Đề thi khảo sát chất lượng HSG năm học 2021 – 2022 (lần 3) môn Tiếng Anh 12, trường THPT Yên Định I Thanh Hóa
Đề thi khảo sát chất lượng HSG năm học 2021 – 2022 (lần 3) môn Tiếng Anh 12, trường THPT Yên Định I Thanh Hóa giúp các bạn học sinh sắp tham gia các kì thi Tiếng Anh tham khảo, học tập và ôn tập kiến thức, bài tập và đạt kết quả cao trong kỳ thi sắp tới. Mời bạn đọc đón xem!
Môn: Đề thi chọn học sinh giỏi Tiếng Anh lớp 12 THPT & đội tuyển dự thi học sinh giỏi Quốc gia THPT
Trường: Đề thi chọn HSG Tiếng Anh từ lớp 9 đến lớp 12 cấp trường, quận/ huyện, tỉnh/ thành phố
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SỞ GIÁO DỤC & ĐÀO TẠO
ĐỀ THI KHẢO SÁT CHẤT LƯỢNG HSG THANH HÓA
NĂM HỌC 2021 – 2022 (Lần 3)
TRƯỜNG THPT YÊN ĐỊNH I Môn: TIẾNG ANH 12
Thời gian làm bài: 150 phút, không kể thời gian phát đề
(Đề thi gồm 8 trang) Mã đề thi 111
Họ, tên thí sinh:................................................................. SBD: ....................
(Thí sinh không được sử dụng tài liệu) A. LISTENING:
HƯỚNG DẪN PHẦN THI NGHE HIỂU
* Bài nghe gồm 2 phần, mỗi phần được ghi âm 2 lần. Giữa 2 lần ghi âm của mỗi phần và giữa các
phần có một khoảng thời gian chờ. Part 1
For questions 1-5, Listen to the recording twice then choose A, B or C to best answer the questions
according to what you hear. (5 points)
Question 1. What kinds of music does this radio station play? A. rhythm and blues B. heavy metal C. latin
Question 2. What is the disk jockey's first name? A. Harold B. Harvey C. Harry
Question 3. Listeners can win ___________ by saying the name of the song. A. music CDs B. concert tickets C. money
Question 4. The man's phone number is ___________. A. 693-3019 B. 693-1390 C. 693-1319
Question 5. To win, listeners must know the name of the song and ________ it was recorded. A. where B. when C. how many times Part 2.
For question 6-10, You will hear an interview on a train with two friends, Jane and Chris, chef
who both won prizes in the National Railway Chef of the Year competition. Choose the correct
answer A, B, C, or D. You will hear the recording twice. (5 points)
Question 6. What was Chris’s attitude to the competition?
A. He was worried about the quality of his dishes.
B. He was afraid time might be a bit of a problem.
C. He admitted he’d been looking forward to the challenge.
D. he said conditions were similar to his routine.
Question 7. Jane admitted that the greatest problem she faced during the competition was having to
A. work in a very small space.
B. be original when travelling at speed. C. prepare a meal so quickly.
D. create a meal with so little money.
Question 8. What do both Chris and Jane feel is unique about their job?
A. the close contact with the customers
B. the necessary to do everything the same time
C. the opportunity to be creative
D. the need to be focused on the job
Question 9. What do Chris and Jane feel about what they cook on board the train? Trang 1/9 - Mã đề thi 111
A. They approve of the menus created for them.
B. They consider themselves more adventurous than other chefs.
C. They would like to have more freedom of choice.
D. They are happy to adapt their ideas to suit the job.
Question 10. What is often Jane’s initial reaction when things spill over?
A. She asks another member of staff to help her clear up.
B. She blames the train driver for the accident.
C. She feels herself to keep a closer watch next time.
D. She says nasty things to the other staff. B. PHONETICS: (5 points)
Mark the letter A,B,C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word whose underlined part differs
from the other three in pronunciation in each of the following questions.
Question 11: A. commercial B. oceanic C. necessary D. technician
Question 12: A. telecast B. telescope C. telephony D. telepathic
Question 13: A. shoulder B. amount C. astound D. mouthful
Mark the letter A,B,C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word that differs from the other
three in the position of the primary stress in each of the following questions.
Question 14: A. although B. unless C. retail D. campaign
Question 15: A. academic B. compulsory C. commercially D. methodical
C. GRAMMAR & VOCABULARY: (30 points)
Mark the letter A,B,C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the following questions.
Question 16: Americans are almost alone in the industrialized world _______ religion seriously. A. who still take B. still taking C. on still taking D. in still taking
Question 17: Most critics praise that actor’s work but I think he’d rather ______. A. over-played B. over-priced C. over-blown D. over-rated
Question 18: In her speech the Prime Minister ________ tribute to the valuable contributions to
society made by voluntary organizations. A. brought B. sent C. paid D. gave
Question 19: I’m looking forward to meeting your new boss- you’ve been ______ his praises ever since he arrived. A. calling B. singing C. shouting ` D. crying
Question 20: I felt an ______ with the writer from his descriptions of a world that seemed to have a
great deal in common with my own. A. acknowledgement B. affection C. affinity D. adherence
Question 21: If you say you’d like ______ of cream on your strawberries then you don’t want very much cream. A. oodles B. a dollop C. a dash D. lashings
Question 22: The UN has called for an immediate ______ of hostilities. A. deletion B. ceasefire C. cancellation D. cessation
Question 23: Standing on the tip of the cape, ________________. Trang 2/9 - Mã đề thi 111
A. people have seen a lighthouse far away
B. a lighthouse can be seen from the distance
C. we can see the lighthouse in the distance
D. lies a lighthouse in the middle of the sea
Question 24: Serena is still ______ ignorant of the fact that she is about to be made redundant. A. delightedly B. blissfully C. ecstatically D. jubilantly
Question 25: Not many people are good at assessing their own abilities and Mark must be ______ for
recognising that he would never become a great musician. A. merited B. advocated C. talented D. commended
Question 26: I’m afraid I can’t justify ________ all that time off from my studies . A. to take B. take C. being taken D. taking
Question 27: The country has few natural resources and its economy has been ______ for some time now. A. ailing B. unwell C. sickening D. diseased
Question 28: The albatross, ____largest and most majestic sky bird, has ____ wing span of over nine feet. A. the / the B. the / a C. the / --- D. a / the
Question 29: Every year many small companies get _______ up by large multinationals. A. drowned B. burnt C. swallowed D. digested
Question 30: I take great exception ______ the implication that I was not telling the truth. A. against B. from C. to D. with
Question 31: That’s the last time ________ here . A. I’d ever come B. I’m ever coming C. I ever came D. I’ve ever come
Question 32: _________ visit the British Museum while you are in London, you mustn't forget to look at the famous Rosetta Stone. A. When you might B. In case you C. If you should D. For fear that you
Question 33: One of the most powerful pressure groups in the country is the road and car _____ ,
which opposes any legislation that will increase taxes specifically for them. A. folder B. branch C. segment D. lobby
Question 34: Thankfully we _______ another ticket as Jean didn’t turn up. A. needn’t have got B. didn’t need to get C. needed not to get D. hadn’t to get
Question 35: Natasha likes animals so much. When she was young, she used to have a ________ cat.
A. fat big black and yellow
B. fat big yellow and black
C. big fat yellow and black
D. big fat black and yellow
Question 36: In 1995, ______ only two experts on the disease in the whole country.
A. there was thought to be
B. they were thought to be
C. it is thought there was
D. there were thought to be
Choose A,B,C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word or phrase CLOSET in meaning to the
underlined part in each of the following questions.
Question 37: The Internet is a treasure trove of information, which offers knowledge on any given topic under the sun. A. abundantly B. sparsely C. undoubtedly D. scarcely Trang 3/9 - Mã đề thi 111
Question 38: A funhouse mirror can really distort your image! A. repeat B. disappear C. extend D. deform
Choose A,B,C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word or phrase OPPOSITE in meaning to
the underlined part in each of the following questions.
Question 39: My first impression of her was her impassive face A. fractious B. emotional C. solid D. respectful
Question 40: Humans will have to become more adept at things that machines can't do, namely
dealing with other humans, and social skills will beat cognitive skills in the marketplace. A. master B. professional C. amateur D. expert
Mark the letter A,B,C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the most suitable respond to complete
each of the following exchanges.
Question 41: Peter: “Thank you. I couldn’t have finished my presentation without your help.”
John: “_____________________”
A. It doesn’t matter anyway. B. Never mind.
C. Forget about it. I didn’t mean so.
D. I highly appreciate what you did.
Question 42: Laura: “I have got a couple of questions I would like to ask you” Maria: “________” A. Not at all. B. Right, fine away.
C. Of course not, it’s not costly. D. What’s up.
Mark the letter A,B,C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the underlined part that needs
correction in each of the following questions.
Question 43: For its establishment, ASEAN Tourism Association has played an important part role in
promoting and developing ASEAN Tourism services. A. For its B. played
C. promoting and developing D. Tourism Association
Question 44: He takes four paracetamol everyday, not knowing that will seriously damage his liver. A. that B. everyday C. not knowing D. four paracetamol
Question 45: Excavations in some villages on the east bank of the Euphrates River have revealed an
ancient community that had been laying under later reconstructions of the city of Babylon. A. later B. had been laying C. on the east bank D. revealed D. READING: (25 points)
Read the following passage and mark the letter A,B,C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the
correct word or phrase that best fits to each of the numbered blank from 46 to 55
Vietnamese generally shake hands when greeting and parting. Using both hands shows respect
as does a____ (46)____ bow of the head. In rural areas, elderly people do not extend their hand are
greeted with a bow. Women are more____ (47)____ to bow the head than to shake hands.
Vietnamese names begin with the family name and are____ (48)____ by a given name. For example,
in the name Nguyen Van Due, Nguyen is the family name. People address____ (49)____ by their
given names, but add a title that indicates their perceived____ (50)____ to the other person. These Trang 4/9 - Mã đề thi 111
titles are family related rather than professional. Among colleagues, for example, the____ (51)____ of
the two might combine the given name with the title of Anh ("Older Brother"). A(n) ____ (52)____
greeting combined with the given name and title is Xin chao ("Hello."). Classifiers for gender and
familiarity are also combined with the greeting. In formal meetings, business cards are sometimes____ (53)____ on greeting.
Vietnamese people have a strong____ (54)____ of hospitality and feel embarrassed if they cannot
show their guests full respect by preparing for their arrival. Therefore, it is____ (55)____ to visit
someone without having been invited. Gifts are not required, but are appreciated. Flowers, incense, or
tea may be proper gifts for the hosts. Hosts also appreciate a small gift for their children or elderly parents Question 46: A. lightly B. light C. slight D. lighted
Question 47: A. probable B. possible C. likely D. capable Question 48: A. taken B. continued C. chased D. followed
Question 49: A. one another B. each one C. one other D. one the other
Question 50: A. relationship B. relation C. relatives D. relation Question 51: A. young B. youngest C. younger D. most young Question 52: A. basic B. fundamentally C. elementary D. easy
Question 53: A. transferred B. exchanged C. reserved D. changed
Question 54: A. sensible B. sense C. sensitivity D. sensation
Question 55: A. inaccurate B. inappropriate C. inexact D. inactive
Read the following passage and mark the letter A,B,C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the
correct answer to each of the questions from 56 to 62. PLATE TECTONICS
Any map of the world displays the complementarily of the Atlantic coastlines of South America
and Africa. The two continents appear to fir together like pieces of jigsaw puzzle. This observation,
first noted three years ago, gave rise to Alfred Wegener’s early 20th – century theory of continental
drift. According to Wegener’s hypothesis, Africa and South America had once been part of a single
land mass that later separated. However, many highly esteemed scientists were skeptical, believing it
physically impossible for two continents to shift so far apart.
Then, in the 1960s, the theory of plate tectonics arose in the scientific community. In formulating
this theory, geologists developed hypotheses that answered several different questions: Why do
volcanoes and earthquakes occur where they do? How did the topography of the sea floor take shape?
What explains the distribution of fossil forms and glacial debris around the globe? The theory of place
tectonics offers explanations for these phenomena, and also gives credence to the concept of
continental drift. In few short years, plate tectonics revolutionized Earth Sciences.
Essentially, plate tectonics addresses the movements and changes of the Earth’s crust. The planet is
composed of three main layers. Surrounding the large, iron-rich core of the Earth is a thick layer called
the mantle. On top of the mantle lies a thin crust. The crust, or lithosphere, is rigid and varies in
thickness from about 30 miles (50 kilometers) underneath the ocean to as much as 60 miles (100
kilometers) below the continents. This is broken up into a series of rigid plates. These lithospheric
plates lie on the asthenosphere, the upper part of the mantle, which has an average depth of 300 miles.
Unlike the rigid lithosphere, the asthenosphere is relatively soft, partly molten layer, it is this quality
that allows the plates on the asthenosphere to slide along its surface. The movement of the plates, at an Trang 5/9 - Mã đề thi 111
annual rate of the two or three centimeters-about one inch-is responsible for volcanic activity and
earthquakes. Modern volcanoes and earthquake epicenters lie along distinct belts. For instance, they
are clustered along the western coasts of the Americas, running from the southern tip of South
America all the way north to Alaska. These patterns of earthquake and volcano distribution mark the
edges of the lithospheric plates, where the crust has broken and the resulting plates knock and scrape
against one another. Earthquakes are the surface manifestations of these huge collisions.
The layout of the sea floor is result of oceanic plates spreading apart and molten rock from the
asthenosphere rising up to fill the chasm. Quirks in fossil records can best be explained using plate
tectonics. The unusual distribution pattern of the distinctive fossil plant Glossopteris, found in
southern Africa, South America, Australia, India, and Antarctica, is one example of such a quirk. It is
unlikely that this precise plant could have developed in the same way at the same time on discrete
continents, or that its seeds could have been carried by wind or water across the enormous oceans that
separate these locales today. Similarly, plate tectonics explains the pattern of glacial deposits in such
diverse areas as southern India, southern Africa, the eastern coast of southern South America, the
southern coast of Australia, and Antarctica. Resolving these latter two issues returns us to the idea of continental drift.
Question 56: According to paragraph 3, which of the following is true about plates?
A. They have an average depth of 300 miles
B. There are seven of them, one for each continent
C. Most of them lie along the western coast of the Americas
D. They are part of the Earth’s crust
Question 57: The word “quirks” in the passage is closest in meaning to_______ A. oddities B. whims C. absences D. defects
Question 58: According to paragraph 3, the composition of the Earth includes all of the following EXCEPT___
A. an outer layer of tectonic plate B. a soft middle layer
C. a large center with plenty of iron
D. a thick, rigid mantle
Question 59: The word “credence” in the passage is closest meaning to______ A. recognition B. certainty C. contradiction D. believability
Question 60: According to the passage, which of the following is true about earthquakes?
A. They result from the bumping and the scraping of plates
B. They can cause one plate to separate from another.
C. They happen mostly along the Pacific coast
D. They originate in the Earth’s core
Question 61: Why does the author describe the distribution of volcanoes in paragraph 3?
A. To give an example of one application of the concept of plate tectonics
B. To provide an explanation for the varying thicknesses of the Earth’s crust
C. To demonstrate the interactions of the three composite parts of the Earth
D. To illustrate one problem with the theory of continental drift
Question 62: The word “this” in the passage refer to_____ A. crust B. ocean C. planet D. variety Trang 6/9 - Mã đề thi 111
Read the following passage and mark the letter A,B,C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the
correct answer to each of the questions 63 to70.
TO SPANK OR NOT TO SPANK?
UP- Minneapolis, MN – A father was recently arrested by the police for spanking his child,
starting a debate among the American public about spanking. Is spanking, or other types of corporal
punishment, an acceptable form of discipline for children? Or is it a form of child abuse?
The case that has everyone talking is the arrest of Dale Clover, a thirty-six-year-old father of
three kids, at a shopping mall in St. Louis, Missouri. He was arrested after an employee at the mall
saw him spanking his five-year-old son, Donny, and called the police. The father was arrested for child
abuse. Mr. Clover admits that he hit his son but he says that it wasn’t child abuse. He says it was discipline.
Across the country, parents disagree on this issue: What is difference between loving
discipline and child abuse? Some parents like Rhonda Moore see a clear difference between spanking
and child abuse. Rhonda Moore believes a little bit of pain is necessary to teach a child what is right
and wrong. “It’s like burning your hand when you touch a hot stove. Pain is one of the ways of
teaching us.” Moore believes that spanking is done out of love, but child abuse is done out of anger,
when the parent loses control. “When I spank my children, I always talk to them before and afterward,
and explain why they are being spanked. I explain what they did wrong, and they remember not to do
it again.” Moore says that her children respect her as a parent and understand that she is spanking them for their own good.
In contrast, Taylor Robinson, father of four, feels that parents should never hit their children
for any reason. Robinson wants his children to learn right and wrong, but not because they are afraid
of being hit. “Spanking teaches children to fear their parents, not to respect them. When a parent
spanks a child, what the child learns is that problems should be solved with violence.” Robinson
believes that children learn that it is acceptable for parents to hurt their children. “None of these are
lessons that I want to teach my children. I want my children to learn to talk about their problems and
solve them without violence, but spanking doesn’t teach that.”
Parents are split about corporal punishment, and doctors also disagree about the issue. Dr.
John Oparah thinks our child abuse laws sometimes go too far; that is; they make it difficult for
parents to discipline their children. Oparah says that today many children do not respect their parents
“Children need strong, loving discipline. Sometimes spanking is the best way to get a child’s attention,
to make sure the child listens to the parent.” Oparah says that he knows loving parents who have had
police officers come to their home because their children have reported being spanked. Oparah
believes parents should not be treated like criminals. “As a society, we complain all the time that our
young people are getting into more and more trouble, committing crimes- yet when parents try to
control their children, they’re punished. Some parents are afraid to discipline their children because
their neighbors might call the police.”
Most doctors, however, say that there are many harmful effects of spanking. Dr. Beverly Lau
is opposed to spanking. Lau argues that spanking can lead to more violent behavior in children. She
points to research that shows that children who are spanked are more violent when they grow up. “A
child may stop misbehaving for the moment, but for a while, children who are spanked actually
misbehave more than children who are not spanked.” Lau adds that research shows that, if you want a
peaceful family, parents should not spank their children. Trang 7/9 - Mã đề thi 111
The issue of spanking and corporal punishment will continue to be debated among parents and
in the courts. In the meantime, if he is convicted of child abuse, Dale Clover could get up to five years in prison.
Question 63: What is the main idea of this passage?
A. Doctors believe that spanking is harmful to children.
B. Parents and doctors disagree about the benefits of spanking children.
C. Spanking teaches children the difference between right or wrong.
D. Child abuse laws make it difficult for parents to discipline their kids.
Question 64: In paragraph 2, who called the police in the Dale Clover case?
A. His five-year-old son B. A mall employee C. Dale Clover himself D. Clover’s wife
Question 65: In paragraph 3, why does Rhonda Moore give the example of touching a hot stove?
A. To argue that parents need to control their children.
B. To demonstrate that spanking is wrong.
C. To question the laws about child abuse.
D. To show the benefits of spanking.
Question 66: Why does the author include Rhonda Moore and Taylor Robinson in this article?
A. To give examples of parents who spank their children.
B. To compare the views of a parent and a doctor.
C. To contrast the opinions of two parents.
D. To argue against spanking one’s children
Question 67: In paragraph 4, all of the following are lessons Taylor Robinson believes children learn from spanking EXCEPT_________
A. children should fear their parents
B. problem could be solved with violence
C. it is acceptable for parents to hurt their kids
D. people should talk about problems, without violence
Question 68: In paragraph 5, the phrase “go too far” is closest in meaning to _______
A. are too hard on children
B. take control away from parents
C. are not strong enough to stop abuse
D. teach children to respect for their parents
Question 69: In paragraph 6, why does the author use the word “however”?
A. To contrast Oparah’s view from other doctors’
B. To question the views of most doctors
C. To support Oparah’s opinions
D. To introduce a similar opinion.
Question 70: In paragraph 6, what is the author’s primary purpose?
A. To question Beverly Lau’s opinions about spanking
B. To explain why parents should spank their kids
C. To compare two different views on spanking
D. To show the harmful effects of spanking Trang 8/9 - Mã đề thi 111 E. WRITING:
Part 1. Finish each of the following sentences in such a way that it means exactly the same as the
sentence printed before it. (5pts)
Question 71. Something must be done to help the victims of the earthquake in Mexico.
Urgent ……………………………………………………………
Question 72. It was careless of you to allow your 16-year-old son to drive your car.
You should ……………………………………………………………………
Question 73. The likelihood of their having any work to offer me in the foreseeable future is nil
It is not ………………………………………………….………………………
Question 74. Someone has suggested abolishing income tax.
It ……………………………………………………………….……
Question 75. In a nutshell, Joseph’s not up to the job
The long ……………………..……………….………..
Part 2. Complete the second sentence so that it has a similar meaning to the first sentence using the
word given. DO NOT CHANGE THE WORD GIVEN. (5pts)
Question 76. The job received over a hundred applications. (APPLIED)
→ .......................................................................................................................
Question 77. Alan prides himself on his punctuality. (TAKES)
→ .......................................................................................................................
Question 78. Many people attended this year’s festival. (TURNOUT)
→ .......................................................................................................................
Question 79. He is becoming quite famous as an interviewer. (NAME)
→ .......................................................................................................................
Question 80. The whole team was in a happy mood. (SPIRITS)
→ .......................................................................................................................
Part 3. Essay writing. (20pts)
“Nowadays, the increasing number of schools in Vietnam are facing with the alarming issue, school
violence. What do you think are the causes of this? What solutions can you suggest?”
You should write at least 250 words.
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