Đề thi chọn học sinh giỏi lớp 12 THPT tỉnh Quảng Ninh môn Tiếng Anh năm học 2012-2013 (có đáp án)

Së GD&§T Qu¶ng Ninh kú thi chän häc sinh giái CẤP tØnh
líp 12 THPT n¨m häc 2012 - 2013 §Ò thi CHÍNH THỨC
(ðề thi này có 08 trang) Chữ ký giám thị
Môn: Tiếng Anh (Bảng A)
Thời gian làm bài: 180 phút, không kể thời gian giao ñề. SBD: 1: Ngày thi: 23/10/ 2012 Họ, tên thí sinh: Số phách Ngày sinh: chấm lần 1: 2: Nơi sinh: Học sinh trường: Ban coi thi: Số phách ðiểm bài thi
Họ tên, chữ ký của hai người Số phách chấm chấm phúc khảo: chấm lần 1: chấm lần 1: lần 1:
Bằng số: ……….……….……… 1: Bằng chữ:
…………………………..…………
…………………….……………….…… 2 .: .
………………………….……..…… Số phách
ðiểm bài thi chấm phúc khảo:
Họ tên, chữ ký của hai người chấm phúc khảo: chấm phúc khảo: Bằng số:
……….………………..............….......1: …………………………..…………………………… Bằng chữ:
2: ……………………….………..……………..………
…………………….……………….......
Ghi chú: Thí sinh trả lời ngay vào bài thi này. Nếu viết sai phải gạch bỏ rồi viết lại. I. LISTENING (4.0 points)
Activity 1: Complete the table below using NO MORE THAN THREE WORDS OR NUMBER for
each answer. (1.2 points) Name (1) _______________________ Date of birth (2) _______________________ Mobile number (3) _______________________ Home number (4) _______________________ Postcode (5) _______________________ Nationality (6) _______________________ City of birth (7) _______________________ ID card number (8) _______________________ E-mail (9) _______________________ Major (10) ______________________
Activity 2: (1.2 points) 1
Task 1: People are talking about themselves and other family members. Which family member is the
speaker most similar to? Listen and check () the correct answer. Father Mother Sister Brother 1 Wen-ping 2 Michael 3 Justin 4 Susan 5 Robert 6 Beth
Task 2: Listen again. How is each family member different from the speaker? Write the letter. 1 Wen-ping’s brother ______ A. likes sports. 2 Michael’s brother ______ B. likes reading and music. 3 Justin’s sister ______ C. is taller than the father. 4 Susan’s father ______ D. prefers to play cards. 5 Robert’s sister ______ E. hates flying. 6 Beth’s father ______
F. isn’t interested in music.
Activity 3: Listen to the passage and answer Questions 1-8 by marking T for true or F for False. (1.6 points)
1. They are not going to move the students to the facilities in group._______
2. All agricultural Science students will stay where they are._______
3. History students will move to the new campus._______
4. Some history teachers will move immediately to the new campus._______
5. Engineering staff have already made their move._______
6. The philosophy department will move into the old Engineering building._______
7. Part of the faculty of Laws is in its new premises._______
8. The former Law premises may become an art gallery._______
II/PHONOLOGY, GRAMMAR AND VOCABULARY (4.0 points)
Activity 1: Circle the letter A, B, C or D next to the word that has the underlined part pronounced
differently from the others in each question. (Do as example: 0- C) (0.5 point) 0. A. dental B. send C. pretty D. lend 1. A. weather B. length C. thin D. thousand 2. A. appear B. clear C. tear D. bear 3. A. flood B. cook C. look D. understood 4. A. reason B. usual C. design D. music 5. A. option B. production C. question D. tuition
Activity 2: Circle the letter A, B, C or D next to the best answer to compete each sentence below. (1.0 point)
1. Lucy was late for school this morning because the alarm clock didn’t _______ as usual. A. ring off B. get off C. go off D. take off
2. - “Do you like that advanced training course you’re taking, James?” - “ _______________” A. No, not everyone B. By and large, yes C. No, thanks
D. Not me. I’m still waiting
3. “ If only we_______ about this service before!” A. had known B. knew C. could have known D. could know
4. The children appear _______ about the trip. A. exciting B. being excited C. to excite D. to be excited
5. They asked me a lot of questions, _______ I couldn’t answer. A. most of which B. of which most C. most of that D. of that most
6. _______, the young woman was very happy after the birth of her child. A. Despite tired B. Though tired
C. Tired although she was D. She was tired 2
7. Peter; “I thought your game was much better last night.”
Dave: “You’ve got to be kidding! _______”
A. I myself like it very much. B. I’m sure you enjoy it. C. I thought it was terrible
D. I am supposed it was not bad
8. Heavy snowfall made _______ planes to land or take off. A. it impossible
B. impossible for C. it impossible for D. impossible
9. - “Do you mind if I use your phone?” - “_______” A. Go ahead. B. Yes, certainly C. Sorry, I have no idea. D. You can say that again.
10. She took a pullover_______ it turned chilly in the evening. A. unless B. as long as C. in case D. whether
Activity 3: Read the text and fill in each gap with a suitable form of the word given in CAPITAL. The
first has been done as an example. (1.0 point) MOUNTAINEERING
Mountaineering is an almost unique sport, as the (0) climber is in CLIMB
(1) ________________ with nature itself rather than with other humans. COMPETE
For this reason it is an extremely (2) ________________ activity. DANGER
Nature does not follow any rules or (3) ________________ , and REGULATE
can often play very (4) ________________ . FAIR
(5) ________________ mountaineers are quite aware of the risks PROFESSION
involved in their sport. Although they are (6) ________________ spirits ADVENTURE
at heart, they have a full (7) ________________ of the vital UNDERSTAND
(8) ________________ measures necessary to keep them alive, and SAFE
never (9) ________________ put themselves in needless danger. On KNOW
the other hand, they say that the sense of (10) ________________ at ACHIEVE
the end of the a climb is directly proportional to the risks involved.
Activity 4: Look carefully at each line. Some lines are correct but some have a word which should not
be there. Tick (3) each correct line. If a line has a word which should not be there, write the word in
the space. There are 2 examples (0) and (0 . (1.5 points) Holiday Problems
Last month we decided to drive to Scotland for a
0. ______
few days, for a short holiday. We were the really 00. __the__
looking it forward to a quiet rest in the country. 1. ________
Unfortunately, a lots of things went wrong. First 2. ________
of all, the car was broke down just after we had left 3. ________
home, and we had to phone a garage and then 4. ________
wait by the side of the road for hours ago. By the 5. ________
time the car had been repaired, it was too much late 6. ________
to go on, so we went the home. The next day we set 7. ________
off more early to avoid the traffic, but we had forgotten 8. ________
that it was a public holiday. Every one single person 9. ________
in the country must have had the same idea, so we 10. ________
found ourselves in a long traffic jam. We after decided 11. ________
that the best thing to do was to take after a different 12. ________
road, and look up for a hotel. First we got lost on 13. ________
a narrow country road, and then the car once ran 14. ________
out of the petrol. Finally, we gave up and went home 15. ________ for the second time. 3
III. READING: (6.0 points)
Activity 1: You are going to read a text about television and reading. Some words are missing from the
text. Fill in each gap with ONE suitable word to complete the text below. There is an example at the
beginning (0). (1.5 points) TELEVISION AND READING
Many people (0)___believe ____ that watching television has resulted in lower reading standards in
school.(1)__________, the link between television and printed books is not as simple as that. In many
(2)__________, television actually encourages people to read: for example, when a book is turned into a
TV series, (3)__________sales often go up.
One study of this link examined six-year-old children who (4)__________viewing a special series of
fifteen-minute programs at school. The series was designed to encourage love of books, as (5)__________
as to develop the basic mechanical skills of reading. Each program is an animated film of a children’s
book. The story is read aloud (6)__________ certain key phrases from the book appear on the screen,
beneath the picture. Whenever a word is read, it is also highlighted on the TV screen.
One finding was (7)__________ watching these programs was important to the children. If anything
prevented them (8)__________ seeing a program, they were very disappointed. What’s more, they
wanted to read the books (9)__________ the different parts of the series were based on.
The programs also gave the children (10)__________ confidence when looking at these books. As a
result of (11)__________ familiarity with the stories, they would sit in pairs and read the stories aloud to
(12)__________ other. On (13)__________ occasion, the children showed great sympathy when
discussing a character in a book because they themselves (14)__________ been moved when watching
the character (15)__________television.
Activity 2: Read the following passage and circle the letter A, B, C or D next to the right word in each
number to complete the passage. (1.5 points) BASKET BALL
(0)___In__ the spring of 1891, a young Canadian named James Naismith (1)__________ the staff of the
International YMCA Training School in Springfield, Massachusetts, where he was instructed to devise an
(2)__________ game that did not (3) __________ bodily contact, would not (4) __________ in damage
to the gym and in which every player had a (5)__________ to get in on the action. The game he invented
was basketball- or basket ball as it was (6)__________ until about 1912. Naismith hung peach baskets at
(7)__________ end of the gym and used a soccer ball to play with. The first game, in December 1891,
was played (8) __________ two teams of nine men each and was not exactly a classic. The final
(9)__________ was 1-0 . (10)__________ an off- season recreation, basketball took (11)__________ in
a big way, largely because it was cheap and easy to (12)__________ up. Oddly, although peach baskets
were soon (13)__________ by nets, until 1912 it didn’t (14)__________ to anyone to cut a hole in the
bottom of them. Until then it was necessary (15) __________ someone to climb a ladder and retrieve the ball after each score. 0. A. At B. In C. On D. Since 1. A. enrolled B. joined C. entered D. became 2. A. inside B. internal C. indoor D. interior 3. A. contain B. consist C. belong D. involve 4. A. cause B. result C. end D. lead 5. A. chance B. possibility C. challenge D. part 6. A. named B. spoken C. called D. referred 7. A. opposite B. both C. either D. double 8. A. against B. among C. from D. between 9. A. goal B. score C. shot D. point 10. A. As B. Such C. Like D. Yet 11. A. up B. off C. out D. in 12. A. get B. play C. set D. do 13. A. replaced B. swapped C. exchange D. removed 14. A. think B. realize C. suggest D. occur 15. A. that B. so C. for D. even 4
Activity 3: Read the passage and choose the best answer for the questions following. (2.0 points)
The first six planets have been known to mankind for all of our recorded history. (A) But the final three
planets, Uranus, Neptune, and Pluto, are not visible in the night sky without the help of a telescope. (B)
Their discovery had to wait until the invention of telescopes. Uranus, the seventh planet, was the first to
be discovered in 1781 by William Herschel. (C) This proved to be an important breakthrough,
because by studying unexpected changes in the planet’s orbit, scientists could infer that it was being
affected by the gravity of another, unknown planet. That unknown planet proved to be Neptune. It was
found in 1846 with the help of calculation based on the abnormalities in Uranus’ orbit, which told
scientists where in the sky to look for Neptune. The discovery of these two planets proved to be relatively
easy because both Uranus and Neptune are gas giants, huge planets many times the size of the Earth.
This made them relatively easy to find, even with the telescopes of the 18th and 19th centuries. (D)
Finding the ninth planet, Pluto, proved to be a much harder task because it is not even as large as our
moon, and it is over a thousand times more distant. Again, the first clues to the planet’s existence came
from the orbits of other planets. After studying Neptune, it did not seem that it could explain all the
changes in the orbit of Uranus. Scientists guessed there was another planet out there but they could not
find it. They labeled the missing planet “Planet X.” The first serious attempt to find Planet X came in
1915, when astronomer Percival Lowell made it his mission to find the planet. Lowell spent over a year
studying the night sky. He discovered many other objects, including over 700 new stars. But he did not
find the missing planet and died a disappointed man.
Success came in 1930, when Clyde Tombaugh used a new method to search for the planet. He took
thousands of pictures of the night sky. Then he searched for any unknown objects that were moving
against the background of the stars, which remain in the same place in the night sky. Using this method he
found a small point of light, which turned out to be Pluto.
1. The word “This” in the passage refers to _________.
A. The invention of the telescope B. The discovery of Uranus
C. The visibility of the final three planets. D. The discovery of gravity.
2. According to paragraph 1, why was the discovery of Uranus important?
A. It made scientists want to look for other planets.
B. It indirectly led to the discovery of Neptune and Pluto.
C. It helped scientists understand how orbits are affected by gravity.
D. It led to improvements in the quality of telescopes.
3. The word breakthrough in the passage is closest in meaning to_________. A. advance B. accident C. experiment D. task
4. The word abnormalities in the passage is closest in meaning to A. typical characteristics B. unusual qualities C. known facts D. important information
5. Which of the sentences below best expresses the essential information in the highlighted sentence in
the passage? Incorrect choices change the meaning in important ways of leave out essential information.
A. The discovery of Neptune and Uranus was only possible because they are such huge planets.
B. The fact that Uranus and Neptune are such enormous planets made finding them a relatively simple task.
C. Huge gas giants like Uranus and Neptune are much easier to find than planets as small as the Earth.
D. It is easier to prove the existence of gas giants like Neptune and Uranus because they are so much larger than the Earth.
6. According to the passage, what can be inferred about the telescopes?
A. The first telescopes were invented by William Herschel.
B. They are required to view most of the planets in the night sky.
C. The telescopes of the 18th and 19th centuries were not very powerful.
D. They are less useful than gravity in finding new planets. 5
7. Why does the author discuss the Earth’s moon in paragraph 2?
A. To better explain the orbit of Pluto
B. To give an example of an object that is easily visible
C. To suggest there are many similarities between the moon and Pluto
D. To better illustrate why Pluto was so hard to find.
8. According to the passage, all of the following are true of Pluto EXCEPT_________.
A. it was discovered accidentally
B. it was the last planet to be discovered
C. it was discovered by tracking its motion
D. it was discovered using new methods of searching for planets
9. Look at the four squares [] that indicate where the following sentence could be added to the passage.
While early civilizations may not have understood that these objects were planets, they were clearly visible in the sky.
Where would the sentence best fit? A B C D
10. According to the passage, all of the following are true of Uranus EXCEPT A. Irregular orbit B. Easily seen with telescope C. First discovered in 1781 D. Most distant planet
Activity 4: You are going to read a magazine article about a mountain in Africa. Five sentences have
been removed from the article. Choose from the sentences A-F the one which fits each gap. There is
one extra sentence which you do not need to use. (1.0 point)
A. Those who do so will be rewarded by what they see.
B. As a result of this, trekkers will go through several different climates in the course of only five or six days.
C. Even so, surprisingly few people make it all the way there.
D. This is the most difficult path to follow.
E. If you’d like to join them, it’s essential to select the route that is most appropriate for you.
F. At such times, that kind of beauty appears almost supernatural.
On a clear day Mount Kilimanjaro is visible from Nairobi. However, when the sun is low and
the clouds light, the enormous, snow-capped peak appears to be floating in space. 1
Kilimanjaro is 5895m above sea level and is on the equator. 2 They’ll start in
Tropical temperatures, go through milder weather to high alpine desert and then permanently snow- capped summits.
Despite its tremendous altitude, it is possible to get to the top without any technical climbing ability. With
its accessible slopes, abundance of porters and relatively mild climate, the trek to
the summit is considered a moderately easy climb in mountaineering circles. 3
The ascent is recognised as one of the great walks of the world by the climbers who complete it. 4
They will take home memories of colourful scenery, stunning natural
beauty, warm and friendly locals and a unique sense of isolation. This last impression is reinforced when
they realized that until more than 100 years ago, nobody had ever climbed this vast volcano.
Ever since Hans Meyer’s first ascent in 1889, more and more people have tacked the mountain. 5
Be aware of the scenic variety, remoteness and popularity of each option, but
most importantly, be aware of the degree of difficulty. The ascent is a gruelling but wonderful trek with
magnificent views, unmatched in Africa. Whichever route you opt for, to make the most of it walk slowly
with your eyes open. Then you’ll come home with something far more valuable and important than a summit certificate. 6 IV/ WRITING: (6.0 points)
Activity 1: Complete the second sentence so that it has a similar meaning to the first one. Use between
two and five words, including the word given. Do not change the word given. (2.0 points)
1. Her parents don’t like her coming home late. (approve)
Her parents don’t _____________________________________ home late.
2. People say that Prague is a wonderful city. (supposed)
Prague _________________________________________________ a wonderful city.
3. “I’m terribly sorry I’m late,” said Flora. (apologized)
Flora ____________________________________________________ late.
4. Your brother is more intelligent than mine. (as)
My brother ___________________________________________ yours.
5. I’ve never seen such a beautiful sunset before. (I)
That’s the ______________________________________ ever seen.
6. Dimitri paid someone to repair his CD player. (had)
Dimitri __________________________________________ repaired.
7. When I lent him the money, I had no idea he was rich. (known)
If I ____________________________________, I wouldn’t have lent him the money.
8. He wanted to relax, so he took up yoga. (order)
He took up yoga _____________________________________ relax.
9. He will be allowed to leave prison soon. (let)
They _______________________________________ prison soon.
10. The authorities forced my brother to join the army. (made)
My brother ____________________________________ the army.
Activity 2: Finish each of the following sentences using the cues. You can make all necessary changes and additions. (1.0 points)
1. fire / start / kitchen / because / I / forget / turn off / electric cooker //.
__________________________________________________________________________
2. Last Sunday/ while / Mary / clean out / attic / come across / grandmother / wedding dress //.
__________________________________________________________________________
3. Although / parents / busy / work / try / spend / much / time / for / children / possible//.
__________________________________________________________________________
4. police / accuse / steal / money / but / he / deny / take //.
__________________________________________________________________________
5. brother / be / good / accompany / people / sing / guitar //.
__________________________________________________________________________
Activity 3: Write a passage of about 200 words about the following topic:
“How important is university education to you?” If important, give reasons why and say what you need
to do to win a place at university. If not, give the reasons why? (3.0 points)
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Thí sinh có thể viết tiếp Activity 3 của phần Writing vào sau trang 8
---------------------------THE END---------------------------------- 8
SỞ GD&ðT QUẢNG NINH HƯỚNG DẪN CHẤM THI CHỌN HOC SINH GIỎI TỈNH LỚP 12 NĂM HỌC 2012-2013 ðỀ CHÍNH THỨC
Môn: Tiếng Anh (BẢNG A)
(Hướng dẫn chấm này có 02 trang)
I. LISTENING (4,0 ñiểm)
Activity 1: (1,2 ñiểm), mỗi câu ñúng 0,12 ñiểm. 1. Peter Smith 6. Irish
2. 10/10/1975 or 10, October 1975 7. Dublin 3. 07770 296 479 8. P958 386 196 X 4. 01265 649 674 9. cleverpeter@hotmail.com 5. SE 12 LP 10. Geography
Activity 2: (1,2 ñiểm), mỗi câu ñúng 0,1 ñiểm. Task 1 1. Wenping : Sister √ 2. Michael: Mother √ 3. Justin: Father √ 4. Susan: Mother √ 5. Robert: Brother √ 6. Beth: Mother √ Task 2: 1. C 2. F 3. D 4. A 5. B 6. E
Activity 3: (1,6 ñiểm) mỗi câu ñúng 0,2 ñiểm 1. F 2.T 3. T 4. F 5. F 6. T 7. T 8. T
II. PHONOLOGY, GRAMMAR AND VOCABULARY (4,0 ñiểm )
Activity 1: (0,5 ñiểm ), mỗi câu ñúng 0,1 ñiểm 1.A 2.D 3.A 4.B 5.C
Activity 2: (1,0 ñiểm), mỗi câu ñúng 0,1 ñiểm 1. C 2. B 3. A 4. D 5. A 6. B 7. C 8. C 9. A 10. C
Activity 3: (1.0 ñiểm ), mỗi câu ñúng 0,1 ñiểm 1. competition 6. adventurous 2. dangerous 7. understanding 3. regulations 8. safety 4. unfairly 9. knowingly 5. Professional 10. achievement
Activity 4: (1,5 ñiểm ), mỗi câu ñúng 0,1 ñiểm 1. it 2. a 3. was 4 5. ago 6. much 7. the 8. more 9. one 10. 11. after 12. after 13. up 14. once 15. the
III. READING: (6.0 ñiểm)
Activity 1: (1,5 ñiểm ), mỗi câu ñúng 0,1 ñiểm 1. However 2. cases 3. its 4. were 5. well 6. while/ as 7. that 8. from 9. which/ that
10. more/some/ greater/ increased 11. their 12. each 13. one 14. had 15. on
Activity 2: (1,5 ñiểm ), mỗi câu ñúng 0,1 ñiểm 1. B 2. C 3. D 4. B 5. A 6. C 7. C 8. D 9. B 10. A 11. B 12. C 13. A 14. D 15. C 9
Activity 3: (2 ñiểm ), mỗi câu ñúng 0,2 ñiểm 1. B 2. B 3. A 4. B 5. B 6. C 7. D 8. A 9. A 10. D
Activity 4: (1,0 ñiểm ), mỗi câu ñúng 0,2 ñiểm 1. F 2. B 3. C 4. A 5. E
IV/ WRITING: (6,0 ñiểm)
Activity 1: (2,0 ñiểm), mỗi câu ñúng 0,2 ñiểm 1. approve of her coming 2. is supposed to be
3. apologized for being/arriving 4. isn’t as intelligent as
5. most beautiful sunset I have 6. had his CD player 7. had known he was rich 8. in order to 9. will let him leave 10. was made to join
Activity 2: (1,0 ñiểm). Mỗi câu ñúng 0,2 ñiểm
1.The fire started in the kitchen because I had forgotten/ forgot to turn off the electric cooker.
2. Last Sunday while Mary was cleaning out the attic, she came across her grandmother’s wedding dress.
3. Although my parents are very busy at work, they try to spend as much time for their children as possible.
4. The police accused him of stealing / having stolen the money but he denied taking / having taken it.
5. My brother is very good at accompanying people singing with his guitar.
Activity 3: Tổng số 3,0 ñiểm
Yêu cầu thí sinh viết thành bài văn hoàn chỉnh.
Các phần của bài viết
Nội dung cần ñạt Số ñiểm Mở bài
Nêu ñược ý chính về tầm quan trọng của việc ñi học ñại 0,5 học của bản thân. Thân bài
- Phát triển ñược ý chính về tầm quan trọng của việc ñi
học ñại học ñối với bản thân 2,0
- Nêu ñược biện pháp cần làm ñể ñược ñi học ñại học Kết luận
- Khẳng ñịnh lại tầm quan trọng của việc ñược ñi học ở 0,5
ñại học và cố gắng của bản thân ñể ñược ñi học ñại học. .
Ghi chú: Trong tất cả các phần, nếu thí sinh viết ñúng ngữ pháp, dùng từ chuẩn xác, linh hoạt, không sai
lỗi chính tả, có sử dụng từ nối, không quá ngắn( khoảng 200 từ ) , lập luận chặt chẽ, lý lẽ có tính thuyết
phục thì mới cho ñiểm tối ña. TỔNG SỐ: 20 ðIỂM --- HẾT--- 10