Đề thi chọn học sinh giỏi Tiếng Anh 12 cấp trường THPT Chuyên Bảo Lộc Lâm Đồng năm học 2016-2017

Đề thi chọn học sinh giỏi Tiếng Anh 12 cấp trường THPT Chuyên Bảo Lộc Lâm Đồng năm học 2016-2017 giúp các bạn học sinh sắp tham gia các kì thi Tiếng Anh tham khảo, học tập và ôn tập kiến thức, bài tập và đạt kết quả cao trong kỳ thi sắp tới. Mời bạn đọc đón xem!

SỞ GIÁO DỤC - ĐÀO TẠO LÂM ĐỒNG
TRƯỜNG THPT CHUYÊN BẢO LỘC
Đề thi có 15 trang
- Thí sinh không được sử dụng tài liệu, điện thoại di động
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I. LISTENING
Part 1. (Questions 1 – 5) You will hear five students who are studying away from home. They are
talking about their accommodation. Choose from the list of letters (A-F) what each speaker says
about their accommodation. Use the letters only once. There is one extra letter that you do not need to
use. (1.5 pts)
1. Speaker 1: ____________
2. Speaker 2: ____________
3. Speaker 3: ____________
4. Speaker 4: ____________
5. Speaker 5: ____________
A There were few chances for me to socialize there.
B I have recommended it to others.
C I should have thought more about being independent.
D I got on well with my roommate despite a few
disagreements.
E I made a mistake there at first.
F I was able to settle into a new area.
Your answers:
1. ....................... 2. ....................... 3. ....................... 4. ....................... 5. .......................
Part 2. (Questions 6 – 10) You will hear an interview with someone who has started a magazine for
children. Listen and choose the best answer (A, B, or C). (1.5 pts)
6. When talking about her job as a primary school teacher, Kate emphasizes
A. how good she was as a teacher.
B. how difficult the children could be.
C. how much effort the job required.
ĐỀ THI – MÔN TIẾNG ANH
LỚP 12
Năm: 2016
Thời gian làm bài : 180 phút
7. What does Kate say about enthusiasm?
A. Children can not maintain it for long.
B. Children respond positively to it.
C. Children experience it more than adults.
8. Kate says that she learned from her research that children
A. don’t like texts that have too much serous content.
B. don’t know some words that she had expected them to know.
C. don’t want to feel that they are being considered inferior.
9. Kate says that the magazine makes use of the Internet because
A. some children prefer using it to learn about subjects.
B. some subjects can not be covered fully in the magazine.
C. It is used a great deal in connection with some school work.
10. Kate says that one of her aims for the magazine is to
A. include subjects that children don’t normally read about.
B. encourage children to choose what they want as an career.
C. create an interest in subjects some children consider boring.
Your answers:
6. ....................... 7. ....................... 8. ....................... 9. ....................... 10. .......................
Part 3. (1.0 pt)
(Questions 11 – 14) Complete the sentences below. Write NO MORE THAN TWO WORDS for each
answer.
11. The coach is comfortable because it is ............................
12. After all passengers are abroad, the coach will make its first stop at ............................ Island.
13. The ‘tree top walk’ is above a ............................ .
14. Passengers will have a ............................ with the alpacas before boarding the bus for home.
Your answers:
11. ....................... 12. ....................... 13. ....................... 14. .......................
(Questions 15 – 20). Complete the table below. Write NO MORE THAN TWO WORDS AND/OR A
NUMBER for each answer.
DREAMTIME TOURS
Booking at 15. ............................ or Tel: 07 5562 4402
16. ............................ TOUR
SUNDAY, MONDAY, FRIDAY
COSTS:
FULL-DAY TOUR
280km
DEPARTS:
Adult
17. ............................
Child (4 – 14 years)
Family (2 Adults, 2
Children)
$37.00
$33.00
$10.00
$94.00
Coolangatta
Bruleigh
Surfers Paradise
Labrador
7:50 a.m.
8:10 a.m.
18. ............................
8:45 a.m.
Prices include 19. ............................ only
*
Free pick-up at your resort, hotel, or motel
*
Not included in the fare: Optional tours, luncheons, morning or afternoon tea (unless otherwise
specified), 20. ............................
Meals and refreshments are available at all stops (at your own cost)
Your answers:
15. .............................................. 16. .............................................. 17. ..............................................
18. .............................................. 19. .............................................. 20.
II. LEXICO – GRAMMAR.
Part 1. Choose the best answer for each question. (2.0 pts)
1. The bank teller asked the man for _________ of his identity.
A. features B. symptoms C. proof D. signs
2. The coroner recorded a _______ of misadventure on the death of the student.
A. verdict B. statement C. sentence D. decision
3. The rich couple often threw _______ parties and invited many well-known personalities.
A. lavish B. extreme C. drastic D. demure
4. He _______his brains for a solution to the problem.
A. screened B. ransacked C. racked D. scrutinized
5. Peter was behaving as _____ as a bull in a China shop.
A. angry B. crazy C. strong D. clumsy
6. We don’t know what you expect but Tommy is _________________ the best player we have.
A. far and away B. far and wide C. as far as D. so far
7. We must get there ___________ or other. If there are no buses, we’ll have to take a taxi.
A. anyhow B. anyway C. anywhere D. somehow
8. All the evidence __________ to his guilt.
A. guides B. points C. refers D. signifies
9. The travelers were ________ on the deserted island for about two months.
A. marooned C. relinquished C. yielded D. maintained
10. I cannot __________ her misbehavior any longer.
A. abase B. abide C. abate D. abduct
11. All the tickets for the concert by the ___________ performer had been sold an hour after the sales
office opened.
A. well-off B. well-liked C. well-advised D. well-bred
12. That bottle of medicated oil is meant for__________ use.
A. ethical B. lateral C. logical D. external
13. His __________ goal in life is to buy a big house in town.
A. visible B. divine C. ultimate D. surreal
14. You cannot use my membership card because it is not ____________.
A. detachable B. adaptable C. transferable D. transportable
15. In the United States ______________ is the most concentrated is New Orleans.
A. French influence the city B. the city where French influence
C. where the city influences French D. where the French influence the city
16. I’ve yet ______________ a person as his father.
A. to have known such generous B. to know as generous
C. knowing as generous D. been knowing such generous
17. ______________, she went back to her room.
A. There was no cause for alarm B. Without having cause for alarm
C. There being no cause for alarm D. Being no cause for alarm
18. ______________ to a new office with a salary half as much did he appreciate his former boss’s
generosity.
A. He had been transferred B. Having been transferred
C. Not until transferred D. Only when transferred
19. ______________, there’s no place like home.
A. Be it ever so humble B. Should it be humble
C. As humble as it could be D. To be humble
20. The kids’ performance was admirable ...............................................
A. but for their informal training
B. inasmuch as they had received no formal training
C. although their training was formal
D. regardless of the informal training they received
Your answers:
1. ....................... 2. ....................... 3. ....................... 4. ....................... 5. .......................
6. ....................... 7. ....................... 8. ....................... 9. ....................... 10. .......................
11. ....................... 12. ....................... 13. ....................... 14. ....................... 15. .......................
16. ....................... 17. ....................... 18. ....................... 19. ....................... 20. .......................
Part 2. PREPOSITIONS AND PHRASAL VERBS (1.0 pt)
Fill in each gap with one suitable preposition or article.
1. The racing car blew ________ after it crashed into the fence.
2. I work __________ at the gym three times a week.
3. I turned the job ___________ because I don't want to move.
4. We kept our relationship _______________ our parents for two years.
5. This bike is too big for him now, but he should grow ____________ it by next year.
6. My best friend and I grew ______________ after she changed schools.
7. I went__________ my dream and now I am a published writer.
8. My boyfriend didn't want to go to the ballet, but he finally gave__________.
9. Jason always gets ____________ with cheating in his maths tests.
10. My doctor wants me to cut _________________ on sweets and fatty foods.
Your answers:
1. ....................... 2. ....................... 3. ....................... 4. ....................... 5. .......................
6. ....................... 7. ....................... 8. ....................... 9. ....................... 10. .......................
Part 3. WORD FORM. Put each word in the right column in its correct form. (2.0 pts)
Speculative fiction is an umbrella phrase encompassing the more
(1) ________________ fiction genres, specifically science
fiction, fantasy, horror, superhero fiction, utopian and dystopian
fiction, (2) ________________ and post-apocalyptic fiction,
and alternate history in literature as well as related static, motion,
and virtual arts. It has been around since humans began to speak.
The earliest forms of speculative fiction were likely
(3) ________________ tales told around the campfire. Speculative
fiction deals with the "What if?" (4) _____________ imagined by
dreamers and thinkers worldwide. Journeys to other worlds through
the vast reaches of distant space; magical quests to free worlds
(5) _____________ by terrible beings; malevolent
(6) _____________ powers seeking to increase their spheres of
influence across (7) _____________ dimensions and times; all of
these fall into the realm of speculative fiction.
Speculative fiction as a category ranges from ancient works
to cutting edge, paradigm-changing, and neotraditional works of the
21st century. It can be recognized in works whose authors'
intentions or the social contexts of the versions of stories they
portrayed is now known. For example, Ancient Greek
(8) _____________ such as Euripides, whose play Medea seemed
to have offended Athenian audiences when he (9) _____________
speculated that shamaness Medea killed her own children instead of
their being killed by other Corinthians after her departure. The
play Hippolytus, narratively introduced by Aphrodite, is suspected
to have (10) _____________ contemporary audiences of the day
because it depicted Phaedra as too lusty.
1. FAN
2. APOCALYPSE
3. MYTH
4. SCENE
5. SLAVE
6. NATURE
7. MULTIPLICATION
8. DRAMA
9. FICTION
10. PLEASE
Your answers:
1. ....................... 2. ....................... 3. ....................... 4. ....................... 5. .......................
6. ....................... 7. ....................... 8. ....................... 9. ....................... 10. .......................
Part 4. There are 10 mistakes (grammar, choice of word, spelling) in the following text. Identify
them.
TEXT LINE
In economics, game theory, and decision theory the expected utility hypothesis is a
hypothesis concerning people's preferences in regard to choices that have uncertain
outcomes (gambles). This hypothesis states that if specific axioms are satisfied, the
subjective value associating with an individual's gamble is the statistical expectation
of that individual's valuations of the outcomes of that gamble. This hypothesis has
proved usefully to explain some popular choices that seem to contradict the expected
value criterion (which takes into an account only the sizes of the payouts and the
probabilities of occurrence), such as occur in the contexts of gambling and
insurance. Daniel Bernoulli initiated this hypothesis in 1738. Until the mid-twentieth
century, the standard term for the expected utility was the moral expectation,
contrasted with "mathematical expectation" for the expected value.
The von Neumann–Morgenstern utility theorem provides necessary and sufficient
conditions under that the expected utility hypothesis holds. From relatively early on,
it was accepted that some of these conditions would be violated by real
decision-makers in the practice but that the conditions could be interpreted
nonetheless as 'axioms' of rational choice. Work by Anand (1993) argues against this
normative interpretation and shows that 'rationality' does not require transitivity,
independence or completeness. This view is now referred as the 'modern view' and
Anand argues that although the normative and evidential difficulties the general
theory of decision-making based on expected utility is an insightful first order
approximation that highlight some important fundamental principles of choice,
even if it imposes conceptual and technical limits on analyse which need to be
relaxed in real world settings where knowledge is less certain or preferences are more
sophisticated.
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24. ....................
Your answers:
1.
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2.
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3.
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4.
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10.
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III. READING.
Part 1. Passage 1. (1.5 pts)
A. Choose the correct headings for sections A – F from the list of headings below.
List of headings
i
ii
iii
iv
v
vi
vii
viii
ix
x
Construction of special cinemas for 3-D
Good returns forecast for immediate future
The greatest 3-D film of all time
End of traditional movies for children
Early developments
New technology diminishes the art
The golden age of movies
In defense of 3-D
3-D is here to stay
Undesirable visual effects
Three-Dimensional Films
A In the theater of Ambassador Hotel in Los Angeles, on the evening of 27 September 1922, a new
form of film-making made its commercial debut : 3-D
1.
The film, The Power of Love, was then shown in
New York City to exhibitors and press, but was subsequently not picked up for distribution and is now
believed to be lost. The following three decades were a period of quiet experimentation for 3-D
pioneers, as they adapted to new technologies and steadily improved the viewing experience. In 1952,
the “golden era” of 3-D is considered to have begun with the release of Bwana Devil, and over the next
several years, audiences met with a string of films that used the technology. Over the following decades,
it waxed and waned within film-making circles, peaking in the 1970s and again in the 1990s when
IMAX gained traction, but it is only in the last few years that 3-D appears to have firmly entered
mainstream production.
B Released worldwide in September 2009, the fantasy film Avatar quickly became the highest-
grossing film ever made, knocking Titanic from the top slot. Avatar, set in 2154 on a planet in a distant
solar system, went on to become the only film to have earned US$2 billion worldwide, and is now
approaching the $3 billion mark. The main reason for this runaway popularity appears to be its visual
splendors; though most critics raised the film, it was mostly on account of its ground-breaking special
effects. Kenneth Turan of the Los Angeles Times praised Avatar’s “powerful” visual accomplishments,
but suggested the dialogue was “flat” and the characterizations “obvious”. A film analyst at Exhibitor
Relations has agreed, noting that Avatar has cemented the use of 3-D as a production and promotional
tool for blockbuster films, rather than a mere niche or novelty experiment. “This is why all 3-D venues
were built,” he said. “This is the one. The behemoth ... The holy grail of 3-D has finally arrived.”
C Those who embrace 3-D note that it spices up a trip to the cinema by adding a more active
“embodied” layer of experience instead of the viewer passively receiving the film through eyes and ears
only. A blogger on Animation Ideas writes, “... when 3-D is done well, like in the flying scenes in UP,
How to Train Your Dragon, and Avatar, there is an added feeling of vertigo. If you have any fear of
heights, the 3-D really adds to this element ...” Kevin Carr argues that the backlash against 3-D is similar
to that which occurred against CGI
2
several years ago, and points out that CGI is now widely regarded
as part of the film-maker’s artistic toolkit. He also notes that new technology is frequently seen to be a
“gimmick” in its early days, pointing out the many commentators slapped the first “talkie” films of the
early 1920s with this same label.
D But not everyone greets the rise of 3-D with open arms. Some ophthalmologists point out that 3-
D can have unsettling physical effects for many viewers. Dr. Michael Rosenberg, a professor at
Northwestern University, has pointed out that many people go through life with minor eye disturbance s
– a slight muscular imbalance – for example – that does not interrupt day-to-day activities. In the
experience of a 3-D movie, however, this problem can be exacerbated through viewer trying to
concentrate on unusual visual phenomena. Dr. Deborah Friedman, from the University of Rochester
Medical Center, notes that the perception of depth conjured through three dimensions does not
complement the angles from which we take in the world. Eyestrains, headaches and nausea are,
therefore, a problem for around 15% of a 3-D film audience.
E Film critics Roger Elbert warns that 3-D is detrimental to good film-making. Firstly, he argues,
the technology is simply unnecessary; 2-D movies are “already” 3-D, as far as our minds are concerned.
Adding the extra dimension with technology, instead of letting our minds do the work, can actually be
counter-purposeful and make the overall effect seem clumsy and contrived. Ebert also points out that the
special glasses dim the effect by soaking up light from the screen, making 3-D films a slightly duller
experience that they might otherwise be. Finally, Elbert suggests that 3-D encourages film-makers to
undercut drama and narrative in favor of simply piling on more gimmicks and special effects.
“Hollywood is racing headlong toward the kiddie market,” he says, pointing out the Disney’s
announcement that it will no longer make traditional films in favor of animation, franchises and
superheroes.
F Whether or not 3-D becomes a powerful force for the film-maker’s vision and the film-going
experience, or goes down in history as an over-hyped, expensive novelty, the technology certainly
shows no sign of fading in the popularity stakes at the moment. Clash of the Titan, Alice in the
Wonderland, and How to Train Your Dragon have all recently benefited at the box office due to the
added sales that 3-D provides, and with Avatar ‘s record set to last some time as a totem of 3-D’s
commercial possibilities, studios are not prepared to back down.
1. Section A: .............................
2. Section B: .............................
3. Section C: .............................
4. Section D: .............................
5. Section E: .............................
6. Section F: .............................
Your answers:
1. .................... 2. .................... 3. .................... 4. .................... 5. .................... 6. ....................
B. Decide whether these statements are True or False.
7. 3-D conflicts with our mental construct of our surroundings.
8. 3-D encourages an over-emphasis on quick visual thrills.
9. Avatar’s strength is found both in its visual splendor and in aspects of story.
10. Use of 3-D technology proves to worsen our sensation of elevation.
Your answers:
7. .................... 8. .................... 9. .................... 10. ....................
Part 2. Passage 2. Read the following passage and choose the best answer for each of the questions
below.
(1.5 pts)
SURFACE WATER AND GROUND WATER
Ensuring the reliability and purity of the water supply is one of the more significant challenges
facing an ever growing world population. Unfortunately, only about 3% of the world’s total water
supply is fresh; the rest is sea water and is unusable for most of our purposes. Furthermore, of that 3%,
three fourths are largely inaccessible because it exists as frozen ice locked in the polar ice caps or as
glaciers high in mountains. The remaining percentage of fresh water that is available for human use
exists in two forms: surface water and ground water.
Surface water is found in rivers, lakes, and man-made reservoirs fad by either rainfall or
snowmelt. Surface water makes up nearly 80% of all the water utilized by humans, primarily due to its
accessibility. Nearly every river or lake in the world contains one or more pumping stations to divert a
portion of its flow to nearby population centers. However, surface water supplies present several
disadvantages. First, surface water is easily polluted. Chemical pollution from the air enters surface
water in the form of rain, and ground pollution is either dumped directly into lakes and rivers or washed
into them by rainwater. A In addition, biological pollution caused by the dumping of raw sewage into a
water source, can lead to dangerous levels of bacteria. B Another problem is relying on surface water is
that its supply is highly variable. C Water levels in lakes and rivers can fall drastically in periods of
severe drought. D In places that are prone to extended dry periods, such as Australia or much of
California, some rivers are even known to occasionally run dry due to a combination of drought and
overuse.
The other primary source of fresh water is ground water. Although ground water is estimated to
be as much as 50 times more abundant than surface water, it constitutes only 20% of all the fresh water
used by human s, and much of this usage occurs in rural areas. This is a reflection of the relative
difficulty in obtaining ground water. Ground water exists in underground deposits known as aquifers,
layers of porous rock in the Earth. As rainwater sinks into the ground it eventually reaches the aquifer
where it is absorbed, much as a kitchen sponge absorbs water.
To obtain ground water, a well must be drilled down to the level of the aquifer, and then the
water must be pumped to the surface. Aquifers occur at different depths in different areas, and the
deeper the aquifer, the more difficult and more expensive it is to extract its water. Furthermore, if water
is taken from an aquifer at a higher rate than it is recharged naturally, its level will drop, necessitating
ever deeper wells. This also creates problems with ground stability. As water is drained out of an
aquifer, the ground naturally tends to sink and compress, leading to greater risk of subsidence and
landslides. Since aquifers are fed through a slow acting system of drainage, they have much slower
recharge rates than surface water resources and are easily overtaxed. Therefore, ground water is
generally only used when surface water is unavailable, even though ground water is far more abundant.
Like surface water, ground water can also become polluted, although not as easily. The soil that
water sinks through before reaching the aquifer acts as a natural filter, leaching out some of the
pollutants. Furthermore, the lack of oxygen in the aquifer generally restricts the growth of bacteria, so
most ground water can be utilized safely without treatment. However, pollution can enter an aquifer
when pollution sources are buried underground, such as they are in landfills. In other areas, the presence
of heavy metal, nearly all of which are highly toxic in the human body, may render ground water
undrinkable.
1. According to paragraph 1, all of the following are true of fresh water EXCEPT:
A. It makes up a minute proportion of the world’s total water supply.
B. Much of it is unavailable for human use.
C. Its supply is endangered by the melting of the ice caps.
D. Its reliable supply is a growing problem in the world.
2. What is the source of most surface water?
A. Melting glaciers
B. Underground springs
C. Precipitation
D. Filtration of seawater
3. Based on the information in paragraph 2, what can be inferred about most population centers?
A. They have grown to sixes unsustainable by current water resources.
B. They generally can be found in close proximity to a source of surface.
C. They always contribute to great levels of pollution in surface water.
D. They are unable to cope with rising levels of bacteria in surface water.
4. The word prone in the passage is closest meaning to
A. inclined B. experienced C. recognized D. associated
5. According to paragraph 2, what causes increases in bacteria in surface water?
A. Increased industrial pollution
B. The dumping of human and animal waste
C. Overexploitation of a surface water source
D. Drops in the overall level of a surface water source
6. The word porous in the passage is closest meaning to
A. sodden B. absorptive C. permeable D. submerged
7. In paragraph 3, the author mentions the abundance of the ground water in order to
A. suggest that it may offer a solution to the world’s water needs
B. contrast with its relatively low usage by humans
C. explain the lack of surface water in many areas
D. explain why it is only used in rural areas
8. According to paragraph 4, increased danger of subsidence is caused by
A. excessive drops in the level of an aquifer
B. the holes created by large numbers of wells
C. the compression of water in an aquifer
D. landsides beneath an aquifer
9. According to paragraph 5, bacteria are generally not a concern in ground water because
A. heavy metals prevent their growth
B. they is not enough air to support them
C. they are filtered out before they reach the aquifer
D. bacteria would make the water undrinkable
10. Which of the following can be inferred from paragraph 5 about heavy metals?
A. They only occur in aquifers.
B. They cannot be filtered out of water.
C. They are generally water soluble.
D. They can be detected by their foul taste.
Your answer:
1. 2. 3. 4. 5. 6.
7. 8. 9. 10. 11. 12.
Part 3. CLOZE READING. Read the following passage and choose the correct word for each of the
blanks: (1.5 pts)
The poetry of Gwendolyn Brooks has been praised for deepening the significance of personal and
social experiences so that these experiences become universal in their (1) ____________. She has also
been praised for her "sense of form, which is basic and remarkable". Many of her poems are (2)
____________ with a Black community named Bronzeville, on the south side of Chicago. Her literary
(3) ____________ makes Bronzeville more than just a place on a map. This community, like all
important literary places (Robinson's Tilbury Town and Masters' Spoon River, for example), becomes a
testing ground of personality, a place where the raw (4) ____________ of experience is (5)
____________ by imagination and where the joys and trials of being human are both sung and judged.
The qualities for which Brooks's poetry is not are (as one critic has (6) ____________ out) "boldness,
invention, a daring to experiment, and a naturalness that does not scorn literature but absorbs it".
Her love (7) ____________ poetry began early. At the age of seven she "began to put rhymes
together", and when she was thirteen, on of her poems was published in a children' s magazine. During
her teens she (8) ____________ more than seventy-five poems to a Chicago newspaper. In 1941 she
began to attend a class in writing poetry at the South Side Community Art Center, and several years
later, her poems began to appear in Poetry and other magazines. Her first collection of poems, A Street
in Bronzeville, was published in 1945. Four years later, Annie Allen, her second collection of poems,
appeared. In 1950 Annie Allen was (9) ____________ a Pulitzer prize for poetry. The novel Maud
Martha, about a young black girl growing up in Chicago, published in 1953, was praised for its warmth
and (10) ____________. In 1963 her Selected Poems appeared.
1. A. knowledge B. implication C. indication D. potential
2. A. involved B. connected C. related D. concerned
3. A. skill B. quality C. capacity D. manner
4. A. substance B. components C. material D. elements
5. A. formed B. shaped C. decided D. caused
6. A. pointed B. made C. cleared D. showed
7. A. to B. with C. for D. on
8. A. devoted B. dedicated C. attributed D. contributed
9. A. presented B. rewarded C. awarded D. honored
10. A. concerns B. considerations C. insights D. awareness
Your answers:
1. ....................... 2. ....................... 3. ....................... 4. ....................... 5. .......................
6. ....................... 7. ....................... 8. ....................... 9. ....................... 10. .......................
Part 4. CLOZE TEST. Fill in each gap with ONE suitable word. 1.5 pts)
Early photography
In the early days of photography, a stand or some other firm support for the camera was essential. This
was because photographic materials were so insensitive to light that a typical exposure lasted several
seconds. The camera (1) ___________ have to be held still for this time in order to obtain a sharp
picture. The subjects also had to be still if their images (2) ___________ to register properly on the
film. Some early street scenes include blurred, transparent, ghostlike images of people (3) ___________
wandered past while the scene was in the process of (4) ___________ photographed.
Studio portraits from the late 1800s show people posed rigidly, often leaning against furniture,
(5)___________ helped them to remain motionless. As it was important to keep the head still, a support
was often provided (6) ___________ the neck. Bright studio lights, sometimes produced by
(7)___________fire to a strip of magnesium or a small pile of magnesium powder, helped in reducing
the required exposure time. These burned with an intensely blue flame that gave the necessary amount
of light, although the smoke was unpleasant and (8)__________was also a risk of fire.
The problems associated (9) ___________ long exposure were overcome by the introduction of faster,
more sensitive photographic plates, and later, roll films. The development of smaller cameras led to
photography becoming a popular hobby. Nowadays, digital cameras have further revolutionised
photography, enabling even the (10) ___________ inexperienced of photographers to produce
professional looking pictures.
Your answers:
1. ....................... 2. ....................... 3. ....................... 4. ....................... 5. .......................
6. ....................... 7. ....................... 8. ....................... 9. ....................... 10. .......................
WRITING
Part 1. SENTENCE TRANSFORMATION. Rewrite each of these sentences in such a way that its
meaning is kept unchanged. Do NOT change the word in bracket in any way.
1. Nobody knows what annoyed our boss. (CHEESED)
→ Why ..........................................................................................................................................
2. It was not until he lost the last match that he realized he was a little too old for competitions. (LONG)
→ Hardly ..........................................................................................................................................
3. The serious look on his face stopped us revealing the secret. (CAT)
→ Hadn’t it ........................................................................................................................................
4. It was unwise of you to try to do so many things without being aware of your shortcomings. (THIN)
→ You shouldn’t ................................................................................................................................
5. He would spend his very last penny trying to ingratiate himself with his father-in-law. (EXPENSE)
→ In his ..............................................................................................................................................
6.Where the real cause of the decline in the competition’s popularity lies is still debatable. (SPOT)
→ It is open ........................................................................................................................................
7. People who often talk too much about unimportant things do not appeal to me. (DONKEY)
→ I’m not in .......................................................................................................................................
8. It’s bad I failed to do my share of the job. (WEIGHT)
→ I would like ....................................................................................................................................
9. That this celebrity keeps her own affairs away from public attention is of great importance.
(PROFILE)
→ It is advisable that this ..................................................................................................................
10. Looking back, I have a feeling that they gave the deceptive information about the case. (BOOKS)
→ In ..................................................................................................................................................
Part 2. Write an composition of about 150 words on the following topic: (2.5 pts)
Some people believe that using animals to test the safety of human medicines is cruel and
unwarranted, whereas others feel it is a medical necessity.
Discuss both views and state your own opinion.
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Preview text:

SỞ GIÁO DỤC - ĐÀO TẠO LÂM ĐỒNG
ĐỀ THI – MÔN TIẾNG ANH
TRƯỜNG THPT CHUYÊN BẢO LỘC LỚP 12 Năm: 2016
Thời gian làm bài : 180 phút
Đề thi có 15 trang
- Thí sinh không được sử dụng tài liệu, điện thoại di động
----------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------
I. LISTENING
Part 1. (Questions 1 – 5) You will hear five students who are studying away from home. They are
talking about their accommodation. Choose from the list of letters (A-F) what each speaker says
about their accommodation. Use the letters only once. There is one extra letter that you do not need to use. (1.5 pts)
1. Speaker 1: ____________
A There were few chances for me to socialize there.
B I have recommended it to others.
2. Speaker 2: ____________
C I should have thought more about being independent.
3. Speaker 3: ____________
D I got on well with my roommate despite a few
4. Speaker 4: ____________ disagreements.
5. Speaker 5: ____________
E I made a mistake there at first.
F I was able to settle into a new area. Your answers: 1. ....................... 2. ....................... 3. ....................... 4. ....................... 5. .......................
Part 2. (Questions 6 – 10) You will hear an interview with someone who has started a magazine for
children. Listen and choose the best answer (A, B, or C). (1.5 pts)
6. When talking about her job as a primary school teacher, Kate emphasizes
A. how good she was as a teacher.
B. how difficult the children could be.
C. how much effort the job required.
7. What does Kate say about enthusiasm?
A. Children can not maintain it for long.
B. Children respond positively to it.
C. Children experience it more than adults.
8. Kate says that she learned from her research that children
A. don’t like texts that have too much serous content.
B. don’t know some words that she had expected them to know.
C. don’t want to feel that they are being considered inferior.
9. Kate says that the magazine makes use of the Internet because
A. some children prefer using it to learn about subjects.
B. some subjects can not be covered fully in the magazine.
C. It is used a great deal in connection with some school work.
10. Kate says that one of her aims for the magazine is to
A. include subjects that children don’t normally read about.
B. encourage children to choose what they want as an career.
C. create an interest in subjects some children consider boring. Your answers:
6. ....................... 7. ....................... 8. ....................... 9. ....................... 10. ....................... Part 3. (1.0 pt)
(Questions 11 – 14) Complete the sentences below. Write NO MORE THAN TWO WORDS for each answer.
11. The coach is comfortable because it is ............................
12. After all passengers are abroad, the coach will make its first stop at ............................ Island.
13. The ‘tree top walk’ is above a ............................ .
14. Passengers will have a ............................ with the alpacas before boarding the bus for home. Your answers: 11. ....................... 12. ....................... 13. ....................... 14. .......................
(Questions 15 – 20). Complete the table below. Write NO MORE THAN TWO WORDS AND/OR A
NUMBER for each answer. DREAMTIME TOURS
Booking at 15. ............................ or Tel: 07 5562 4402
16. ............................ TOUR SUNDAY, MONDAY, FRIDAY FULL-DAY TOUR 280km COSTS: DEPARTS: Adult $37.00 Coolangatta 7:50 a.m.
17. ............................ $33.00 Bruleigh 8:10 a.m. Child (4 – 14 years) $10.00 Surfers Paradise
18. ............................ Family (2 Adults, 2 $94.00 Labrador 8:45 a.m. Children)
Prices include 19. ............................ only*
Free pick-up at your resort, hotel, or motel
*Not included in the fare: Optional tours, luncheons, morning or afternoon tea (unless otherwise
specified), 20. ............................
Meals and refreshments are available at all stops (at your own cost) Your answers:
15. ..............................................
16. ..............................................
17. ..............................................
18. ..............................................
19. .............................................. 20.
II. LEXICO – GRAMMAR.
Part 1. Choose the best answer for each question. (2.0 pts)
1. The bank teller asked the man for _________ of his identity. A. features B. symptoms C. proof D. signs
2. The coroner recorded a _______ of misadventure on the death of the student. A. verdict B. statement C. sentence D. decision
3. The rich couple often threw _______ parties and invited many well-known personalities. A. lavish B. extreme C. drastic D. demure
4. He _______his brains for a solution to the problem. A. screened B. ransacked C. racked D. scrutinized
5. Peter was behaving as _____ as a bull in a China shop. A. angry B. crazy C. strong D. clumsy
6. We don’t know what you expect but Tommy is _________________ the best player we have. A. far and away B. far and wide C. as far as D. so far
7. We must get there ___________ or other. If there are no buses, we’ll have to take a taxi. A. anyhow B. anyway C. anywhere D. somehow
8. All the evidence __________ to his guilt. A. guides B. points C. refers D. signifies
9. The travelers were ________ on the deserted island for about two months. A. marooned C. relinquished C. yielded D. maintained
10. I cannot __________ her misbehavior any longer. A. abase B. abide C. abate D. abduct
11. All the tickets for the concert by the ___________ performer had been sold an hour after the sales office opened. A. well-off B. well-liked C. well-advised D. well-bred
12. That bottle of medicated oil is meant for__________ use. A. ethical B. lateral C. logical D. external
13. His __________ goal in life is to buy a big house in town. A. visible B. divine C. ultimate D. surreal
14. You cannot use my membership card because it is not ____________. A. detachable B. adaptable C. transferable D. transportable
15. In the United States ______________ is the most concentrated is New Orleans. A. French influence the city
B. the city where French influence
C. where the city influences French
D. where the French influence the city
16. I’ve yet ______________ a person as his father.
A. to have known such generous B. to know as generous C. knowing as generous D. been knowing such generous
17. ______________, she went back to her room.
A. There was no cause for alarm
B. Without having cause for alarm
C. There being no cause for alarm D. Being no cause for alarm
18. ______________ to a new office with a salary half as much did he appreciate his former boss’s generosity. A. He had been transferred B. Having been transferred C. Not until transferred D. Only when transferred
19. ______________, there’s no place like home. A. Be it ever so humble B. Should it be humble C. As humble as it could be D. To be humble
20. The kids’ performance was admirable ...............................................
A. but for their informal training
B. inasmuch as they had received no formal training
C. although their training was formal
D. regardless of the informal training they received Your answers: 1. ....................... 2. ....................... 3. ....................... 4. ....................... 5. ....................... 6. ....................... 7. ....................... 8. ....................... 9. ....................... 10. ....................... 11. ....................... 12. ....................... 13. ....................... 14. ....................... 15. ....................... 16. ....................... 17. ....................... 18. ....................... 19. ....................... 20. .......................
Part 2. PREPOSITIONS AND PHRASAL VERBS (1.0 pt)
Fill in each gap with one suitable preposition or article.
1. The racing car blew ________ after it crashed into the fence.
2. I work __________ at the gym three times a week.
3. I turned the job ___________ because I don't want to move.
4. We kept our relationship _______________ our parents for two years.
5. This bike is too big for him now, but he should grow ____________ it by next year.
6. My best friend and I grew ______________ after she changed schools.
7. I went__________ my dream and now I am a published writer.
8. My boyfriend didn't want to go to the ballet, but he finally gave__________.
9. Jason always gets ____________ with cheating in his maths tests.
10. My doctor wants me to cut _________________ on sweets and fatty foods. Your answers: 1. ....................... 2. ....................... 3. ....................... 4. ....................... 5. ....................... 6. ....................... 7. ....................... 8. ....................... 9. ....................... 10. .......................
Part 3. WORD FORM. Put each word in the right column in its correct form. (2.0 pts)
Speculative fiction is an umbrella phrase encompassing the more
(1) ________________ fiction genres, specifically science 1. FAN
fiction, fantasy, horror, superhero fiction, utopian and dystopian 2. APOCALYPSE
fiction, (2) ________________ and post-apocalyptic fiction,
and alternate history in literature as well as related static, motion,
and virtual arts. It has been around since humans began to speak.
The earliest forms of speculative fiction were likely
(3) ________________ tales told around the campfire. Speculative 3. MYTH
fiction deals with the "What if?" (4) _____________ imagined by 4. SCENE
dreamers and thinkers worldwide. Journeys to other worlds through
the vast reaches of distant space; magical quests to free worlds
(5) _____________ by terrible beings; malevolent 5. SLAVE
(6) _____________ powers seeking to increase their spheres of 6. NATURE
influence across (7) _____________ dimensions and times; all of 7. MULTIPLICATION
these fall into the realm of speculative fiction.
Speculative fiction as a category ranges from ancient works
to cutting edge, paradigm-changing, and neotraditional works of the
21st century. It can be recognized in works whose authors'
intentions or the social contexts of the versions of stories they
portrayed is now known. For example, Ancient Greek
(8) _____________ such as Euripides, whose play Medea seemed 8. DRAMA
to have offended Athenian audiences when he (9) _____________ 9. FICTION
speculated that shamaness Medea killed her own children instead of
their being killed by other Corinthians after her departure. The
play Hippolytus, narratively introduced by Aphrodite, is suspected
to have (10) _____________ contemporary audiences of the day 10. PLEASE
because it depicted Phaedra as too lusty. Your answers: 1. ....................... 2. ....................... 3. ....................... 4. ....................... 5. ....................... 6. ....................... 7. ....................... 8. ....................... 9. ....................... 10. .......................
Part 4. There are 10 mistakes (grammar, choice of word, spelling) in the following text. Identify them. TEXT LINE
In economics, game theory, and decision theory the expected utility hypothesis is a 1. ....................
hypothesis concerning people's preferences in regard to choices that have uncertain 2. ....................
outcomes (gambles). This hypothesis states that if specific axioms are satisfied, the 3. ....................
subjective value associating with an individual's gamble is the statistical expectation 4. ....................
of that individual's valuations of the outcomes of that gamble. This hypothesis has 5. ....................
proved usefully to explain some popular choices that seem to contradict the expected 6. ....................
value criterion (which takes into an account only the sizes of the payouts and the 7. ....................
probabilities of occurrence), such as occur in the contexts of gambling and 8. ....................
insurance. Daniel Bernoulli initiated this hypothesis in 1738. Until the mid-twentieth 9. ....................
century, the standard term for the expected utility was the moral expectation, 10. ....................
contrasted with "mathematical expectation" for the expected value. 11. ....................
The von Neumann–Morgenstern utility theorem provides necessary and sufficient 12. ....................
conditions under that the expected utility hypothesis holds. From relatively early on, 13. ....................
it was accepted that some of these conditions would be violated by real 14. ....................
decision-makers in the practice but that the conditions could be interpreted 15. ....................
nonetheless as 'axioms' of rational choice. Work by Anand (1993) argues against this 16. ....................
normative interpretation and shows that 'rationality' does not require transitivity, 17. ....................
independence or completeness. This view is now referred as the 'modern view' and 18. ....................
Anand argues that although the normative and evidential difficulties the general 19. ....................
theory of decision-making based on expected utility is an insightful first order 20. ....................
approximation that highlight some important fundamental principles of choice, 21. ....................
even if it imposes conceptual and technical limits on analyse which need to be 22. ....................
relaxed in real world settings where knowledge is less certain or preferences are more 23. .................... sophisticated. 24. .................... Your answers: 1. 2. 3. 4. 5.
Line: ............. ...... Line: ............. ...... Line: ............. ...... Line: ............. ...... Line: ............. ...... ...................... ...................... ...................... ...................... ...................... 6. 7. 8. 9. 10.
Line: ............. ...... Line: ............. ...... Line: ............. ...... Line: ............. ...... Line: ............. ...... ...................... ...................... ...................... ...................... ...................... III. READING.
Part 1. Passage 1. (1.5 pts)
A. Choose the correct headings for sections A – F from the list of headings below.
List of headings i
Construction of special cinemas for 3-D ii
Good returns forecast for immediate future iii
The greatest 3-D film of all time iv
End of traditional movies for children v Early developments vi
New technology diminishes the art vii
The golden age of movies viii In defense of 3-D ix 3-D is here to stay x
Undesirable visual effects Three-Dimensional Films A
In the theater of Ambassador Hotel in Los Angeles, on the evening of 27 September 1922, a new
form of film-making made its commercial debut : 3-D1. The film, The Power of Love, was then shown in
New York City to exhibitors and press, but was subsequently not picked up for distribution and is now
believed to be lost. The following three decades were a period of quiet experimentation for 3-D
pioneers, as they adapted to new technologies and steadily improved the viewing experience. In 1952,
the “golden era” of 3-D is considered to have begun with the release of Bwana Devil, and over the next
several years, audiences met with a string of films that used the technology. Over the following decades,
it waxed and waned within film-making circles, peaking in the 1970s and again in the 1990s when
IMAX gained traction, but it is only in the last few years that 3-D appears to have firmly entered mainstream production. B
Released worldwide in September 2009, the fantasy film Avatar quickly became the highest-
grossing film ever made, knocking Titanic from the top slot. Avatar, set in 2154 on a planet in a distant
solar system, went on to become the only film to have earned US$2 billion worldwide, and is now
approaching the $3 billion mark. The main reason for this runaway popularity appears to be its visual
splendors; though most critics raised the film, it was mostly on account of its ground-breaking special
effects. Kenneth Turan of the Los Angeles Times praised Avatar’s “powerful” visual accomplishments,
but suggested the dialogue was “flat” and the characterizations “obvious”. A film analyst at Exhibitor
Relations has agreed, noting that Avatar has cemented the use of 3-D as a production and promotional
tool for blockbuster films, rather than a mere niche or novelty experiment. “This is why all 3-D venues
were built,” he said. “This is the one. The behemoth ... The holy grail of 3-D has finally arrived.” C
Those who embrace 3-D note that it spices up a trip to the cinema by adding a more active
“embodied” layer of experience instead of the viewer passively receiving the film through eyes and ears
only. A blogger on Animation Ideas writes, “... when 3-D is done well, like in the flying scenes in UP,
How to Train Your Dragon, and Avatar, there is an added feeling of vertigo. If you have any fear of
heights, the 3-D really adds to this element ...” Kevin Carr argues that the backlash against 3-D is similar
to that which occurred against CGI2 several years ago, and points out that CGI is now widely regarded
as part of the film-maker’s artistic toolkit. He also notes that new technology is frequently seen to be a
“gimmick” in its early days, pointing out the many commentators slapped the first “talkie” films of the
early 1920s with this same label. D
But not everyone greets the rise of 3-D with open arms. Some ophthalmologists point out that 3-
D can have unsettling physical effects for many viewers. Dr. Michael Rosenberg, a professor at
Northwestern University, has pointed out that many people go through life with minor eye disturbance s
– a slight muscular imbalance – for example – that does not interrupt day-to-day activities. In the
experience of a 3-D movie, however, this problem can be exacerbated through viewer trying to
concentrate on unusual visual phenomena. Dr. Deborah Friedman, from the University of Rochester
Medical Center, notes that the perception of depth conjured through three dimensions does not
complement the angles from which we take in the world. Eyestrains, headaches and nausea are,
therefore, a problem for around 15% of a 3-D film audience. E
Film critics Roger Elbert warns that 3-D is detrimental to good film-making. Firstly, he argues,
the technology is simply unnecessary; 2-D movies are “already” 3-D, as far as our minds are concerned.
Adding the extra dimension with technology, instead of letting our minds do the work, can actually be
counter-purposeful and make the overall effect seem clumsy and contrived. Ebert also points out that the
special glasses dim the effect by soaking up light from the screen, making 3-D films a slightly duller
experience that they might otherwise be. Finally, Elbert suggests that 3-D encourages film-makers to
undercut drama and narrative in favor of simply piling on more gimmicks and special effects.
“Hollywood is racing headlong toward the kiddie market,” he says, pointing out the Disney’s
announcement that it will no longer make traditional films in favor of animation, franchises and superheroes. F
Whether or not 3-D becomes a powerful force for the film-maker’s vision and the film-going
experience, or goes down in history as an over-hyped, expensive novelty, the technology certainly
shows no sign of fading in the popularity stakes at the moment. Clash of the Titan, Alice in the
Wonderland, and How to Train Your Dragon have all recently benefited at the box office due to the
added sales that 3-D provides, and with Avatar ‘s record set to last some time as a totem of 3-D’s
commercial possibilities, studios are not prepared to back down. 1. Section A: ............................. 2. Section B: ............................. 3. Section C: ............................. 4. Section D: ............................. 5. Section E: ............................. 6. Section F: ............................. Your answers:
1. .................... 2. .................... 3. .................... 4. .................... 5. .................... 6. ....................
B. Decide whether these statements are True or False.
7. 3-D conflicts with our mental construct of our surroundings.
8. 3-D encourages an over-emphasis on quick visual thrills.
9. Avatar’s strength is found both in its visual splendor and in aspects of story.
10. Use of 3-D technology proves to worsen our sensation of elevation. Your answers: 7. .................... 8. .................... 9. .................... 10. ....................
Part 2. Passage 2. Read the following passage and choose the best answer for each of the questions below. (1.5 pts) SURFACE WATER AND GROUND WATER
Ensuring the reliability and purity of the water supply is one of the more significant challenges
facing an ever growing world population. Unfortunately, only about 3% of the world’s total water
supply is fresh; the rest is sea water and is unusable for most of our purposes. Furthermore, of that 3%,
three fourths are largely inaccessible because it exists as frozen ice locked in the polar ice caps or as
glaciers high in mountains. The remaining percentage of fresh water that is available for human use
exists in two forms: surface water and ground water.
Surface water is found in rivers, lakes, and man-made reservoirs fad by either rainfall or
snowmelt. Surface water makes up nearly 80% of all the water utilized by humans, primarily due to its
accessibility. Nearly every river or lake in the world contains one or more pumping stations to divert a
portion of its flow to nearby population centers. However, surface water supplies present several
disadvantages. First, surface water is easily polluted. Chemical pollution from the air enters surface
water in the form of rain, and ground pollution is either dumped directly into lakes and rivers or washed
into them by rainwater. A In addition, biological pollution caused by the dumping of raw sewage into a
water source, can lead to dangerous levels of bacteria. B Another problem is relying on surface water is
that its supply is highly variable. C Water levels in lakes and rivers can fall drastically in periods of
severe drought. D In places that are prone to extended dry periods, such as Australia or much of
California, some rivers are even known to occasionally run dry due to a combination of drought and overuse.
The other primary source of fresh water is ground water. Although ground water is estimated to
be as much as 50 times more abundant than surface water, it constitutes only 20% of all the fresh water
used by human s, and much of this usage occurs in rural areas. This is a reflection of the relative
difficulty in obtaining ground water. Ground water exists in underground deposits known as aquifers,
layers of porous rock in the Earth. As rainwater sinks into the ground it eventually reaches the aquifer
where it is absorbed, much as a kitchen sponge absorbs water.
To obtain ground water, a well must be drilled down to the level of the aquifer, and then the
water must be pumped to the surface. Aquifers occur at different depths in different areas, and the
deeper the aquifer, the more difficult and more expensive it is to extract its water. Furthermore, if water
is taken from an aquifer at a higher rate than it is recharged naturally, its level will drop, necessitating
ever deeper wells. This also creates problems with ground stability. As water is drained out of an
aquifer, the ground naturally tends to sink and compress, leading to greater risk of subsidence and
landslides. Since aquifers are fed through a slow acting system of drainage, they have much slower
recharge rates than surface water resources and are easily overtaxed. Therefore, ground water is
generally only used when surface water is unavailable, even though ground water is far more abundant.
Like surface water, ground water can also become polluted, although not as easily. The soil that
water sinks through before reaching the aquifer acts as a natural filter, leaching out some of the
pollutants. Furthermore, the lack of oxygen in the aquifer generally restricts the growth of bacteria, so
most ground water can be utilized safely without treatment. However, pollution can enter an aquifer
when pollution sources are buried underground, such as they are in landfills. In other areas, the presence
of heavy metal, nearly all of which are highly toxic in the human body, may render ground water undrinkable.
1. According to paragraph 1, all of the following are true of fresh water EXCEPT:
A. It makes up a minute proportion of the world’s total water supply.
B. Much of it is unavailable for human use.
C. Its supply is endangered by the melting of the ice caps.
D. Its reliable supply is a growing problem in the world.
2. What is the source of most surface water? A. Melting glaciers B. Underground springs C. Precipitation D. Filtration of seawater
3. Based on the information in paragraph 2, what can be inferred about most population centers?
A. They have grown to sixes unsustainable by current water resources.
B. They generally can be found in close proximity to a source of surface.
C. They always contribute to great levels of pollution in surface water.
D. They are unable to cope with rising levels of bacteria in surface water.
4. The word prone in the passage is closest meaning to A. inclined B. experienced C. recognized D. associated
5. According to paragraph 2, what causes increases in bacteria in surface water?
A. Increased industrial pollution
B. The dumping of human and animal waste
C. Overexploitation of a surface water source
D. Drops in the overall level of a surface water source
6. The word porous in the passage is closest meaning to A. sodden B. absorptive C. permeable D. submerged
7. In paragraph 3, the author mentions the abundance of the ground water in order to
A. suggest that it may offer a solution to the world’s water needs
B. contrast with its relatively low usage by humans
C. explain the lack of surface water in many areas
D. explain why it is only used in rural areas
8. According to paragraph 4, increased danger of subsidence is caused by
A. excessive drops in the level of an aquifer
B. the holes created by large numbers of wells
C. the compression of water in an aquifer
D. landsides beneath an aquifer
9. According to paragraph 5, bacteria are generally not a concern in ground water because
A. heavy metals prevent their growth
B. they is not enough air to support them
C. they are filtered out before they reach the aquifer
D. bacteria would make the water undrinkable
10. Which of the following can be inferred from paragraph 5 about heavy metals?
A. They only occur in aquifers.
B. They cannot be filtered out of water.
C. They are generally water soluble.
D. They can be detected by their foul taste. Your answer: 1. 2. 3. 4. 5. 6. 7. 8. 9. 10. 11. 12.
Part 3. CLOZE READING. Read the following passage and choose the correct word for each of the blanks: (1.5 pts)
The poetry of Gwendolyn Brooks has been praised for deepening the significance of personal and
social experiences so that these experiences become universal in their (1) ____________. She has also
been praised for her "sense of form, which is basic and remarkable". Many of her poems are (2)
____________ with a Black community named Bronzeville, on the south side of Chicago. Her literary
(3) ____________ makes Bronzeville more than just a place on a map. This community, like all
important literary places (Robinson's Tilbury Town and Masters' Spoon River, for example), becomes a
testing ground of personality, a place where the raw (4) ____________ of experience is (5)
____________ by imagination and where the joys and trials of being human are both sung and judged.
The qualities for which Brooks's poetry is not are (as one critic has (6) ____________ out) "boldness,
invention, a daring to experiment, and a naturalness that does not scorn literature but absorbs it".
Her love (7) ____________ poetry began early. At the age of seven she "began to put rhymes
together", and when she was thirteen, on of her poems was published in a children' s magazine. During
her teens she (8) ____________ more than seventy-five poems to a Chicago newspaper. In 1941 she
began to attend a class in writing poetry at the South Side Community Art Center, and several years
later, her poems began to appear in Poetry and other magazines. Her first collection of poems, A Street
in Bronzeville, was published in 1945. Four years later, Annie Allen, her second collection of poems,
appeared. In 1950 Annie Allen was (9) ____________ a Pulitzer prize for poetry. The novel Maud
Martha, about a young black girl growing up in Chicago, published in 1953, was praised for its warmth
and (10) ____________. In 1963 her Selected Poems appeared. 1. A. knowledge B. implication C. indication D. potential 2. A. involved B. connected C. related D. concerned 3. A. skill B. quality C. capacity D. manner 4. A. substance B. components C. material D. elements 5. A. formed B. shaped C. decided D. caused 6. A. pointed B. made C. cleared D. showed 7. A. to B. with C. for D. on 8. A. devoted B. dedicated C. attributed D. contributed 9. A. presented B. rewarded C. awarded D. honored 10. A. concerns B. considerations C. insights D. awareness Your answers: 1. ....................... 2. ....................... 3. ....................... 4. ....................... 5. ....................... 6. ....................... 7. ....................... 8. ....................... 9. ....................... 10. .......................
Part 4. CLOZE TEST. Fill in each gap with ONE suitable word. 1.5 pts) Early photography
In the early days of photography, a stand or some other firm support for the camera was essential. This
was because photographic materials were so insensitive to light that a typical exposure lasted several
seconds. The camera (1) ___________ have to be held still for this time in order to obtain a sharp
picture. The subjects also had to be still if their images (2) ___________ to register properly on the
film. Some early street scenes include blurred, transparent, ghostlike images of people (3) ___________
wandered past while the scene was in the process of (4) ___________ photographed.
Studio portraits from the late 1800s show people posed rigidly, often leaning against furniture,
(5)___________ helped them to remain motionless. As it was important to keep the head still, a support
was often provided (6) ___________ the neck. Bright studio lights, sometimes produced by
(7)___________fire to a strip of magnesium or a small pile of magnesium powder, helped in reducing
the required exposure time. These burned with an intensely blue flame that gave the necessary amount
of light, although the smoke was unpleasant and (8)__________was also a risk of fire.
The problems associated (9) ___________ long exposure were overcome by the introduction of faster,
more sensitive photographic plates, and later, roll films. The development of smaller cameras led to
photography becoming a popular hobby. Nowadays, digital cameras have further revolutionised
photography, enabling even the (10) ___________ inexperienced of photographers to produce professional looking pictures. Your answers: 1. ....................... 2. ....................... 3. ....................... 4. ....................... 5. ....................... 6. ....................... 7. ....................... 8. ....................... 9. ....................... 10. ....................... WRITING
Part 1. SENTENCE TRANSFORMATION. Rewrite each of these sentences in such a way that its
meaning is kept unchanged. Do NOT change the word in bracket in any way.
1. Nobody knows what annoyed our boss. (CHEESED)
→ Why ..........................................................................................................................................
2. It was not until he lost the last match that he realized he was a little too old for competitions. (LONG)
→ Hardly ..........................................................................................................................................
3. The serious look on his face stopped us revealing the secret. (CAT)
→ Hadn’t it ........................................................................................................................................
4. It was unwise of you to try to do so many things without being aware of your shortcomings. (THIN)
→ You shouldn’t ................................................................................................................................
5. He would spend his very last penny trying to ingratiate himself with his father-in-law. (EXPENSE)
→ In his ..............................................................................................................................................
6.Where the real cause of the decline in the competition’s popularity lies is still debatable. (SPOT)
→ It is open ........................................................................................................................................
7. People who often talk too much about unimportant things do not appeal to me. (DONKEY)
→ I’m not in .......................................................................................................................................
8. It’s bad I failed to do my share of the job. (WEIGHT)
→ I would like ....................................................................................................................................
9. That this celebrity keeps her own affairs away from public attention is of great importance. (PROFILE)
→ It is advisable that this ..................................................................................................................
10. Looking back, I have a feeling that they gave the deceptive information about the case. (BOOKS)
→ In ..................................................................................................................................................
Part 2. Write an composition of about 150 words on the following topic: (2.5 pts)
Some people believe that using animals to test the safety of human medicines is cruel and
unwarranted, whereas others feel it is a medical necessity.
Discuss both views and state your own opinion.