example of a desert animal that has adapted to subterranean living and
lack of water is the kangaroo rat. Like many desert animals, kangaroo rats stay
underground during the day. At night, they go outside to look for food. As
evening temperatures drop, moisture from the air forms on plants and seeds. 25
They absorb some of this moisture and kangaroo rats take in the life-giving water as they eat.
11. What is the topic of this passage? A. Desert plants B. Life underground
C. Animal life in a desert environment -272- Reading D. Man's life in the desert
12. The word "greater" in line 1 is closest in meaning to _______. A. stronger B. larger C. more noticeable D. heavier
13. The phrase "those forms" in line 7 refers to all of the following EXCEPT A. water-loving animals B. the bobcat C. moist-skinned animals D. many large animals
14. The word "desiccating" in line 7 means _____. A. drying B. humidifying C. killing D. life threatening
15. The author mentions all of the following as examples of the behavior of desert
animals EXCEPT ________.
A. animals sleep during the day
B. animals dig homes underground
C. animals are noisy and aggressive
D. animals are watchful and quiet
16. The word "emaciated" in line 12 is closest in meaning to _______. A. wild B. cunning C. unmanageable D. unhealthy
17. The author states that one characteristic of animals who live in the desert is that they _________.
A. are smaller and fleeter than forest animals
B. are less healthy than animals who live in different places
C. can hunt in temperatures of 150 degrees
D. live in an accommodating environment
18. The word "subterranean" in line 20 is closest in meaning to ________. A. underground B. safe C. precarious D. harsh
19. The word "they" in line 24 refers to _______. A. kangaroo rats B. the desert population C. plants and seeds
D. the burrows of desert animals -273- Reading
20. Which of the following generalizations are supported by the passage?
A. Water is the basis of life.
B. All living things adjust to their environments. C. Desert life is colorful.
D. Healthy animals live longer lives.
PASSAGE 3- Questions 21-30 Line 1
Animals and higher-order plants depend on nitrogen that is present in soil as
they cannot utilize free nitrogen from the atmosphere. To enter living systems,
nitrogen must be combined with oxygen or hydrogen to form compounds such
as ammonia or nitrates that plants are able to use. Nitrogen gas is converted to 5
ammonia fertilizer by a chemical process involving high pressure and high
temperature. This process is called nitrogen fixation. Martinus Willem
Beijerinck discovered nitrogen fixation.
The nitrogen molecule is quite inert and breaking it apart requires a
considerable amount of energy. There are three processes that are responsible 10
for most of the nitrogen fixation in the biosphere. They are atmospheric
fixation, biological fixation, and industrial fixation. Atmospheric fixation
occurs through lightning, forest fires, or even hot lava flows where energy
breaks down nitrogen molecules and enables their atoms to combine with
oxygen in the air, thus forming nitrogen oxides. These liquefy in rain, forming 15
nitrates, that are then carried to earth.
In biological nitrogen fixation, the nitrogen is available to some species of
microorganisms. Atmospheric nitrogen is converted to ammonia by bacterial
enzymes called nitrogenase. More than 90% of all nitrogen fixation is affected
by them. There are two kinds of nitrogen-fixing microorganisms: free-living 20
(non-symbiotic) bacteria and symbiotic bacteria. Microorganisms that fix
nitrogen are called diazotrophs. These need a chemical energy source if they
are nonphotosynthetic. However, if they are photosynthetic, they can utilize
light energy. The free-living diazotrophs supply little fixed nitrogen to
agricultural crops, whereas the symbiotic, nitrogen-fixing bacterias live close 25
to plant roots and can obtain energy materials from the plants.
The symbiotic, nitrogen-fixing bacteria invade the root hairs of plants. Here
they multiply the formation of root nodules, and enlargements of plant cells
and bacteria in close proximity. Within the nodules, die bacteria convert the -274- Reading
free nitrogen to nitrates, which the plant makes use of for its development. 30
To make certain of sufficient nodule formation and the best possible growth of
legumes (beans, clover, peas, soybeans), seeds are usually inoculated,
particularly in poor soils where bacteria is lacking. This system is the most
important for agrict^ure as many legumes are then able to grow
vigorously under nitrogen deficient conditions, contributing ntoogen to the 35
farming system or as green manure included in the soil. Legumes are also a
significant source of protein primarily for the developing world.
Industrial fixation takes place at a temperature of 600 degrees Celsius. In this
method, atmospheric nitrogen and hydrogen can be combined to form
ammonia, which in turn can be used directly as a fertilizer. It was during the 40
early 19'T century that the importance of fixed nitrogen to growing plants was
understood. Where people practiced intensive agriculture, demand arose for
nitrogen compounds to augment the natural supply present in the soil.
Around the same time, Chilean saltpeter was increasingly used to make
gunpowder. This led to a global search for natural deposits of this nitrogen 45
compound. Toward the end of the 19th century, it was realized that Chilean
imports would not meet future demands, and, in the event of a major war,
without the Chilean supply, manufacturing sufficient weapons would not be possible.
[A] Several processes were then developed: directly combining oxygen with 50
nitrogen, the reaction of nitrogen with calcium carbide, and the direct
combination of nitrogen with hydrogen. [B] Combining oxygen and nitrogen
was inefficient in its use of energy. Both were costly and the process was
abandoned. [C] It is named after Fritz Haber and Carl Bosch, who determined
that nitrogen from the air could be combined with nitrogen under enormously 55
high pressures and fairly high temperatures in the presence of an active
mechanism to produce an extremely high quantity of ammonia. [D]
Germany heavily relied on this process during World War I, which led to a
rapid expansion of the construction of nitrogen plants in many other countries.
This method is now one of the leading processes of the chemical industry 60 throughout the world.
21. According to paragraph 1, how must nitrogen molecules enter living organisms?
A. They must be converted to ammonia or nitrates.
B. They must be combined with oxygen in the form of nitrate. -275- Reading
C. They must be absorbed by the plant to furnish its nitrogen.
D. They must be mixed with oxygen or hydrogen.
22. The phrase "breaks down” in the passage is closest in meaning to__________. A. destroys B. discontinues C. ceases D. decomposes
23. Which of the following can be inferred from paragraph 2 about nitrogen fixation?
A. Nature cannot make it occur by itself.
B. It is a process that does not necessarily require the influence of man.
C. The process needs perfect circumstances to happen.
D. Nitrogen is essential to all life on Earth.
24. According to paragraph 3, one factor needed for photosynthetic biological fixation is__________. A. a light source B. the presence of ammonia C. 90% rainfall for a week D. a chemical energy source
25. The word "affected" in the passage is closest in meaning to__________. A. driven B. influenced C. stopped D. changed
26. Why does the author mention "diazotrophs" in the passage?
A. To explain the industrial process of nitrogen fixation
B. To show how a plants roots are important for this process
C. To give an example of a living organism capable of fixing nitrogen
D. To explain the impact of nitrogen on a microorganism
27. The word "invade" in the passage is closest in meaning to__________. A. attack B. defend C. occupy D. dominate
28. Which of the following best expresses the essential information in the
highlighted sentence? Incorrect answer choices change the meaning in important
ways or leave out essential information.
A. The ability to grow legumes with little nitrogen is highly valuable.
B. Legumes do not need much nitrogen to develop and grow strong.
C. The fanning system makes huge demands on the nitrogen level in the ground. -276- Reading
D. Agriculture creates a great need for legumes and their produce.
29. According to paragraph 8, which of the following is characteristic of the Haber-Bosch process?
A. Producing low amount of Ammonia
B. Using extremely high pressures
C. Reducing the supply of nitrogen compounds
D. Leading to widespread use during World War I
30. Look at the four squares [J that indicate where the following sentence can be added to the passage.
However, the Haber-Bosch process which created ammonia from nitrogen and
hydrogen is the most cost-effective nitrogen fixation process known.
Where would the sentence best fit? A. [A] B. [B] C. [C] D. [D]
PASSAGE 4 - Questions 31-40 Line 1
Throughout Western civilization, women’s suffrage and the progression of
these rights have played a pivotal role in its history. The best example of how
these rights have progressed is in two nations that share a common history,
Great Britain and the United States of America. [A] In England, the suffrage 5
movement began in 1866 when prominent women’s rights reformers gathered
over 1,500 signatures on a petition to Parliament appealing for the right to vote.
[B] However, significant headway had not been made yet. Women’s rights
activists soon grew combative and thus made certain that suffrage was a central
issue. [C] In America, due to the Civil War, women’s suffrage was temporarily 10
halted. However, from 1876, campaigns, referendums, and gatherings were
organized and carried out. [D]
The influence of Great Britain on the United States cannot be understated, yet
there are both significant differences and similarities in how suffrage rights
have progressed and evolved within each of these nations. In both countries, 15
suffrage was based on class, race, nation, and gender. The suffragists were
outside of the political establishment, campaigning alone and without support.
They were predominately white and middle class in both countries, and their
arguments reflected their class. In the first phase of the two countries, the
arguments for suffrage focused on equality, and then turned to women’s 20
contribution to nation building after World War I. -277- Reading
Feudalism and hereditary rule predated the establishment of limited suffrage in
Great Britain. Aspects of this system remained for a significant period of time
with only the wealthy and land-owning males allowed to vote. This system was
based on the principles that the wealthy would vote in the interests of the 25
nation, just as the monarchy of Britain would rule in the interest of all its
subjects. This distributive system of power played an important role in the history of the United States.
English landowners asserted their right to vote based on their personal wealth.
Aspects of this trend are clearly evident In America. In 1776, a clause that 30
guaranteed voting rights for white, male landowners was included in the United
States Declaration of Independence. This was identical to the suffrage rights in
Great Britain at that time in history. Voting was generally perceived not as a
right, but as a privilege that only those who owned land could exercise.
By 1786, the United States Constitution had been amended to give individual 35
states the power to establish their own suffrage rights. As a result of this, in
1791, Vermont passed a law declaring that all white males, regardless of
whether they possessed property or not, could vote. In contrasty it was not until
the Chartist movement in Great Britain in the 1840s that a popular movement
had demanded wider suffrage rights. The eventual failure of the Chartist 40
movement in 1850 ensured that only one in every five adult males in England
was entitled to vote. While popular suffrage reform stalled in Great Britain, it
accelerated in America during this period. In the wake of the American Civil
War, the Fifteenth Amendment to the Constitution granted African-American 45
men the right to vote' throughout the country. However, just as in England,
women remained excluded by law from voting.
In the aftermath of the first World War, suffrage rights were extended to
include women. This change took place first in America in 1920 with the 1991
amendment to the Constitution. It was not until 1928 that voting rights between 50
men and women in Great Britain were equalized. As suffrage rights have
extended to include groups formerly excluded, this trend continues in the West.
In 1971, a further amendment lowered the age of voting from 20 to 18 in
America. Today, in Great Britain and the majority of Western nations, the voting age is 18.
Initially, the progression of suffrage rights in America mirrored Great Britain’s. 55
The wealthy male landowners dominated voting and, therefore, political power,
and voted only in their interests. In the wake of the American Civil War and -278- Reading
the first World War, suffrage rights were extended to African-Americans,
women, and individuals possessing no property, which boosted their status
from lower class citizens to a higher level. Today, suffrage, in its universal 60
form, plays a key role in democracies worldwide.
31. According to paragraph 1, why were 1,500 signatures gathered on a petition?
A. Women sought the right to peaceful demonstrations.
B. Women and men urged for the right to vote and own property.
C. Women were requesting the right to vote.
D. Collaboration was needed to facilitate women’s right to vote.
32. The word "progressed” in line 3 is closest in meaning to__________. A. withheld B. withstood C. advanced D. contained
33. According to paragraph 2, which of the following was true of the suffragist movement?
A. Suffragists had a chance to change their position in society.
B. Women achieved their goal of winning full voting rights.
C. It was primarily run by working class women.
D. Most suffragists were moderate in their tactics.
34. According to paragraph 4, the United States Declaration of Independence guaranteed _____.
A. that African Americans could vote
B. that all 21-year-olds could vote
C. that women could vote and hold political office
D. that only white, male landowners were allowed to vote
35. The word "their" in line 28 refers to_________. A. Englishmen B. British royalty C. English landowners D. American landowners
36. Why does the author mention that "Aspects of this trend are clearly evident in America"?
A. To argue that the right to vote only was exercised by the wealthy and elite
B. To provide evidence that voting was not a. right only for those who owned land
C. To show that the right to voting privileges only was granted to wealthy male property holders
D. To support the claim that the right to vote was an attribute of U.S. citizenship
37. The word "stalled" in line 41 is closest in meaning to___________. A. prevented B. profited C. contributed -279- Reading D. halted
38. Which of the following can be inferred from the passage about the Chartist movement?
A. Suffrage rights became the standard and expanded to include people of middle
Eastern descent after the Chartist movement failed.
B. The Chartist movement was quashed by a group of hostile forces who were opposed to progression.
C. The Chartist movement helped ensure that only woman could vote.
D. The progression of suffrage rights started to slow after the Chartist movement failed.
39. Which of the following best expresses the essential information in the
highlighted sentence? Incorrect answer choices change the meaning in important
ways or leave out essential information.
A. In the period following the Civil War and World War I, voting rights were extended to most minorities.
B. No one could vote in Great Britain unless they owned land, were white, and could read.
C. War in Europe and America led many countries to disallow people of color the right to vote.
D. Voting has always been considered a privilege in most Western countries.
40. Look at the four squares [_] that indicate where the following sentence can be added to the passage.
American suffragists, however, were not as aggressive as their British counterparts.
Where would the sentence best fit? A. [A] B. [B] C. [C] D. [D] -280- Reading 4.8. REFERENCES
1. Bộ Giáo dục và Đào tạo. (2015). Tài liệu Hướng dẫn áp dụng Định dạng đề thi
đánh giá năng lực sử dụng tiếng Anh từ bậc 3 đến bậc 5 theo Khung năng lực ngoại
ngữ 6 bậc dùng cho Việt Nam.
2. MacPherson, J. (2020). 100 Practice Questions for the TOEFL® Reading
Section. TST Prep, subdivision of Vocabulary Ninja Academic Services LLC.
3. Phillips, D. (2015). Longman Preparation Course for the Toefl IBT® Test, 3E.
4. https://cn6sp.edu.vn/dinh-dang-de-thi-va-de-thi-mau-vstep-b1b2c1.html
5. https://hoigiasudanang.com/category/vstep/ -281-