SỞ GIÁO DỤC VÀ ĐÀO TẠO TỈNH ĐẮK LẮK
ĐƠN VỊ: TRƯỜNG THPT PHÚ XUÂN
KỲ THI OLYMPIC TRUYỀN THỐNG 10-3 LẦN THỨ IV NĂM 2019
ĐỀ THI ĐỀ NGHỊ MÔN: TIẾNG ANH; LỚP: 10 1 ĐỀ THI VÀ ĐÁP ÁN
PHẦN A: MULTIPLE CHOICE (40 PTS) I. PHONOLOGY (5PTS):
Choose the word whose underlined part is pronounced differently from that of the others. 1. A. breathe B. with C. southern D. thorough 2. A. naked B. coughed C. hatred D. sacred 3. A. cease B. chase C. increase D. raise 4. A. pleasure B. desert C. resort D. position 5. A. negotiation B. think C. invent D. enlarge KEYS: 1. D 2. B 3. D 4. A 5. B
Choose the word which is stressed differently from the other three. 1. A. impossibly B. especially C. naturally D. importantly 2. A. damage B. pollute C. defense D. erode 3. A. recognize B. enemy C. yesterday D. responding
4. A. electrician B. comfortable C. manufacture D. accidental 5. A. comedy B. collection C. comical D. calculate KEYS: 1. C 2. A 3. D 4. B 5. B II. WORD CHOICE: (5PTS)
Choose the best answer to complete each of the following sentences
1. Our holiday was _________ by the weather. A. spoilt B. damaged C. overcome D. wasted
2. The_________ charged by the architect for the plans of the new building were unusually high. A. hire B. price C. fees D. sum
3. He_________ his son of the dangers of driving too fast in his new car A. warned B. remembered C. threatened D. concerned
4. When Ali arrived in London he spent all his time_________ and visited all the important museums and buildings. A. sight-seeing B. traveling C. looking D. touring
5. If you want a cheap air ticket you must_________ well in advance. A. book B. engage C. reserve D. buy
6. His sister was full of_________ for the way in which he had so quickly learned to drive a car. A. pride B. admiration C. surprise D. jealousy
7. He asked if we would_________ to share the room. A. accept B. consider C. agree D. approve
8. _________ I would like to say how pleased I am to be here. A. Primarily B. Foremost C. Earliest D. First
9. The independent arbitrator managed to_________ the confrontation between the union and the employers. A. refuse B. confuse C. refute D. defuse
10. When I heard the footsteps behind me I was_________ that I would be attacked. 2 A. horrified B. terror-struck C. terrorized D. terrified KEYS: 1. A 2. C 3. A 4. A 5. A 6. B 7. A 8. D 9. D 10. D
III. STRUCTURE AND GRAMMAR: (5PTS)
Choose the best options to complete the following sentences.
1. Where _________? Which hairdresser did you go to? A. did you cut your hair B. have you cut your hair C. did you have cut your hair D. did you have your hair cut
2. Nobody could hear her _________ she spoke too quietly. A. so B. however C. although D. because
3. Keep silent! My father _________ in his room. A. is sleeping B. was sleeping C. has slept D. will be slept
4. He showed us the house _________ he was born. A. which B. where C. in where D. in that
5. Life here is much easier than it _________. A. would be B. used to be C. was D. had better
6 . Amy, _________ car had broken down, was in a very bad mood. A. who B. whom C. whose D. that
7. He _________ ever goes to bed before midnight. A. almost B. hardly C. nearly D. scarcely
8. You _________ better be careful not to miss the train. A. had B. would C. should D. did
9. I’d rather you _________ at my party last night. A. be B. were C. had been D. have been
10. Everyone was going away on holiday this week, _________? A. wasn’t it B. wasn’t be C. weren’t they D. wasn’t she KEYS: 1. D 2.D 3.A 4.B 5.B 6.C 7.B 8.A 9.D 10.C
IV. PREPOSITIONS AND PHRASAL VERBS: (5PTS)
1. I’d like to contribute _________ the school Red Cross fund. A. on B. to C. with D. for
2. Madrid is famous _________ its pulls A. as B. with C. for D. of
3. Will you _________ after the party. A. call me off B. get me on C. take me up D. pick me up
4. The ceiling fans were on, but unfortunately they only _____ the hot, humid air. A. stirred up B. poured through C. turned into D. cut back
5. Hardly had the van turned the corner when one of the back wheels_____ A. broke away B. turned around C. came off D. rolled down.
6. The government is thinking of bringing_____a law to make it compulsory for cyclists to wear crash helmets. A. on B. up C. in D. round
7. The businessman inspected the contract carefully before signing it. A. looked over B. looked out C. counted on D. look for
8. What's happening, John? The smoke alarm is ringing but there's no fire! A. putting out B. going on C. hanging up D. going up
9. The fire fighters worked hard to put the fire_______. A. off B. over C. on D. out 3
10. When do you think that we'll arrive at the hotel this evening? A. get on B. go on C. get to D. get off KEYS: 1. B 2. C 3. D 4. A 5. C 6. C 7. A 8. B 9. D 10. C V. READING PASSAGE (10PTS)
Read the text below and choose the best answer to each question. Passage 1:
Continents and ocean basins represent the largest identifiable bodies on Earth. On the
solid portions of the planet, the second most prominent features are flat plains, elevated
plateaus, and large mountain ranges. In geography, the term “continent” refers to the surface
of continuous landmasses that together comprise about 29.2% of the planet’s surface. On the
other hand, another definition is prevalent in the general use of the term that deals with
extensive mainlands, such as Europe or Asia, that actually represent one very large landmass.
Although all continents are bounded by water bodies or high mountain ranges, isolated
mainlands, such as Greenland and India-Pakistan areas are called subcontinents. In some
circles, the distinction between continents and large islands lies almost exclusively in the size of particular landmass.
The analysis of compression and tension in the earth’s crust has determined that
continental structures are composed of layers that underlie continental shelves. A great deal of
disagreement among geologists surrounds the issue of exactly how many layers underlie each
landmass because of their distinctive mineral and chemical composition. It is also quite
possible that the ocean floor rests on the top of unknown continents that have not yet been
explored. The continental crust is believed to have been formed by means of a chemical
reaction when lighter materials separated from heavier ones, thus settling at various levels
within the crust. Assisted by the measurements of the specifics within crust formations by
means of monitoring earthquakes, geologists can speculate that a chemical split occurred to
form the atmosphere, sea water, and the crust before it solidified many centuries ago.
Although each continent has its special features, all consist of various combinations of
components that include shields, mountain belts, intra-cratonic basins, margins, volcanic
plateaus, and block-vaulted belts. The basic differences among continents lie in the proportion
and the composition of these features relative to the continent size. Climatic zones have a
crucial effect on the weathering and formation of the surface features, soil erosion, soil
deposition, land formation, vegetation, and human activities.
Mountain belts are elongated narrow zones that have a characteristic folded sedimentary
organization of layers. They are typically produced during substantial crustal movements,
which generate faulting and mountain building. When continental margins collide, the rise of
a marginal edge leads to the formation of large mountain ranges, as explained by the plate
tectonic theory. This process also accounts for the occurrence of mountain belts in ocean
basins and produces evidence for the ongoing continental plate evolution.
Question 1. What does this passage mainly discuss?
A. Continental drift and division
B. Various definitions of the term “continent”
C. Continental structure and crust
D. Scientific analyses of continental crusts
Question 2. According to the passage, how do scientists define continents?
A. As masses of land without divisions B. As extensive bodies of land
C. As the largest identifiable features
D. As surgical compositions and ranges
Question 3. In line 6, the word “bounded” is closest in meaning to ___________. A. covered B. convened C. delimited D. dominated
Question 4. The author of the passage implies that the disagreement among scientists is based on the fact that____.
A. each continent has several planes and shelves 4
B. continents have various underlying layers of crust
C. continents undergo compression and experience tension
D. continents have different chemical makeup
Question 5. The word “specifics” in the passage is closest in meaning to_____. A. specialities B. speculations C. exact details D. precise movements
Question 6. The word “it” in line 18 refers to_____. A. a chemical split B. the crust C. the atmosphere D. sea water
Question 7. The author of the passage implies that ___________.
A. it is not known exactly how the continental crust was formed
B. geologists have neglected the exploration of the ocean floor
C. scientists have concentrated on monitoring earthquakes
D. the earth’s atmosphere split into water and solids
Question 8. According to the passage, what are the differences in the structure of continents?
A. The proportional size of continents to one another
B. Ratios of major components and their comparative size
C. The distinctive features of their elements
D. Climatic zones and their effect on the surface features
Question 9. The author of the passage implies that ___________.
A. the process of mountain formation has not been accounted for
B. mountain ranges on the ocean floor lead to surface mountain building
C. faulting and continental margins are parts of plate edges
D. the process of continent formation has not been completed
Question 10. The word “evidence” in the last line is closest in meaning to ___________. A. eventually B. confirmation C. exemplification D. challenge KEYS: 1.C 2.A 3C 4D 5C 6B 7A 8 B 9D 10 B Passage 2:
In this era of increased global warming and diminishing fossil fuel supplies, we must
begin to put a greater priority on harnessing alternative energy sources. Fortunately, there are
a number of readily available, renewable resources that are both cost- effective and earth –
friendly. Two such resources are solar power and geothermal power. Solar energy, which
reaches the earth through sunlight, is so abundant that it could meet the needs of worldwide
energy consumption 6,000 times over. And solar energy is easily harnessed through the use of
photovoltaic cells that convert sunlight to electricity. In the US alone, more than 100, 000
homes are equipped with solar electric systems in the form of solar panels or solar roof tiles.
And in other parts of the world, including many developing countries, the use of solar system is growing steadily.
Another alternative energy source, which is abundant in specific geographical areas, is
geothermal power, which creates energy by tapping heat from below the surface of the earth.
Hot water and steam that are trapped in underground pools are pumped to the surface and
used to run a generator, which is produces electricity. Geothermal energy is 50,000 times
more abundant than the entire known supply of fossil fuel resources. And as with solar power,
the technology needed to utilize geothermal energy is fairly simple. A prime example of
effective geothermal use is in Iceland, a region of high geothermal activity where over 80
percent of private homes are heated by geothermal power. Solar and geothermal energy are
just two of promising renewable alternatives to conventional energy sources. The time is long
overdue to invest in the development and use of alternative energy on global scale.
Question 1. What is the main topic of this passage?
A. The benefits of solar and wind power over conventional energy sources. 5
B. How energy resources are tapped from nature.
C. Two types of alternative energy sources that should be further utilized.
D. Examples of the use of energy sources worldwide.
Question 2. According to the passage, why should we consider using alternative energy sources?
A. Because fossil fuels are no longer available.
B. Because global warming has increased the amount of sunlight that reaches the earth.
C. Because they are free and available worldwide.
D. Because conventional energy resources are being depleted, and they cause environmental damage.
Question 3. Which of the following words could best replace the word “harnessing”? A. Capturing B. Harassing C. Depleting D. Exporting
Question 4. According to the passage, what can be inferred about solar roof tiles?
A. They are being used in many undeveloped countries.
C. They are more expensive than solar panels.
B. They can convert geothermal energy to electricity.
D. They contain photovoltaic cells.
Question 5. According to the passage, how is solar energy production similar to geothermal energy production?
A. They both require the use of a generator.
B. They both use heat from the earth’s surface.
C. They both require fairly simple technology.
D. They are both conventional and costly.
Question 6. Where is the best place in the passage to insert the following sentence:
“ Although the US is not utilizing geothermal resources to this extent, the Western US has a
similar capacity to generate geothermal power”?
A. after the phrase “earth-friendly”
B. after the phrase “growing steadily”
C. after the phrase “by geothermal power”
D. after the phrase “global scale”
Question 7. According to the passage, which of the following is true about solar power?
A. There is very little of it available in Iceland.
B. It is being used in 100, 000 private homes worldwide.
C. It is 6,000 times more powerful than energy from fossil fuels.
D. There is enough of it to far exceed the energy needs of the world.
Question 8. What can be inferred about the use of geothermal energy in Iceland?
A. It is widely used form of energy for heating homes.
B. Twenty percent of the geothermal energy created is used to heat businesses.
C. It is not effective for use in private homes.
D. It is 80 times more effective than traditional forms of energy.
Question 9. What does the author imply about alternative energy sources ?
A. Many different types of alternative energy sources exist.
B. Most alternative energy sources are too impractical for private use.
C. Alternative energy is too expensive for developing countries to produce.
D. Solar and geothermal energy are the effective forms of alternative power
Question 10. What best describes the author’s purpose in writing the passage ?
A. To warn people about the hazards of fossil fuel use.
B. To describe the advantages and disadvantages of alternative energy use.
C. To convince people of the benefits of developing alternative energy sources.
D. To outline the problems and solutions connected with global warming. KEYS:
1.C 2.D 3.A 4. D 5.C 6.C 7.D 8.D 9.A 10.C
VI. GUIDED CLOZE (10 PTS) 6
Read the text below and decide which answer best fits each space. Passage 1:
The shark is a meat- eating fish and one of the most feared animals of the sea. Scientists
(1)………… about 250 species of fish as sharks. These fish live in oceans (2)………..the
world, but they are most common in warm seas.
Sharks (3)………….greatly in size and habits. Whale sharks, the largest kind of shark,
may grow 60 feet long. A whale shark weighs up to 15 tons, more than twice
(4)…………….much as an African elephant. The smallest shark may (5)…………..only 4
inches long and weigh less than 1 ounce. Some kinds of sharks live in the depths of the ocean,
but (6)……………are found near the surface. Some species live in coastal waters, but others
(7)……………far out at sea. A few species can even live in (8)…………..water.
All sharks are carnivores (meat- eaters). Most of them eat (9)…………fish, including other
sharks. A shark’s only natural enemy is a large shark. Sharks eat their prey whole, or they tear
off large chunks of flesh. They also (10)………………..on dead or dying animals. 1. A. classify B. divide C. organize D. arrange 2. A. all B. through C. throughout D. over 3. A. grow B. rise C. evolve D. vary 4. A. as B. so C. very D. exactly 5. A. stretch B. measure C. develop D. expand 6. A. some others B. others C. different kinds D. some sharks 7. A. dwell B. exist C. emigrate D. migrate 8. A. fresh B. sweet C. light D. clear 9. A. uncooked B. live C. lively D. alive 10. A. eat B. swallow C. exist D. feed KEYS: 1. A 2. C 3. D 4. A 5. B 6. B 7. A 8. A 9. B 10. D Passage 2: B. WRITTEN TEST (70PTS) I. CLOZE TEST (70PTS):
Read the text below and think of the word which best fits each space. Use only ONE WORD for each space. Passage 1:
Vitamins are substances required for the proper functioning of the body. In this
century, thirteen vitamins have been (1)…………
A lack of any vitamins in a person’s body can cause illness. In some cases, an excess of
vitamins can also (2)…………to illness. For example, sailors in the past were prone to
(3)…………from scurvy that is a disease resulting from the lack of vitamin C. It causes
bleeding of the gum, loss of teeth and skin rashes. Sailors suffer from scurvy because they did
not eat fruits and vegetables. Fruits and vegetables (4)…………vitamin C which is necessary for good (5)…………
Vitamin B complex is composed of eight different vitamins. A lack of any of these
vitamins will lead to different (6)…………For instance, a person who has too little vitamin
B1 will suffer from beri-beri, a disease that causes heart problems and mental (7)…………A
lack of vitamin B2 results in eye and skin problems while deficiency of vitamin B6 causes
problems of the nervous system. Too little vitamin B12 will cause anemia. The
(8)…………that vitamin deficiencies caused certain diseases led doctors to cure people
suffering from these illnesses by giving them doses of the (9)……...vitamins. 7
Today, vitamins are (10)…………in the form of pills and can easily be bought at any pharmacy. KEYS: 1.discovered 2. lead 3. suffer 4. contain 5. health 6. diseases 7. disorders 8. knowledge 9. necessary 10. available Passage 2: LOOKING FOR A JOB
I finished university six month (11)………….., I’ve got a degree in business
administration. I enjoyed the course very much (12)…….…….I realize I should have studied
a lot harder! A few of my friends have already got full-time jobs but most, me, are still
waiting (13)………..… something suitable to turn up. Meanwhile, I make sure that I keep
myself busy. I look through the job advertisements (14)…………… the newspapers every day
and I also ask all the people I know to tell me if they hear of any vacancies
(15)……………...they work . What I am looking for is something challenging and I would
certainly be happy to move to another city or even work abroad for a while. The
(16)………….… is not so important at this stage, provided I earn enough to live on, because I
don’t want to continue . having to depend on my parents , although they are
(17)………………..generous to me . At the moment, I’m working in a nearby restaurant two
evenings (18)…………….... week, washing up and generally helping out, which brings a
little money. The other people working there are very friendly, and many of them are in the
same (19)………………as me, so we have lots of to talk (20)……………… KEYS: 11. ago 12. although 13. for 14. In 15. where 16. salary 17. very 18. a/per 19. situation 20. about II. WORD FORMATION (20PTS)
PART 1: Complete the sentences with the correct form of the word given:
1. It was thanks to the …………………..of the medical staff that she recovered from her injuries. (DEDICATE)
2. …………………the hole in the ozone layer has doubled in size this year. ( ALARM )
3. It’s …………………..to see the friendship and enthusiasm these kids display on the sports field. ( HEART )
4. The fans’ bad behavior has resulted in the …………of their football team from the championship.( QUALITY )
5 John works completely independently – he is ……………..to nobody but himself. ( ANSWER )
6. She runs so ……………as if it’s the easiest things in the world. ( EFFORT )
7. Thanks to the operation my ……………..has improved considerably. I hope that after the
next one I won’t have to wear glasses at all. ( SEE )
8. The English term café, borrowed from French, is ultimately a ………………….of the
Turkish kahve, meaning coffee. ( DERIVE )
9. Cats are not considered to be social animals in the sense that they have never
………………..travelled in packs or adopted leaders. ( HABIT )
10. I was overcome with great ……………………….when my invitation was rejected by most of my friends. ( BITTER ) KEYS: 1. DEDICATION 2. ALARMINGLY 3. HEARTWARMING 8 4. DISQUALIFICATION 5. ANSWERABLE 6. EFFORTLESSLY 7. SIGHT 8. DERIVATION 9. HABITUALLY 10. BITTERNESS
PART 2: Read the text below. Fill in each of blank space with the correct form of the word from the box.
Some recent research into (1)………….between men and women has produced results
which will surprise few women. Men are always interrupting women when they talk. One (2)
……….feels that men regard female talk as a kind of conversational (3) ………. . They
expect women to play a supporting role. So a man interrupts in a display of (4)………….of
control. Men also have a much more (5) ………..listening style. Whereas a woman uses
gestures or say: “mm”, a man will say such thing as “ring” or “okay” thus settle the stage for
an (6)…….. . Conversation of this kind, then, hardly has (7) ………..communication. Male
talk is often (8) …………while women are more tentative, asking more questions and tending
to build up their replies on what the other person had said. The research would indicate that
women are better (9) ………..than men. Yet, listening secretly to conversation between
groups of women, one has the (10) ……………of several simultaneous monologues into man
would be able to get a chance to speak. KEYS: 1. CONVERSATION 2. RESEARCH 3. HOUSEWORK 4. DOMINANCE 5. UNPLEASANT 6. INTERRUPTION 7. MEANINGFUL 8. ARGUMENTATIVE 9. LISTENERS 10. IMPRESSION III.
ERROR CORRECTION (10 PTS):
There are ten mistakes in the following passage. Find and correct them.
Traditional, mental tests have been divided into two types. 0. traditional → traditionally
Achievement tests are designed to measure acquiring skills and 1. _____________________
knowledge, particularly those that have been explicitness taught. The 2. _____________________
proficiency exams required by few states for high school graduation 3. _____________________
are achievement tests. Aptitude tests are designed and measure a 4. _____________________
person’s ability to acquire new skills but knowledge. For example, 5. _____________________
vocation aptitude tests can help you decide whether you would do 6. _____________________
better like a mechanic or musician. However, all mental tests are in 7. _____________________
some sense achievement tests because they assumption some sort of 8. _____________________
past learning or experience with certainly objects, words, or situations. 9. _____________________
The difference between achievement and aptitude tests is the degree 10. and intention use. _____________________ 9 KEYS: 1. acquiring → acquired 6. vocation → vocational 2. explicitness → explicitly 7. like → as 3. few → a few 8. assumption → assume 4. and → to 9. certainly → certain 5. but → to 10. intention → intended
IV SENTENCE TRANSFORMATION (20PTS)
* Finish the second sentence in such a way that it means exactly the same as the sentence printed before it
1. If you changed your mind, you’ll be welcome to join our club. Were you
_________________________________________________________________.
2. She dances beautifully and she sings sweetly, too. Not only
__________________________________________________________________.
3. I’m sure he didn’t do it by himself.
He________________________________________________________________________.
4. I haven't seen my uncle for a long time. It's a long time
______________________________________________________________.
5. Timmy has become confident as a result of his success. Timmy’s success has
turned___________________________________________________.
*Write a new sentence similar in meaning to the one given, using the word given in
brackets. Do not alter the word in any way.
6. You should think about the price before you decide whether to buy it or not. (consideration)
______________________________________________________________.
7. People don’t want to buy cars with large engines any more. (call)
______________________________________________________________.
8. Twenty years ago this region produced twice as much coal as it does now.(halved)
______________________________________________________________.
9. The prime minister in unlikely to call an early general election. (likelihood)
______________________________________________________________.
10. The policeman acted quickly and averted an accident (prompt)
______________________________________________________________. KEYS:
1. Were you to change you mind, you’ll be welcome to join our club.
2. Not only does she dance beautifully but she also sings sweetly.
3. He can’t have done it by himself.
4. It’s a long time since I last saw my uncle/ I saw my uncle for the last time.
5. Timmy’s success has turned him into a confident person.
6. You should take the price into consideration before you decide whether to buy it or not.
7. There is no (longer any)/ There isn’t much call for cars with large engines.
8. Coal production/ the coal produced in this region has been halved in the 20 years.
9. There is little likelihood of the Prime Minister calling an early general election. 10
10. The policeman’s prompt action averted/ the prompt action of the policeman averted an accident. ------THE END-------- 11