Đề thi thử vào 10 môn tiếng Anh quận Cầu Giấy, Hà Nội năm 2023

ĐỀ THI TIẾNG ANH VÀO LỚP 10
QUẬN CẦU GIẤY, HÀ NỘI CÓ ĐÁP ÁN
Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word whose underlined part differs
from the other three in pronunciation in each of the following questions.
Question 1. A. wished B. realized C. passed D. touched
Question 2. A. carnival B. rickshaw C. island D. gravity
Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word that differs from the other
three in the position of primary stress in each of the following questions.
Question 3. A. language B. nature C. global D. receive
Question 4. A. economic B. population C. intelligent D. opportunity
Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the underlined part that needs
correction in each of the following questions.
Question 5. The well from where the villagers used to get water is now empty. A. used to B. well C. is D. from where
Question 6. The water and land around the chemical factory are serious polluted. A. The B. serious C. around D. chemical
Question 7. They were walking through Nguyen Hue Avenue while an accident happened. A. accident B. through C. walking D. while
Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the
following questions.
Question 8. _____________ we had planned everything carefully, a lot of things went wrong. A. Although B. However C. Despite D. Because
Question 9. An: “Can I see you tomorrow?”
Binh: “Yes, but not in the morning. _____________.” A. I’ll be working
B. I’d be working C. I’ll work D. I’d work
Question 10. Khoa’s professor had him ______________his thesis many times before allowing him to present it to the committee. A. wrote B. writing C. write D. to written
Question 11. Survey findings ______________that the current family remains an important production unit of society. A. show B. believe C. express D. suggest
Question 12. Their parents are as strict as ______________. A. our B. ours C. us D. we do
Question 13. If everyone _______________ the traffic rules, the road will be much safer. A. obeyed B. will obey C. obeys D. obey
Question 14. SEA Games 32, _____________ theme is “For a Stronger Southest Asia”, will take place
in Cambodia from May 5th to May 17th. A. who B. whose C. when D. which
Question 15. You had your house repaired last month, _____________? A. had it B. didn’t you C. did it D. hadn’t you
Question 16. Lucia tells her lecturer (that) she ______________ some advice from him. A. needs B. didn’t need C. don’t need D. needed
Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the most suitable response to complete
each of the following exchanges.
Question 17. - “Sorry, I forgot to phone you last night.” - “_________________.” A. Oh. Poor me B. Never mind C. I don’t think so D. I have nothing to tell you Question 18.
- “Can I join your volunteer group this summer?” - “_________________.” A. Yes, of course. B. No, not at all C. What a pity D. Yes, you are
Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word(s) CLOSEST in meaning to
the underlined word(s) in each of the following questions.
Question 19. Many countries now allow and encourage women to join the army and the police forces. A. permit B. force C. make D. prevent
Question 20. After her mother died, she was raised by her grandmother. A. brought up B. came into C. grown up D. put up
Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word(s) OPPOSITE in meaning to
the underlined word(s) in each of the following questions.
Question 21. Husbands should contribute to the household duties in order to reduce burden on their wives. A. remove B. increase C. restrict D. decrease
Question 22. I look up to my father for my whole life. A. depend on B. underestimate C. disapprove D. disrespect
Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the
correct word or phrase that best fits each of the numbered blanks.
The Southeast Asian Games owes its origins to the Southeast Asian Peninsular Games or SEAP
which was first (23) _____________ in Thailand in 1959. At the first time only six countries
participated in the games. Laung Sukhumnaioradit, the then Vice-President of the Thailand Olympic
Committee. Proposed that a regional sports (24) _____________ would help promote cooperation,
understanding and relations among countries in the Southeast Asian region.
At the 8th SEAP Games in 1975, the SEAP Federation considered the inclusion of Indonesia
and (25) _____________Philippines. The two countries were formally attended in 1977, the same year
(26) _____________ SEAP Federation changed its name to Southeast Asian Games
Federation (SEAGF), and the games were known (27) _____________the Southeast Asian Games.
Brunei was admitted at the 10th SEA Games in Jakarta, Indonesia, and East Timor at the 22nd SEA Games in Hanoi. Vietnam. Question 23. A. held B. made C. happened D. taken
Question 24. A. festival B. performance C. event D. show Question 25. A. a B. some C. the D. – Question 26. A. who B. which C. where D. when Question 27. A. about B. with C. as D. for
Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the
correct answer to each of the following questions.
Bill Gates is the co-founder of Microsoft, the world’s largest PC software company. He is
among the richest people in the world. Bill Gates’ interest in computers started when he was a
teenager. After high school, he was accepted to several top colleges in the USA: Harvard, Yale, and
Princeton. He chose to go to Harvard to study law. At Harvard, he focused more on his interest in
computer than on coursework. He often relaxed by playing video games in Harvard’s computer lab. He
left Harvard before graduating because he wanted to open a software company with his friend Paul
Allen. However, he later said, “ I don’t think dropping out is a good idea.” In 2007, he received an
honorary degree from Harvard. He began his speech by saying this to his father in the audience. “I’ve
been waiting more than 30 years to say this: Dad ,I always told you I’d come back and get my degree.”
Bill Gates is no longer working full time for Microsoft. He is now, with his wife, running The Bill &
Melinda Gates Foundation which aims to improve healthcare, reduce poverty, and promote education around the world.
Question 28. When did Bill Gates first develop his interest in computers? A. In 2007 B. During his teenage years C. When he went to university
D. When he was at nursery school
Question 29. What did he study at Harvard University? A. Business B. Computer Science C. Language D. Law
Question 30. What did he often do to relax while at Harvard? A. play video games B. play sports C. go to parties D. do volunteer
Question 31. Why did he drop out of Harvard? A. Because he was ill B. Because he hated studying
C. Because he wanted to start a software company
D. Becase he wanted to study at another university
Question 32. What did he receive from Harvard in 2007? A. job B. A company C. An honorary degree D. A software
Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that is closest in meaning
to the sentence given in each of the following questions.
Question 33. My sister began to learn English when she was six years old.
A. My sister has learned English since she was six years old.
B. My sister has learned English when she was six years old
C. My sister learned English since she was six years old
D. My sister has begun to learn English since she was six years old.
Question 34. The rooms aren’t large enough to take a third bed.
A. The rooms are small and we cannot take a third bed.
B. The rooms are so small to take a third bed.
C. The rooms are too small that it can’t take a third bed.
D. The rooms are too small to take a third bed.
Question 35. Barry continued to smoke even though we had advised him to quit.
A. Barry took our advice so he stopped smoking.
B. Barry did not quit smoking because of our advice.
C. If we had advised Barry, he would quit smoking.
D. Despite being told not to smoke, Barry continued to do.
Question 36. We must take care of all living species on Earth.
A. All living species on Earth are taken care of by us.
B. All living species on Earth had been taken care of by us.
C. All living species on Earth must be taken care of by us.
D. All living species on Earth will be taken care of by us.
Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the most meaningful sentence written
from the given words in each of the following questions.
Question 37. They/ live/ Paris/ before/ they/ move/ London.
A. After they had lived in Paris before they moved to London.
B. They lived in Paris before they had moved to London.
C. They have lived in Paris before they moved to London.
D. They had lived in Paris before they moved to London.
Question 38. We/ worried/ that/ people/ not/ stop/ throw/ trash/ along/ street.
A. We were worried that people didn’t stop to throw trash along the street.
B. We can worried that people aren’t stop throwing trash along the street.
C. We are worried that people don’t stop throwing trash along the street.
D. We worried that people will not stop throwing trash along the street.
Question 39. I/ wish/ there/ be/ four seasons/ my area.
A. I wish there were four seasons in my area.
B. I wish there are four seasons in my area.
C. I wish there were four seasons my area.
D. I wish there was four seasons in my area.
Question 40. Pacific Ocean/ deeper/ Atlantic Ocean.
A. The Pacific Ocean is as deeper as the Atlantic Ocean.
B. A Pacific Ocean is deeper than an Atlantic Ocean.
C. The Pacific Ocean is more deeper than the Atlantic Ocean.
D. The Pacific Ocean is deeper than the Atlantic Ocean. ĐÁP ÁN
Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word whose underlined part differs
from the other three in pronunciation in each of the following questions. 1 - B; 2 - C;
Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word that differs from the other
three in the position of primary stress in each of the following questions. 3 - D; 4 - C;
Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the underlined part that needs
correction in each of the following questions. 5 - D; 6 - B; 7 - D;
Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the
following questions.
8 - A; 9 - A; 10 - B; 11 - A; 12 - B;
13 - C; 14 - D; 15 - D; 16 - D;
Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the most suitable response to complete
each of the following exchanges. 17 - B; 18 - A;
Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word(s) CLOSEST in meaning to
the underlined word(s) in each of the following questions. 19 - A; 20 - A;
Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word(s) OPPOSITE in meaning to
the underlined word(s) in each of the following questions. 21 - B; 22 - D;
Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the
correct word or phrase that best fits each of the numbered blanks.
23 - A; 24 - C; 25 - C; 26 - D; 27 - C;
Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the
correct answer to each of the following questions.
28 - B; 29 - D; 30 - A; 31 - C; 32 - C;
Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that is closest in meaning
to the sentence given in each of the following questions.
33 - A; 34 - D; 35 - D; 36 - B;
Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the most meaningful sentence written
from the given words in each of the following questions.
37 - D; 38 - C; 39 - A; 40 - D;