Kì thi chọn đội tuyển chính thức dự thi HSG quốc gia lớp 12 THPT tỉnh Bình Dương năm học 2018-2019 môn thi Tiếng Anh vòng 1
Kì thi chọn đội tuyển chính thức dự thi HSG quốc gia lớp 12 THPT tỉnh Bình Dương năm học 2018-2019 môn thi Tiếng Anh vòng 1 giúp các bạn học sinh sắp tham gia các kì thi Tiếng Anh tham khảo, học tập và ôn tập kiến thức, bài tập và đạt kết quả cao trong kỳ thi sắp tới. Mời bạn đọc đón xem!
Môn: Đề thi chọn học sinh giỏi Tiếng Anh lớp 12 THPT & đội tuyển dự thi học sinh giỏi Quốc gia THPT
Trường: Đề thi chọn HSG Tiếng Anh từ lớp 9 đến lớp 12 cấp trường, quận/ huyện, tỉnh/ thành phố
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SỞ GIÁO DỤC VÀ ĐÀO TẠO
KỲ THI CHỌN HỌC SINH GIỎI THPT CẤP TỈNH - VÒNG 1 MÔN THI: TIẾNG ANH - Ngày thi: 24/8/2018
- Thời gian thi: 180 phút (Không kể thời gian phát đề)
- Họ và tên thí sinh: .................................................................. SBD: ............................... Ghi chú:
- Đề thi có 12 trang. Thí sinh nộp lại Đề thi và Phiếu trả lời khi hết giờ làm bài thi.
- Thí sinh ghi câu trả lời của mình trên Phiếu trả lời.
- Thí sinh không được sử dụng tài liệu, kể cả từ điển.
- Giám thị không giải thích gì thêm.
HƯỚNG DẪN PHẦN THI NGHE HIỂU
Mở đầu và kết thúc bài nghe có tín hiệu nhạc.
Bài nghe gồm 3 phần; mỗi phần được nghe 2 lần. Bài nghe kéo dài 30 phút. I. LISTENING (50 points) Part 1:
You will hear people talking in different situations. Choose the best answer. 1.
You hear someone introducing a programme on the radio. Where is he? A. a swimming pool B. a sports hall C. a football ground 2.
You hear this girl talking to her mother. What plan had her mother agreed to? A. visiting a friend B. going to London C. staying in a hotel 3.
You hear this advertisement for a concert. What is unusual about it? A. It’s on a Saturday.
B. It’s in a different place. C. There will be singers in it. 4.
Listen to this teacher talking to a student. What is he giving? A. some advice B. an opinion C. some information 5.
You hear this woman talking to someone outside a block of flats. What is her job? A. She sells property. B. She is a tourist guide. C. She inspects construction. Part 2:
You will hear five people talking about journeys they have been on. Choose which of the
opinions (A-F) each speaker expresses. Use the letters only once. There is one extra letter
which you do not need to use. A. It was interesting. 6. Speaker 1 B. It was uncomfortable. 7. Speaker 2 C. It was a bit disappointing 8. Speaker 3 D. It was exhausting. 9. Speaker 4 E. It was risky. 10. Speaker 5 F. It was badly organised. Part 3:
Listen and answer the questions.
11. What is the talk mainly about? A. The shape of sea creatures B. How starfish divide C. Animals without a brain
D. The characteristics of jellyfish
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12. How does the jellyfish move around?
A. It uses its five tentacles as arms.
B. It moves with the waves in the sea.
C. It divides itself to go forward.
D. It uses its hands and mouth to move.
13. How does the speaker talk about brainless creatures?
A. He contrasts jellyfish with starfish. B. He explains why they do not have brains.
C. He lists brainless creatures on land. D. He gives examples of brainless creatures. Part 4:
You will hear part of a radio programme about memory. Complete the sentences by writing TWO WORDS in each blank.
14. People start to lose their power of memory when they are in _________________.
15. Keeping your brain mentally stimulated may _________________ the process of memory loss.
16. People’s memories start to get worse as soon as they _________________.
17. You can get your brain working by coming home by a _________________.
18. Exercising for _________________ hour most days will help keep you physically fit.
19. You are more likely to suffer memory loss if you smoke and _________________.
20. Always put things that you keep losing in the _________________.
21. Writing things down _________________.
22. Creating a _________________ of someone will help you to remember their name.
23. You may find it difficult to remember what you know if you are _________________.
24. Don’t practise a formal speech wearing _________________.
25. Write down the main points of your speech and _________________ them.
II. LEXICO-GRAMMAR (40 points) Part 1:
Choose the correct answer to each of the following questions. 26.
The men will have to wait all day ________ the doctor works faster. A. since B. unless C. whether D. that 27.
I’ve won a holiday for two to Florida. I ________ my mum. A. am taking B. have been taken C. take D. will have taken 28.
Unfortunately, their house ________ while they were at the restaurant celebrating their anniversary. A. had burgled B. went burgled C. got burgled D. burgled 29.
You’d rather stay at home tonight, ________ you? A. wouldn’t B. shouldn’t C. couldn’t D. hadn’t 30.
If this dictionary is not yours, ________ can it be? A. what else B. who else C. which else’s D. who else’s 31.
________ can you expect to get a pay raise. A. Now that you work hard B. Working hard C. Only with hard work D. With hard work 32.
It was the extreme cold that finally did ________ him. A. with B. out C. for D. off 33.
By the time they ________ at the concert, the tickets were sold out. A. got through B. filled in C. applied to D. turned up 34.
I ________ some of my old drawings while I was clearing out the cupboard. A. turned up B. came across
C. caught up with D. looked for
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HSG Tỉnh Vòng 1 – Tiếng Anh THPT – Trang 2/12 35.
I borrowed a ________ bike and went into town in the lunch break.
A. friend of mine’s B. friend’s of mine C. friend’s of my D. friend of my’s 36. He escaped by ________. A. a breadth of a hair B. a hair’s breadth C. the breadth of hair D. the hair’s breadth 37.
No offence intended ________ I think you haven’t understood the problem yet. A. when B. as C. if D. but 38.
I take great exception ________ the implication that I was not telling the truth. A. against B. from C. to D. with 39.
If you can win his attention, ________ for you. A. the better so much B. so much the better C. the so much better D. so the much better 40.
I only touched his new car and he went crazy. He was overprotective of it and made a real ________. A. heavy weather of it B. port in a storm C. brass monkey weather D. storm in a teacup 41.
That boy has been ________ me with silly questions all week. Why doesn’t he go and use the library? A. dogging B. pigging C. fishing D. wolfing 42.
Shakespeare is considered to be the writer who ________ more phrases than anyone else. A. chaired B. coined C. handed D. manned 43.
Before we finish tonight, I would like to ________ the happy couple and wish them all the best for the future. A. screen B. log C. toast D. head 44.
You really ________ me with that news. I just couldn’t believe it. A. floored B. beached C. starred D. shouldered 45.
I was about to give somebody my account number over the phone when I realized it
was a ________ attempt to get my personal information. A. persistent B. turbulent C. belligerent D. fraudulent 46.
Susan is ________ and can often overcome difficulties easily. A. big-headed B. level-headed
C. swelled-headed D. wooden-headed 47.
Please just don’t ________ your feedback. I wouldn’t mind hearing the bitter truth. A. sugarcane B. sugarplum C. sugarcoat D. sugarloaf 48.
Most organisations have too many ________ and boring meetings and that needs to change. A. long-winded B. quick-witted C. sharp-edged D. pint-sized 49.
Companies run by ________ business people wouldn’t be spending millions of
dollars on that project if it didn’t work. A. heavy-footed
B. single-breasted C. light-hearted D. hard-nosed Part 2:
Read the text below. Write the correct form of the bracketed words. Number (0) has been
done for you as an example. Write the answer on your answer sheet.
Some people are (0.CARE) ___carefully___ preparing themselves for retirement a
long time before they actually reach it. Some people prefer to retire early. Early retirement
is usually (50.OPT) _________________________ and most companies don’t have any
(51.OBJECT) _________________________ to it. However, once the (52. FORMAL)
_________________________ are over and a person finds himself at home, projects such
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as home (53.MAINTAIN) _________________________ become a new speciality,
especially for men although their (54.ENTHUSE) _________________________ may not
match their (55.PERFORM) _________________________. Often accidents are caused by
someone’s (56.EAGER) _________________________ to save money as their lack of
(57.EXPERT) _________________________ causes more problems than it solves. Part 3:
Read the following passage and use only ONE word that best fits each gap. Write the
answer on your answer sheet. THE BIRTH OF YOUTUBE
In 2005, Chad Hurley and Steve Chen, two software designers from Silicon Valley
in California, were invited to a dinner party. Several people had brought their camcorders to
the party and these people were complaining about (0)____how____ difficult it was to
share home videos online. That was when Chad and Steve came up (58)______________
the idea for YouTube, the site which makes (59)______________ easy to upload home
videos onto the Internet. They formed a company, borrowed some money and
(60)______________ themselves up in business.
It turned (61)______________ that millions of people already had short home video
clips that they thought it would be fun to share with other enthusiasts around the world.
Launched in December 2005, YouTube soon contained more than a million short video
clips. People were uploading 8000 clips a day, and watching three million a day. They had
mostly heard about the site through word (62)______________ mouth, email and hyperlink,
and eighty percent of the clips had been made by amateurs.
So why was YouTube such an immediate success? Researchers found that,
(63)______________ average, people were spending fifteen minutes on the site during each
visit, (64)______________ was enough time to view several short funny clips. In
(65)______________ words, they were using YouTube to give them a little break from their work or study. III. READING (50 points) Part 1:
The passage “First Aid for Snake Bites” explains what to do in the event of a snake bite.
Read the additional instructions (66-71) below and choose the section A-D to which each instruction belongs. 66. never use a tight bandage 67.
help the casualty to sit or lie down 68.
wear stout shoes, walk-socks and jeans in areas where snakes could be present 69.
pain or tightness in the chest or abdomen 70. do not try to catch the snake
FIRST AID FOR SNAKE BITES A. Prevention
leave snakes alone and do not collect snakes
do not put your hands in hollow logs, under piles of wood, or in rubbish
be noisy when walking in the bush
look carefully when walking through thick grass
use a torch around camps at night
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B. Symptoms and signs strong emotional reaction headache or double vision
drowsiness, giddiness or faintness
nausea and/or vomiting and diarrhoea bruising sweating breathing difficulties C. Management reassure the casualty
apply a pressure immobilisation bandage over the bitten area and around the limb seek medical aid urgently
D. Snakebite Warnings
never wash the venom off the skin as this will help in later identification
never cut or squeeze the bitten area
never try to suck the venom out of the wound Part 2:
Read the following passage and decide which answer (A, B, C, D) best fits each gap.
DON’T FORGET YOUR HAT
An important point to remember if you like spending time out in the (71)______ air
is that the human head doesn’t work very well outdoors if it becomes too hot, cold or wet.
That’s why a hat is a good investment, wherever you’re planning to go out and (72)______.
Surprisingly, a single waterproof hat with a brim will do the (73)______ adequately in most conditions.
In cold climates, the problem is that the head is sending out heat all the time. As
(74)______ as fifty to sixty percent of your body’s heat is lost through the head and neck,
(75)______ on which scientist you believe. Clearly this heat loss needs to be prevented, but
it’s important to remember that hats don’t actually (76)______ you warm, they simply stop heat escaping.
Just as important is the need to protect your neck from the effects of (77)______
sunlight, and the brim of your hat will do this. If you prefer a baseball cap, (78)______
buying one that has a drop down “tail” at the back to stop your neck (79)______ sunburnt.
And in wet weather (80)______, hats are often more practical than pulling up the
hood of your waterproof coat because when you (81)______ your head, the hat goes with
you, (82)______ the hood usually does not. 71. A. open B. free C. clear D. wide 72. A. around B. about C. along D. above 73. A. job B. task C. role D. duty 74. A. soon B. long C. well D. much 75. A. according B. regarding C. depending D. relating 76. A. maintain B. stay C. hold D. keep 77. A. sharp B. keen C. bright D. deep 78. A. consider B. recommend C. advise D. suggest 79. A. suffering B. going C. having D. getting 80. A. occasions B. positions C. cases D. conditions 81. A. alter B. switch C. turn D. spin 82. A. instead of B. whereas C. rather than D. thereby
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You are going to read a magazine article about people who have taken up dangerous
sports. Choose from the people (A-D). The people may be chosen more than once. Which person… 83.
…was aware of making a mistake during training? 84.
…expected the first day of training to be relatively easy? 85.
…was confident of having the physical strength to succeed? 86.
…improved their performance by following some useful advice? 87.
…realised their co-trainees had had some experience in a related sport? 88.
…mentions having gained considerable confidence since starting? 89.
…was warned not to try to use skills acquired in other sports? 90.
…believes the training venue used is the best available? 91.
…is confident of overcoming any feelings of fear? 92.
…felt nervous when preparing to try out the sport for the first time? 93.
…mentions the feeling of joy that the sport gave? 94.
…was told the sport was not as dangerous as people think? 95.
…was more successful than somebody else in a first attempt? 96.
…felt disappointed when the trainer gave an order to stop? 97.
…felt uncomfortable with their appearance on arriving for a lesson?
ANYONE FOR EXTREME SPORTS?
Tired of going to the gym? Why not try something you might actually enjoy?
Here are four courageous people describing their own choices.
A. Brenda Gordon: FLYING TRAPEZE
I wanted to do something where I was having so much fun I wouldn’t even notice I
was exercising at all. I decided to try out a half-day circus-skills course. It all started with a
series of preparation exercises. Then I stood facing the flying trapeze, and all of a sudden I
noticed a slight fluttering in my stomach. Next I was shown the right way to grip the trapeze
and how to step off the platform without hitting my back. Then, suddenly, I was being
counted down from three. My heart was racing but I kept thinking I’d no doubt be able to
take my body weight in my very muscular arms. Then in a moment I’d stepped off and,
incredibly, I was swinging through the air. I was aware of a real feeling of regret when the
instructor told me to stop. That was a year ago, and I am now a fearless trapeze flyer,
though my muscles still hurt after each and every session.
B. Guy Stanton: ICE CLIMBING
I had my first ice-climbing lesson at an indoor climbing center which has an
enormous artificial ice cave. I turned up fully kitted-up in heavy climbing boots with sharp-
toothed metal crampons, and armed with two metal ice axes, which was embarrassing as my
co-trainees all expected to get their gear from the center. The instructor ran through a
demonstration. Then it was my turn. I buried the axes on the ice, kicked one boot at the
wall, then the other, and started climbing.
But I had forgotten my first important lesson: don’t bury your axes too deep. As my
desire not to fall increased, so I hammered them deeper until they got stuck. My arms were
aching and I stopped, utterly disappointed with myself. The trainer shouted some
encouragement: “You can do it, don’t grip the axes so hard!” I did so and my more relaxed
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style meant less pressure on my arms, so I started enjoying it. I still feel frightened when
I’m high up, but I know I’ll feel completely at ease eventually.
C. Debbie Bridge: FREEDIVING
Freediving is a sport which consists of diving to great depths without an oxygen
tank. I took part in a freediving course organised by a leading subaqua website. This is
surely the best place in the world to learn this skill. My training took place in a 30-meter
high and 6- meter wide cylindrical water tank. Unlike me, who had never been deeper than
the swimming-pool floor, my co-trainees were all scuba divers. Our trainer was keen to
prove freediving is not so risky. “When practiced correctly, it is a very safe sport,” she said.
After a few lectures about safety, and suitably kitted with flippers and a diving mask, I was
ready to get into the water. With a partner, we were going to attempt to descend and ascend
by pulling on a rope. My partner dived first but had trouble and stopped at 5 meters. Then I
dived, pulling myself downwards on the rope and reached 15 meters easily, feeling more
and more at ease. This sport is not about adrenaline but about being calm.
D. Max Wainright: SNOWBOARDING
I’d always wanted to try snowboarding, so I went for a training day at an indoor
snow slope near my home – a 170-meter-long slope, all covered by 1500 tons of man-made
snow which is surprisingly like the real thing. Having had the pleasure of learning the
basics of snowboarding several years before in the French Alps, I’d hoped that returning to
the sport might be a bit like riding a bike, something you supposedly never forget.
But it seemed that most of what I’d learned had melted away just like snow. I knew I
shouldn’t use the techniques I’d learnt in years of surfing and skiing, and I didn’t. My
instructor had said they were not applicable to snowboarding at all. I started riding slowly at
first, and couldn’t get the balance right. It took hours before I could pick up speed and
successfully perform a neat turn. But I was getting the hang of this! What a thrill to feel the
cool air rushing by, what fun to crash into the snow! Part 4:
You are going to read an article about the experience of running while listening to music.
Six sentences have been removed from the article. Choose from the sentences A-G the one
which fits each gap. There is one extra sentence which you do not need to use.
DOES MUSIC MAKE YOU RUN FASTER?
Runner Adharanand Finn took part in an unusual race in order to test the theory that music
can make you run faster.
An expert on the effects of music on exercise, Dr Costas Karageorghis, claims that
listening to music while running can boost performance by up to 15%. To put this theory to
the test, I took part in a special Rock n’ Roll half marathon, which had groups of musicians
playing at various points along the route.
As I lined up at the start with almost 4,000 other runners, a singer sang an inspiring
song for us. It may explain why I got off to a good start. I only came eighth in the end,
though, even though I’d just spent six months training hard. (98)_________ However, it
turns out that all the training may have affected my response to the music; according to the
research, the benefits of listening to music decrease with the level of intensity of the running.
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“Elite athletes,” says Karageorghis, “tend to focus inwardly when they are running.”
According to him, most other runners look for stimulus and distraction from what is going
on around them. “Judging by your time,” he says, “you are one of the former.” It is true.
Apart from the song at the start, when I was standing still, I can barely remember the music
played along the course. The first act I passed, a folk group, made me smile, and at one
point I found myself running in time to the beat of some hard rock. (99)_________ I can’t
say they helped my performance very much. But what did other runners make of the music?
Adam Bull usually runs marathons with no music and little crowd support.
“(100)_________ With the upbeat bands, you find yourself running to the beat, which
helps. It also brings out people to cheer you on.” Rosie Bradford was also a convert. “As we
ran past one band and they started playing These Boots Were Made for Walking, everybody suddenly went faster.”
The only person I found who was less than happy with the music was Lois Lloyd.
“There wasn’t enough of it, and I found it wasn’t loud enough, so I ran with an MP3
player,” she said, “(101)_________” Karageorghis is not surprised when I tell him. “There
are many advantages to using your own player, rather than relying on the music on the
course,” he says. “It gives you a constant stimulus, rather than just an occasional one, and
you can tailor the playlist to your taste.”
One runner told me there was a direct correlation between the quality of the music
on the course and how much it helped. But quality, of course, is subjective. I remember
feeling annoyed as I ran past one band playing Keep On Running. (102)_________
Of course, the music was not only there to help runners break their personal bests
(although sadly it was unable to help me beat mine), but to provide a sense of occasion,
draw out the crowds and create a carnival atmosphere. (103)_________ As I left, people
were beginning to relax after the run, listening to an excellent rock band. It was a fitting way to end the day.
A. I need my music all the time.
B. I think they knew why I found the music here so distracting.
C. I enjoyed that for a few moments, but both of them came and went in a flash.
D. Along with some spring sunshine, it certainly achieved that.
E. Someone else, though, may have found it uplifting.
F. I was, in fact, taking my running pretty seriously at that time.
G. The music here has been great for my performance. Part 5:
Read the text and answer the questions.
The craft of perfumery has an ancient and global heritage. The art flourished in
Ancient Rome, where the emperors were said to bathe in scent. After the fall of Rome,
much of the knowledge was lost, but survived in Islamic civilizations in the Middle Ages.
Arab and Persian pharmacists developed essential oils from the aromatic plants of the
Indian peninsula. They developed the processes of distillation and suspension in alcohol,
which allowed for smaller amounts of raw materials to be used than in the ancient process,
by which flower petals were soaked in warm oil. This knowledge was carried back to
European monasteries during the Crusades.
At first, the use of fragrances was primarily associated with healing. Aromatic
alcoholic waters were ingested as well as used externally. Fragrances were used to purify
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the air, both for spiritual and health purposes. During the Black Death, the bubonic plague
was thought to have resulted from a bad odour which could be averted by inhaling pleasant
fragrances such as cinnamon. The Black Death led to an aversion to using water for
washing, and so perfume was commonly used as a cleaning agent.
Later on, the craft of perfume re-entered Europe, and was centred in Venice, chiefly
because it was an important trade route and a centre for glass-making. Having such
materials at hand was essential for the distillation process. In the late seventeenth century,
trade soared in France, when Louis XIV brought in policies of protectionism and patronage
which stimulated the purchase of luxury goods. Here, perfumery was the preserve of glove-
makers. The link arose since the tanning of leather required putrid substances.
Consequently, the gloves were scented before they were sold and worn. A glove and
perfume makers’ guild had existed here since 1190. Entering it required 7 years of formal
training under a master perfumer.
The trade in perfume flourished during the reign of Louis XV, as the master glove-
and-perfume makers, particularly those trading in Paris, received patronage from the royal
court, where it is said that a different perfume was used each week. The perfumers
diversified into other cosmetics including soaps, powders, white face paints and hair dyes.
They were not the sole sellers of beauty products. Mercers, spicers, vinegar-makers and
wig-makers were all cashing in on the popularity of perfumed products. Even simple
shopkeepers were coming up with their own concoctions to sell.
During the eighteenth century, more modern, capitalist perfume industry began to
emerge, particularly in Britain where there was a flourishing consumer society. In France,
the revolution initially disrupted the perfume trade due to its association with aristocracy,
however, it regained momentum later as a wider range of markets were sought both in the
domestic and overseas markets. The guild system was abolished in 1791, allowing new
high-end perfumery shops to open in Paris.
Perfume became less associated with health in 1810 with a Napoleonic ordinance
which required perfumers to declare the ingredients of all products for internal
consumption. Unwilling to divulge their secrets, traders concentrated on products for
external use. Napoleon affected the industry in other ways too. With French ports
blockaded by the British during the Napoleonic wars, the London perfumers were able to
dominate the markets for some time.
One of the significant changes in the nineteenth century was the idea of branding.
Until then, trademarks had had little significance in the perfumery where goods were
consumed locally, although they had a long history in other industries. One of the pioneers
in this field was Rimmel who was nationalized as a British citizen in 1857. He took
advantage of the spread of railroads to reach customers in wider markets. To do this, he
built a brand which conveyed prestige and quality, and were worth paying a premium for.
He recognised the role of design in enhancing the value of his products, hiring a French
lithographer to create the labels for his perfume bottles.
Luxury fragrances were strongly associated with the affluent and prestigious cities of
London and Paris. Perfumers elsewhere tended to supply cheaper products and knock-offs
of the London and Paris brands. The United States perfume industry, which developed
around the docks in New York where French oils were being imported, began in this way.
Many American firms were founded by immigrants, such as William Colgate, who arrived
in 1806. At this time, Colgate was chiefly known as a perfumery. Its Cashmere Bouquet
brand had 625 perfume varieties in the early 20th century.
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104. The purpose of the text is to…
A. compare the perfumes from different countries
B. describe the history of perfume making
C. describe the problems faced by perfumers
D. explain the different uses of perfume over time
105. Which of the following is NOT true about perfume making in Islamic countries?
A. They created perfume by soaking flower petals in oil.
B. They dominated perfume making after the fall of the Roman Empire.
C. They took raw materials for their perfumes from India.
D. They created a technique which required fewer plant materials.
106. Why does the writer include this sentence in paragraph 2?
During the Black Death, the bubonic plague was thought to have resulted from a bad
odour which could be averted by inhaling pleasant fragrances such as cinnamon.
A. To explain why washing was not popular during the Black Death
B. To show how improper use of perfume caused widespread disease
C. To illustrate how perfumes used to be ingested to treat disease
D. To give an example of how fragrances were used for health purposes
107. What does putrid mean in paragraph 3? A. Bad-smelling B. Rare C. Prestigious D. Numerous
108. Why did the perfume industry develop in Paris?
A. Because it was an important trade route
B. Because of the rise in the glove-making industry
C. Because of the introduction of new trade laws
D. Because of a new fashion in scented gloves
109. Which of the following people most influenced the decline of perfumes as medicine? A. Louis XIV B. Louis XV C. Rimmel D. Napoleon
110. In paragraph 4, it is implied that…
A. Master glove and perfume makers created a new perfume each week.
B. Mercers, spicers and other traders began to call themselves masters.
C. The Royal Court only bought perfume from masters.
D. Cosmetics were still only popular within the Royal Courts.
111. How did the French Revolution affect the Parisian perfume industry?
A. The industry declined then rose again.
B. The industry collapsed and took a long time to recover.
C. The industry was greatly boosted.
D. The industry lost most of its overseas customers.
112. London came to lead the perfume industry because…
A. the French Revolution meant that there were fewer customers in France.
B. Napoleon’s new laws affected the profitability of perfume-making.
C. the production of perfume ceased during the Napoleonic wars.
D. the French were unable to export perfumes for a period of time.
113. Which of the following is NOT true of Rimmel?
A. He was one of the first people to utilise trademarks.
B. He created attractive packaging for his products.
C. His products were more expensive than other brands.
D. He transported his goods to potential customers by train.
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114. What is implied about the New York perfume industry?
A. It was the fastest-growing perfume industry in the world at that time.
B. It was primarily developed by immigrants arriving from France.
C. It copied luxury fragrances and sold them cheaply.
D. There was a wider range of fragrances available here than elsewhere.
115. Which city is being described in this sentence?
“The perfume industry developed here because the city produced materials and
equipment necessary for perfume production.” A. Paris B. London C. Venice D. New York IV. WRITING (40 points) Part 1:
Complete the second sentence so that it has a similar meaning to the first sentence, using
the word given in parentheses. Do not change the word given. Use no contractions.
Only write between THREE AND FIVE WORDS, including the word given, on the answer sheet. Example:
Repairing that old computer is pointless in my view. (point)
→ I can ______________________ that old computer being repaired. Answer:
I can see no point in that old computer being repaired.
116. My passport needs renewing because I’m going abroad this winter. (get)
→ I need _____________________________ because I’m going abroad this winter.
117. Could I ask you if you’d mind looking after my fish while I’m away? (wondering)
→ I _____________________________ willing to look after my fish while I’m away.
118. It is so difficult to create new ideas for the festival every year. (come)
→ How difficult _____________________________ with new ideas for the festival every year.
119. The ban on parking in the city centre is probably going to be very unpopular. (likely)
→ It _____________________________ ban in the city centre will be a very unpopular move.
120. They put Roger in charge of coaching the kids here. (made)
→ Roger _____________________________ for coaching the kids here.
121. Simon ought to make a decision about his future. (mind)
→ It is time Simon _____________________________ about his future.
122. Most of the children ignored what the guide said. (notice)
→ Few of the children _____________________________ what the guide said.
123. I always hated pizza when I was a child but now I eat it regularly. (use)
→ I _____________________________ pizza when I was a child but now I eat it regularly.
124. It is important to be well-prepared for an interview because if you make a mistake,
you may not get the job. (cost)
→ A mistake in an interview may _____________________________ so it is
important to be well-prepared.
125. If you don’t pay on time, your booking will be cancelled. (result)
→ Failure to _____________________________ your booking being cancelled.
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HSG Tỉnh Vòng 1 – Tiếng Anh THPT – Trang 11/12 Part 2:
The chart below shows information about Heart Attacks by Ages and Genders in the USA.
Summarise the information by selecting and reporting the main features, and make
comparisons where relevant. You should write at least 150 words.
Heart Attacks per year, USA (in thousands) 500 440 424 450 374 400 350 300 Men 250 Women 200 136 150 123 100 50 3 0 Age Groups: 29-44 45-64 65+ Part 3:
In some countries, young people are encouraged to work or travel for a year between
leaving high school and starting university.
Discuss the advantages and disadvantages for young people who decide to do this.
Give reasons for your answer and include any relevant examples from your own knowledge
or experience. You should write at least 300 words.
THIS IS THE END OF THE TEST.
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