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Đề Thi Chọn Học Sinh Giỏi Cấp Tỉnh Sóc Trăng Năm Học 2017-2018 Môn Tiếng Anh - Lớp 9
Đề Thi Chọn Học Sinh Giỏi Cấp Tỉnh Sóc Trăng Năm Học 2017-2018 Môn Tiếng Anh - Lớp 9 được biên soạn dưới dạng file PDF cho bạn tham khảo, ôn tập kiến thức, chuẩn bị tốt cho kì thi sắp tới. Mời bạn đọc đón xem!
Đề thi chọn học sinh giỏi Tiếng Anh lớp 9 186 tài liệu
Đề thi chọn HSG Tiếng Anh từ lớp 9 đến lớp 12 cấp trường, quận/ huyện, tỉnh/ thành phố 1.4 K tài liệu
Đề Thi Chọn Học Sinh Giỏi Cấp Tỉnh Sóc Trăng Năm Học 2017-2018 Môn Tiếng Anh - Lớp 9
Đề Thi Chọn Học Sinh Giỏi Cấp Tỉnh Sóc Trăng Năm Học 2017-2018 Môn Tiếng Anh - Lớp 9 được biên soạn dưới dạng file PDF cho bạn tham khảo, ôn tập kiến thức, chuẩn bị tốt cho kì thi sắp tới. Mời bạn đọc đón xem!
Môn: Đề thi chọn học sinh giỏi Tiếng Anh lớp 9 186 tài liệu
Trường: Đề thi chọn HSG Tiếng Anh từ lớp 9 đến lớp 12 cấp trường, quận/ huyện, tỉnh/ thành phố 1.4 K tài liệu
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Tài liệu khác của Đề thi chọn HSG Tiếng Anh từ lớp 9 đến lớp 12 cấp trường, quận/ huyện, tỉnh/ thành phố
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SỞ GIÁO DỤC VÀ ĐÀO TẠO KỲ THI CHỌN HỌC SINH GIỎI CẤP TỈNH
SÓC TRĂNG Năm học 2017-2018 Đề chính thức
Môn: Tiếng Anh - Lớp 9
(Thời gian làm bài 150 phút, không kể phát đề) ____________
Đề thi này có 8 trang
- Thí sinh làm trên giấy làm bài.
- Thí sinh làm phần nghe hiểu trước.
A. Listening (3.0 points)
Part 1. You will hear five short conversations. You will hear each
conversation twice. There is one question for each conversation. For questions
1- 5. Put a tick () under the right answer. (1.0 point)
Example: 0 What time does the earliest train to Nottingham leave?
1. Who is the woman’s brother?
2. How many pets does David have? 1
3. What is their flight number?
4. What did the woman order?
5. Which shirt will the man wear?
Part 2. Listen to John talking to a friend about a school sports day. For
questions 6-10, write a letter (A-H) next to each person. You will hear the
conversation twice. (1.0 point)
Example: 0. John D PEOPLE SPORTS 6. Susan A. football 7. Jenny B. tennis 8. Peter C. swimming 9. Sam
D. 100 meter / metre race 10. Amy E. high jump F. hockey G. high jump
H. table tennis 2
Part 3. Listen to Aisling telling Michael about a new supermarket. For
questions 11-15 tick A, B, or C. You have 20 seconds to look at the questions.
You will hear the conversation twice. (1.0 point) Example: 0
When did the new supermarket first open? A. yesterday B. last month C. last week
11. Who did Aisling find out about the supermarket from? A. her mother B. her teacher C. her best friend
12. What does Michael think of the new supermarket building?
A. It’s modern looking. B. It’s very big. C. It’s very ugly looking.
13. Where can shoppers buy furniture?
A. on the ground floor B. on the first floor C. on the second floor
14. What does Aisling say about the special offer?
A. It starts next week. B. People aren’t interested in it. C. It will be popular.
15. How far away is the nearest bus stop?
A. less than 100 meters B. half a kilometer C. about a kilometer
B. Grammar and use (7.0 points)
Part 1. Circle the best answer. (2.0 points)
1. Be quiet, please. Our principal would like to ____ a few words. A. tell B. talk C. mention D. say
2. ____ being ill, she still went to class yesterday. A. Because B. Despite C. Since D. Even though
3. Can you give me the ____ for carrot soup? A. recipe B. method C. formula D. order
4. Phu: “I’m sorry about that!” - Quang: “_____!” A. You’re welcome B. That’s right C. It’s OK D. Of course
5. Australia is one of the ____ countries.
A. English speaking B. English spoken C. spoken English D. speaking English
6. It’s a good idea for Mr. Bill to see his doctor regularly for a medical ____. A. control B. revision C. check up D. investigation
7. Lan’s sister bought ____ jacket when she was in Taiwan last month. A. a leather brown expensive B. a brown leather expensive C. an expensive leather brown D. an expensive brown leather
8. Kathy: “Have a nice weekend!” - Amy: “________”
A. I’m going to take it easy. B. Thanks. You too! C. Are you going anywhere? D. Do you have any plan?
9. A new study group has been ____ by the United Nations. A. made up B. put up C. set up D. drawn up 3
10. Jane’s parents wouldn’t ____ her go to the demonstration. A. let B. permit C. allow D. agree
Part 2. Use the correct form of the words in parentheses. (1.4 points)
1. Hoang has the _____________ to become a professional badminton player. (ABLE)
2. We don’t know why they call Peter a ______________. (LIE)
3. My grandfather wants me to have this photograph _____________. (LARGE)
4. Tony is very generous. Everyone admires his _____________. (SELFISH)
5. Ants and bees are described as ____________ insects. (INDUSTRY)
6. They are ____________ awaiting the test results. (ANXIETY)
7. The article I read the day before was quite ____________. That’s why I
keep it for later reference. (INFORM)
Part 3. Identify the one underlined word or phrase A, B, C or D that should be
corrected or rewritten. (1.4 points)
1. Some people believe that (A) humans will never (B) use away (C) all the
natural resources of (D) the earth.
2. Each year (A) people around the world spending (B) billions of dollars
buying (C) goods on the internet (D).
3. Lora hardly never (A) misses an (B) opportunity to play (C) in (D) the tennis tournaments.
4. Alex always wishes (A) that he owned (B) a modern racing car (C), but he didn’t (D).
5. It was (A) an extremely (B) frightened (C) experience in (D) his life.
6. It was surprising (A) that the storm (B) had caused (C) little destroy (D) in the area.
7. She was (A) waiting nervous (B) in the waiting (C) room for (D) the interview.
Part 4. Circle the correct form or tense of the verb. (1.2 points)
1. Would you mind if I ____ some photos of you? A. to take B. taking C. took D. take
2. The road to those villages ____ several times this year.
A. has been repaired B. are repaired C. is repaired D. have been repaired
3. Mrs. Nga’s children are used to ____ up after school every day. A. pick B. being picked C. be picked D. picking
4. I would rather you ____ me the truth. A. to tell B. tell C. telling D. told 4
5. When Phuc came in, the lesson ____. A. taught B. was being taught C. was teaching D. was taught
6. The holiday’s over, but I wish we ____ somewhere else. A. had gone B. have gone C. was going D. went
Part 5. Circle the letter A, B, C, or D to indicate the word or phrase that is
CLOSEST in meaning to the underlined part of the following sentences. (1.0 point)
1. All students can take part in the annual English-speaking competition. A. happening once a month B. happening once a term C. happening once a year D. happening twice a year
2. Sue was offered a job as a translator but she turned it down. A. got it B. refused it C. accepted it D. considered it
3. We spent an enjoyable afternoon boating in the river. A. free B. comfortable C. boring D. pleasant
4. Tidal waves are the result of an abrupt shift in the underwater movement of the earth. A. sudden B. slight C. clear D. impressive
5. Finally, we’ll have to make the decision ourselves. A. Basically B. Ultimately C. Generally D. Consequently
C. Reading (4.0 points)
Part 1. Read the passage below and circle the correct answer A, B, C, or D. (1.0 point)
The media are the means by which people learn what is (1) ____ in the
city, in the country and in the world. The news media can be classified (2)
____ two general categories: the categories of print media and electronic
media. Print media use the written material to communicate news to (3) ____.
Electronic media use air waves to (4) ____ news to homes, offices and public
places. Print media are usually divided into magazines and newspapers. Most
newspapers are printed news daily. For example, the newspaper “The New
York Time” is (5) ____ daily. However, Newsweek and Time magazines are
published once a week. The electronic media are (6) ____ divided into radio
and television. (7) ____ news is news that you listen to. In the United States
many radio (8) ____ broadcast five minutes of news every hour. Television
news is news that you not only listen to but also watch. In Canada and the
United States, for example, many people watch an hour of news on TV at six
o’clock in the evening. In the future, new categories of news media will (9)
____ even today computers are beginning to influence the transmission and reception (10) ____ news. 1. A. showing B. making C. doing D. happening 2. A. for B. into C. about D. to 3. A. spectators B. viewers C. readers D. listeners 5 4. A. send B. get C. receive D. offer 5. A. taken B. published C. brought D. made 6. A. generally B. completely C. carefully D. especially 7. A. Magazines B. Print C. Radio D. Newspaper 8. A. buildings B. houses C. offices D. stations 9. A. invent B. discover C. develop D. disappear 10. A. at B. of C. for D. into
Part 2. Read the text below and think of the word which best fits each space.
Use only ONE word in each space. (2.0 points) SAFE CAMPING
Camping in the country is usually great fun, but sometimes things can go
wrong. Accidents can happen, so it is essential to think about safety (1)
____________ before you go and while you are there. This will prevent your
fun camping trip turning into something less pleasant.
Firstly, you need to plan ahead. Check out the weather forecast a few
days in (2) ___________ and watch out for any reports of fires in the area you
are thinking of going to. (3) ___________ an emergency kit in case you or
anyone with you has an accident or illness while you are there.
Choose your campsite carefully, avoiding any places (4) ___________
there is risk of flooding before you put up your tent, make (5) ___________
there are no sharp objects on the ground, or ants or wasps’ nests nearby.
In order to keep insects out of the tent, close it whenever you go in or out.
If you need a camp fire for cooking, be (6) ___________ not to build it
anywhere near your tent, and before you go to bed, remember to put it out
completely, preferably (7) ___________ lots of water.
After meals, pick up any bits of food that (8) ___________ be left on the
ground, as these can attract insects - or larger creatures. It also makes senses,
for the same reason, to keep (9) ___________ food in closed containers away
from the camp. You don’t want a hungry bear or another (10) ___________
suddenly appearing in your tent!
Part 3. Read the following passage and answer the questions that follow.
Circle A, B, C or D to indicate your answers. (1.0 point)
The search for alternative sources of energy has led in various directions.
Many communities are burning garbage and other biological waste products to
produce electricity. Converting waste products to gases or oil is also an
efficient way to dispose of wastes.
Experimental work is being done to derive Synthetic fuels from coal, oil
shale and coal tars. Other experiments are underway to harness power with
giant windmills. Geothermal power is also being tested.
Some experts expect companies to revive hydroelectric power derived
from streams and rivers. Fifty years ago hydroelectric power provided one 6
third of the electricity used in the United States, but today it supplies only four
percent. The oceans are another potential source of energy. Scientists are
studying ways to convert the energy of ocean currents, tides and waves to
electricity. Experiments are also underway to make use of the temperature
differences in ocean water to produce energy.
1. Which is the best title of the passage?
A. New Discoveries in Geothermal Power.
B. The Use of Water Production for Energy.
C. The Search for Alternative Sources of Energy.
D. Efficient Ways of Disposing of Waste.
2. Fifty years ago one third of the electricity in the United States was provided by... A. water B. waste products C. wind D. oil
3. In the second paragraph, the phrase “Synthetic fuels” could be best
replaced by which of the following? A. Low burning fuels B. Artificial made fuels C. Biological fuels D. Fast burning fuels
4. Which of the following is NOT mentioned in the passage as an alternative source of energy?
A. Synthetic fuels B. Burning of garbage C. Geothermal power D. Electricity
5. According to the author, the impracticality of using coal, shale oil and coal
tars as sources of energy is due to... A. the lack of technology B. the scarcity of sources
C. their being money consuming D. their being time consuming
D. Writing. (6.0 points)
Part 1. Rewrite the following sentences so that they are the nearest in
meaning to the sentences before them. (2.0 points)
1. Mai’s presence made him feel better.
* He felt _____________________________________________________.
2. He dislikes it when people criticize him unfairly.
* He objects __________________________________________________.
3. She regrets speaking to him so rudely yesterday.
* She wishes _________________________________________________.
4. Tommy understood very little what the teacher said.
* Tommy could hardly _________________________________________.
5. His lawyer said he shouldn’t say anything to the police.
* His lawyer advised ___________________________________________.
Part 2. Rewrite the following sentences, using the word given in capital. Do
not change this word in any way. (2.0 points)
Ex: I hadn’t made speeches before, so I was very nervous. (USED)
Because I wasn’t used to making speeches, I was very nervous. 7
1. Fresh fruit is plentiful at this time of year. (SHORTAGE)
* There is ___________________________________________________.
2. Tung’s effort really impressed the audience and judges. (LEFT)
* It was ____________________________________________________.
3. We have to go to bed early. (ALLOWED)
* We ______________________________________________________.
4. The first May Day meeting was held in America. (IN)
* America is ________________________________________________.
5. If you worry, you will find it difficult to get to sleep. (MORE)
* The ______________________________________________________.
Part 3. Write a paragraph with 150 words about the importance of fresh water in our life. (2.0 points)
* Note: Don’t write your name or your school’s name. --- THE END --- 8