Đề thi chọn đội tuyển dự thi Học sinh giỏi quốc gia THPT năm 2011 môn Tiếng Anh tỉnh Tiền Giang
Đề thi chọn đội tuyển dự thi Học sinh giỏi quốc gia THPT năm 2011 môn Tiếng Anh tỉnh Tiền Giang giúp các bạn học sinh sắp tham gia các kì thi Tiếng Anh tham khảo, học tập và ôn tập kiến thức, bài tập và đạt kết quả cao trong kỳ thi sắp tới. Mời bạn đọc đón xem!
Môn: Đề thi chọn học sinh giỏi Tiếng Anh lớp 12 THPT & đội tuyển dự thi học sinh giỏi Quốc gia THPT
Trường: Đề thi chọn HSG Tiếng Anh từ lớp 9 đến lớp 12 cấp trường, quận/ huyện, tỉnh/ thành phố
Thông tin:
Tác giả:
Thông tin :
Môn:
Đề thi chọn học sinh giỏi Tiếng Anh lớp 12 THPT & đội tuyển dự thi học sinh giỏi Quốc gia THPT
Trường:
Đề thi chọn HSG Tiếng Anh từ lớp 9 đến lớp 12 cấp trường, quận/ huyện, tỉnh/ thành phố
Tác giả:
Tài liệu liên quan:
Preview text:
UBND TỈNH TIỀN GIANG KỲ THI LẬP ĐỘI TUYỂN HỌC SINH GIỎI QUỐC GIA
SỞ GIÁO DỤC & ĐÀO TẠO LỚP 12 THPT NĂM 2011 Đề chính thức SỒ PHÁCH Môn thi : TIẾNG ANH Thời gian thi
: 180 phút ( không kể thời gian giao đề ) Ngày thi : 23/11/2011
Đề thi có 15 trang , gồm 04 phần ( I, II, III và IV )
Thí sinh không được sử dụng tài liệu, kể cả từ điển.
Giám thị không giải thích gì thêm.
Thí sinh làm bài trực tiếp lên đề thi ( ở những chổ dành sẵn ) SỒ PHÁCH
Chữ ký Giám khảo I :
Chữ ký Giám khảo II : Điểm từng câu Tổng điểm ( số )
Câu 1 ………………. Câu 6……………….
Câu 2 ………………. Câu 7……………….
Câu 3 ………………. Câu 8……………….
Câu 4 ………………. Câu 9……………… Câu 5………………. Câu 10…………
------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------
I. LISTENING ( 4/20 points).
Bài nghe gồm 3 phần, mỗi phần được nghe 2 lần, mỗi lần cách nhau 15 giây, mở đầu và
kết thúc mỗi phần nghe có tín hiệu
Mở đầu và kết thúc bài nghe có tín hiệu nhạc. Thí sinh có 3 phút để hoàn chỉnh bài trước
tín hiệu nhạc kết thúc bài nghe.
Mọi hướng dẫn cho thí sinh ( bằng tiếng Anh) đã có trong bài nghe. Part 1: Questions 1 – 10
This is an introductory talk by a Student Information Officer. Listen and answer the
following questions by either choosing the correct answers or supplying your own
answers in the space provided. ( You do not need to write full sentences.)
1. Overseas students will enroll on A. 8th February B. 16th February C. 17th February D. 18th February
2. Undergraduate students must enroll A. between 8.00 and 10.30 am
B. between 9.30 am and 12.30 pm C. between 12.30 and 2.30 pm D. between 2.00 and 4.30 pm 3. The venue for enrolment is A. in the Mathematics Faculty B. on Level 158 C. in Room C658 D. in Room C6 4. At enrolment, all students
A. must show a letter of acceptance from their faculty
B. need not show their letter of acceptance
C. need not bring any identification
D. must prove their level of English proficiency
5. Students who have paid their fees
A. should go to the International Students’ Office
B. are guaranteed a place at university C. must get a bank cheque
D. should pay a further $ 10,000 6. The student Card A. is issued before enrolment
B. has the student’s identification number C. is issued by the Library D. is not laminated
7. During university term, the Library will be open A. from 9.00 am to 4.00 pm B. from 9.00 am to 9.00 pm C. from 8.30 am to 9.00 pm D. from 4.00 pm to 9.30 pm
8. If anyone who hasn’t paid their fees for this semester yet, where should they go?
__________________________________________________________________
9. As regards paying the fees, what is a word of advice?
________________________________________________________ .
10. Why don’t you have to bring a photo for Student Cards?
Because the enrolling officer will _______________________ and put it on the card, so it’s all done at once.
Part 2 : Questions 11 – 25
Listen to a newsreader talk about a disaster and fill in the missing information in the numbered space.
Severe storms hit the western areas of the city last night, leaving (11) ____________________
of destruction and at least a hundred homes without power or running water.
Dozens of families were left homeless when the roofs of their houses (12) were _____________________ away.
Many of the areas hit were the same ones badly affected by (13) _____________________ last week.
In Macquarie Street, the council car park was completely (14) _____________________ .
A Toyota Corolla was badly damaged by floodwaters which carried the car across the (15)
_____________________ and into a large stormwater drain.
A separate storm (16) _____________________ through the Federation Botanical Park.
It uprooted at least (17) _____________________ ; many of them were over a hundred years old.
In Menal, several trees were found lying on parked cars, causing an insurance bill that will run
into the (18) _____________________ of dollars.
Winds were recorded at speeds of over (19) _____________________ kilometers an hour.
People were trapped in cars for up to an hour because the (20) _____________________ had
left them stranded in swollen creeks, amidst a sea of debris.
There were (21) _____________________ of cars being piled one on top of the other.
In Lucas Heights a tree fell on a mini-bus that was taking the (22) _____________________
soccer team to training. Luckily all but the driver escaped serious injury.
The (23) _____________________ is in an (24) _____________________ condition in Westmead Hospital.
For tomorrow, weather reports predict improved conditions, with clear skies and an expected
(25) _____________________ temperature in the city of 14, Helen Brookes reporting for ILTC RADIO NEWS.
Part 3: Questions 26 - 40
You will hear a conversation between a representative of an insurance company and a person
who wishes to apply for life insurance. While you listen to the conversation, complete the
person’s application form by either circle the choice or by supplying the information. Swallow Life Insurance Name of Applicant
(26) ……………………….. Address (27) Postcode (28) ………………………..
……………………….. ……………………….. ……………………….. Age (29) Height (30) Weight (31)
……………………….. ……………………….. ……………………….. Marital Status (32) Single Married Divorced Widowed ……………………….. MEDICAL HISTORY Serious illness
(33) ………………………..
Which of the following measles, kidney disorder, pneumonia, cancerous is not described as growth serious illness by the interviewer?
(34) ……………………….. Major surgical operations
(35 ……………………….. Any current medical condition
(36) ……………………….. Is applicant’s father or Father Mother mother dead ?
(37) ……………………….. If so, at what age did Age: (38) Cause of Death: (39) he/she die? Why?
……………………….. ……………………….. Is the applicant Yes No currently a smoker?
(40) ………………………..
II. LEXICO - GRAMMAR ( 6/20 pts.)
Part 1 : Choose the word or phrase that best completes each sentence. Write your answer
( A, B, C, or D ) in the numbered box.
41. In the last century, it was widely …………… that Indian fakirs were capable of superhuman feasts. A. held B. grasped C. kept D. shaken
42. We may win, we may lose – it’s just the …………… of the draw! A. strike B. odds C. chance D. luck
43. Claims for compensation could …………… run into billions of pounds. A. far B. much C. well D. most
44. Trespassers will be …………… . A. perpetrated B. persecuted C. proscribed D. prosecuted
45. A traveler looks down on anyone who seems to be a(n) ……………tourist A. only B. sole C. mere D. lone
46. We welcome the new regulations, which become .…………… on the first of next month. A. effective B. efficient C. efficacious D. effete
47. He’ll never be able to come .…………… with his failure to win the tournament. A. down B. round C. to terms D. up
48. He’s on his own now – he’ll have to ………… his own canoe! A. row B. steer C. paddle D. ride
49. Most people buy their houses with a loan which they then pay back ………… 25 years. A. over B. during C. with D. throughout
50. People who are squeamish are afraid of the ………… of blood. A. spectacle B. view C. sight D. look Your answers 41. 46. 42. 47. 43. 48. 44. 49. 45. 50.
Part 2: Write the correct FORM of each bracketed word in the numbered space provided
in the column on the right. ( 0) has been done as an example. Your answers
There is (0) _________ (WIDTH) cross-cultural variation in the 0. wide
social rules governing the selection of a partner for marriage. There is
variation in the degree to which (51) _________ (PART) selection is an 51. _________
individual decision by the partners or a collective decision by the partners
kin groups, and there is variation in the rules (52) _________ 52. _________
(REGULATIONS) which partners are valid (53) _________ (CHOOSE) . 53. _________
In many societies the choice of partner is limited to suitable persons from
specific social groups. In some societies the rule is that a partner is
selected from an individual's own social group - endogamy, this is the case
in many class and caste based societies. But in other societies a partner
must be chosen from a different group than one's own - exogamy, this is
the case in many societies practicing totemic religion where society is (54)
_________ (DIVISION) into several exogamous totemic clans, such as 54. _________
most aboriginal Australian societies. In other societies a person is
expected to marry their cross-cousin, a woman must marry her father's
sister's son and a man must marry his mother's brother's daughter - this is
often the case if either a society has a rule of tracing kinship (55)
_________ (EXCLUSION) through patrilineal or matrilineal descent 55. _________
groups as among the Akan people of Africa. Another kind of marriage
selection is the levirate marriage in which widows are obligated to marry
their husband's brother, this is mostly found in societies where kinship is
based on endogamous clan groups.
In other cultures with less strict rules governing the groups from
which a partner can be chosen the selection of a marriage partner may
involve either the couple going through a selection process of (56)
_________ (COURT) or the marriage may be arranged by the couple's 56. _________
parents or an outside party, a matchmaker.
A pragmatic (or 'arranged') marriage is made easier by formal
procedures of family or group politics. A responsible authority sets up or
(57) _________ (COURAGE) the marriage; they may, indeed, engage a 57. _________
professional matchmaker to find a suitable spouse for an (58) _________ 58. _________
(MARRY) person. The authority figure could be parents, family, a
religious official, or a group consensus. In some cases, the authority figure
may choose a match for purposes other than marital (59) _________ 59. _________ (HARMONIZE) .
In rural Indian villages, child marriage is also practiced, with parents
at times arranging the wedding, sometimes even before the child is born. 60. _________
This practice is now (60) _________ (LEGAL) under the Child Marriage
Restraint Act. In some societies ranging from Central Asia to the
Caucasus to Africa, the custom of bride kidnapping still exists, in which a
woman is captured by a man and his friends.
Part 3: The passage below contains 10 mistakes. Underline the mistakes and correct them
in the space provided in the column on the right. ( 0) has been done as an example. Your answers
English is an West Germanic language that originated from the 0. an → a
Anglo-Frisian dialects brought to Britain by Germanic invaders from
various parts of that is now northwest Germany and the Netherlands. 61. __________
Initially, Old English was a divert group of dialects, reflecting the varied 62. __________
origins of the Anglo-Saxon kingdoms of England. One of these dialects,
Late West Saxon, eventually came to dominate.
The original Old English language was then influential by two further 63. __________
waves of invasion: the first by speakers of the Scandinavian branch of the
Germanic language family, which conquered and colonized parts of 64. __________
Britain in the 8th and 9th centuries; the latter by the Normans in the 11th 65. __________
century, who spoke Old Norman and ultimately developed an English
variety of this called Anglo-Norman. These two invasions caused English
to become "mixed" to any degree. 66. __________
Cohabitation with the Scandinavians resulted in a significant 67. __________
grammatical simplification and lexical enrichment of the Anglo-Frisian
core of English; the later Norman occupation led to the grafting onto that
Germanic core of a more elaborate layer of works from the Romance 68. __________
languages (Latin-based languages). This Norman influence entered
English large through the courts and government. Thus, English 69. __________
developed into a "borrowing" language of great flexibility, resulted in an 70. __________
enormous and varied vocabulary.
Part 4 : Supply the correct form of the VERB in brackets to complete the passage. Write
your answer in the numbered box.
Learners of English often have difficulty ( 71. MANIPULATE) __________ the various ways
in which English uses the first auxiliary verb of a tense. These include negation (e.g. He hasn't
been drinking.), inversion with the subject (72. FORM) __________ a question (e.g. Has he
been drinking?), short answers (e.g. Yes, he has.) and tag questions (has he?). A further
complication is that the dummy auxiliary verb do /does /did is added (73. FULFIL)
__________ these functions in the simple present and simple past, but not for the verb to be.
Word derivation in English requires a lot of rote (74. LEARN) __________ . For example, an
adjective can be (75. NEGATE) __________ by using the prefix un- (e.g. unable), in- (e.g.
inappropriate), dis- (e.g. dishonest), or a- (e.g. amoral), or through the use of one of a myriad
related but rarer prefixes, all modified versions of the first four.
(76. TEACH) __________ English therefore involves not only (77. HELP) __________ the
student to use the form of English most suitable for his purposes, but also exposure to regional
forms and cultural styles so that the student will be able to discern meaning even when the
words, grammar or pronunciation are different to the form of English he is being (78. TEACH) __________ to speak.
The (79. SPELL) __________ system causes problems in both directions - a learner may know
a word by sound but not be able to write it correctly (or indeed find it in a dictionary), or they
may see a word written but (80. NOT, KNOW) __________ how to pronounce it or mislearn the pronunciation. Your answers 71. 76. 72. 77. 73. 78. 74. 79. 75. 80.
Part 5: Fill each gap in the following sentences with one of the prepositions or particles in
the box. Use each word only ONCE and write your answer in the numbered box. ( Please
note that the given words outnumber the gaps) to into in behind under in round about in against at with
81. Leaving fingerprints _________ was very foolish.
82. Doctors advice people who are deficient _________ Vitamin C to eat more fruit and vegetables.
83. As his aunt’s only beneficiary, he came _________ a fortune on her death.
84. On returning home, Peter discovered _________ his horror that the pipes had burst and the entire house was flooded.
85. The police held the two suspects for further questioning because their stories did not tie _________ with each other.
86. She has been a bit _________ the weather recently. She has not been very well.
87. When he came _________ after the operation, he had absolutely no idea where he was.
88. He has been harboring his grievances _________ his boss.
89. _________ length, the bus arrived, forty minutes late.
90. He is _________ disgrace with his father because he told a lie. Your answers 81. 86. 82. 87. 83. 88. 84. 89. 85. 90.
III : READING ( 4/20 points )
Part 1: Read the following passage and decide which answer ( A, B, C, or D ) best fits
each gap. Write your answer in the numbered box. ( 0) has been done as an example.
(0.) _________ developing countries, the (91.) _________ and seriousness of the problems
faced are naturally greater. People in more remote or agrarian areas are sometimes unaware of
the importance of education. However, many countries have an active Ministry of Education,
and in many subjects, such as foreign language learning, the degree of education is actually
much higher than in industrialized countries; for example, it is not at all (92.) _________ for
students in many developing countries to be reasonably fluent in multiple foreign languages,
(93.) _________ this is much more of a rarity in the supposedly "more educated" countries
where (94.) _________ of the population is in fact monolingual.
Universal primary education is one of the eight Millennium Development Goals and great
improvements have been (95.) _________ in the past decade, yet a great deal (96.) _________
to be done. Researchers at the Overseas Development Institute indicate the main obstacles to
greater funding from donors (97.) _________ donor priorities, aid architecture, and the lack of
evidence and advocacy. Additionally, Transparency International has identified corruption in
the education sector as a major stumbling block to achieving Universal primary education in
Africa. Furthermore, demand in the developing world for improved educational access is not as
high as one would expect as governments avoid the (98.) _________ costs involved and there
is economic pressure on those parents who prefer their children making money in the short
term over any long-term benefits of education. Recent studies on child labor and poverty have
suggested that when poor families reach a certain economic (99.) _________ where families
are able to provide for their basic needs, parents return their children to school. This has been
found to be true, once the threshold has been (100.) _________, even if the potential economic
value of the children's work has increased since their return to school. 0. A. At B. By C. In D. On 91. A. amount B. figure C. number D. quantity 92. A. unkind B. ordinary C. usual D. uncommon 93. A. as B. since C. when D. whereas 94. A. far B. nearly C. many D. much 95. A. achieved B. attained C. obtained D. reached 96. A. keeps B. remains C. stay D. still 97. A. comprise of B. consist of C. contain D. include 98. A. current B. emergent C. recurrent D. urgent 99. A altitude B. ceiling C. summit D. threshold 100. A. accessed B. breached C. failed D. terminated Your answers (0) C 91. 92. 93. 94. 95. 96. 97. 98. 99. 100.
Part 2: Read the following passage and choose the most suitable sentence from the list A to
G for each gap from 101 to 107. (There is one extra sentence which you do not need to use.)
Then, choose the correct answer (A, B, C, or D) to each of the questions from 108 to 110.
Write your answer in the numbered box.
For adults who remain vivaciously childlike in old age, there has to be a sustained
enthusiasm for some aspect of life. (101) ……………….. . If they are forcibly retired they
should immerse themselves in some new, absorbing activity.
Some people are naturally more physically active than others, and are at a considerable
advantage providing their activities are not the result of stress. (102) ……………….. . The
more earnest ageing exercisers display a conscious or unconscious anxiety about their health. If
they take exercise too seriously it will work against them. Older individuals who take up
intensive athletic activity are usually people who fear declining health. Yet it is crucial that
physical exercise – as we grow past the young sportsman stage – should be extensive rather
than intensive and, above all, fun.
A calm temperament favours longevity. Those who are sharply aggressive, emotionally
explosive or naggingly anxious are at a grave disadvantage. (103) ……………….. .
Relaxation does not contradict the idea of passionate interest. Indeed, zest for living, eagerness
to pursue chosen subjects are vital in long life.
Thinking about the ‘good old days’, complaining about how the world is deteriorating,
criticising the younger generations, are sure signs of an early funeral.
Being successful is a great life-stretcher, and can even override such life-shorteners as
obesity and fondness for drink. (104) ……………….. . And success must always be
measured in personal terms. A hill-shepherd may feel just as successful in his own way as a Nobel Laureate.
Long-lived individuals seem to be more concerned with what they do than who they
are. They live outside themselves rather than dwelling on their own personalities.
In personal habits, the long-lived are generally moderate. Extremes of diet are not
common. A mixed diet seems to favour longevity. (105) ……………….. . Many long-lived
individuals enjoy nicotine and alcohol - in moderation.
Most long-lived people have a sense of self-discipline. (106) ……………….. . The
man who lives long because he walks a mile a day does so because he does it every day, as part of an organised existence.
Over and over, during my researches, it emerged that long life goes with a “twinkle in
the eye”. (107) ……………….. . The sour-faced puritan and the solemn bore soon begin to
lose ground, leaving their more amused contemporaries to enjoy the last laugh.
Finally, nothing is to be gained by a head-in-the-sand avoidance of the facts of life and
death. The healthiest solution is to accept that one’s span on Earth is limited and then to live
every day, in the present, and to the full.
(Desmond Morris: The Book of Ages)
A. But it is important to make a distinction between calmly relaxed and passively lazy.
B. Puritanical arguments about smoking and drinking have little to support them.
C. People who want a long life with an alert old age should never retire.
D. But, in gaining success, individuals should not overstress themselves.
E. A sense of humour, impishness, a feeling that life is fun, are strong weapons against ageing.
F. Such activities as walking and gardening prolong life spectacularly because
they are ‘non-intensive’ forms of all-over bodily movement.
G. That does not imply a harsh military-style masochism but the ordering of life
and the imposition of a pattern on the events of the day.
108. Which sentence is the counter statement of “ Some people are naturally more
physically active than others, and are at a considerable advantage providing their
activities are not the result of stress”?
A. If they are forcibly retired they should immerse themselves in some new, absorbing activity.
B. If they take exercise too seriously it will work against them
C. Older individuals who take up intensive athletic activity are usually people who fear declining health.
D. Yet it is crucial that physical exercise – as we grow past the young sportsman stage – should
be extensive rather than intensive and, above all, fun.
109. What is implied in “A hill-shepherd may feel just as successful in his own way as a Nobel Laureate.”?
A. A hill-shepherd may feel successful as he wins the Nobel Prize.
B. Success must always be measured in personal terms.
C. Being successful is a great life-stretcher, and can even override such life-shorteners
D. A baccalaureate graduate may get the Nobel Prize as successfully as a hill-shepherd.
110. What is the best title for the passage?
A. How to live to be a hundred
B. Ageing persons should always exercise and keep a proper diet.
C. Enthusiasm, longevity, retirement and discipline.
D. Life-stretchers and life-shorteners are sometimes sustainable. Your answers 101 102 103 104 105 106 107 108 109 110
Part 3: Read the following passage and answer the questions from 111 to 120 Sand Dunes
A sand dune is a geological feature that is simply a mound of sand that has formed due
to wind erosion called the Eolian processes. The shape and size of a sand dune is entirely
dependant on the wind and can differ in look from the other adjoining sand dunes. Although
they can differ, there are some standard descriptive terms that apply to all types of sand dunes:
the slack is the valley between two adjoining sand dunes while a dune field refers to a
landscape filled with dunes. If a dune field is particularly large, it is referred to as an erg. The
side of a dune is known as a slipface.
The two most common places that sand dunes are found are along coastal regions or
inland in large, dry regions such as deserts. Along the coasts, sand dunes protect the land
against stormy seas and subsequent erosion. Although the conditions sound harsh, many kinds
of seaweed and seabirds find coastal dunes to be an ideal habitat while many forms of cacti,
snakes, and spiders find the conditions of desert dunes to be ideal.
There are a variety of dune shapes, each caused in part by the vigor and direction of the
wind and the landscape that surrounds it. The most common dune shape is the crescent dune.
This type of dune is generally wider than long and is formed when the wind blows
continuously from one direction. Star-shaped dunes are very symmetrical, with three or more
sides that radiate down from a high peak. This kind of dune is common in deserts, such as the
Grand Erg Oriental in the Sahara, due to winds shifting in various directions. This dune grows
upwards as opposed to laterally. Reversing dunes are the ones that come in varying shapes and
sizes due to a periodic reversal of wind direction.
No matter what the dune shape, each type can occur in three forms: simple, compound,
or complex. A simple dune is the one that has the minimum number of sides, or slipfaces, that
form a geometric shape. A compound dune is a larger dune that contains many smaller dunes
of the same shape as itself, and a complex dune is a combination of two or more dune types.
Sand dunes are an essential part of certain habitats, especially in coastal regions, where
they aid against the erosion of coastal land and also foster an environment for certain kinds of
wildlife. On the other hand, sand dunes can also contribute to a problem known as
desertification. Desertification happens when there is a degradation of land due to climatic
changes. The same winds that create sand dunes often help them encroach on human habitats
in the form of sand storms or sand avalanches, which can cause major damage to buildings or
crops. Every year, in places like Africa and the Middle East, sand fences are put up to try to
stop sand from migrating into inhabited areas.
Antidunes are different. Antidunes are commonly observed in small streams that flow
across beaches into the ocean. Antidunes are typically found in fluvial environments in shallow
areas with a high flow rate. Inversely, when the slope is steeper, antidunes can be found where
the motion of the sediment begins, disappearing when the rate of flow increases. The
appearance of antidunes are quite similar to ripples that go in the direction of the wave, but are
easily identified by their rapid change and moving in opposition to the flow of the water. The
location of an antidune changes frequently as characterized by their upstream movement.
Antidunes form beneath standing waves which oscillate to steepen vertically. This formation,
not to be confused with dunes or ripples, changes very rapidly by building up sediment but
then are destroyed at a certain point by the water flowing over them.
The term antidune was coined by G.K. Gilbert in a 1914 US Geological Survey
Professional Paper entitled “Transportation of debris by running water”.
Until a number of decades ago, sand dunes dominated the coast of Israel with 462
square kilometers of sand dunes over three-quarters of which were south of Tel Aviv. Over the
last few decades the dunes have made way for cities, industrial areas and power plants, and the
dune landscape has gradually disappeared. Thus, one of the most characteristic and important
aspects of the Israeli landscape is rapidly vanishing.
The largest remnant of Israel's coastal sand dunes is located between Ashdod and
Ashkelon. This is the only part of the landscape that still retains its shifting sands with its
attendant animal and plant life and marks of bygone civilizations. The importance of the area
derives from its natural and cultural qualities. The dunes contain ecological systems of
scientific value. Their function as an open area separating the urban sectors that are rapidly
covering the country is of great significance, as is its role as a natural public recreation.
Questions 111-115: Complete the summary and choose NO MORE THAN TWO WORDS
from the above-mentioned passage to fill in each numbered blank supplied. Write your
answer in the numbered box. Sand dunes
In terms of geological features, sand dunes are described as large mounds of sand. Sand
dunes are the result of wind blowing and causing (111) ___________ . Their shape is up to
the (112) ___________ . There are many different kinds of dunes.
Sand dunes are usually in coastal regions or in deserts. They have many different
shapes and the (113) ___________ dune is found more often than any other ones.
They come in different types. Among them, the one that is without the minimum
number of sides nor is a larger dune containing many smaller dunes in itself is a (114) ___________ dune.
Their effects are to help prevent erosion, create environment for fauna and flora to live
in, and to give rise to (115) ___________ .
Questions 116-120: Complete another brief summary of the passage be selecting the
FIVE answer choices (among A, B, C, D, E, F, G, H) that express important ideas in the
passage. Some sentences do not belong in the summary because they express ideas that
are not presented in the passage or are minor ideas in the passage.
(116). …………………………. .
(117). …………………………. .
(118). …………………………. .
(119). …………………………. .
(120). …………………………. . Answer Choices
A. All sand dunes, no matter what their size and shape, are formed by wind erosion.
B. The slack is the valley between two adjoining sand dunes.
C. A large dune field is known as an erg.
D. Every year sand fences are put up to stop sand from encroaching on human habitats and crops.
E. Sand dunes protect against erosion and provide a habitat for wild life.
F. Sand dunes can occur in three forms: simple, compound, and complex.
G. Sand dunes in Israel are important because of their scientific information and public recreation.
H. Antidunes are typically found in environments near rivers or streams in shallow areas with a high flow rate.
Part 4: Fill each blank with ONE suitable word. Write your answers in the numbered
boxes provided below the passage. Clearing customs
Gestures aren’t the only areas in which the unwary traveler can get tripped up. Foreign
cultures adhere to different business (121) ___________ and protocol. For example:
Caffeine junkies should restrain themselves in the Middle East. “Three cups of tea or
coffee is usually the polite limit in offices and (122) ___________ social calls,” counsels
“Travel Pak,” a free publication of Asia, the Royal Jordanian Airline. “ But if your host keeps
going, you also may continue sipping. If you’ve had your fill, give your empty cup a quick
twist – a sort of wiggle – as you hand it back. That means, ‘No (123) ___________ , thank you.”
Middle East visitors also should not be surprised “If others rush right into the office in
the (124) ___________ of your conversation with the person you are seeing,” notes “Travel
Pak.” An old Arab custom calls for keeping an “open office.”
The British, however, consider it impolite to interrupt a visitor, even after (125)
___________ business has been transacted. The commercial caller is expected to be sensitive
to this point, know when to stop, and initiate his or her own (126) ___________ .
Spanish businesspeople “connect” with tangibles, advises Karen Weiner Escalera,
president of a New York City public-relations company. She notes that samples of products or
services should be offered whenever (127) ___________ . And, she points out, in Spain
“offices and retail establishments generally close from 1:00 p.m. to as (128) ___________ as
4:30 p.m.” Her husband, “Alfonso Escalera, U.S. representative for the Spanish Line shipping
company, adds that black shoes, not brown, are considered proper for business (129)
___________ . The Spanish historically have favored black and ultradark colors.
Good office manners in Indonesia require the visitor to present a business card
immediately. If no card is offered, long delays may (130) ___________ . The mark of a
thoughtful executive is to have one side in English and the other in Bahasa. In Japan a visitor
should be prepared to distribute as many as 40 business cards a day. Protocol in France calls
for listing academic credentials on one’s calling cards. Your answers 121. 126. 122. 127. 123. 128. 124. 129. 125. 130.
IV. WRITING ( 6/20 points. ) Part 1: (0.5/20 pts)
Use the word(s) given in brackets and make any necessary additions to write a new sentence
in such a way that it is as similar as possible in meaning to the original sentence. Do NOT
change the form of the given word(s).
131. Turning down that job was very foolish of you.
FOOL ……………………………………………. .
132. Many species of wild life are threatened with extinction.
VERGE ……………………..……………………………. .
133. Pandas need a special diet, without which they perish.
UNLESS ………………………...………………………. .
134. You’d be wasting your time trying to make him change his mind..
POINTLESS ………………………………..……………………… .
135. The police arrived as the thieves were committing the crime.
RED-HANDED ………………………………………………. .
136. We don’t seem to have much sugar left!.
RUNNING ………………..…………….. .
137. Mass tourism has been one of the causes of the problem.
BLAME …………………………………….………………. .
138. The ‘environmentally friendly’ label on this product is misleading.
CONTRARY …………………………………………………………. .
139. The pressures of being in the public eye have proved too much for him.
COPE …………………………………………………………….……….. ..
140. We were not very surprised to hear that he had been stealing money from the company.
CAME …………………………………………………………………………………….. .
Part 2: (2.5/20 pts)
The chart below shows Consumer Price Indexes of Vietnam in 2007. Write a report
describing the information shown. You should write at least 150 words. 140 135 130 125 Common Index ex Staple Food d 120 Food In Gold Price USD Price 115 110 105 100 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10 11 12 Month
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…………………………………………………………………………………………………… Part 3: (3/20 pts)
School violence is one of the social issues these days that is demanding corrective
attention every passing day. What do you think? Write about 300 words to discuss and
suggest the solutions (and do not include your personal information). You may continue your
writing on the back page if you need more space.
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