Đề Học Sinh Giỏi Tiếng Anh 12 Năm 2020 – 2021 Trường Quế Võ 1 – Bắc Ninh

TRƯỜNG THPT QUẾ VÕ SỐ 1
ĐỀ THI CHỌN ĐỘI TUYỂN HỌC SINH GIỎI TRƯ NĂM HỌC 2020 - 2021 (Đề gồm có 08 trang) Môn: Tiếng Anh. Khối: 12
Thời gian làm bài: 90 phút (Không kể thời gian phát đề)
Họ và tên: ……………………………………….......... SBD: …………………...................
Thí sinh không được sử dụng tài liệu. Cán bộ coi thi không giải thích gì thêm.
----------------------------------------------------------------------- SECTION A. LISTENING
Part 1: You will hear two people speaking about their fondness for trains. For questions 1-5,
choose the correct answer (A, B, C or D) which fits best according to what you hear.
1) What point does Philip make about the people who are involved in the locomotive side of trains?
A) Some avoid doing it because its too dirty.
B) Some worry about the dangers involved.
C) Some find it to be an instinctive activity.
D) Some only do it for the financial rewards it brings.
2) When Mike discusses why he enjoys the world of trains, what contrast does he identify
between the different groups of people he interacts with?
A) A difference in social status. B) A difference in ages.
C) A difference in technical ability.
D) A difference in motivation.
3) What view is stated by Mike about how the railway has helped him in his role as a parent?
A) It has helped him develop a closer relationship B) It has taught him patience. with his daughter.
C) It has helped him focus on his daughters
D) It has given him stability in his life. career possibilities.
4) When discussing different aspects of the railway, both speakers agree that ___________.
A) Age does not need to be a handicap.
B) Both men and women are equally welcome. C) It can be quite demanding.
D) Cleanliness is not the first adjective that springs to mind.
5) What final conclusion do both speakers reach about volunteering on the railway?
A) The time they have spent has been
B) They have both learnt a lot. difficult but worth it.
C) They are better people for having been
D) It has helped them grow while at the same time involved with it.
giving them a direction for the future.
Part 2: Listen to the audio and choose the best answer to each question.
1. What does the lecturer provide for those who are interested in doing extra reading?
A. Personal consultation sessions.
B. Extra materials, such as a booklist. C. Mid-term examination. D. Free glasses.
2. In the past, time management meant you needed to A. reduce your stress.
B. plan for every hour of the week. C. own a good watch.
D. set goals and try to achieve these goals.
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3. Today, wise time management means you need to
A. set goals and work in a systematic way. B. work faster.
C. set an overview of your assignment.
D. make a list, plan for everything and try to stick to this plan.
4. In this college, students are assigned ____________ at the end of each semester. A. team projects. B. final term examinations. C. essays. D. time management courses.
5. One sign he lecturer mentions that students feel under pressure is A. library books go missing.
B. students get angry for no reason.
C. lower class attendance rates. D. trouble at the library.
6. What kind of suggestion does the lecturer give to the students?
A. Making a very detailed plan of their daily activities.
B. Not being so stressed just because there is an assignment.
C. A regular one-hour session in their personal timetables. D. Wearing comfortable shoes.
7. According to the lecturer, there are three kinds of planners. They are:
A. one weekly planner, one daily planner and one hour planner.
B. one yearly planner, one weekly planner and one daily planner.
C. one term planner, one monthly planner and one weekly planner.
D. one term planner, one weekly and one daily planner.
8. If you want to set an overview of your time, you should need at least A. one week B. half a week. C. one month. D. one term.
9. The daily planner of time is mainly concerned with A. the detailed planning.
B. how to plan all available time. C. TV schedules.
D. an overview of everything you need to do for several days.
10. According to the lecturer, wise time management may have the following benefit:
A. having more time to spend on relaxation and other activities.
B. improving your performance in the final term assignment.
C. helping you write better essays. D. improving your memory. SECTION B. LEXICO-GRAMMAR
Mark the letter A, B, C or D to indicate the word whose underlined part differs from the other
three in pronunciation in each of the following questions. Question 1: A. coverage B. beverage C. rouge D. gauge
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Mark the letter A, B, C, or D to indicate the word that differs from the other three in the
position of primary stress in each of the following questions. Question 3: A. fulltime B. farmhand C. bookshop D. tradesman Question 4: A. interchange B. infamous C. contributory D. undercurrent
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the following questions.
Question 5. __________ comes a time when you have to make a decision and stick to it. A. It B. That C. Then D. There
Question 6. More and more trees in this area are found __________ from the effect of pollution. A. died B. to be dead C. to be dying D. having died
Question 7. I don’t need any medicine. I’m as right as _______________. A. rain B. clouds C. rays D. a haze
Question 8. Kathy __________ comes up with a solution when everyone else is at a loss. A. absolutely B. invariably C. persistently D. universally
Question 9. I’d say let’s meet on Saturday but I’m none __________ sure what’s happening at the weekend. A. so B. very C. that D. too
Question 10. Every Christmas of my childhood was the same. My father __________ late for lunch,
weighed down with presents for the family. A. would arrive B. could arrive C. was arriving D. got used to arriving
Question 11. The mayor failed to deliver key promises in his manifesto, but to give him his
improve the city's infrastructure. A. account B. view C. owing D.due
Question 12. He was extremely protective _____________ his role as advisor. A. of B. with C. about D. for
Question 13. “It’s really cold today”
“Yes, I didn’t want to get out of bed, _____________ go outside.” A. even though B. much less C. aside from D. not only
Question 14. “Is John a good student?” “He is, _____________, an excellent student.” A.in most parts B. for most parts C. for the most part D. in most of the parts
Question 15. Our plan is completely _____________. Nothing can possibly go wrong. A. foolproof B. airtight C. foolhardy D. waterproof
Question 16. He spent ten years in the army and for most of the time he was abroad. A. Camped B. situated C. placed D. stationed
Question 17. Hardly had the van turned the corner when one of the back wheels A. Broke away B. turned round C. came off D. rolled down
Question 18. I’d rather you ______________a noise last night, I couldn’t get to sleep. A. Hadn’t made
B. wouldn’t make C. didn’t make D. haven’t made
Question 19. If we have to pay a £1,000 fine, then ________. We’re not going to win a fight with the Tax Office. A. so be it B. be it so C. thus be it D. be it thus
Question 20. He came into the room and sat down without _________ a word to anyone.
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Question 21. We’re going to visit the Great Walls. Everybody says this is __________.
A. a too good chance for being lost
B. too good a chance to be lost
C. too good a chance for being lost D. a too good chance to lose
Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D to indicate the correct answer to each of the question.
Archaeology has long been an accepted tool for studying prehistoric cultures. Relatively recently the
same techniques have been systematically applied to studies of the more immediate past. This has
been called "historical archaeology", a term that is used in the United States to refer to any
archaeological investigation into North American sites that postdate the arrival of Europeans.
Back in the 1930's and 1940's, when building restoration was popular, historical archaeology was
primarily a tool of architectural reconstruction. The role of archaeologists was to find the
foundations of historic buildings and then take a back seat to architects.
The mania for reconstruction had largely subsided by the 1950's and 1960's. Most people entering
historical archaeology during this period came out of university anthropology departments where
they had studied prehistoric cultures. They were, by training, social scientists, not historians, and
their work tended to reflect this bias. The questions they framed and the techniques they used were
designed to help them understand, as scientists, how people behaved. But because they were
treading on historical ground for which there was often extensive written documentation and
because their own knowledge of these periods was usually limited, their contributions to American
history remained circumscribed. Their reports, highly technical and sometimes poorly written, went unread.
More recently, professional archaeologists have taken over. These researchers have sought to
demonstrate that their work can be a valuable tool not only of science but also of history, providing
fresh insights into the daily lives of ordinary people whose existences might nt otherwise be so well
documented. This newer emphasis on archaeology as social history has shown great promise, and
indeed work done in this area has led to a reinterpretation of the United States' past.
In Kingston, New York, for example, evidence has been uncovered that indicates that English goods
were being smuggled into that city at a time when the Dutch supposedly controlled trading in the
area. And in Sacramento an excavation at the site of a fashionable nineteenth-century hotel revealed
that garbage had been stashed in the building' s basement despite sanitation laws to the contrary.
Question 22: What is the main topic of the passage？
A．How the purpose and the methods of historical archaeology have changed.
B．How archaeology has been applied to studies of prehistoric cultures.
C．The attitude professional archaeologists hold toward historical archaeology.
D．The contributions social scientists make to historical archaeology.
Question 23: According to the passage, what is a relatively new focus in archaeology?
A．studying prehistoric cultures
B．investigating ancient sites in what is now the United States
C．comparing the culture of North America to that of Europe D．studying the recent past
Question 24: According to the passage, when had historical archaeologists been trained as anthropologists?
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B．during the 1930's and 1940's
C．during the 1950's and 1960's' D．after the 1960's
Question 25: In the third paragraph, the author implies that the questions and techniques of history
and those of social science are ______.
A．of equal value in studying prehistoric cultures
B．quite different from each other
C．all aiming to understand people's behaviour
D．all highly technical and poorly written
Question 26: The equivalent of the word "supposedly" in the last paragraph is ______. A．rigidly B．barely C．seemingly D．ruthlessly
Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D to indicate the correct word or
phrase that best fits each of the numbered blanks.
In the US, industries that generate hazardous wastes want to dispose of them as cheaply as possible.
Private companies hired to dispose of this waste compete with each other to offer the lowest prices
to these industries. The government does not get involved, beyond
setting minimum safety standards.
Unfortunately, the (27) _______ of companies that generate and dispose of waste is to save money, not
to guarantee safety. These companies usually send waste to landfills because this is cheaper than
recycling or incineration. Disposal firms who want to increase their business must cut corners to
lower costs and (28) ________ customers. At the same time, relatively little is done to reduce the
volume of waste generated,because disposal cost (29) __________relatively modest.
Things are different in Denmark. There the government participates in the waste disposal process
beginning (30) ____________ the front end. Together with industry, the government formed a
corporation to establish and operate waste disposal facilities. This company, called Kommunichem,
has a (31) ____________ on waste disposal. Generators of hazardous waste must ship their waste to one
of Kommunichem’s disposal facilities. In this system,there is no price competition in the waste disposal business. Question 27 A. solution B. license C. importance D. goal Question 28: A. survive B. efficient C. gain D. prosper Question 29: A. still B. have C. remain D. cheap Question 30: A. to B. by C. of D. at Question 31: A. power B. responsibility C. monopoly D. profit
Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D to indicate the correct answer to each of the question.
The spectacular aurora light displays that appear in Earth’s atmosphere around the north and south
magnetic poles were once mysterious phenomena. Now, scientists have data from satellites and
ground-based observations from which we know that the aurora brilliance is an immense electrical
discharge similar to that occurring in a neon sign.
To understand the cause of auroras, first picture the Earth enclosed by its magnetosphere, a
huge region created by the Earth’s magnetic field. Outside the magnetosphere, blasting toward the
Earth is the solar wind, a swiftly moving plasma of ionized gases with its own magnetic field.
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Charged particles in this solar wind speed earthward along the solar wind’s magnetic lines of
force with a spiralling motion. The Earth’s magnetosphere is a barrier to the solar wind, and forces
the charged particles of the solar wind to flow around the magnetosphere itself. But in the polar
regions, the magnetic lines of force of the Earth and of the solar wind bunch together. Here many of
the solar wind’s charged particles breakthrough the magnetosphere and enter Earth’s magnetic field.
They then spiral back and forth between the Earth’s magnetic poles very rapidly. In the polar
regions, electrons from the solar wind ionize and excite the atoms and molecules of the upper
atmosphere, causing them to emit aurora radiations of visible light.
The colors of an aurora depend on the atoms emitting them. The dominant greenish white light
comes from low energy excitation of oxygen atoms. During huge magnetic storms oxygen atoms also
undergo high energy excitation and emit crimson light. Excited nitrogen atoms contribute bands of
color varying from blue to violet. Viewed from outer space, auroras can be seen as dimly glowing
belts wrapped around each of the Earth’s magnetic poles. Each aurora hangs like a curtain of light
stretching over the polar regions and into the higher latitudes. When the solar flares that result in
magnetic storms and aurora activity are very intense, aurora displays may extend as far as the
southern regions of the United States.
Studies of auroras have given physicists new information about the behavior of plasmas, which
has helped to explain the nature of outer space and is being applied in attempts to harness energy from the fusion of atoms.
Question 32: What does the passage mainly discuss?
A. The methods used to observe auroras from outer space.
B. The formation and appearance of auroras around the Earth’s poles
C. The factors that cause the variety of colors in auroras.
D. The periodic variation in the display of auroras.
Question 33: The word “phenomena” in paragraph 1 is closest in meaning to __________. A. ideas B. stars C. events D. colors
Question 34: The passage describes “the magnetosphere as a barrier” because __________.
A. its position makes it difficult to be observed from Earth
B. it prevents particles from the solar wind from easily entering Earth’s atmosphere
C. it increases the speed of particles from the solar wind
D. it is strongest in the polar regions
Question 35: According to the passage, which color appears most frequently in an aurora display? A. greenish-white B. crimson C. blue D. violet
Question 36: The word “glowing” in paragraph 4 is closest in meaning to __________. A. shining B. moving C. charging D. hanging
Question 37: Auroras may be seen in the southern regions of the United States when __________.
A. magnetic storms do not affect Earth
B. solar flares are very intense
C. the speed of the solar wind is reduced
D. the excitation of atoms is low
Question 38: The passage supports which of the following statement about scientists’ understanding of auroras?
A. Before advances in technology, including satellites, scientists knew little about auroras.
B. New knowledge about the fusions of atoms allowed scientists to learn more about auroras.
C. Scientists cannot explain the cause of the different colors in auroras.
D. Until scientists learn more about plasma physics, little knowledge about auroras will be available.
Question 39: Which of the following terms is defined in the passage?
A. “magnetosphere” B. “electrons” C. “ionize” D. “fusion”
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Mark the letter A, B, C, or D to indicate the word{s) CLOSEST in meaning to the underlined
word(s) in each of the following questions.
Question 40: A.I. techniques help medical doctors to discover subtle interactions between
medications that put patience in jeopardy because of their serious side effect. A. at risk B. in reality C. under control D. under pressure
Question 41: The high mountain climate is cold and inhospitable. A. rainy B. stormy C. uninviting D. intense
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D to indicate the word(s) OPPOSITE in meaning to the underlined
word(s) in each of the following questions.
Question 42: You'd think he would have blown his lid when he realized the chef was downstairs. A. become tired B. stayed calm C. felt happy D. been furious
Question 43: This is new washing machine is not a patch on our old one. These clothes are still dirty.
A. to be expensive B. to be broken C. to be strange D. to be better
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D to indicate the sentence that best completes each of the following exchanges.
Question 44: Two students are talking about their friend Tim:
A: “Tim has a very easy job. He’s paid a lot ofmoney to do little.” B: “ ” A. It's the luck of the game
B. It's an incredible piece ofluck C. Wish him good luck
D. He crossed his fingers for luck
Question 45: Two friends are talking about their lives:
X: “I feel really depressed at the moment. Nothing's going right in my life.” Y: “ .”
A. I know. We really need some sunshine, don't we?
B. Cheer up! Things can't be that bad! C.
I'm sorry to hear that, but I'm sure he'll be all right.
D. That's good. I'm pleased to hear it.
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D to indicate the sentence that is closest in meaning to each of the following questions.
Question 46: When we asked the Minister about the strike, he declined to comment.
A. On asking us about the strike, the Minister declined to comment.
B. When asked about the strike, the Minister declined to comment.
C. We declined to comment when the Minister asked us about the strike.
D. Declining to comment, the Minister asked us about the strike.
Question 47: The man with red hair may have caused it.
A. It may have been caused by the man whose his hair was red.
B. The man whose red hair may have caused it.
C. It may have caused by the man whose hair was red.
D. It may have been caused by the man whose hair was red.
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Question 48. The likelihood of suffering a heart attack rises as one becomes increasingly obese.
A. Heart attacks are happening more and more often, and most of the sufferers are obese.
B. Obesity results in only a slight increase in the probability of having a heart attack.
C. The more obese one is, the higher the chances for a heart attack become.
D. Anyone who is obese is likely to experience a heart attack at any time.
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D to indicate the sentence that best combines each pair of sentences in the following questions.
Question 49. New York is described as the world’s cultural centre. It situated on the bank of Hudson river.
A. As long as New York is described as the world’s cultural centre, It situated on the bank of Hudson river.
B. In spite of the fact that it situated on the bank of Hudson river, New York is described as the world’s cultural centre.
C. Because it situated on the bank of Hudson river, New York is described as the world’s cultural centre.
D. New York, which is described as the world’s cultural centre, situated on the bank of Hudson river.
Question 50. He was overconfident. Therefore, he ruined our plan completely.
A. It was because his overconfidence that ruined our plan completely.
B. He was overconfident, which ruined our plan completely.
C. That he was overconfidence ruined our plan completely.
D. It was his overconfidence ruined our plan completely.
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the option that best completes
each of the following exchanges.
Question 51: Tom: It's the worst film we've ever seen. Jenny : ________ A. I couldn't say that again. B. I couldn't agree more. C. That’s right, you are. D. There you have it.
Question 52: Speaker 1: You look lost. ________?
Speaker 2: Yes, please. Can you tell us how to get to the railway station?
A. Can I be of any assistance? B. Is there anything to do? C. Can I give a hand? D. Would you like a hand?
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D to indicate the underlined part that needs correction in each of the following questions.
Question 53: He is a boy in seven (A) with white hair, like (B) snow, whose presence (C) is "like
being in the room with a feather" (D).
Question 54: Marie-Laure's father is also the creator of ingenious puzzles (A) and delightful
miniature (B) of (C) the streets and houses of Paris, for instance. (D)
Question 55: Although research has been ongoing since (A) 1930, the existence (B) of ESP-
perception and communication without the use (C) of the sight, hear (D), taste, touch or smell-is still disputed.
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