Đề thi chọn học sinh giỏi THPT cấp tỉnh Lào Cai môn Tiếng Anh năm học 2019-2020 (có đáp án)

SỞ GIÁO DỤC & ĐÀO TẠO LÀO CAI KỲ THI CHỌN HỌC SINH GIỎI THPT CẤP TỈNH
ĐỀ THI CHÍNH THỨC NĂM HỌC 2019-2020 Môn thi: TIẾNG ANH
Thời gian: 180 phút (không kể thời gian giao đề) SỐ PHÁCH Ngày thi: 16/1/2020
Đề thi gồm có 14 trang
 Thí sinh không được sử dụng tài liệu kể cả từ điển.
 Giám thị coi thi không giải thích gì thêm.
_____________________________________________________________________________
Lưu ý: Thí sinh làm bài trên tờ giấy thi ĐIỂM BÀI THI GIÁM KHẢO 1 GIÁM KHẢO 2
SECTION A. LISTENING (5.0 pts)
HƯỚNG DẪN PHẦN NGHE HIỂU:
 Giám thị bật đĩa nghe một lần duy nhất. Đĩa nghe tự động chạy từ đầu đến hết.
 Bài nghe gồm 3 phần, mỗi phần được nghe hai lần, mỗi lần cách nhau 5 giây. Ở đầu và cuối
mỗi phần, thí sinh có 20 giây để đọc hướng dẫn và câu hỏi cũng như kiểm tra đáp án.
 Mở đầu và kết thúc từng phần có tín hiệu. Ở đầu và cuối bài thi nghe có tín hiệu nhạc.
 Mọi hướng dẫn cho thí sinh (bằng tiếng Anh) đã có trong đề bài nghe.
Part 1: You will hear an employee at the museum of London Life taking a booking. Complete the
form. Write NO MORE THAN TWO WORDS AND/OR A NUMBER for each answer. Write your
answers in the corresponding numbered boxes. (2.0pts) MUSEUM OF LONDON LIFE
See how Londoners lived from Prehistoric times through to the 22nd century. Name: 1. _________________ Address:
2. _________________ Road, London, 3. _________________ Telephone: 4. _________________ Discounts: 4+ people: 10%
5. 10+ people: _________________%
6. Students: _________________ %
7. Students: 20% for groups of at least _________________people Price for entry: 8. £ _________________ Special exhibition: 9. _________________ London Date of visit: 10. _________________ July Your answers: 1. 2. 3. 4. 5. 6. 7. 8. 9. 10. 1 Part 2. (2.0 pts)
Questions 11-12: Complete the sentences below.
Write NO MORE THAN THREE WORDS AND/OR A NUMBER for each answer.
11. Who is Mrs Sutton worried about? _________________
12. What is the name for a group of family doctors working in the same building together? _________________
Question 13 -17: Complete the table below.
Write NO MORE THAN THREE WORDS AND/OR A NUMBER for each answer. Name of Health Number of doctors Other information Information about Centre doctors Dean End 13. _________________ Appointment system Dr. Jones is good with 15. ____________ 16. __________ patients. than South Hay South Hay 14. _________________
Building less modern than Dr. William helps people Dean End with 17. _____________ Question 18 - 20
Question 18: Write NO MORE THAN THREE WORDS AND/OR A NUMBER for each answer.
Doctors start seeing patients at the Heath Centre from _________________
Question 19: Choose TWO letters A-E
Which TWO groups of patients receive free medication? A people over 17 years old B unemployed people C non-UK residents D people over 60 years old E pregnant women
Question 20: Write NO MORE THAN TWO WORDS AND/OR A NUMBER for each answer.
The charge for one item of medication is about £ _________________ Your answers: 11. 12. 13. 14. 15. 16. 17. 18. 19. 20.
Part 3: The English National Opera Company organized a singing competition called
“Operatunity”, which was filmed as part of a television documentary series. You will hear an
interview with Paul Daniel, one of the judges from the opera company, and Jane Gilchrist, one of
the contestants. For questions 21-25, choose the answer (A, B, C or D) which fits best according to
what you hear. Write your answers in the corresponding numbered boxes. (1.0pt)
21. Paul says that the opera company’s main reason for holding the competition was to __________
A. encourage a broader range of people to enjoy opera.
B. emulate the success of other television talent shows.
C. recruit a group of singers to perform a particular opera.
D. help unknown singers who wanted to fulfil their potential. 2
22. Jane feels she doesn’t fit the popular idea of an opera singer because __________
A. she doesn’t come from a musical family.
B. she has a rather unglamorous occupation.
C. she has no experience of singing in public.
D. she hasn’t had the benefit of voice training.
23. How does Jane feel now about not having gone to music college when she was younger?
A. She wishes that she hadn’t put her family first.
B. She accepts that it would have been a bad idea.
C. She realizes that she missed an opportunity in life.
D. She resents the fact that she was given poor advice.
24. Paul says that, in the auditions, the judges mainly focused on assessing __________
A. the quality of the contestants’ voices.
B. the range of the contestants’ musical skills.
C. the nature of the contestants’ temperament and character.
D. the strength of the contestants’ performance in certain roles.
25. Paul says that, compared to young professional singers, the finalists in the competition were often __________
A. less able to respond quickly to feedback.
B. unhelpfully defensive in the face of criticism.
C. surprisingly competent on a technical level.
D. much more enthusiastic in their approach. Your answers: 21. 22. 23. 24. 25.
SECTION B. VOCABULARY AND GRAMMAR (3.0 pts)
Part 1: Choose the correct answer (A, B, C, or D) to each of the following questions. (2.0pts)
26. Religion and politics interest my father almost ________. A. equally B. the same C. similarly D. alike
27. Sometimes, we don’t appreciate the ___________ pleasures of life such as a beautiful sky, a cup of
coffee with a friend or seeing a good film at the cinema. A. sheer B. simple C. normal D. plain
28. Bob was too ___________ to dare to stand up and speak in front of those people. A. self-aware B. self-righteous C. self-indulgent D. self-conscious
29. For a successful actor, Samsam lives very quietly; life in the fast ___________ doesn’t suit her. A. track B. road C. way D. lane
30. They are unlikely to find any new evidence because so much time has __________ since the crime. A. spanned B. postponed C. lapsed D. elapsed
31. There weren’t many vegetarian dishes __________, although there were several different kinds of cheese. A. like that B. as such C. such that D. such like
32. It’s amazing how Ngan acts as though he and Ha Lan ________ serious problems at the moment. A. aren’t having B. weren’t having C. hadn’t had D. hadn’t been having
33. ________ warfare duties primarily to males’ was imperative when combat was hand-to-hand. A. Assigning B. Assigned C. They who assigned D. That they were assigning 3
34. Lan invited her friend, Phuong, to have dinner out that night and Phuong accepted. Choose the
most suitable response to fill in the blank in the following exchange.
- Lan: “Shall we eat out tonight?”
- Phuong: “________.”
A. It’s kind of you to invite B. You are very welcome C. That’s a great idea D. That’s acceptable
35. In one year's time, she _______ in this company for 15 years. A. will be working B. will have been working C. will work D. has worked
36. Bell is going to do some shopping. Tom offers to help her.
- Tom: “ Would you like me to get you a taxi?”
- Bell: “ ___________________”.
A. That would be delightful. Thanks. B. Well, let’s see. C. Yes, I see.
D. Yes, please if it’s no bother.
37. Hoa and Viet are talking about Lan’s presentation.
- Hoa: “Hi, Viet! What is your opinion about the Lan’s presentation?”
- Viet: “______ but she needs to make some small changes.” A. It is perfect.
B. I do have some opinions about it. C. On the whole, it is good. D. I have no idea about it.
38. The car was three years old but __________ very much. A. hasn’t been used B. doesn’t use C. hasn’t used D. hadn’t been used
39. Dreams are commonly __________ both visual and verbal images. A. made of B. made from C. consisted of D. made up of
40. The incredible thing about telephone __________ across the continents, but that you can recognize the other person’s voice.
A. is it allow people to talk instantly
B. is not that people can instantly talk to each other
C. is it provides instant talking to each other
D. is that people can talk instantly
41. As a citizen, it is natural to _______ to the laws and rules made by the society. A. conform B. resist C. hinder D. obey
42. When are you going to get rid of these ________ trousers?
A. short nylon dreadful French
B. short dreadful French nylon
C. dreadful French nylon short
D. dreadful short French nylon
43. My job is so __________ that I don't think I'll be able to take a summer break. A. demanding B. persisting C. hard D. tough
44. The music aroused an ____________ feeling of homesickness in him. A. intense B. intentional C. intensive D. intending
45. I haven't had a very _________ week. I seem to have done nothing at all. A. extensive B. productive C. enthusiastic D. economic Your answers: 26. 27. 28. 29. 30. 31. 32. 33. 34. 35. 36. 37. 38. 39. 40. 41. 42. 43. 44. 45.
Part 2: Write the correct form of each bracketed word in the numbered Your answers:
space provided in the column in the right. (1.0pt)
In an effort to escape from their hectic and (46. MATERIAL) 46. _____________
______________ city lives, more and more Northern Europeans are
buying houses in rural areas of France, Spain, Italy and Greece. Some
relocate permanently in search of a more (47. MEANING) 47. _____________ 4
______________ existence. Those who cannot afford to give up their jobs
seek a therapeutic respite from their (48. STRESS) ______________ 48. _____________
lifestyle by relaxing for a few weeks each year in their second home in the sun.
However, many of those who relocate permanently find that life in
the country is not as quiet and (49. EVENT) ______________ as they had 49. _____________
anticipated. Aspects of village life which seemed delightfully
(50. SPHERE) ______________ in the context of a two-week holiday can 50. _____________
grate on the nerves when you live with them on a daily basis. Recently, a
group of British residents in an Italian village took local farmers to court
because they found the smell of the villagers’ pigs (51. TASTE) 51. _____________
______________. In other cases, foreigners have complained to neighbors
about the (52. ENTHUSE) ______________ early morning crowing of 52. _____________
their cockerels, or to village priests about the regular tolling of church bells.
(53.UNDERSTAND) ______________, the local inhabitants are 53. _____________
somewhat resentful of these attitudes. They argue that the foreigners have
an (54. REAL) ______________ view of what country life is like and that, 54.______________
since no-one forced them to come and live in a village, they are being
hypocritical by now complaining about the (55. CONVENE) 55. _____________ ______________ of rural life. SECTION C. READING (5.0PTS)
Part 1: Read the passage and decide which answer (A, B, C, or D) best fits each gap. Write your
answers in the corresponding numbered boxes. (1.0pt) Living above the shop
Have you ever considered applying for a job where you can live on the premises? While ‘living above
the shop’ might sound good because you don’t have to commute, such a situation has its pros and cons
Bernadette Gillow, who lives and works at Ightham Mote, a medieval National Trust property, admits
that it can be difficult at times. "It takes some getting used to. As you come in with your supermarket
bags on your day off, you walk through showrooms to get to your 56. _______. I once found a little
old lady on my sofa. No 57. _______ how many "PRIVATE" 58. _______ you have on the door, if it
opens, people will open it." However, she’s generally happy. When she 59. _______ the job as
manager, the whole family - her husband and two children - moved in. Renting out their 60. _______
home, they have settled in and now 61. _______ from using the grounds on summer evenings after the
visitors have gone. "You feel a wonderful 62. _______ of history here," she says. "Although it is 63.
_______ a general management job, I’m responsible for the 64. _______ to day running of the
property: the house and garden, the shop and tearoom, the 65. _______ and the financial
administration. It does give US an opportunity to completely absorb the scenery and the property. It’s a
gorgeous place to be and it’s a great privilege. Despite the drawbacks, I wouldn’t like to go back to the way we lived before." 56. A. spaces B. parts C. quarters D. sections 57. A. point B. matter C. question D. doubt 58. A. directions B. labels C. messages D. signs 59. A. took B. hired C. agreed D. reached 60. A. final B. early C. last D. previous 61. A. reward B. benefit C. enjoy D. love 62. A. idea B. sense C. touch D. tone 63. A. basically B. truly C. wholly D. completely 5 64. A. night B. day C. week D. evening 65. A. men B. people C. staff D. members Your answers: 56. 57. 58. 59. 60. 61. 62. 63. 64. 65.
Part 2: Read the text below and think of the word which best fits each space. Use only ONE word in
each space. Write your answers in the answer box below. (1.0 point) Smoothies
Smoothies are cold drinks made from blended fruit and vegetables to 66.__________ crushed ice,
milk, honey or frozen yoghurt is also often added. This gives them a thicker milkshake-like
consistency. They 67.__________ long been a popular alternative 68.__________ fizzy drinks and
are marketed as a healthy option. For many years now they have been widely available in high street
coffee shops and supermarkets. They are packed with fruit and vegetables, but are smoothies really good for us?
69.__________ popular brand advertised that their drinks contained two of the suggested five portions
of fresh fruit or vegetables which we should consume every day. This claim resulted in an
investigation into just 70.__________ healthy these drinks really are. The results were good news for
all smoothie lovers. The research found that the brand’s 250ml non-dairy drinks 71.__________ in
fact contain sufficient pulped fruit and fruit juice to count for two of the recommended daily portions
of fruit and vegetables. 72.__________ a result, health officials have agreed that smoothies are good
for us. 73.__________, not all smoothies are the same. There is a great diversity of ingredients and
consumers are advised to check the contents carefully Some may contain as 74.__________ as a
quarter of your recommended daily allowance of saturated fat and up to 40g of sugar.
In conclusion, it seems that although smoothies are a good source of the vitamins and minerals found
in fruit and vegetables, 75.__________ are also a lot of unhealthy variations. Your answers: 66. 67. 68. 69. 70. 71. 72. 73. 74. 75.
Part 3: Read the following extract and do the tasks that follow. Write your answers in the
corresponding numbered boxes. (1.0 pt)
Moles happy as homes go underground
A. The first anybody knew about Dutchman Frank Siegmund and his family was when workmen
tramping through a field found a narrow steel chimney protruding through the grass. Closer inspection
revealed a chink of sky-light window among the thistles, and when amazed investigators moved down
the side of the hill they came across a pine door complete with leaded diamond glass and a brass
knocker set into an underground building. The Siegmunds had managed to live undetected for six
years outside the border town of Breda, in Holland. They are the latest in a clutch of individualistic
homemakers who have burrowed underground in search of tranquility.
B. Most, falling foul of strict building regulations, has been forced to dismantle their individualistic
homes and return to more conventional lifestyles. But subterranean suburbia, Dutch-style, is about to
become respectable and chic. Seven luxury homes cosseted away inside a high earth-covered noise
embankment next to the main Tilburg city road recently went on the market for $296,500 each. The
foundations had yet to be dug, but customers queued up to buy the unusual part-submerged houses,
whose back wall consists of a grassy mound and whose front is a long glass gallery.
C. The Dutch are not the only would - be moles. Growing numbers of Europeans are burrowing below
ground to create houses, offices, discos and shopping malls. It is already proving a way of life in
extreme climates; in winter months in Montreal, Canada, for instance, citizens can escape the cold in
an underground complex complete with shops and even health clinics. In Tokyo builders are planning 6
a massive underground city to be begun in the next decade, and underground shopping malls are
already common in Japan, where 90 percent of the population is squeezed into 20 percent of the land space.
D. Building big commercial buildings underground can be a way to avoid disfiguring or threatening a
beautiful or “environmentally sensitive” landscape. Indeed many of the buildings which consume most
land - such as cinemas, supermarkets, theatres, warehouses or libraries - have no need to be on the
surface since they do not need windows.
E. There are big advantages, too, when it comes to private homes. A development of 194 houses which
would take up 14 hectares of land above ground would occupy 2.7 hectares below it, while the number
of roads would be halved. Under several metres of earth, noise is minimal and insulation is excellent.
“We get 40 to 50 enquiries a week,” says Peter Carpenter, secretary of the British Earth Sheltering
Association, which builds 65 similar homes in Britain. “People see this as a way of building for the
future.” An underground dweller himself, Carpenter has never paid a heating bill, thanks to solar
panels and natural insulation.
F. In Europe, the obstacle has been conservative local authorities and developers who prefer to ensure
quick sales with conventional mass produced housing. But the Dutch development was greeted with
undisguised relief by South Limburg planners because of Holland’s chronic shortage of land. It was
the Tilburg architect Jo Hurkmans who hit on the idea of making use of noise embankments on main
roads. His two - floored, four - bedroomed, two - bathroomed detached homes are now taking shape.
“They are not so much below the earth as in it,” he says. “All the light will come through the glass
front, which runs from the second floor ceiling to the ground. Areas which do not need much natural
lighting are at the back. The living accommodation is to the front so nobody notices that the back is dark.”
G. In the US, where energy-efficient homes became popular after the oil crisis of 1973, 10,000
underground houses have been built. A terrace of five homes, Britain’s first subterranean development,
is under way in Nottinghamshire. Italy’s outstanding example of subterranean architecture is the
Olivetti residential centre in Ivrea. Commissioned by Roberto Olivetti in 1969, it comprises 82 one-
bedroomed apartments and 12 marionettes and forms a house/ hotel for Olivetti employees. It is built
into a hill and little can be seen from outside except a glass facade. Patnzia Vallecchi, a resident since
1992, says it is little different from living in a conventional apartment.
H. Not everyone adapts so well, and in Japan scientists at the Shimizu Corporation have developed
“space creation” systems which mix light, sounds, breezes and scents to stimulate people who spend
long periods below ground. Underground offices in Japan are being equipped with “virtual” windows
and mirrors, while underground departments in the University of Minnesota have periscopes to reflect views and light.
I. But Frank Siegmund and his family love their hobbit lifestyle. Their home evolved when he dug a
cool room for his bakery business in a hill he had created. During a heatwave they took to sleeping
there. “We felt at peace and so close to nature,” he says. “Gradually I began adding to the rooms. It
sounds strange but we are so close to the earth we draw strength from its vibrations. Our children love
it; not every child can boast of being watched through their playroom windows by rabbits.
Questions 76-83. Reading Passage has nine paragraphs (A-I). Choose the most suitable heading for
each paragraph from the list of headings below. Paragraph A has been done for you as an example.
There are more headings than paragraphs so you will not use all of them. List of Headings
i. A designer describes his houses
ii. Most people prefer conventional housing
iii. Simulating a natural environment
iv. How an underground family home developed 7
v. Demands on space and energy are reduced
vi. The plans for future homes
vii. Worldwide examples of underground living accommodation
viii. Some buildings do not require natural light
ix. Developing underground services around the world
x. Underground living improves health
xi. Homes sold before completion
xii. An underground home is discovered
Example Answer: Paragraph A Answer xii 76. Paragraph B __________ 77. Paragraph C __________ 78. Paragraph D __________ 79. Paragraph E __________ 80. Paragraph F __________ 81. Paragraph G __________ 82. Paragraph H __________ 83. Paragraph I __________ Questions 84 – 85.
Complete the sentences below with words taken from the reading passage. Use NO MORE THAN THREE WORDS for each answer.
84. Many developers prefer mass-produced houses because they _____________________.
85. The Dutch development was welcomed by ______________________. Your answers: 76. 77. 78. 79. 80. 81. 82. 83. 84. 85.
Part 4: Read the following passage and choose the best answer to each of the following questions.
Write your answers in corresponding numbered boxes. (1.0 point) Varieties of Tropism
A tropism is considered by scientists to be a phenomenon of the biological variety in which a
living organism turns or grows in response to stimulus from its environment. The direction the
organism grows or turns in is dependent on the direction of the stimulus. The opposite of tropism is
nastic movement, in which the response to stimulus is considered non-directional.
Tropisms are named for the stimulus which generates them. The word ‘tropism’ comes from the
Greek word ‘trope’, which means ‘to turn’ or ‘to change’. Some of the varieties of tropism are
chemotropism, geotropism, hydrotropism, heliotropism, phototropism, and thigmotropism.
Tropisms are usually associated with plants or other fixed organisms. If an organism is capable of
physically moving by its own will or motility, its activity or movement in response to stimulus is not
considered to be a tropism, but rather a taxis, which is a directional response, or a kinesis, which is a non-directional response.
Chemotropism occurs as a result of chemical stimulus, usually in plants or bacteria. A good
example of this type of movement is evident during the growth of a pollen tube. It can be witnessed
when lipids are present at the surface of the stigma, stimulating accelerated growth in the pollen tubes.
These tubes can also be stimulated to grow even faster by the presence of more than one grain of
pollen in the stigma of the flower.
Charles Darwin was the first to document the presence of geotropism, or gravitropism, which is
the turning or growth movement of a plant or fungi in response to the Earth’s gravity. This is visible in
the downward growth of the roots of plants and also in jungle vines which grow downwards from the 8
tops of trees. It can also be seen by taking a close look at the growth directions of lichens and mosses on rocks.
Hydrotropism is the directional growth in response to the stimulus of water and its direction of
movement. It is very difficult to observe in the roots of plants even though it is present since the action
of water is not visible as it constantly courses through the soil and would require the disturbance of the
subject in order to observe. But this process is easy to imagine, as the water thirsty roots of plants
reach out, growing in the direction that will give them the best access to moisture.
Heliotropism is also referred to as the diurnal motion of plants. This term describes the plants’
movements in direct response to the movement of the sun across the sky. Flowers may assume a
random orientation at night, but when the sun rises in the east, the flowers turn towards it and follow it
across the sky as it sets in the west. This motion is accomplished by motor cells within the flexible
segments of the stem, just below the flower. They do this by pumping potassium ions into their tissue,
which changes the pressure, resulting in motion.
Phototropism is different from heliotropism in that it describes the motion of plants in response to
light stimulus, but not just that of the sun. The growth of plants towards a light source is termed
positive phototropism while growth away from a light source is termed negative phototropism. Most
plants experience positive phototropism while their roots exhibit negative phototropic tendencies as
they grow deeper into the soil. Many mosses and lichens are phototropic and can be found to grow on
the parts of rocks that are exposed to the sun while mold and mildew grows in the areas that receive no sunlight.
Some climbing plants such as vines exhibit thigmotropic reactions to the stimulus of touch or
contact. Plants that react in this way contain cells that produce auxin, which causes them to move as
they grow around surfaces such as walls, pots, or poles.
86. The word ‘associated’ in the passage is closest in meaning to _____________ A. compared B. separated C. linked D. handled
87. According to paragraph 2, tropisms are named for _____________
A. the variety of affected plants
B. the stimulus that affects plants
C. the static movement of plants
D. the rate and direction of plant growth
88. According to paragraph 3, which of the following is true about a taxis? A. It is a kind of tropism.
B. It is a directed response to stimulus.
C. It is more responsive than a kinesis. D. It impairs motility.
89. Which of the following can be inferred from paragraph 4 about chemotropism?
A. Adding pollen to a flower creates a chemical stimulus.
B. The action of water is always visible in plants.
C. Lipids are a part of a plant.
D. Pollen is a natural inhibitor of plant growth.
90. According to paragraph 5, which of the following is a sign of geotropism?
A. vines climbing a tree trunk
B. fungi growing on another plant
C. the downward lichen growth of a rock
D. roots appearing above round
91. The word ‘it’ in the passage refers to _____________ A. heliotropism B. stimulus of water C. direction of movement D. action of water
92. According to the last paragraph, which of the following is NOT typical of climbing vines?
A. They exhibit thigmotropism reactions. They contain auxin.
C. They are affected by touch.
D. They harbor mold and mildew.
93. Which of the following is TRUE about Phototropism?
A. It describes the motion of plants in response to the sun.
B. Its negative category affects the downward growth of roots.
C. It stimulates growth in the pollen tubes with lipids.
D. It explains the growth movement of a fungi in response to the Earth’s gravity. 9
94. Which of the following is TRUE about Heliotropism?
A. It is present in plants that pump potassium ions into their tissue.
B. It explains why some plants grow around surfaces like walls and poles.
C. It causes the roots of plants to grow downward from tops of trees.
D. It is caused by chemical stimulus normally in plants or bacteria.
95. Which of the following is TRUE about Hydrotropism?
A. It causes moss to grow on rocks exposed to sunlight.
B. It demonstrates the movement of plants in response to the sun.
C. Its positive category stimulates the growth of plants.
D. It involves a directional response to water. Your answers: 86. 87. 88. 89. 90. 91. 92. 93. 94. 95.
Part 5. You are going to read a text. For questions 96-105, choose from the sections of the article
(A-D). The sections may be chosen more than once. (1.0pt)
Growing up is never easy, but there are some ages when things are particularly complicated,
such as the pre-teens, because you are too old to be a child, but too young to be a teenager. A Lucy
Lucy is ten and feels nobody takes her seriously. Whether she wants to do something, or
doesn't want to do something, she is told that she is just a kid. Her sister, who is twelve, is
allowed to do many more things, because she is considered to be older, and therefore more
grown up. This is particularly so when it comes to boys, who see her as much younger than
she really is, and don't take her as seriously as they do her sister. Luckily she has a friend
called Michael, who is not a boyfriend, but they spend a lot of time together. She has asked
her parents for a dog, but has been told that she is not ready to look after a pet, and feels this is so unfair. B John
John is twelve and his main problem is that he doesn't have as much control over his body as
he would like, because of puberty, which can be frightening. He complains of getting
pimples, and his voice is changing, which makes him feel very self conscious. This age brings
more responsibilities than before, and he spends more time away from his family than he
would like. This means he has to look after himself, which is not easy, although his friends
seem to know what they're doing, and this makes him feel very lonely and left out. C Darren
Darren is thirteen, and the amount of schoolwork he has stresses him out. There is always
homework, and tests, and this frightens him because he realises that what he does at this age
can seriously affect the rest of his life. When he doesn't know what to do, there is very little
help available, and girls make him feel embarrassed and self-conscious. What is even worse is
that everybody talks about going out with them all the time, and sometimes he feels he is the
only one who doesn't know what to do when he's around girls. D Linda
Linda is fourteen and spends a lot of time with girls her own age. She has to make an effort to
fit in, even though she doesn't really agree with many things they say and do. Otherwise, they
make her feel out of place. Her biggest problem is boys, because all her friends have
boyfriends, and she doesn't, because many of the boys she knows are so stupid. She would
love to be able to talk about these things with somebody, but the only people she knows are
her age and they won't admit that they have the same problems. She has problems with
bullies, and most of the time has too much school work to do. Then, when she feels unhappy
and frustrated, she has arguments with her brothers and sisters, and sometimes this leads to her 10
getting in trouble with her parents. The Tribune Questions
96. Which person would like to be older?
97. Which person has problems at home?
98. Which person worries about the future?
99. Which person feels isolated from her friends in a certain way?
100. Which person tries very hard to get on with their friends?
101. Which person seems happiest with someone of the opposite sex?
102. Which person has problems with bullies?
103. Which person sometimes feels uncomfortable with their body?
104. Which person feels unhappy with their skin?
105. Which person feels ignored? Your answers: 96. 97. 98. 99. 100. 101. 102. 103. 104. 105.
SECTION D. WRITING (5.0PTS)
Part 1: Rewrite each of the following sentences in such a way that it means the same as the ones
provided. (0.5 point)
106. They believe that the boy failed his exam because he was nervous.
 The boy’s failure ________________________________________________________
107. The reason I came here was solely to try and improve conditions.
 My sole purpose_______________________________________________________
108. If the weather is fine, my family may go camping at the weekend
 Weather ______________________________________________________________
109. Besides her roommate, Huong has lots of friends.
 In addition to _______________________________________________________
110. There haven’t been such long queues at the cinema since the release of the last blockbuster.
 Not __________________________________________________________________
Part 2: For each of the sentences below, write a new sentence as similar as possible in meaning to
the original sentence, using the given words in bold letters. The word must not be altered in
any way. (0.5 point)
111. As far as I know, Dr. Ani is still working in Lao Cai city. (KNOWLEDGE)
 ___________________________________, Dr. Ani is still working in Lao Cai city
112. Tra was quite relieved when she found out the truth. (RELIEF)
 It was something _____________________________________________ when she found the truth.
113. I promised him that the situation would not be repeated in the future. (WORD)
 I ________________________________________________________ no repetition of the situation in the future.
114. It is recommended that you take water with you as well as few and far between in this area. (LEST)
Travelers to this area are advised to carry water ___________________________________ ground.
115. He was really jealous when he saw his brother’s new car. (GREEN)
 He was ___________________________________ see his brother’s new car. 11
Part 3 (1.5 pts). The graph below shows the comparison on birthrates in Sweden, China, Australia,
and Vietnam per thousands. Summarize the information by selecting and reporting the main
features, and make comparisons where relevant. Write at least 150 words
Comparison on birthrates in some countries per thousands 30 s d san 25 u o r th Pe 20 rates rth 15 Bi 10 5 0 Year
1970 1975 1980 1985 1990 1995 2000 2005 Birthrates in Sweden Birthrates in Australia Birthrates in China Birthrates in Vietnam
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Some people believe that culture will be ruined if it is used to earn tourism revenue, but others
consider that tourism is the only way of protecting a culture. Discuss both sides and give your opinions.
Give reasons for your answer and include any relevant examples from your own knowledge or experience. Write at least 250 words.
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SỞ GIÁO DỤC & ĐÀO TẠO LÀO CAI KỲ THI CHỌN HỌC SINH GIỎI THPT CẤP TỈNH
HDC -ĐỀ THI CHÍNH THỨC NĂM HỌC 2019-2020 HDC gồm có 03 trang Môn thi: TIẾNG ANH
SECTION A. LISTENING (5.0 pts)
0.2 point for each correct answer.
Part 1: You will hear an employee at the museum of London Life taking a booking. Complete the
form. Write NO MORE THAN TWO WORDS AND/OR A NUMBER for each answer.
Write your answers in the corresponding numbered boxes. (2.0pts) 1. James Graeme 2. 16 Mount Hill 3. E15 2TP 4. 770464 5. 15/fifteen 6. 15/fifteen 7. 4/four 8. (£)4.25 9. Underground 10. 12/12th /twelfth
Part 2 (Question 11-20) (2.0 pts)
11. (her) daughter (Anna)/ Anna/ Ana/ (her) child 12. (a) practice/practices 13. (about) 6/ six 14. (about) 4/four (doctors)
15. better/ more efficient / faster 16. elderly / old /older
17. back problems/ trouble /bad back
18. 9 / nine (am) / 9:00 / nine /9 o’clock 19. B-E/ E-B 20. 5 (pounds)/ five (pounds)
Part 3: The English National Opera Company organized a singing competition called
“Operatunity”, which was filmed as part of a television documentary series. You will hear an
interview with Paul Daniel, one of the judges from the opera company, and Jane Gilchrist, one of
the contestants. For questions 21-25, choose the answer (A, B, C or D) which fits best according to
what you hear. Write your answers in the corresponding numbered boxes. (1.0pt) 21. D 22. B 23. C 24. C 25. A
SECTION B. VOCABULARY AND GRAMMAR (3.0 pts)
Part 1: Choose the correct answer (A, B, C, or D) to each of the following questions. (2.0pts)
0.1 point for each correct answer. 46. A 47. B 48. D 49. D 50. D 51. B 52. B 53. A 54. C 55. B 56. D 57. C 58. D 59. D 60. B 61. A 62. D 63. A 64. A 65. B Part 2: (1pt)
0.1 point for each correct answer. 46. materialistic 47. meaningful 48. stressful 49. uneventful 50. atmospheric 51. distasteful 52. enthusiastic 53. Understandably 54. unrealistic 55. inconveniences 16 SECTION C. READING
Part 1: Read the passage and decide which answer (A, B, C, or D) best fits each gap. Write your
answers in the corresponding numbered boxes. (1.0pt)
0.1 point for each correct answer. 56. C 57. B 58. D 59. A 60. D 61. B 62. B 63. A 64. B 65. C
Part 2: Read the text below and think of the word which best fits each space. Use only ONE word in
each space. Write your answers in the answer box below. (1.0 point)
0.1 point for each correct answer. 66. which 67. have 68. to 69. One 70. how 71. did 72. As 73. However 74. much 75. there
Part 3: Read the following extract and do the tasks that follow. Write your answers in the
corresponding numbered boxes. (1.0 pt)
0.1 point for each correct answer. 76. XI/xi 77. IX/ix 78. VIII/viii 79. V/v 80. I/i 81. VII/vii 82. III/iii 83. IV/iv 84. sell (more) quickly 85. (South Limberg) planners
Part 4: Read the following passage and choose the best answer to each of the following questions.
Write your answers in corresponding numbered boxes. (1.0 point)
0.1 point for each correct answer. 86. C 87. B 88. B 89. A 90. C 91. A 92. D 93. B 94. A 95. D
Part 5: You are going to read a text. For questions 96-105, choose from the sections of the article
(A-D). The sections may be chosen more than once. (1.0pt)
0.1 point for each correct answer. 96. A 97. D 98. C 99. B 100. D 101. A 102. D 103. B 104. B 105. B SECTION D. WRITING
Part 1: Rewrite each of the following sentences in such a way that it means the same as the ones
provided. (0.5 point)
0.1 point for each correct answer.
106. The boy’s failure in his exam was put down to the fact that he was nervous.
Or / The boy’s failure in his exam is believed to have resulted from his nerve.
107. My sole purpose of coming here was to try and improve conditions.
108. Weather permitting, my family may go camping at the weekend
109. In addition to her roommate, Huong has lots of friends.
110. Not since the release of the last blockbuster have there been such long queues at the cinema. 17
Part 2: For each of the sentences below, write a new sentence as similar as possible in meaning to
the original sentence, using the given words in bold letters. The word must not be altered in
any way. (0.5 point)
0.1 point for each correct answer.
111. To (the best of) my knowledge, Dr. Ani is still working in Lao Cai city
112. It was something of a relief to Tra when she found the truth.
113. I gave him my word (that) there would be no repetition of the situation in the future.
114. Travelers to this area are advised to carry water lest wells (should) be thin on the ground.
115. He was green with envy to see his brother’s new car. Part 3: 1.5 points Contents (1.0 point)
- The report MUST have a least 2 paragraphs covering the following points:
• Introduce the graph (0.15 point) and state the overall trends (0.15 point)
• Describe main features with relevant data from the graph and make comparisons if necessary (0.7 point)
- The report MUST NOT contain personal opinions. (A penalty of 0.1 point to 0.2 points will be given
to personal opinions found in the answer.)
Language use (0.5 point) The report:
• should demonstrate a wide variety of lexical and grammatical structures.
should have correct use of words (verb tenses, word forms, voice,…); and mechanics (spelling, punctuations,…)
Part 4. 2.5 points. The mark given to part 3 is based on the following criteria:
I. Task achievement: (0.5 point)
a. All requirements of the task are sufficiently addressed.
b. Ideas are adequately supported and elaborated with relevant and reliable explanations, examples,
evidence, personal experience, etc.
II. Organization: (1.0 point)
a. Ideas are well-organized and presented with coherence, cohesion, and unity.
b. The essay is well-structured:
• Introduction is presented with clear thesis statement.
• Body paragraphs are written with unity, coherence, and cohesion. Each body paragraph must
have a topic sentence and supporting details and examples when necessary.
• Conclusion summarizes the main points and offers personal opinions (prediction,
recommendation, consideration,…) on the issue. III.
Languages use (0.8 point)
a. Demonstration of a variety of topic-related vocabulary
b. Excellent use and control of grammatical structures IV.
Punctuation, spelling, and handwriting (0.2 point)
a. Correct punctuation and no spelling mistakes b. Legible handwriting - THE END - 18