Đề thi chọn học sinh giỏi cấp tỉnh lớp 12 THPT năm học 2013-2014 đề thi môn Tiếng Anh tỉnh Tuyên Quang

SỞ GIÁO DỤC VÀ ĐÀO TẠO
ĐỀ THI CHỌN HỌC SINH GIỎI CẤP TỈNH LỚP 12 THPT TUYÊN QUANG NĂM HỌC 2013-2014
ĐỀ THI MÔN: TIẾNG ANH
Thời gian làm bài: 180 phút ĐỀ CHÍNH THỨC
(không kể thời gian giao đề)
(Đề này có 08 trang)
SECTION I: LISTENING (3 points)
Part 1: Listen to the conversation. Choose the best answer A, B, or C. You will listen TWICE. (1 point)
1. On Saturday, the woman is going to ___________________________. A. stay at home B. go swimming C. play volleyball
2. Who do they think will win the League? A. Arsenal B. Manchester United C. Liverpool
3. Next weekend, the weather is going to be___________________________. A. wet and cold B. sunny but cold C. warm and sunny
4. The woman is going to buy___________________________. A. the red sweater B. the blue sweater C. the black sweater
5. Last night, the student___________________________. A. had a bad dream B. had a good dream C. didn’t dream
Part 2: Listen and decide whether the statements are true or false. You will listen TWICE. (1 point) 1
Barbara has finished her university. 2
She needs to do 3 weeks’ experience at Mr. Lewis’s company. 3
Mr. Lewis is at the office at the moment. 4
Barbara wants to meet Mr. Lewis to start work at his office. 5
She will meet him at 9am the next day.
Part 3: Listen and fill in the gaps with relevant words in the note below. You will listen TWICE. (1 point)
Name: (1)___________________________
Address: (2) No___________ (3)___________________ Street. Forestville.
Phone: (4)___________________________
Best time to call: (5)___________________________
SECTION II: LEXICO-GRAMMAR (7 points)
Part 1: Choose one word or phrase which best completes each sentence. Circle its corresponding
letter A, B, C, or D to indicate your answer. (4 points)
1. They say he inherited his money from a ______ relative he had never met. A. faraway B. remote C. distant D. far
2. I was thinking of going out, but on ______thoughts, it might be better to stay in. A. strong B. second C. good D. deep
3. One of my classmates is always putting me ______in public. It’s so embarrassing! A. up B. off C. through D. down
4. I know his name is ‘Jim’, but it was just a ______of the tongue when I called him ‘Tim’. A. slide B. skid C. skim D. slip
5. If you leave your baggage ______at the airport, it will be taken away. A. inattentive B. careless C. unattended D. neglectful
6. When you are in a western country, your host may open a wrapped gift in front of you. Opening a
present in front of the gift-giver is ______ polite. A. acquired
B. considered C. known D. called
7. ______the low rainfall this year, the crops did not produce a high yield. A. Since
B. Despite C. Due to D. Because
8. The color of your shirt does not ______ that of your trousers. A. suit B. fit C. harmonize D. match
9. An employer may look with______ on a young college graduate. A. suspect
B. suspicion C. suspicious D. suspiciously
10. By tomorrow morning everything ______ set up in time for the performance. A. will have been
B. will be C. had already been D. have already
11. An accident in the power station may result in large ______ of radiation being released. A. numbers B. number C. amount D. amounts
12. People believe there is a ______ between the two crimes. A. joint B. chain C. link D. connector
13. You are not allowed to drive ______ the influence ______ alcohol. A. under/of B. in/of C. under/by D. by/in
14. ______ exception ______ the little baby, everybody in my family has to jog every morning. A. With/of B. With/to C. In/of D. By/on
15. The children often make ______ of Charles, which annoys his parents very much. A. joke B. fun C. way D. consideration
16. The factory is said _______ in a fire two years ago. A. being destroyed B. to have been destroyed C. to have destroyed D. to destroy
17. –“Would you mind giving me a hand with this bag?”
- “ _____________________” A. Yes, I’ll do it now.
B. No, not at all. C. Well, I’d love to D. Yes, I am.
18. The building ______ the earthquake but then ______ by a fire. A. survived - was destroyed B. was survived - destroyed C. survived - destroyed
D. was survived - was destroyed
19. Jan didn't check she had enough petrol before she left, ______ was careless of her. A. what B. it C. that D. which
20. 'Which of these two men is Chinese?' ' ______ is.' A. Both of them B. All of them
C. Neither of them D. None of them
Part 2: Supply the correct form of verbs in the brackets. (1 point)
The actress Vanessa Kemp (1. DISAPPEAR) ___________. Yesterday she failed to arrive at
the Prince Charles Theatre in London’s West End for her leading role in the comedy ‘Don’t look
now!’. Ms Kemp, who (2. LIVE) ___________ in Hampstead, left home at four o’clock yesterday
afternoon for the theatre, a journey she (3. MAKE) ___________ several times the week
before. Two people who (4. WALK) ___________ past her home at the time saw her leave. But no
one has seen her since then. At half past seven she still (5. NOT, ARRIVE) ___________ at the
theatre. At eight o’clock the theatre manager (6. HAVE) ___________ to break the news to the
audience, who (7. WAIT) ___________ patiently for the play to start. Since yesterday, theatre staff
and friends (8. TRY) ___________ to contact Ms Kemp, but they haven’t had success so far. The
police (9. TAKE) ___________ the matter seriously, but they believe that she is unlikely to be in any
danger. Her friends all (10. WANT) ___________ to hear from her soon. Answers: 1. ___________________________ 6. ___________________________ 2. ___________________________ 7. ___________________________ 3. ___________________________ 8. ___________________________ 4. ___________________________ 9. ___________________________ 5. ___________________________ 10. __________________________
Part 3: Supply the correct form of the words in capital letters to fill in the blank. (2 points)
One thing I know is that I wouldn't like to have an occupation that OCCUPY
has anything to do with physics,(1) ___________ or maths. I am 1. CHEMIST
not the (2) ___________ type at all. In fact at school, I was a 2. SCIENCE
complete (3) ___________ in these subjects. Neither am I very 3. FAIL
good at dealing with people, nor am I (4) ___________, so jobs in 4. AMBITION
business, administration and (5) ___________ don't really interest 5. MANAGE
me either. Moreover, I find it (6) ___________ to be surrounded 6. IRRITATE
by a lot of people; I would much rather have a job involving
creative work or (7) ___________ skills of some sort. I would like 7. ART
to have the chance of work outdoors (8) ___________ and perhaps 8. OCCASION
do a bit of traveling too. I am not (9) ___________ concerned 9. PARTICULAR
about becoming rich but I would like to have a (10) ___________ 10. REASON
income enough to live comfortably. Answers: 1. ___________________________ 6. ___________________________ 2. ___________________________ 7. ___________________________ 3. ___________________________ 8. ___________________________ 4. ___________________________ 9. ___________________________ 5. ___________________________ 10. __________________________
SECTION III. READING COMPREHENSION (5 points)
Part 1: Read the following passage then decide the best choice to complete the statement or
answer the question. Identify your answer by circling the corresponding letter A, B, C or D. (1.2 points)
The ruined temples of Angkor are perhaps one of the mast impressive Seven Wonders of the
World. Located in modern day Cambodia near Lake Tonle Sap, the largest freshwater lake in Asia,
Angkor was the seat of power for the Khmer Empire from the ninth to the fifteenth century. The ruins
of Angkor are documented as same of the mast impressive ones in the world, rivaling the pyramids of
Giza in Egypt. Why this mighty civilization died out is a question that archeologists are now only
beginning to ponder. The answer, it turns out, may be linked with the availability of fresh water.
One possible explanation for the downfall of the Khmer Empire has to do with the inhabitants'
irrigation system. The temple and palaces of Angkor were constructed around a series of artificial
reservoirs and canals, which were annually flooded to capacity by the Mekong River. Once filled, they
were used to irrigate the surrounding rice patties and farmland during the course of the year. Farmers
were completely dependent upon the water for their crucial rice crop. Without consistent irrigation, the
farmers would have been unable to maintain functional crop production.
Scientists speculate that toward the end of the Khmer Empire the hydraulic systems of the
reservoirs and canals broke down. The construction of hundreds of sandstone temples and palaces
required an enormous amount of physical labor. In addition, as the capital of the Khmer Empire,
Angkor contained upwards of one hundred thousand people who resided in and around Angkor. In order
to feed so many people, the local farmers were driven to grow food quicker and more efficiently. After
centuries of continual use, the irrigation system was pushed beyond its capacity. Soil erosion, nutrient
depletion, and the loss of water led to decrease in the food supply. With less food available, the people
of Angkor slowly began to migrate to other parts of Cambodia thus leaving the marvelous city of
Angkor to be swallowed by the jungle. Therefore, it is speculated that the Khmer Empire may have
fallen victim to its own decrepit infrastructure. 1.
What is the passage mainly about?
A. Modern day agricultural procedures in Cambodia.
B. A possible explanation for the decline of a civilization.
C. The essential role water plays in farming.
D. Religious temples of the ancient Khmer Empire. 2.
The passage preceding the passage most likely discusses ______.
A. architecture of ancient Asian civilization.
B. religious practices of the people of Angkor.
C. the form of government practiced by the Khmer Empire.
D. the other six wonders of the world. 3.
According to the passage, Lake Tonle Sap in Cambodia ______.
A. is an enormous fresh body of water in Asia.
B. was unable to supply enough fish for the people of Angkor.
C. became polluted due to a population explosion.
D. is one of the Seven Wonders of the World. 4.
Why does the author mention the hydraulic systems of the reservoirs?
A. They supplied irrigation from the Indian Ocean.
B. They became non-functional due to overuse.
C. They were destroyed by nearby warrior tribes.
D. They helped transport the sandstones for constructing temples. 5.
All the following are mentioned as events that can affect food supply EXCEPT______. A. erosion of soil. C. contamination of soil. B. reduction of nutrients. D. loss of water supply. 6.
It can be inferred from the passage that the inhabitants of the Khmer Empire ______.
A. were intentionally starved by the farmers.
B. lost their food source due to excess rainfall.
C. supplemented their diets with meat hunted in the nearby jungles.
D. depended upon rice as their main source of food.
Part 2: Read the following passage then decide if the statements are True (T) or False (F). Write T
if the statement is true or F if the statement is false. (1.8 points)
Throughout history, there have been many great explorers. Have you, for example, heard of Marco
Polo, the famous Italian traveler? He was the first European to travel to China. He arrived in China in
the late 13th century. About 200 years later, Christopher Columbus sailed from Spain by ship. He was
looking for a new way to reach India. However, as you probably know, he didn't reach India. He landed
in America. Five hundred years after Columbus in the 1930s, a famous explorer named Richard Byrd
was one of the first persons to fly over both the North and the South Poles. Today we continue to
explore this world and are studying to explore other worlds, too. In the 1930s, Russian and American
scientists sent many unmanned spacecrafts to the moon. These spacecrafts sent back very valuable
information about the moon. Then on July 16th 1969 the first manned spaceship to the moon left earth.
On that day, Apollo 11 blasted off with three American astronauts on board. Four days after blast-off,
two of these astronauts landed on the moon. They later explored the surface of the moon. About two
days after landing on the moon, they started back to the earth. They arrived safely back on earth a few
days later. Today we are sending unmanned spacecrafts to other planets. In the future, we might walk
on Mars or Venus the way we did on the moon. We might even travel to other galaxies. Who knows?
One thing we know for sure is that we will continue to explore this world and other worlds, too.
1. Marco Polo traveled from Spain to China in the late 13th century.
2. While he was looking for India, Christopher Columbus reached America.
3. In the 19th century, Richard Byrd flew over both the North and the South Poles.
4. Unmanned spacecrafts went to the moon before manned spacecrafts did.
5. Unmanned spacecrafts couldn’t help scientists much.
6. Apollo 11 was the first manned spaceship to go to the moon.
7. Apollo 11 was damaged in the blast.
8. All of the American astronauts on the spaceship landed on and explored the surface of the moon.
9. Today we are sending spacecraft with astronauts on board to other planets. Answers: 1. _____ 4. _____ 7. _____ 2. _____ 5. _____ 8. _____ 3. _____ 6. _____ 9. _____
Part 3: Read the passage and choose one word or phrase that best fits each space. Identify your
answer by circling the corresponding letter A, B, C or D. (1,5 points) FUN AND GAMES
Do you think computer games is just for kids? Then you should think again. You might be (1)
______ to learn that the game industry now (2) ______ more money than Hollywood. (3) ______ a
family buys a new PC, all they really want to do is to play games.
It is hardly surprising that video gaming has (4) ______ one of the most popular (5) ______ of
entertainment today. A good game is like a good film; it will hold your (6) ______, capture your
imagination and play with your emotions.
The big (7) ______, however, is that watching a movie is a passive (8) ______. You have no say in
how the plot (9) ______ or which characters dominate the story. With computer games, you direct the
(10) ______ and that is what makes them so exciting. Finding the (11) ______ game is likely to signal
the beginning of a lasting love (12) ______ with the interactive (13) ______ of make-believe.
It is (14) ______ to think of gaming as something simply for children and teenagers. In fact, the
(15) ______ growth area of the market is the 25-35 age group. 1. A. concerned B. admired C. startled D. surprised 2. A. has B. makes C. does D. gains 3. A. As soon as B. as well as C. As far as D. As long as 4. A. begun B. grown C. become D. sounded 5. A. makes B. branches C. shapes D. forms 6. A. gaze B. attention C. breath D. control 7. A. gap B. variety C. difference D. direction 8. A. pastime B. task C. routine D. employment 9. A. becomes B. produces C. turns D. develops 10. A. movement B. change C. action D. performance 11. A. accurate B. right C. complete D. proper 12. A. affair B. story C. secret D. match 13. A. region B. area C. society D. world 14. A. immoral B. wrong C. false D. dishonest 15. A. longest B. widest C. biggest D. deepest
Part 4: Read the passage and think of one correct word to fill in each blank. (0,5 point) MICROSCOPES
It happened over 300 years ago in Holland. Anton van Leeuwenhoek had a new microscope (1) ______
he had made. One day he looked through it at a drop (2) ______ lake water. What he saw surprised him.
The water was alive with what Leeuwenhoek called "wee beasties." The microscope made tiny
organisms look 200 times (3) ______ than life size. Leeuwenhoek was one of the first scientists to see
living things that were that small. His work was a giant step (4) ______ science.
Today, microscopes are much stronger. An electron microscope can make tiny organisms look 200,000
times life size. A few electron microscopes can see individual atoms. Pictures can be made to show the
objects or organisms much bigger. The pictures add greatly to (5) ______we know about tiny objects
and organisms. Microscopes have come a long way in 300 years. Answers: 1.___________
2.______________ 3.______________ 4.______________ 5._____________
SECTION IV: WRITING (5 points)
Part 1: Finish the second sentence in such a way that it means the same as the sentence before it
beginning with the words given. (2 points)
1. I left without saying goodbye, as I didn’t want to disturb the meeting.
Rather _______________________________________________________________________
2. The value of sterling has fallen considerably in the past week.
There has _____________________________________________________________________
3. Harriet was upset because she saw Peter with another woman.
It was _______________________________________________________________________
4. Their relationship was doomed because of their incompatibility.
Had _______________________________________________________________________
5. What a pity these shops close at lunchtime.
I wish _______________________________________________________________________
6. We didn't go to the theatre. We stayed at home.
We stayed __________________________________________________________________
7. I wasn't surprised when they refused to pay me.
As I _______________________________________________________________________
8. It probably takes at least six hours to drive to Glasgow from here.
It's _______________________________________________________________________
9. It was such an appalling sight that we reeled back in horror.
So _______________________________________________________________________
10. It's impossible that we stayed at the same hotel, in that case.
We can’t______________________________________________________________________
Part 2: What are the most important factors motivating students to learn hard? Write an essay of
about 300 words to express your point. (3 points)
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_________The end___________
ĐÁP ÁN, HƯỚNG DẪN CHẤM
ĐỀ THI CHỌN HỌC SINH GIỎI CẤP TỈNH
LỚP 12 THPT NĂM HỌC 2013-2014 MÔN: TIẾNG ANH
SECTION I: LISTENING (3 points)
Part 1: (1 point): 0,2 point for each correct answer. 1C, 2B, 3B, 4A, 5A
Part 2: (1 point): 0,2 point for each correct answer. 1F, 2T, 3F, 4F, 5T
Part 3: (1 point): 0,2 point for each correct answer.
1. Sanchez 2. 17a 3. John street 4. 3320578 5. afternoon
SECTION II: LEXICO-GRAMMAR (7 points)
Part 1: (4 points): 0,2 point for each correct answer. 1. C 6. B 11. D 16. B 2. B 7. C 12. C 17. B 3. D 8. D 13. A 18. A 4. D 9. B 14. A 19. D 5. C 10. A 15. B 20. C
Part 2: (1 point): 0,1 point for each correct answer. 1. has disappeared 6. had 2. lives
7. had been waiting/ were waiting 3. had made
8. have been trying / have tried 4. were walking 9. are taking 5. hadn’t arrived 10. want
Part 3: (2 points): 0,2 point for each correct answer. 1. chemistry 2. scientific 3. failure 4. ambitious 5. management 6. irritating 7. artistic 8. occasionally 9. particularly 10. reasonable
SECTION III: READING COMPREHENSION: (5 points)
Part 1: (1,2 points): 0,2 point for each correct answer. 1. B 2. D 3. A 4. B 5. C 6. D
Part 2: (1,8 points): 0,2 point for each correct answer.
1F, 2T, 3F, 4T, 5F, 6T, 7F, 8F, 9F
Part 3: (1,5 points): 0,1 point for each correct answer. 1. D 6. B 11. B 2. B 7. C 12. A 3. A 8. A 13. D 4. C 9. D 14. B 5. D 10. C 15. C
Part 4: (0,5 point): 0,1 point for each correct answer. 1. which/ that 2. of 3. bigger / larger 4. for 5. what
SECTION IV: WRITING (5 points)
Part 1: (2 points): 0,2 point for each correct answer.
1. Rather than disturb the meeting, I left without saying goodbye.
2. There has been a considerable fall in the value of sterling in the past week.
3. It was because she saw Peter with another woman that Harriet was upset.
4. Had they not been incompatible, their relationship might not have been doomed./
Had it not been for their incompatibility, their relationship might not have been doomed.
5. I wish these shops opened/ didn’t close at lunch time.
6. We stayed at home instead of going to the theatre.
7. As I (had) expected, they refused to pay me.
8. It's probably at least a six-hour drive to Glasgow from here.
9. So appalling was the sight that we reeled back in horror.
10. We can't have stayed at the same hotel, in that case. Part 2: (3 points):
Marks are based on the following schemes:
1. Content: ( 35% of total marks)
- Providing all main ideas and details as required
- Communicating intentions sufficiently and efficiently
2. Organization & presentation: : ( 30% of total marks)
- Ideas are well-organized and presented with coherence, cohesion and clarity
3. Language: ( 30% of total marks)
- Demonstration of a variety of vocabulary and structures.
- Good use and control of grammatical structures
4. Handwriting, punctuation and spelling: ( 5% of total marks) - Intelligible handwriting
- Good punctuation and no spelling mistakes
Document Outline

• Part 2: Listen and decide whether the statements are true or false. You will listen TWICE. (1 point)
• Part 1: Choose one word or phrase which best completes each sentence. Circle its corresponding letter A, B, C, or D to indicate your answer. (4 points)
• Part 1: Finish the second sentence in such a way that it means the same as the sentence before it beginning with the words given. (2 points)
  • 1C, 2B, 3B, 4A, 5A