Đề thi Olympic 10 tháng 3 lần thứ 5 môn Tiếng Anh năm 2021 lớp 11 THPT Phan Bội Châu
Đề thi Olympic 10 tháng 3 lần thứ 5 môn Tiếng Anh năm 2021 lớp 11 THPT Phan Bội Châu giúp các bạn học sinh sắp tham gia các kì thi Tiếng Anh tham khảo, học tập và ôn tập kiến thức, bài tập và đạt kết quả cao trong kỳ thi sắp tới. Mời bạn đọc đón xem!
Môn: Đề thi Olympic truyền thống 30 tháng 4 lần [cập nhật đến năm 2023]
Trường: Đề thi chọn HSG Tiếng Anh khu vực
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SỞ GIÁO DỤC VÀ ĐÀO TẠO TỈNH ĐẮK LẮK
ĐƠN VỊ: TRƯỜNG THPT PHAN BỘI CHÂU
KỲ THI OLYMPIC TRUYỀN THỐNG 10-3 TỈNH ĐẮK LẮK NĂM 2021
ĐỀ THI ĐỀ NGHỊ MÔN: TIẾNG ANH; LỚP: 11 1
SỞ GIÁO DỤC VÀ ĐÀO TẠO ĐẮK LẮK
KÌ THI OLYMPIC KHỐI 11
TRƯỜNG THPT PHAN BỘI CHÂU
NĂM HỌC 2020 – 2021
-------------------------------------------- ĐỀ THI CHÍNH THỨC (Đề thi có 08 Mã đề: 207 trang)
Điểm (ghi bằng số):
Điểm (ghi bằng chữ):
Họ và tên thí sinh: ……………………………...
…………………… ……………………………………
SECTION A: MULTIPLE CHOICE (FROM QUESTION 1 TO QUESTION 80)
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word(s) CLOSEST in meaning to the
underlined word(s) in each of the following questions from 01 to 03. (3 points)
Question 1: The ASEAN Para-Games are hosted by the same country where the SEA Games took place. A. defended B. impressed C. organized D. participated
Question 2: As tourism is more developed, people worry about the damage to the flora and fauna of the island. A. plants and animals
B. mountains and forests
C. fruits and vegetables D. flowers and trees
Question 3: The use of lasers in surgery has become relatively commonplace in recent years. A. relevantly B. absolutely C. almost D. comparatively
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the underlined part that needs correction in
each of the following questions from 04 to 08. (5 points)
Question 4: Dr. Harder, that is the professor for this class, will be absent this week because of illness. A. that B. for C. will be D. because of
Question 5: Building thousands of years ago, the ancient palace is popular with modern tourists. A. Building B. ago C. the ancient D. popular with
Question 6: Millions of dead fish in Vietnam's shores raise industrial pollution fears. A. Millions B. in C. dead D. raise
Question 7: The teacher found a great deal of mistakes in his students’ writing. A. The B. a great deal C. in D. students’
Question 8: The more frequently you exercise, the greatest physical endurance you will have. A. frequently B. exercise C. greatest D. will have
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word or phrase that is OPPOSITE
in meaning to the underlined part in each of the following questions from 09 to 10. (2 points)
Question 9: U.S. President Barack Obama paid a visit to Vietnam in May, 2016 to boost ties. A. change B. rise C. decrease D. encourage
Question 10: She was unhappy that she lost contact with a lot of her old friends when she went abroad to study. A. made room for B. put in charge of C. lost control of D. got in touch with
Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word whose underlined part differs from
the other three in pronunciation in each of the following questions from 11 to 12. (2 points)
Question 11: A. killed B. crashed C. waved D. cured
Question 12: A. cupboard B. abroard C. overboard D. keyboard 2
Mark the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct
answer to each of the questions from 13 to 22. (10 points)
It was once believed that being overweight was healthy, but nowadays few people subscribe to this
viewpoint. While many people are fighting the battle to reduce weight, studies are being conducted concerning
the appetite and how it is controlled by both emotional and biochemical factors. Some of the conclusions of
these studies may give insights into how to deal with weight problems. For example, when several hundred
people were asked about their eating habits in times of stress, 44 percent said they reacted to stressful situations
by eating. Further investigations with both humans and animals indicated that it is not food which relieves
tension but rather the act of chewing.
A test in which subjects were blindfolded showed that obese people have a keener sense of taste and crave
more flavorful food than non-obese people. When deprived of the variety and intensity of tastes, obese people
are not satisfied and consequently eat more to fulfill this need. Blood samples taken from people after they were
shown a picture of food revealed that overweight people reacted with an increase in blood insulin, a chemical
associated with appetite. This did not happen to average-weight people.
In another experiment, results showed that certain people have a specific, biologically induced hunger for
carbohydrates. Eating carbohydrates raise the level of serotonin, a neurotransmitter in the brain. Enough
serotonin produces a sense of satiation, and hunger for carbohydrates subsides.
Exercise has been recommended as an important part of a weight-loss program. However, it has been found
that mild exercise, such as using the stairs instead of the elevator, is better in the long run than taking on a
strenuous program, such as jogging, which many people find difficult to continue over long periods of time and
which also increases appetite.
(Adapted from Cambridge Preparation for the TOEFL Test by Jolene Gear)
Question 13: “Subscribe to” in paragraph 1 is closest in meaning to __________. A. disagree with B. agree with C. object to D. like
Question 14: The word” crave” in bold in paragraph 2, can best be replaced with __________. A. devour B. absorb C. season D. desire
Question 15: It can be inferred from the passage that __________.
A. overweight people are tense
B. thin people don’t eat when under stress
C. weight watchers should chew on something inedible when tense
D. 56 percent of the population isn’t overweight
Question 16: It can be inferred from the passage that __________.
A. thin people don’t emjoy food
B. a variety of foods and strong flavors satisfy heavy people
C. overweight people have an abnormal sense of taste
D. deprivation of food makes people fat
Question 17: According to the passage, insulin __________.
A. increases in the bloodstream when people eat large amounts of food
B. can be used to lessen the appetite
C. causes a chemical reaction when food is seen
D. levels don’t change in average-weight people who see food
Question 18: It can be inferred that for certain people __________.
A. eating carbohydrates eliminates hunger
B. carbohydrates biologically induce hunger
C. carbohydrates don’t satisfy a hungry person
D. carbohydrates subside when serotonin is produced
Question 19: What can be said about serotonin?
A. It is a chemical that increases the appetite 3
B. Only certain people produce it in their brains
C. It tells the brain when a person is full
D. It neurotransmits carbohydrates to the brain
Question 20: The word ‘mild’ in the last paragraph can best be replaced with __________. A. important B. hard C. heavy D. light
Question 21: In order to lose weight, it would be a good idea for heavy people to __________.
A. jog 3 miles daily and chew on carrot sticks
B. walk up stairs and look at pictures of food
C. eat plenty of chewy carbohydrates
D. avoid stressful situations and eat spicy foods
Question 22: Which one of the following exercises might be best for an overweight person to engage in daily?
A. 10-mile bicycle rides
B. cross- country skiing C. a long swim D. an evening walk
Mark the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct
word or phrase that best fits each of the numbered blanks from 23 to 32. (10 points)
We are using up the world’s petroleum. We use (23) _______ in our cars and to heat our building in
winter.Farmers use petrochemicals to (24) _______ the soil rich. They use them to kill insects (25) _______ eat
plants. These chemicals go (26) _______ rivers and lakes and kill the fish there. Thousands of pollutants also go
into the air and pollute it. Winds carry this (27) _______ air to other countries and other continents.
Poor farmers use the same land over and (28) _______ The land needs a rest so it will be better next year.
However, the farmers must have food this year. Poor people cut down forests (29) _______ firewood. In some
areas when the trees are gone, the land (30) _______ desert. Poor people can’t save the environment for the (31) _______
This is not a problem for one country or one area of the world. It is a problem for all- humans. The
people and the nations of the world must work together to (32) _______ the world’s resources. Question 23: A. those B. them C. it D. that Question 24: A. work B. change C. make D. let Question 25: A. which B. who C. what D. whom Question 26: A. for B. at C. out D. into
Question 27: A. polluted B. pollute C. polluting D. pollution
Question 28: A. repeatedly B. over C. repeating D. again Question 29: A. at B. with C. of D. for
Question 30: A. becomes B. turns C. gets D. changes Question 31: A. times B. time being C. period D. future
Question 32: A. refuse B. preserve C. recycle D. keep
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word that differs from the other three in
the position of the primary stress in each of the following questions from 34 to 35. (3 points)
Question 33: A. international B. geographical C. obligatory D. undergraduate
Question 34: A. primary B. employee C. difference D. recognize
Question 35: A. predict B. patient C. police D. attract 4
Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the following
questions from 36 to 55. (20 points)
Question 36: ______ had the van turned the corner than the wheel came off. A. No longer B. Hardly C. Scarcely D. No sooner
Question 37: Schools require that every student ______ before September 1st. A. was registered B. register C. registered D. registers
Question 38: Only when you grow up ______ the truth. A. will you know B. you will know C. do you know D. you know
Question 39: A woman needs to make an urgent call; she is asking the man for permission to use his phone.
Choose the most suitable response to fill in the blank in the following exchange.
Woman: “Could I use your phone, please? I need to make an urgent call.” Man: “ ______.” A. I’d rather not B. Are you kidding? C. Please, do D. No too bad
Question 40: Two students, Bill and Bob, are talking about their teacher, Ms Young. Choose the most suitable
response to fill in the blank in the following exchange.
Bill: “Ms Young always grades fairly.” Bob: “______.”
A. I can’t say that it does
B. Actually, she is the second best.
C. Really? How could that be?
D. I couldn’t agree with you more
Question 41: I don’t remember ______ of your decision to change our vocation plan. Nobody told me. A. to be told B. being told C. telling D. to tell
Question 42: This is ______ the most difficult job I’ve ever had to do. A. by chance B. by far C. by heart D. by myself
Question 43: Despite its successful ______ reforms, this country is still a developing one. A. economizing B. economical C. economic D. economics
Question 44: ______ Mr. Anderson or Ms Wiggins is going to teach our class today. A. Either B. Neither C. Both D. None
Question 45: These letters ______ at the moment. You can do the typing tomorrow.
A. needn’t have typed B. need to type C. needn’t be typed D. need typing
Question 46: Many species of plants and animals are in______ of extinction. A. danger B. dangerously C. endangered D. dangerous
Question 47: I can’t ______ this noise any longer. I’m going to write a letter of complaint to the local authority about this problem. A. get back to B. take away from C. make out of D. put up with
Question 48: He is a typical ______, always looking on the bright side of everything. A. pessimist B. introvert C. extrovert D. optimist
Question 49: Julie ______ herself in the accident if she had not been wearing her seat belt.
A. mightn’t have hurt B. could have hurt C. must have hurt D. would hurt
Question 50: The Wilsons have found it terribly hard to make __________ meet ever since they both lost their jobs. A. ends B. strings C. limits D. coins
Question 51: After having used the new technique, the factory produced ____ cars in 2014 as the year before. A. as twice many B. as many twice C. twice many as D. twice as many 5
Question 52: Hurry up, or they ______ serving meals by the time we get to the restaurant. A. would stop B. are stopping C. will have stopped D. stopped
Question 53: Of all the factors affecting agricultural yields, weather is the one ______ the most.
A. that influences farmers
C. farmers that is influences
B. why farmers influence it
D. it influences farmers
Question 54: She has just bought ______.
A. a French interesting old paint
B. an old interesting painting French
C. an interesting old French painting
D. a French old interesting painting
Question 55: Europe’s share of the world population has sharply…………from 21.7 to 12.8 percent. A. reached B. increased C. declined D. maintained
Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct
answer to each of the questions from 56 to 65. (10 points)
May 7, 1840, was the birthday of one of the most famous Russian composers of the nineteenth century Peter
Illich Tchaikovsky. The son of a mining inspector, Tchaikovsky studied music as a child and later studied
composition at the St. Petersburg Conservatory. His greatest period of productivity occurred between 1876 and
1890, during which time he enjoyed the patronage of Madame von Meck, a woman he never met, who gave
him a living stipend of about $1,000.00 a year. Madame von Meck later terminated her friendship with
Tchaikovsky, as well as his living allowance, when she, herself, was facing financial difficulties. It was during
the time of Madame von Meck's patronage, however, that Tchaikovsky created the music for which he is most
famous, including the music for the ballets of Swan Lake and The Sleeping Beauty.
Tchaikovsky's music, well known for its rich melodic and sometimes melancholy passages, was one of the
first that brought serious dramatic music to dance. Before this, little attention had been given to the music
behind the dance. Tchaikovsky died on November 6, 1893, ostensibly of cholera, though there are now some
scholars who argue that he committed suicide.
Question 56: With what topic is the passage primarily concerned?
A. development of Tchaikovsky's music for ballets
B. Tchaikovsky's relationship with Madame Von Meck
C. the life and music of Tchaikovsky
D. the cause of Tchaikovsky's death
Question 57: Which of the following is closest in meaning to the word "productivity"? A. affinity B. creativity C. fertility D. maturity
Question 58: The phrase "enjoyed the patronage of" probably means _________
A. solicited the advice of
B. was financially dependent upon
C. liked the company of
D. was mentally attached to
Question 59: Which of the following could best replace the word "terminated"? A. exploited B. hated C. resolved D. discontinued
Question 60: According to the passage, all of the following describe Madame von Meck EXCEPT ______. A. She was generous.
B. She enjoyed Tchaikovsky's music.
C. She was never introduced to Tchaikovsky.
D. She had economic troubles.
Question 61: It is known that before Tchaikovsky, _______ .
A. the music behind the dance had been taken seriously
B. the music behind the dance had been given very little attention.
C. serous dramatic music had been already brought to dance
D. music had been famous for its rich melodic passages 6
Question 62: According to the passage, for what is Tchaikovsky's music most well known?
A. the ballet-like quality of the music
B. its lively, capricious melodies
C. the richness and melodic drama of the music
D. its repetitive and monotonous tones
Question 63: According to the passage, "Swan Lake" and "The Sleeping Beauty" are _________ A. songs B. plays C. operas D. dances
Question 64: Which of the following is NOT mentioned in the passage?
A. Tchaikovsky's unhappiness leading to suicide B. the patronage of Madame von Meck
C. Tchaikovsky's influence on ballet music
D. Tchaikovsky's productivity in composing
Question 65: Which of the following is closest in meaning to the word "behind"? A. supporting B. concealing C. in back of D. going beyond
Mark the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct
word or phrase that best fits each of the numbered blanks from 66 to 70. (5 points)
Friendship has been given a special status in our (66)…………. It’s contrasted with all those
relationships over which we have so little control; the families we cannot change, the neighbours who irritate
us, the colleagues we have to put (67)…………… with. Friends are thought of as the joyous, freely chosen part
of our lives, and it is assumed that those relationships are always pleasurable. (68)………….you are asked how
you are going to spend the weekend and you say that you will stay in or spend it with your family or your
relatives, people may think you are a little bored. But if you say you are going to see friends and there is an
assumption that you are desirable, connected.
On one level, friendship is very simple. It is the (69)………..between people who enjoy one another’s
company. Let’s start talking to people about friendship and it becomes clear that while people value it and seek
it , there is also much confusion, hesitancy and disappointment about friends in many people’s lives. Friendship
is one of those areas which is full of hidden assumptions and unspoken rules. We only discover that our
friendship does not mean (70)……………we think it does when those assumption clash.
Question 66: A. society B. organisation C. public D. hall Question 67: A. out B. on C. in D. up
Question 68: A. Because B. So C. If D. However
Question 69: A. relationship B. connects C. combinations D. attaches Question 70:.A. which B. what C. that D. when
Mark the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct
answer to each of the questions from 71 to 80.(10 points)
Miss Earth is an annual international female beauty pageant promoting environmental awareness.
Carousel Productions Inc. organised and launched the first Miss Earth beauty pageant in 2001. It was intended
to actively promote the preservation of the environment. The Miss Earth pageant is recognised as one of the
three most prestigious beauty pageants in the world in terms of size and quality( the other two are Miss
Universe and Miss World contests). The reigning titleholders dedicate their year to promote the event to address
issues concerning the environment. Those who participate in the pageant are involved with environmental
causes. The pageant winner is expected to become involved with international environmental projects. These
projects are promoted during the pageant’s broadcast. The delegates also take part in tree planting ceremonies ,
environmental and cultural immersion programs , sponsor visits and tours. The Miss Earth pageant has grown
with an increasing number of countries participating. The number of national Miss Earth pageant has grown on
every continent as well. The Miss Earth winner is the spokesperson for the Miss Earth Foundation , the United
Nations Environment Program ( UNEP) and other environmental groups. Since the Miss Earth pageant has an 7
environmental cause, it is primarily looking for young women who will stand for the protection and
preservation of the planet. These women are pageant winners or chosen by national Miss Earth directors from
different nations. On national level competitions, the Miss Earth’s cause is carried out to assure that each of the
participating candidates are not just physically beautiful, but environmentally knowledgeable. As soon as the
national winners are chosen, they will be subject to evaluation be the pageant organiser.
Question 71:.The Miss Earth beauty pageant is held………………….
A. to find out the most talented woman in the world
B. to find out the most beautiful woman in the world
C. to promote the preservation of the environment
D. to compete with other international beauty contests
Question 72:.All the contestants who compete in the Miss Earth beauty pageant…………………….
A. are extremely beautiful and have no knowledge
B. needn’t have environmental awareness
C. must be beautiful and have environmental knowledge D. needn’t be beautiful
Question 73:.How many international beauty contests are referred in the text? A. One B. two C. three D. four
Question 74:.Which is the activity that the Miss earth beauty pageant winner does not have to take part in? A. to pay sponsor visits
B. to participate in environmental and cultural immersion programs
C. to attend tree planting ceremonies
D. to advertise for a commercial company
Question 75:.The word “awareness” has a close meaning to…………………….. A. Knowledge B. preservation C. promotion D. increase
Question 76:.The winner of the Miss Earth pageant was involved with ………………….. A. Politics B. economy C. environment D. finance
Question 77:.The Miss Earth pageant is …………………… A. Disapproved C. not very popular B. Only held in Europe
D. becoming popular
Question 78:.The word “ dedicate” has a close meaning to………………… A. Experience B. devote C. give D. spend
Question 79:.The requirement the contestants in the Miss earth beauty pageant needn’t meet is……………… A. PhD degree C. environmental knowledge B. physical beauty D. youth
Question 80:.The text is……………………. A. critical B. informative C. disgusting D. disapproving 8
--------------------------------------- SECTION B: WRITING
A. Supply the correct form of the word provided in brackets in each sentence.
1. Eddie just can't stop working and relax any more, he's turning into a real ………………. (WORK)
2. ………………. people are often critical and sarcastic. (CONTENT)
3. Tests have shown that people's blood pressure goes up when they are in red colored………………. (SURROUND)
4. Insecure people often do things just to avoid other people's ……………….(APPROVE)
5. Most of us think we have a rational and well-balanced ………………. on life. (LOOK)
6. There has been a ………………. increase in recovery from leukemia in the last 30 years. (MIRACLE)
7. Faulty electrical ………………. are a relatively common cause of fires in offices, factories and hotels. (APPLY)
8. Without color dyes people would find a lot of processed food rather ………………. (APPETITE)
9. Because he said so little in meetings, his colleagues thought he was ………………. to his work, but
actually he was just timid. (COMMIT)
10. Some hardwood is produced on ………………. so that natural forests are not destroyed. (PLANT)
B. Finish each of the following sentences in such a way that it means the same as the sentence
printed before it. Write your answers on your answer sheet.
Question 1 He is so exhausted that he won’t be able to go out tonight.
→ John is too ________________________________________________________ .
Question 2: “Don’t forget to take your mobile phone.” James said to Daisy.
→ James reminded ____________________________________________________ .
Question 3: It is known that colourful T-shirts were popular during the 1960s.
→ Colourful T-shirts ___________________________________________________ .
Question 4: I think we should wash these apples carefully to avoid food poisoning.
→ I suggested these ____________________________________________________ .
Question 5: But for his help, I would have gone bankrupt.
→ If ________________________________________________________________ .
Question 6: Do you think Sally will be able to come to us for Christmas?
→ Is there any ________________________________________________________ .
Question 7: Using public transport saves energy as well as reduce pollution
→ Not only __________________________________________________________ .
Question 8: John worked really hard but he couldn’t support his family.
→ Hard _____________________________________________________________ .
Question 9: It was wrong of you to be rude to Judy last night.
→ I’d rather __________________________________________________________ .
Question 10: The work completely failed and everyone was surprised.
→ To everybody’s ____________________________________________________ . 9
C. Write a passage about the change of the environment in recent years. (250 words)
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