Đề đọc hiểu Tiếng Anh từ cơ bản tới nâng cao

HƯỚNG TỚI KÌ THI TỐT NGHIỆP THPT & ĐGNL 2026
TRỌNG ĐIỂM ĐỌC HIỂU 8 CÂU HỎI
THEO ĐỊNH HƯỚNG ĐỀ CHÍNH THỨC 2025
Biên soạn: Cô Vũ Thị Mai Phương
Cô Vũ Thị Mai Phương
Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D to indicate the correct answer to each of
the questions from 1 to 8.
Shopping has become more than just a necessity for many young people; it has turned into a form
of therapy. When feeling stressed, bored, or unhappy, many young adults head to stores or browse online
shops to lift their mood. The excitement of buying something new—whether it’s clothes, gadgets, or
accessories—provides a temporary escape from negative emotions. Retailers often take advantage of this
by offering discounts, limited-time deals, and personalised recommendations, making it even harder to resist the urge to spend.
However, while shopping may offer short-term happiness, it can lead to long-term problems.
Impulsive purchases often result in financial strain, especially for young people who may not have stable
incomes. Credit card debt and overspending can quickly become serious issues, leaving individuals
feeling even more stressed than before. Additionally, the constant pursuit of material goods can create a
cycle where happiness depends on buying more, rather than addressing deeper emotional needs.
Despite these risks, shopping therapy remains popular because it provides instant gratification.
Social media plays a big role in this trend, as influencers and advertisements constantly promote new
products, making young people feel like they need to keep up with the latest trends. The fear of missing
out (FOMO) drives many to spend money they don’t have, believing that owning certain items will
improve their social status or self-esteem.
To avoid the negative effects of shopping therapy, young people should look for healthier ways to
cope with stress, such as exercising, practicing mindfulness, or spending time with friends. Learning to
differentiate between wants and needs can also help them make smarter financial decisions. While
shopping can be enjoyable, true emotional well-being comes from balance and self-awareness, not from material possessions.
Question 1. According to paragraph 1, retailers offer all of the following to encourage emotional spending EXCEPT _______. A. limited-time deals B. the urge to spend C. discounts
D. personalised recommendations
Question 2. The word “Impulsive” in paragraph 2 is OPPOSITE in meaning to _______. A. Intentional B. Restrictive C. Thoughtful D. Inconsiderate
Question 3. The word “gratification” in paragraph 3 can be best replaced by _______. A. satisfaction B. potential C. desire D. appeal
Question 4. The word “they” in paragraph 3 refers to _______. A. advertisers B. young people C. items D. influencers
Question 5. Which of the following best paraphrases the underlined sentence in paragraph 4?
“Learning to differentiate between wants and needs can also help them make smarter financial decisions.”
A. Making wise financial choices often teaches people how to tell wants and needs apart.
B. Knowing the difference between wants and needs can help them manage money better.
C. Being financially responsible leads to better awareness of the gap between wants and needs.
D. Smart money habits frequently result in a clearer distinction between wants and needs.
Question 6. Which of the following is TRUE according to the passage?
A. The fear of missing out can help improve people’s social status and self-esteem.
B. Shopping for happiness may block people from facing deeper emotional issues.
C. People who enjoy shopping therapy shouldn’t try healthier ways to handle stress.
D. Credit card debt is considered the most serious consequence of shopping therapy.
Question 7. Which paragraph mentions a key takeaway? A. Paragraph 1 B. Paragraph 2 C. Paragraph 3 D. Paragraph 4
Question 8. Which paragraph mentions social factors that drive shopping behaviour? A. Paragraph 1 B. Paragraph 2 C. Paragraph 3 D. Paragraph 4
Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D to indicate the correct answer to each of
the questions from 9 to 16.
Mexico City, one of the largest and busiest cities in the world, is known for its traffic and pollution.
To fight this problem, the government has started an innovative project: transforming dull highway
columns into beautiful vertical gardens. These green walls, covered with plants, not only improve the
city’s appearance but also help clean the air. By absorbing carbon dioxide and releasing oxygen, the
gardens reduce pollution and create a healthier environment for residents.
The project, called Via Verde, covers over 1,000 highway columns with special structures that hold
thousands of plants. The plants are carefully chosen to survive in the city’s climate, needing little
maintenance. Workers install irrigation systems to water them automatically, making the project
sustainable. The gardens include various species, from small flowers to thick bushes, creating pockets of
nature in the middle of concrete roads.
Besides environmental benefits, the vertical gardens have improved life for people in the city.
Studies show that green spaces reduce stress and increase happiness. Drivers and pedestrians enjoy
the colourful views instead of grey concrete. The project has also created jobs for gardeners and builders,
supporting the local economy. Many citizens feel proud of their city’s effort to become greener and more liveable.
Other cities around the world are now looking at Mexico City as an example of urban innovation.
Projects like Via Verde prove that even small changes can make a big difference. With more green spaces,
cities can fight pollution, beautify their streets, and improve quality of life. Mexico City’s vertical gardens
show that a sustainable future is possible—one column at a time.
Question 9. The word “dull” in paragraph 1 can be best replaced by _______. A. repetitive B. tedious C. unappealing D. unaffordable
Question 10. The word “absorbing” in paragraph 1 is OPPOSITE in meaning to _______. A. engaging B. emitting C. comparing D. accessing
Question 11. The word “them” in paragraph 2 refers to _______. A. irrigation systems B. workers C. structures D. plants
Question 12. Which of the following best paraphrases the underlined sentence in paragraph 3?
“Studies show that green spaces reduce stress and increase happiness.”
A. Findings reveal that happiness in green spaces leads people to experience less pressure.
B. Research suggests that feeling happier is the reason people choose to visit green areas.
C. Research shows that spending time in nature lowers stress levels and boosts well-being.
D. Evidence suggests that increased happiness leads people to create more green spaces.
Question 13. All of the following benefit from the vertifical gardens in Mexico City EXCEPT _______. A. pedestrians B. gardeners C. builders D. bushes
Question 14. Which of the following is TRUE according to the passage?
A. Citizens living in Mexico City take pride in their efforts to support the local economy.
B. Green spaces have a positive impact on both the environment and quality of urban life.
C. Installing the vertical gardens in Mexico City makes it a stress-free urban area.
D. Other cities have replicated Mexico City’s vertical gardens to achieve sustainability.
Question 15. Which paragraph explores the social and economic impacts of vertical gardens in urban areas? A. Paragraph 1 B. Paragraph 2 C. Paragraph 3 D. Paragraph 4
Question 16. Which paragraph mentions the Via Verde project’s thoughtful planning? A. Paragraph 1 B. Paragraph 2 C. Paragraph 3 D. Paragraph 4
Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D to indicate the correct answer to each of
the questions from 17 to 24.
In recent years, many cities around the world have taken steps to reduce the number of cars on their
streets. Increasing traffic congestion and air pollution have pushed local governments to search for
greener, more efficient ways to move people around. Instead of building more roads, some cities are
focusing on creating spaces where cars are no longer the main form of transport.
A popular solution is to ban cars from certain areas. In central Madrid, for instance, only residents
and public transport are allowed in designated zones. This policy has led to cleaner air, fewer traffic
accidents, and a more pleasant atmosphere for both locals and tourists. Similarly, Oslo has removed
hundreds of parking spots from the city centre and replaced them with bike lanes and walking paths.
Public transport improvements also play a key role. In Stockholm, city officials are investing in new
subway lines and electric buses to offer faster, cleaner travel options. One nearby city, Malmö, is served
by an extended rail link, helping commuters avoid driving into Stockholm’s centre. By keeping ticket
prices low and upgrading stations for greater comfort and safety, planners hope to make public transport the preferred choice.
Changing habits takes time, and not all residents support such policies at first. However, the
long-term benefits — including better air quality, less noise, and more liveable city spaces — have made
these efforts worthwhile. As climate concerns grow, more cities are likely to follow this example.
Question 17. The word “pushed” in paragraph 1 can be best replaced by _______. A. prepared B. imposed C. driven D. ordered
Question 18. Which of the following is NOT mentioned as a city that aims to promote greener urban transport? A. Stockholm B. Oslo C. Malmö D. Madrid
Question 19. The word “them” in paragraph 2 refers to _______. A. locals and tourists B. bike lanes C. walking paths D. parking spots
Question 20. The word “comfort” in paragraph 3 is OPPOSITE in meaning to _______. A. inconvenience B. danger C. carelessness D. criticism
Question 21. Which of the following best paraphrases the underlined sentence in paragraph 4?
“Changing habits takes time, and not all residents support such policies at first.”
A. Because not every resident initially supports these policies, habits take time to change.
B. Unless all residents support the policies from the beginning, changing habits will be difficult.
C. Adapting to new policies is a gradual process, with some residents not supporting them right away.
D. Adjusting to new habits happens slowly, just because few residents support the new policies.
Question 22. Which of the following is TRUE according to the passage?
A. The long-term benefits of reducing the number of cars in cities outweigh the drawbacks.
B. Malmö is implementing policies to cut down on car use through a better railway system.
C. Central Madrid has specific zones that only allow access to residents and public transport.
D. Both locals and tourists to Oslo find this city liveable as there is an absence of parking spots.
Question 23. Which paragraph gives a prediction? A. Paragraph 1 B. Paragraph 2 C. Paragraph 3 D. Paragraph 4
Question 24. Which paragraph mentions cities limiting car access? A. Paragraph 1 B. Paragraph 2 C. Paragraph 3 D. Paragraph 4
Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D to indicate the correct answer to each of
the questions from 25 to 32.
Cultural exchange programmes offer people the chance to live, study, or work in another country,
helping them experience new traditions and ways of life. These programmes bring together individuals
from different backgrounds, allowing them to share ideas and learn from one another. Whether through
student exchanges, work placements, or volunteer projects, participants gain a deeper understanding of
global cultures. Such experiences often break down stereotypes and build lifelong friendships.
One of the biggest benefits of cultural exchange is personal growth. Living abroad helps people
develop independence, adaptability, and problem-solving skills. They learn to communicate across
language barriers and navigate unfamiliar situations. Many return home with greater confidence and a
broader perspective on the world. Employers also value these experiences, as they show openness and
cultural awareness—important skills in today’s globalised workforce.
Cultural exchange also strengthens international relationships. When people connect across
borders, they create networks of trust and cooperation. These connections can lead to future
collaborations in business, education, or even diplomacy. Host families and local communities benefit
too, as they gain fresh insights into other cultures without leaving home. In this way, exchange
programmes build bridges between nations, one person at a time.
Despite challenges like homesickness or cultural misunderstandings, most participants say the
experience is life-changing. By stepping out of their comfort zones, they discover new passions and ways
of thinking. Governments and organisations should continue supporting these programmes, as they
promote peace and mutual understanding in an increasingly interconnected world. Cultural exchange
reminds us that, despite our differences, we all share the same human values.
Question 25. The word “them” in paragraph 1 refers to _______. A. programmes B. backgrounds C. ideas D. individuals
Question 26. Which of the following is NOT stated as a part of cultural exchange programmes? A. volunteer projects B. global cultures C. work placements D. student exchanges
Question 27. The word “navigate” in paragraph 2 is OPPOSITE in meaning to ______. A. turn into B. struggle with C. prepare for D. contribute to
Question 28. Which of the following best paraphrases the underlined sentence in paragraph 3?
“When people connect across borders, they create networks of trust and cooperation.”
A. Trust and cooperation are necessary before people can build cross-border connections.
B. People only develop trust when they already share strong international networks.
C. Global cooperation is the cause of people forming relationships across countries.
D. Building international connections helps foster trust and cooperation among people.
Question 29. The word “bridges” in paragraph 3 mostly means _______. A. mutual respect B. new barriers
C. timely support D. good relationships
Question 30. Which of the following is TRUE according to paragraph 4?
A. People often join exchange programmes because they already understand other cultures.
B. Cultural exchange helps people grow personally and encourages global harmony.
C. Governments support cultural exchange to reduce homesickness and confusion abroad.
D. Participants avoid challenges by staying within their comfort zones during the programme.
Question 31. Which paragraph mentions how cultural exchange improves employability? A. Paragraph 1 B. Paragraph 2 C. Paragraph 3 D. Paragraph 4
Question 32. Which paragraph mentions mutual benefits gained through cultural exchange programmes? A. Paragraph 1 B. Paragraph 2 C. Paragraph 3 D. Paragraph 4
Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D to indicate the correct answer to each of
the questions from 33 to 40.
Mark and Daniel are both full-time fathers who stay at home to care for their children. Mark left his
office job three years ago when his wife received a promotion that required her to travel often. He now
spends his days cooking, cleaning, and taking his two kids to school. Daniel, on the other hand, opted to
stay home when his twins were born. His wife works long hours as a lawyer, and he felt it was important
for one parent to be home with the children during their early years.
In the past, it was more common for women to stay at home while men worked outside. But times
are changing. Today, more families are deciding what works best for them, rather than following
traditional roles. In many cases, the woman has a higher income, and the couple agrees that the man should
take care of the home and children.
Being a house husband is not always easy. Some men feel judged by others or uncomfortable with
their new role. They may miss having adult conversations or feel bored with daily routines. However,
many also say that staying home has helped them build a stronger bond with their children and become
more patient and understanding.
As more men take on this role, society is slowly starting to accept it. Attitudes are changing, and
people are beginning to see that parenting is a shared job. What matters most is that children grow up
in a happy, caring home—no matter which parent is in charge.
Question 33. According to paragraph 1, Mark now spends his time doing all of the following EXCEPT ________. A. travelling often
B. taking his children to school C. cleaning D. cooking
Question 34. The word “opted” in paragraph 1 is CLOSEST in meaning to _________. A. prepared B. refused C. chosen D. shared
Question 35. The word “them” in paragraph 2 refers to _________. A. traditional roles B. families C. women D. men
Question 36. The word “judged” in paragraph 3 is OPPOSITE in meaning to _________. A. criticised B. assessed C. challenged D. admired
Question 37. Which of the following best paraphrases the underlined sentence in paragraph 4?
“Attitudes are changing, and people are beginning to see that parenting is a shared job.”
A. Since parenting is now seen as a joint role, people’s attitudes have started to shift.
B. Unless people come to believe that raising children is a shared duty, their attitudes won’t shift.
C. Shifting perspectives will surely lead to the belief that raising a child involves both parents equally.
D. As attitudes evolve, more people are beginning to see parenting as a shared responsibility.
Question 38. Which of the following is TRUE according to the passage?
A. Feeling bored with daily tasks, some house husbands miss adult conversations.
B. Daniel’s wife persuaded him to stay at home full-time to take care of their children.
C. If the woman has a higher income, the man will have to become a stay-at-home dad.
D. Many stay-at-home dads find emotional and personal rewards in their role.
Question 39. Which paragraph explores the challenges of being a house husband? A. Paragraph 1 B. Paragraph 2 C. Paragraph 3 D. Paragraph 4
Question 40. Which paragraph mentions real-life examples of stay-at-home fathers? A. Paragraph 1 B. Paragraph 2 C. Paragraph 3 D. Paragraph 4
Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D to indicate the correct answer to each of
the questions from 41 to 48.
Many teenagers today feel enormous pressure to maintain a perfect image on social media. Platforms
like Instagram, TikTok, and Snapchat encourage users to share only the best moments of their lives –
flawless selfies, exciting adventures, and stylish outfits. However, this creates unrealistic expectations, as
teens compare their everyday lives to the carefully edited highlights of others. The fear of not measuring
up can lead to stress, anxiety, and low self-esteem.
Behind every perfect post, there is often a lot of effort and editing. Teens spend hours taking dozens
of photos, applying filters, and adjusting angles to make sure everything looks just right. They worry
about how many likes and comments they receive, as these reactions feel like a measure of their worth.
Unfortunately, this constant need for approval can make them feel insecure, especially if a post doesn’t
get the attention they hoped for.
Another problem is that social media rarely shows the full truth. People usually post their happiest
moments, hiding struggles, failures, or bad days. This creates a false impression that everyone else has a
perfect life, making teens feel alone in their difficulties. Over time, they may start believing they are not
good enough, which can undermine their mental health.
To cope with this pressure, teens should remember that no one’s life is perfect. Taking breaks
from social media, focusing on real-life connections, and practicing self-acceptance can help. It’s
important to understand that true happiness doesn’t come from online validation but from being confident
in who you are—flaws and all.
Question 41. Social media users often share all of these best moments of their lives EXCEPT ______. A. exciting adventures
B. unrealistic expectations C. stylish outfits D. flawless selfies
Question 42. The word “they” in paragraph 2 refers to ________. A. filters B. reactions C. likes D. teens
Question 43. The word “approval” in paragraph 2 is CLOSEST in meaning to _______. A. validation B. understanding C. sympathy D. success
Question 44. The word “undermine” in paragraph 3 is OPPOSITE in meaning to _______. A. weaken B. enhance C. follow D. reduce
Question 45. Which of the following best paraphrases the underlined sentence in paragraph 4?
“To cope with this pressure, teens should remember that no one’s life is perfect.”
A. Teens feel a lot of pressure when they assume that others never face problems.
B. Remembering that others live perfect lives helps teens reduce stress significantly.
C. To deal with stress, teens mustn’t compare their lives to those who succeed.
D. Teens can manage this stress by keeping in mind that everyone faces struggles.
Question 46. Which of the following is TRUE according to the passage?
A. The need for online approval motivates teens to share both their best and worst moments.
B. Teens feel pressure to look perfect on social media as they often experience cyberbullying.
C. Teens usually find comfort in knowing that others are open about their struggles online.
D. Constant comparison to idealised images online can negatively affect teens’ mental health.
Question 47. Which paragraph reveals the effort that goes into creating “perfect” content? A. Paragraph 1 B. Paragraph 2 C. Paragraph 3 D. Paragraph 4
Question 48. Which paragraph gives advice? A. Paragraph 1 B. Paragraph 2 C. Paragraph 3 D. Paragraph 4
Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D to indicate the correct answer to each of
the questions from 49 to 56.
In recent decades, many traditional festivals in Vietnam have been gradually losing their appeal,
especially among younger generations. Once vibrant and widely celebrated, these cultural events now
face a decline due to changes in lifestyle, rapid urbanisation, and the influence of modern entertainment.
Instead of eagerly preparing for Tet or mid-autumn celebrations, many people now choose to travel
or stay indoors, especially in large cities. This shift partly results from the fast pace of modern life, which
leaves little time for community involvement. Young people, who often view these festivals as obsolete,
prefer online platforms and foreign holidays over traditional activities such as lion dances, folk games, or lantern-making.
In addition, commercialism has overshadowed the original meaning of many celebrations. Some
festivals have turned into business opportunities, focusing more on selling products than preserving
values. As a result, their spiritual and cultural significance is being forgotten, leading to less public
interest and lower participation.
Some schools and local communities are making efforts to revive traditional festivals.
Organising cultural days, reenacting old customs, and teaching children about their roots are ways to keep
these traditions alive. Though the decline is a challenge, with the right education and public engagement,
there is still hope for traditional festivals to regain their place in Vietnamese society.
Question 49. The word “appeal” in paragraph 1 can be best replaced by ________. A. purpose B. challenge C. interest D. ability
Question 50. Which of the following is NOT mentioned as a reason why traditional festivals in Vietnam face a decline? A. rapid urbanisation B. younger people C. lifestyle changes
D. modern entertainment
Question 51. The word “obsolete” in paragraph 2 is OPPOSITE in meaning to ________. A. relevant B. outdated C. simple D. affordable
Question 52. The word “their” in paragraph 3 refers to _________. A. products B. values
C. opportunities D. festivals
Question 53. Which of the following best paraphrases the underlined sentence in paragraph 4?
“Some schools and local communities are making efforts to revive traditional festivals.”
A. Some schools and local communities are considering bringing back traditional festivals.
B. Some schools and local communities have succeeded in bringing traditional festivals back.
C. Some schools and local communities believe that traditional festivals should be brought back.
D. Some schools and local communities are working to bring traditional festivals back.
Question 54. Which of the following is TRUE according to the passage?
A. An increasing number of festivals now primarily focus on business opportunities.
B. The fast-paced lifestyle is the main reason why people do not celebrate traditional festivals.
C. Reviving traditional festivals is possible through collective effort and education.
D. People, of all ages, now find foreign festivals more attractive than traditional ones.
Question 55. Which paragraph mentions a concession relationship? A. Paragraph 1 B. Paragraph 2 C. Paragraph 3 D. Paragraph 4
Question 56. Which paragraph explores how profit-making activities have contributed to the decline of traditional festivals? A. Paragraph 1 B. Paragraph 2 C. Paragraph 3 D. Paragraph 4
Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D to indicate the correct answer to each of
the questions from 57 to 64.
Some cities around the world have started banning motorbikes that run on fossil fuels, such as petrol
or diesel, to reduce air pollution and fight climate change. These vehicles release harmful gases, including
carbon dioxide and nitrogen oxides, which contribute to poor air quality and global warming. By
restricting their use, governments hope to encourage cleaner alternatives, such as electric motorbikes,
bicycles, and public transport. However, this decision has sparked debate among citizens, especially
those who rely on traditional motorbikes for daily travel.
Supporters of the ban argue that electric motorbikes are a better choice for the environment. They
produce zero emissions, are quieter, and often cost less to maintain in the long run. Many cities are also
improving charging infrastructure to make electric vehicles more convenient. Additionally, reducing
traffic pollution can lead to better public health, as cleaner air means fewer respiratory diseases and other
health problems caused by smog.
On the other hand, critics say the ban creates difficulties for people who cannot afford electric
motorbikes or depend on petrol bikes for work. Delivery riders, for example, may struggle with the higher
upfront cost of electric models or the limited range of some batteries. Some also argue that governments
should first invest in better public transport before enforcing such bans, as not everyone has access to affordable alternatives.
While banning fossil-fuel motorbikes is a step towards a greener future, it must be done carefully.
Authorities should provide financial support, such as subsidies or payment plans, to help people switch to
electric vehicles. At the same time, improving public transport and cycling infrastructure can ensure that
everyone has reliable and eco-friendly ways to travel. Finding the right balance between
environmental goals and people’s needs is key to making such policies successful.
Question 57. Some cities have imposed a ban on motorbikes for all of the following reasons EXCEPT _______.
A. fighting climate change
B. encouraging cleaner alternatives
C. ending global warming
D. reducing air pollution
Question 58. The word “sparked” in paragraph 1 is CLOSEST in meaning to _______. A. inspired B. improved C. questioned D. triggered
Question 59. The word “They” in paragraph 2 refers to _______. A. emissions B. cities C. supporters D. electric motorbikes
Question 60. The word “enforcing” in paragraph 3 is OPPOSITE in meaning to _______. A. removing B. controlling C. imposing D. enhancing
Question 61. Which of the following is TRUE according to the passage?
A. Supporters of the ban believe that electric motorbikes are eco-friendlier but cost more.
B. Some cities have already banned motorbikes to bring traffic congestion to an end.
C. The ban on fossil-fuel motorbikes has led to equal access to public transport in most areas.
D. Critics of the ban argue that switching to electric vehicles may be costly for some people.
Question 62. Which of the following best paraphrases the underlined sentence in paragraph 4?
“Finding the right balance between environmental goals and people’s needs is key to making such policies successful.”
A. Success in environmental policy requires people to adjust their needs to meet green goals.
B. When environmental policies are balanced, people must change their priorities to follow them.
C. Achieving a fair balance between green targets and public needs is essential for effective policy.
D. Policies become effective when governments focus more on the environment than on people's needs.
Question 63. Which paragraph mentions opinions against the ban on motorbikes? A. Paragraph 1 B. Paragraph 2 C. Paragraph 3 D. Paragraph 4
Question 64. Which paragraph emphasises a careful approach to banning motorbikes? A. Paragraph 1 B. Paragraph 2 C. Paragraph 3 D. Paragraph 4
Read the following passage and privacy and mark the letter A, B, C, or D to indicate the correct answer to
each of the questions from 65 to 72.
In today’s digital age, privacy is becoming harder to protect. From the moment we wake up and check
our phones, we begin leaving digital footprints. These footprints can include our location, browsing history,
and even our voice commands to smart assistants. While this data helps services run more smoothly, it also
raises serious questions about who is collecting it—and why.
Many companies track users’ behaviour online to sell advertisements. Every time you search for a
product or click on a link, that action may be recorded and analysed. Social media platforms are also major
players in data collection. What you like, share, or post helps them build a detailed profile of your interests
and habits. This information is often sold to advertisers or shared with third parties.
Governments, too, are making use of technology to watch their citizens. In some cities, facial
recognition cameras are used in public places to monitor crowds. These systems claim to improve public
safety, but critics worry they may also be used to control and track people without their knowledge or permission.
Even smart devices at home can collect information. Voice-controlled speakers, smart TVs, and
connected home appliances all gather data to offer convenience. However, this convenience comes at a cost.
As we become more connected, we must also become more aware of how much we are sharing—and who might be watching.
Question 65. Which of the following is NOT mentioned as an example of a digital footprint?
A. Our voice commands to smart devices
B. Our browsing history
C. Our interests and habits D. Our location
Question 66. The word it in paragraph 1 refers to ________. A. location B. privacy C. history D. data
Question 67. The word track in paragraph 2 can be best replaced by ________. A. manage B. follow C. access D. process
Question 68. The word permission in paragraph 3 is OPPOSITE in meaning to ________. A. impact B. demand C. disapproval D. carelessness
Question 69. Which of the following best paraphrases the underlined sentence in paragraph 4?
Even smart devices at home can collect information.
A. Information is frequently taken from devices used inside the home.
B. Smart devices at home are also able to gather information.
C. You are the most vulnerable to data tracking when using smart devices at home.
D. Only when you’re at home do smart devices collect personal data.
Question 70. Which of the following is TRUE according to the passage?
A. Facial recognition cameras are used in public places to control people.
B. Online activities are closely monitored for commercial purposes.
C. Connected home devices do more harm than good as they steal our privacy.
D. Advertisers rely on what users do on social media to sell it to third parties.
Question 71. Which paragraph gives advice? A. Paragraph 1 B. Paragraph 2 C. Paragraph 3 D. Paragraph 4
Question 72. Which paragraph explores how companies collect and use personal data online? A. Paragraph 1 B. Paragraph 2 C. Paragraph 3 D. Paragraph 4
Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the best
answer to each of the following questions from 73 to 80.
The concept of obtaining fresh water from an iceberg that is towed to populated areas and arid
regions of the world was once treated as a joke more appropriate to cartoons than real life. But now it is
being considered quite seriously by many nations, especially since scientists have warned that the
human race will outgrow its fresh water supply faster than it runs out of food. Glaciers are a possible
source of freshwater that has been overlooked until recently.
Three-quarters of the Earth's freshwater supply is still tied up in glacial ice, a reservoir of untapped
fresh water so immense that it could sustain all the rivers of the world for 1,000 years. Floating on the
oceans every year are 7,659 trillion metric tons of ice encased in 10,000 icebergs that break away from
the polar ice caps, more than ninety percent of them from Antarctica.
Huge glaciers that stretch over the shallow continental shelf give birth to icebergs throughout the
year. Icebergs are not like sea ice, which is formed when the sea itself freezes; rather, they are formed
entirely on land, breaking off when glaciers spread over the sea. As they drift away from the polar region,
icebergs sometimes move mysteriously in a direction opposite to the wind, pulled by subsurface currents.
Because they melt more slowly than smaller pieces of ice, icebergs have been known to drift as far north
as 35 degrees south of the equator in the Atlantic Ocean.
The difficulty arises in other technical matters, such as the prevention of rapid melting in warmer
climates and the funneling of fresh water to shore in great volume. But even if the icebergs lost half of
their volume in towing, the water they could provide would be far cheaper than that produced by
desalination, or removing salt from water.
(Adapted from TOELF reading)
Question 73. Which of the following is NOT mentioned as a challenge in towing icebergs?
A. Prevention of rapid melting
B. Funneling fresh water to shore
C. High cost of desalination D. Subsurface currents
Question 74. The word "arid" in paragraph 1 is OPPOSITE in meaning to _______. A. dry B. wet C. remoted D. high
Question 75. The word "they" in paragraph 3 refers to _______. A. glaciers B. sea ice C. icebergs D. polar regions
Question 76. The word "immense" in paragraph 2 could be best replaced by _______. A. small B. limited C. huge D. little
Question 77. Which of the following best paraphrases the underlined sentence in paragraph 1?
A. Scientists believe that fresh water storage will run out before humans need food.
B. Scientists warn that the demand for fresh water will exceed supply faster than food.
C. Scientists predict that food shortages will inevitably occur before water shortages.
D. Scientists claim that fresh water and food shortages will never happen at the same time.
Question 78. Which of the following is TRUE according to the passage?
A. In Atlantic, icebergs are usually formed when the sea water freezes in winter.
B. Most icebergs originate from the Arctic region and break off glaciers.
C. Icebergs have been recorded at 35 degrees south of the equator in the Atlantic.
D. Glaciers contain less than half of the Earth’s fresh water.
Question 79. In which paragraph does the writer mention the formation of icebergs? A. Paragraph 1 B. Paragraph 2 C. Paragraph 3 D. Paragraph 4
Question 80. In which paragraph does the writer mention the cost comparison between iceberg water and desalination? A. Paragraph 1 B. Paragraph 2 C. Paragraph 3 D. Paragraph 4
Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the best
answer to each of the following questions from 81 to 88.
Thomas Edison is famous for inventing the light bulb. But not many people know that in the 1920s, he
invented the first employment test to recruit staff for his research laboratory. It had questions in it like, ‘Who
killed President Lincoln?’ and ‘Where is the Sargasso Sea?’. It was difficult to answer the questions, and
only a few people managed to pass the test. Nowadays, we would ask: Is it really necessary to know things
like this if you want to work for an inventor?
Now, a hundred years later, employment tests are still used by companies, but are very different in
what they test. The way that companies recruit new staff has also changed. One recent trend in recruitment is
‘gamification’. Gamification, in general, means using characteristics of games (e.g. scoring points, competing
with others and rules of play) to add some fun to situations that are usually more serious.
One of the first companies which has used gamification to recruit new staff is the cosmetics company,
L'Oréal. L'Oréal created an online computer game called Reveal, where you try to solve real-life problems in
a virtual environment. The best players were invited for an interview.
Another company, the international hotel group Marriott, developed a Facebook game, My Marriott
HotelTM, to attract young people to a career in the hotel industry. In the game, players managed a virtual hotel
kitchen. The game could be played in English, Spanish, French, Arabic and Mandarin. It was designed to
recruit staff in markets outside the USA. The game was a great success and brought thousands of people to
the Marriott Facebook career page. Experts believe gamification is likely to become so common in recruitment
that perhaps we should all train as game designers!
(Adapted from Navigate by Caroline Krantz and Julie Norton)
Question 81. Which of the following best paraphrases the underlined sentence in paragraph 1?
It was difficult to answer the questions, and only a few people managed to pass the test.
A. The questions required detailed knowledge, and few candidates managed to pass.
B. The test included hard questions, so many candidates passed with average results.
C. Although the test was tough, it was designed to suit most people.
D. The test was challenging, and very few applicants were able to succeed.
Question 82. The word recruit in paragraph 1 can be best replaced by _______. A. employ B. process C. apply D. limit
Question 83. Which of the following is NOT mentioned in paragraph 2 as one of the examples of features of games? A. rules of play B. scoring points C. fun situations
D. competing with others
Question 84. The word It in paragraph 4 refers to _______. A. staff B. the game C. Mandarin
D. a virtual hotel kitchen
Question 85. The word common in paragraph 4 is OPPOSITE in meaning to _______. A. famous B. popular C. usual D. rare
Question 86. Which of the following is TRUE according to the passage?
A. Modern employment tests still focus on general knowledge, like Edison’s test.
B. Gamification started as a tool to train scientists in early recruitment systems.
C. Edison created one of the first employment tests to recruit staff for his lab in the 1920s.
D. L'Oréal and Marriott use gamification mainly to test technical skills for lab-based jobs.
Question 87. In which paragraph does the author mention a game that allows dealing with problems? A. paragraph 1 B. paragraph 2 C. paragraph 3 D. paragraph 4
Question 88. In which paragraph does the author introduce a new trend? A. paragraph 1 B. paragraph 2 C. paragraph 3 D. paragraph 4
Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the best
answer to each of the following questions from 89 to 96.
How often have you had the experience of a tourist in your country asking you a question in their
language and just expecting you to understand them? How do you feel when this happens? Perhaps you
don't have any idea what they're saying, and you hurry away in confusion and embarrassment.
Maybe you know the language and feel proud that you are able to respond.
If, on the other hand, you're anything like me, you probably feel irritated or even a little angry.
When this happens to me, I do feel irritated, especially if the person just repeats whatever they have said
in a louder voice. Nevertheless, I try to be polite and friendly, of course, even if I still don't understand.
I use the experience to remind myself how important it is to try and learn the language of the places
I visit. I know that I'm unlikely to be able to learn much if I'm only going to be there for a few days rather
than a few weeks, but I can at least try to learn the things I will almost certainly need to say. I mean
greetings like 'hello' and 'goodbye', the words for 'please' and 'thank you', how to ask politely for goods,
how to ask how much they cost and how to ask for directions.
You might be thinking that there's not much point in knowing how to ask a question like that if
you are not going to be able to understand the reply. That has happened to me sometimes, but I still believe
that trying to say something in the local language is a good thing. At least you've shown you are willing
to make an effort, and that often makes all the difference. Perhaps the person you ask will show you where
to go or even take you there. If you just ask them in your language, they might not even bother to answer,
and you will almost certainly have failed to make a new friend.
(Adapted from Gold Exam Maximiser by Sally Burgess and Jacky Newbrook)
Question 89. Which of the following best paraphrases the underlined sentence in paragraph 1?
Perhaps you don't have any idea what they're saying, and you hurry away in confusion and embarrassment.
A. You often understand what tourists say, but feel nervous and choose to stay silent rather than respond.
B. You might feel awkward because they spoke too fast, but you try asking them to repeat it more clearly before leaving.
C. You are sometimes confused by tourists, but you stay and try to guess their meaning from body language.
D. You might be totally lost about what they’re saying, and walk away quickly, feeling both unsure and ashamed.
Question 90. The word friendly in paragraph 2 is CLOSEST in meaning to _______. A. unhappy B. acceptable C. respectful D. approachable
Question 91. Which of the following is NOT mentioned in paragraph 3 as one of the things in a foreign
language that the author will at least learn? A. greeting others B. asking for products
C. asking for directions D. saying sorry
Question 92. The word they in paragraph 3 refers to _______. A. goods B. directions C. greetings D. the things
Question 93. The word willing in paragraph 4 is OPPOSITE in meaning to _______. A. prepared B. ready C. reluctant D. supportive
Question 94. Which of the following is TRUE according to the passage?
A. The author believes it’s unnecessary to speak the local language if staying only a few days.
B. Tourists often get angry when locals don't understand their language.
C. The author believes that trying to speak the local language can encourage others to help.
D. It is always easy for the author to understand the replies when asking questions abroad.
Question 95. In which paragraph does the author tell about his opposing attitudes? A. paragraph 1 B. paragraph 2 C. paragraph 3 D. paragraph 4
Question 96. In which paragraph does the author mention a possible failure? A. paragraph 1 B. paragraph 2 C. paragraph 3 D. paragraph 4
Read the following passage about not attending university and mark the letter A, B, C, or D to indicate the
correct answer to each of the questions from 97 to 104.
Not everyone chooses to go to university, and there are many reasons for this decision. Some people
prefer to start working right after school to gain practical experience and earn money. Others may pursue
vocational training or apprenticeships in fields like plumbing, carpentry, or healthcare, where hands-on skills
are more valuable than a degree. Additionally, university can be expensive, and not everyone wants to take on student debt.
Another reason some avoid university is that they are unsure about their career path. Instead of
spending years studying a subject they might not enjoy, they explore different jobs or start their own business.
Many successful entrepreneurs, artists, and skilled workers never attended university but still built fulfilling
careers. Self-learning, online courses, and networking can also provide valuable knowledge and opportunities without a formal degree.
However, not going to university comes with difficulties. Some employers require degrees for
certain positions, limiting job options. Without higher education, career advancement might be slower, and
salaries could be lower in some fields. Still, many industries value experience and skills over qualifications,
allowing hardworking individuals to succeed.
The decision depends on personal goals and circumstances. University is a great path for some, but it
is not the only way to build a successful future. With determination and the right opportunities, people can thrive without a degree.
Question 97. Which of the following is NOT mentioned as a field for students pursuing vocational training? A. healthcare B. business C. carpentry D. plumbing
Question 98. The phrase take on in paragraph 1 mostly means _________. A. avoid B. support C. face D. match
Question 99. The word fulfilling in paragraph 2 is opposite in meaning to _________. A. expensive B. dishonest C. terrible D. uncertain
Question 100. Which of the following best paraphrases the underlined sentence in paragraph 3?
Some employers require degrees for certain positions, limiting job options.
A. If there were a requirement for degrees for specific jobs, job opportunities would be scarce.
B. Job options are limited because some employers only hire degree holders for specific roles.
C. Requiring degrees for certain jobs means restricting job opportunities for some employers.
D. Most employers refuse to hire people without degrees, making job opportunities scarce.
Question 101. The word it in paragraph 4 refers to _________. A. decision B. path C. degree D. university
Question 102. Which of the following is TRUE according to the passage?
A. Without a formal degree, job applicants have to rely on self-learning to network.
B. Only by showing determination can people achieve success without a university degree.
C. Joining the labour market is a more popular option than pursuing vocational education.
D. Those working in sectors that prioritise practical experience still have a chance to thrive.
Question 103. In which paragraph does the writer mention examples of successful non-university paths? A. Paragraph 1 B. Paragraph 2 C. Paragraph 3 D. Paragraph 4
Question 104. In which paragraph does the writer explore the challenges of not attending university? A. Paragraph 1 B. Paragraph 2 C. Paragraph 3 D. Paragraph 4
Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the best
answer to each of the following questions from 105 to 112.
Around the world, Rio de Janeiro is famous for its beautiful beaches, and Carnival celebration. But
the city is also known for its poor areas, known as favelas. For years, many favelas had high poverty and
crime rates. However, things are starting to change.
In the past, favelas received little government support. Neighbourhood residents had to build their
own homes and streets, while gangs and guns were common. Now, a new government plan is changing
that. Thousands of police officers are being sent into favelas to remove gangs. In some areas, the plan is
working - crime is down, kids are playing outside again, new buildings are going up, and more city
services are available. “In 20 years,” says a police officer Leonardo Nogueira, “the children here will be different people.”
Police influence is changing the favelas, but something else is, too. Today, more Brazilians are
moving into these neighbourhoods because housing is expensive in other parts of Rio. “Favelas are a place
for young doctors without money to get started and young architects to start working,” explains Simone
Miranda, a Rio tour guide. In the past, favela residents felt different - separated from the rest of Rio.
“But now,” says Miranda, “they feel part of the society of Brazil.”
Life is improving in the favelas, but there are still challenges. In some areas, poverty rates are still
high. As students, families, and foreigners move into the favelas, property costs skyrocket. In some areas,
housing has more than doubled in price. Despite this, favela residents are hopeful. If Rio can develop
these favelas for all residents – both poor and middle classes – the city could become a model for other cities with similar problems.
(Adapted from ngl.cengage.com)
Question 105. Which of the following is NOT mentioned in the passage as being found in favelas? A. guns B. poverty C. gangs D. art
Question 106. Which of the following is true about favelas in the past?
A. Children didn’t play in the street very much.
B. There were no gangs in favelas.
C. Thousands of police officers worked there.
D. They got a lot of government assistance.
Question 107. The word “their” in paragraph 2 refers to _____________. A. police officers B. gangs
C. neighborhood residents D. city officials
Question 108. The word “common” in paragraph 2 is OPPOSITE in meaning to ____________. A. popular B. rare C. normal D. usual
Question 109. Which of the following best paraphrases the underlined sentence in paragraph 3?
A. People living in favelas didn’t feel like they belonged to the rest of Rio’s society.
B. People in favelas in the past used to rest in different places all over Rio.
C. There were few differences between residents in favelas and those from the rest of Rio.
D. Favelas in Rio in the past were different and separated from those in the rest of the world.
Question 110. The word “skyrocket” in paragraph 4 could be best replaced by ________. A. become smaller B. drop slowly C. become dangerous D. increase quickly
Question 111. In which paragraph does the writer explain how a government action is helping to reduce crime in favelas? A. Paragraph 1 B. Paragraph 2 C. Paragraph 3 D. Paragraph 4
Question 112. In which paragraph does the writer mention social classes in Brazil? A. Paragraph 1 B. Paragraph 2 C. Paragraph 3 D. Paragraph 4
Read the following passage about endangered languages and mark the letter A, B, C or D on your
answer sheet to indicate the best answer to each of the following Questions from 113 to 120
There are around 7,000 languages in the world today. However, most people speak the largest
languages: Chinese, Spanish, English, Hindi, Russian, Arabic, and others. So what about the smaller
languages? According to the UNESCO Atlas of the World's Languages in Danger, around one-third of
the world's languages now have fewer than 1,000 speakers. We may soon lose those languages
completely. In fact, 230 languages became extinct between 1950 and 2010.
Unfortunately, when we lose a language, we also lose its culture and knowledge. That's because
people in different places have different ways of living and thinking. One example of this is the Tuvan
language of southern Siberia. Tuvan people depend on animals for food and other basic needs. Their
language shows this close connection between people and animals. The Tuvan word ezenggileer, for
example, means "to sing with the rhythms of riding a horse." And the word ak byzaa is "a white calf less than one year old."
In some places, people are working to save traditional languages. Many schools in New Zealand
now teach the Maori language. This helps connect native New Zealanders to their Maori culture. And
Welsh is spoken by around 500,000 people in Wales. The Welsh government is working to increase that
number to one million by 2050.
Technology offers a possible alternative to saving endangered languages. National
Geographic's Enduring Voices project has created "Talking Dictionaries" the recorded voices of people
communicating with each other. All of them are fluent speakers of endangered languages. And because
these dictionaries are accessible to anyone on the Internet, people now and in the future can learn some
of the vocabulary, greetings, and grammar rules of past languages.
(Adapted from Explore New Worlds)
Question 113. Which of the following is NOT mentioned as one of the largest languages? A. Arabic B. Hindi C. Spanish D. Maori
Question 114. The word extinct in paragraph I is OPPOSITE in meaning to_____. A. existent B. native C. official D. ancient
Question 115. The word Their in paragraph 2 refers to_____. A. basic needs B. Tuvan people C. different ways D. different places
Question 116. The word accessible in paragraph 4 could be best replaced by______. A. available B. dependable C. visible D. audible
Question 117. Which of the following best paraphrases the underlined sentence in paragraph 4?
A. Endangered languages could only be saved by technology.
B. There is no other way to save endangered languages but technology.
C. Technology could be another way to save endangered languages.
D. Technology should be regarded as the last resort to save endangered languages.
Question 118. Which of the following is TRUE according to the passage?
A. The number of Welsh speakers will increase by one million by 2050.
B. Only by creating "Talking Dictionaries" can endangered languages be saved.
C. Less than 200 languages were no longer in existence between 1950 and 2010.
D. The Welsh government is trying to double the number of Welsh speakers by 2050.
Question 119. In which paragraph does the writer mention a present causal relationship? A. Paragraph 1 B. Paragraph 2 C. Paragraph 3 D. Paragraph 4
Question 120. In which paragraph does the writer explore modern methods for maintaining endangered languages? A. Paragraph 1 B. Paragraph 2 C. Paragraph 3 D. Paragraph 4
Read the following passage about great jobs and mark the letter A, B, C, or to indicate the correct answer
to each of the questions from 121 to 128.
Some people love working so much that it doesn't feel like work. But most people are not so lucky.
They need money to live, so they need a job. However, they don't love their work, and they feel unhappy. And
because they are unhappy, they may not work hard. Luckily, some people and companies are trying to improve things.
Dan Price is the CEO of a company based in Seattle. In 2015, he raised the salaries of all of his workers
to $70,000 a year, much higher than the average income in the United States. To pay for this, he cut his own
salary to the same amount. Interestingly, according to a study by Princeton University in 2010 about salaries,
people who make around $75,000 each year are happier and feel more satisfaction than those who make less
or more money. Since Price made his decision, his workers have been happier and his company has been more thriving.
Money is one reason why some workers are unhappy with their jobs. Another reason is working too
many hours. Perpetual Guardian, a company based in New Zealand, wanted staff to have a better work-life
balance. The company came up with a plan. Its staff were paid for five days, but they only had to work four
days each week. Not surprisingly, workers were happier and more satisfied.
Many studies show that people who do things are happier than people who buy things. For
example, going on a road trip or learning to play the guitar is better than buying a car or guitar. The famous
company Airbnb wants its staff to have great experiences. Workers get $2,000 each year to stay at Airbnb
properties anywhere in the world. As a result, many people who work at Airbnb love their jobs.
(Adapted from Explore New Worlds)
Question 121. What is implied in paragraph 1?
A. The number of people who cannot find joy in their work is low.
B. Job dissatisfaction can lead to low motivation and productivity.
C. Efforts to enhance job satisfaction haven’t been made by small firms.
D. Everyone tries to work hard for financial reasons rather than fulfilment.
Question 122. The word thriving in paragraph 2 is OPPOSITE in meaning to _________. A. temporary B. developing C. unsuccessful D. healthy
Question 123. The phrase came up with in paragraph 3 can be best replaced by _________. A. recognised B. discovered C. abandoned D. assessed
Question 124. The word they in paragraph 3 refers to _______. A. days B. jobs C. hours D. staff
Question 125. Which of the following best paraphrases the underlined sentence in paragraph 4?
A. Research suggests that people who engage in experiences tend to be happier than those who purchase material goods.
B. Many studies indicate that individuals who own too many items feel lower happiness than those who focus on items themselves.
C. Studies show that people who prioritise buying goods report higher happiness levels than those who do activities.
D. Research claims that spending money on experiences leads to greater satisfaction than spending it on buying items.
Question 126. Which of the following is TRUE according to the passage?
A. Employees at Perpetual Guardian previously had a very poor work-life balance.
B. Workers at Airbnb can stay at Airbnb properties with a small annual fee.
C. There has been a rise of $70,000 in the annual salaries of Dan Price’s staff.
D. Job dissatisfaction can be derived from long working hours and financial reasons.
Question 127. In which paragraph does the writer mention a contrast relationship? A. Paragraph 1 B. Paragraph 2 C. Paragraph 3 D. Paragraph 4
Question 128. In which paragraph does the writer discuss an initiative to reduce the number of workdays without affecting pay? A. Paragraph 1 B. Paragraph 2 C. Paragraph 3 D. Paragraph 4
Read the following passage about sustainable tourism and mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer
sheet to indicate the best answer to each of the following questions from 129 to 136.
Sustainable tourism aims to minimize the negative impacts of travel while maximizing benefits for
local communities, cultures, and environments. Unlike mass tourism, which often prioritizes volume and
profit, sustainable practices focus on long-term well-being. This approach recognizes that natural
landscapes, cultural heritage, and local economies are valuable assets that need protection. Key principles
include conserving resources, supporting local businesses, respecting local customs, and ensuring that
tourism contributes positively to the destinations visited, such as fragile ecosystems or historical sites.
The benefits of adopting sustainable tourism are significant. Environmentally, it helps protect
biodiversity and reduce pollution and waste generated by tourist activities. Economically, it ensures that
revenue stays within the local community, supporting small enterprises and creating fair employment
opportunities. Its focus on authentic cultural experiences also helps preserve local traditions and crafts,
offering visitors deeper, more meaningful interactions. This approach fosters mutual respect between hosts
and guests, enhancing the overall travel experience for everyone involved and promoting cross-cultural understanding.
However, implementing truly sustainable tourism faces several challenges. Balancing economic
development with conservation requires careful planning and regulation, which can be difficult to enforce.
"Greenwashing," where businesses falsely market themselves as sustainable, can mislead consumers and
undermine genuine efforts. Educating tourists about responsible behavior and managing visitor numbers
to prevent overcrowding in popular destinations like Venice or Machu Picchu remain ongoing struggles.
Furthermore, the initial investment required for sustainable infrastructure can be prohibitive for smaller communities or businesses.
Despite these difficulties, the movement towards sustainable travel is growing. Consumers are
increasingly aware of their impact and seeking more responsible options. Governments and
international organizations are developing frameworks and certifications to guide the industry.
Innovations in eco-friendly transport and accommodation are also emerging. Ultimately, achieving
sustainability in tourism requires a collaborative effort from travelers, businesses, and policymakers to
ensure that exploring our world does not come at the cost of damaging it for future generations.
Question 129. Which of the following is NOT mentioned as a principle of sustainable tourism?
A. Respecting local customs
B. Maximizing tourist volume
C. Conserving natural resources
D. Supporting local businesses
Question 130. The word “Its” in paragraph 2 refers to _______.
A. cultural experience's B. local community's C. mass tourism's
D. sustainable tourism's
Question 131. The word “prohibitive” in paragraph 3 is OPPOSITE in meaning to _______. A. affordable B. protective C. necessary D. expensive
Question 132. The word “preserve” in paragraph 2 could be best replaced by _______. A. display B. ignore C. protect D. change
Question 133. Which of the following best paraphrases the underlined sentence in paragraph 4?
A. The tourism industry is guiding governments to develop sustainable frameworks.
B. Consumers are developing frameworks to guide the sustainable tourism industry.
C. Frameworks and certifications are being created by authorities to direct sustainable tourism practices.
D. Businesses are creating their own certifications to guide government policies on the sustainable tourism industry.
Question 134. Which of the following is TRUE according to the passage?
A. Managing visitor numbers is a challenge for sustainable tourism.
B. Sustainable tourism guarantees that no pollution is generated.
C. "Greenwashing" helps consumers identify genuinely sustainable businesses.
D. Mass tourism focuses primarily on long-term well-being.
Question 135. In which paragraph does the writer mainly discuss the obstacles or difficulties in
implementing sustainable tourism? A. Paragraph 2 B. Paragraph 3 C. Paragraph 1 D. Paragraph 4
Question 136. In which paragraph does the writer primarily define sustainable tourism and its core ideas? A. Paragraph 2 B. Paragraph 1 C. Paragraph 4 D. Paragraph 3
Read the following passage about safer streets and mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet
to indicate the best answer to each of the following Questions.
GREEN LIVING: A PATH TO A SUSTAINABLE FUTURE
In a world grappling with climate change and environmental degradation, green living has
emerged as a vital approach to ensure sustainability. Green living involves adopting practices that
minimize harm to the environment while promoting a healthy lifestyle. These include reducing waste,
conserving energy, and embracing renewable resources.
One key aspect of green living is reducing waste. This can be achieved through recycling,
composting, and cutting back on single-use plastics. For example, using reusable water bottles and
shopping bags can significantly decrease the amount of plastic waste that pollutes our ecosystems.
Moreover, individuals can conserve energy by switching to energy-efficient appliances, unplugging
devices when not in use, and maximizing natural light in their homes.