Kỳ thi thử lần 1 học sinh giỏi quốc gia THPT trường THPT chuyên Tiền Giang năm 2018 môn Tiếng Anh

SỞ GIÁO DỤC VÀ ĐÀO TẠO TIỀN GIANG
KỲ THI THỬ LẦN 1 HỌC SINH GIỎI QUỐC GIA THPT
TRƯỜNG THPT CHUYÊN NĂM 2018 Môn thi: TIẾNG ANH Thời gian thi:
180 phút (không kể thời gian giao đề) SỐ PHÁCH Ngày thi: 04/11/2017
Đề thi có 18 trang I. LISTENING
HƯỚNG DẪN PHẦN THI NGHE HIỂU -
Bài nghe gồm 4 phần, mỗi phần được nghe 2 lần, mỗi lần cách nhau 05 giây; mở đầu và kết thúc
mỗi phần nghe có tín hiệu. -
Mở đầu và kết thúc bài nghe có tín hiệu nhạc. Thí sinh có 02 phút để hoàn chỉnh bài trước tín hiệu
nhạc kết thúc bài nghe. -
Mọi hướng dẫn cho thí sinh (bằng tiếng Anh) đã có trong bài nghe.
Part 1. For questions 1-5, listen to part of the telephone about voluntary work and complete the
notes below. Write NO MORE THAN FIVE WORDS/ OR A NUMBER for each answer in the space provided.
Volunteer applicant details
• Name of enquirer: Ben Oppermann • Age: 22 Qualifications
• (1) ____________________________________
• Postgraduate Certificate in Primary Education
Interested in a placement lasting 2 years Programs available
• (2) ____________________________________
• Youth for Action on Development
Other skills and interests:
• Experience of conservation work
• Member of a wildlife protection group Work details
• Applicants have to be hard working and to (3) ___________________________________ in the voluntary work.
• Short-listed applicants are expected to (4) ____________________________________ at the beginning of the year.
• Applicants are expected to contribute approximately two-thirds of the cost of (5)
___________________________________ Page 1 of 18
Part 2. Listen to the conversation between John Grey, a study support adviser and two students,
Wilson and Grace and answer questions 6-10.
Which of the TWO problems for Wilson that are mentioned about writing? (6) ____________
A. His essay’s structure is not well organized. (7) ____________
B. He can’t find the session about essay planning in each academic area.
C. He can’t make an appointment with the tutor.
D. He can’t find enough lectures for the his writing
E. The meanings behind the titles are unclear to him.
Which THREE statements are TRUE about Grace’s problems? (8) __________
A. Some counselors will help Grace with his problems. (9) __________
B. Grace will not want to see the lecturer.
C. The adviser will see Grace this afternoon to discuss the problem further. (10) _________
D. The lecturers are not native and the ideas are very obscure.
E. The adviser suggesting Grace should ask the lecturers for some notes.
F. Grace didn’t have good sleep only because of his course and his family relative.
Part 3. Listen to an interview with Dr. Lafford, a leading expert in the field of forensic science. For
questions 11-15, choose the answer (A, B, C or D) which fits best according to what you hear.
11. According to Dr. Lafford, Sherlock Holmes was a good forensic scientist because of his _________ A. psychological insight. B. unbiased approach. C. detailed observations. D. medical knowledge.
12. Forensic scientists pay particular attention to _________ A. evidence of mutual contact.
B. items criminals have touched. C. a suspect's clothing.
D. carpet fibers and human hair.
13. Dr. Lafford mentions the broken headlight to show that forensic science nowadays is _________
A. more complex than it used to be.
B. just as reliable as it was in the past.
C. not as time-consuming as it once was.
D. more straightforward than it was in the past.
14. According to Dr. Lafford, electron microscopes can _________
A. produce conflicting results. B. sometimes damage evidence.
C. provide a chemical analysis. D. guarantee total accuracy.
15. Dr. Lafford feels that the value of forensic science lies in _________
A. how its significance to a case is explained.
B. the use of advanced genetic fingerprinting.
C. the possibility of eliminating human error.
D. reducing the number of possible suspects. 11 12 13 14 15 Page 2 of 18
Part 4. Listen to the radio talk and complete the following sentences with a word or short phrase.
Write NO MORE THAN FOUR WORDS AND/OR A NUMBER.
• The speaker says that it is Burton’s (16)___________________________ of sixteen volumes of the
Arabian Nights that is most widely known.
• As an explorer he searched for the (17)___________________________ and made other journeys
in northern Africa and the Near East.
• His most impressive achievement was that he spoke (18)___________________________ as well as numerous dialects.
• The speaker does not feel that his methods of studying were (19)___________________________ in any way.
• It seems that when Burton set out on a new learning project, he was both
(20)___________________________ and persistent in his approach.
• He had tremendous energy and determination, and would devote
(21)___________________________ to the study of a new language.
• Burton spent most of his childhood (22)___________________________.
• As a child, he had to learn foreign languages in order to (23)___________________________ of his own age.
• On reaching (24)___________________________, he had mastered impressive language skills and
had a high degree of learning experience.
• Unlike other people, he found (25)___________________________ interesting and attracting and he tried his best to succeed. Page 3 of 18 II. LEXICO - GRAMMAR
Part 1: For questions 26-39, choose the correct answer A, B, C, or D to each of the following
questions. Write your answers in the corresponding numbered boxes provided.
26. The team won the championship four years _______. A. running B. passing C. following D. rotating
27. The performance will start _______ on time. A. exactly B. punctually C. dead D. just
28. A whole host of criticisms have been levelled _______ the committee. A. against B. towards C. by D. for
29. Do you think he could be _______ upon to make a speech after the presentation? A. prevailed B. impelled C. urged D. pressured
30. I was completely _______ over by their warm reception. A. pushed B. run C. bowled D. thrown
31. The prospects of picking up any survivors are now _______. A. thin B. narrow C. slim D. restricted
32. Hopes are _______ of finding the missing boat. A. darkening B. going C. fading D. draining
33. His happy-go-lucky attitude means that on the field he exhibits a _______ disregard for the rules. A. required B. glaring C. permissible D. flagrant
34. We still meet up for a drink and a chat once _______. A. upon a time B. at a time
C. in a black mood D. in a while
35. He is a(n) _______ authority on the subject. A. eminent B. expert C. prominent D. quality
36. His parents like to think their eight-year-old is a _______ concert pianist. A. would-be B. succeeding C. budding D. blossoming
37. You'll be pleased to know that turnover is showing a _______ improvement. A. medium B. mediocre C. minimal D. pronounced
38. He'd have been over the _______ if he'd been selected for that management course. A. world B. moon C. sun D. hill
39. There would be a _______ of protest if they showed the victims on TV. A. sea B. stream C. storm D. shower 26 27 28 29 30 31 32 33 34 35 36 37 38 39
Part 2: For questions 40-45, write the correct form of each bracketed word in the numbered
space provide in the column on the right.
In Greek communities, citizens had to follow the rules that were Your answers
put in place by the office of the censor. The office of the censor was
sort of supposed to be like the community's “moral compass”. But of
course, like in all stages of history, there were those who conformed to
the rules and those who didn't.
Unsurprisingly, the (40) ______ (CONFORM) who questioned 40. ____________________
any type of censorship were part of literary circles. One Greek
playwright called Socrates, whom I'm sure you all have heard of, was
at the center of a censorship controversy. As a result of his modern and
(41) ______ (EDGE) ideas, Socrates was convicted and executed for 41. ____________________
heresy. He was sentenced to drink poison in 399 BC for “corrupting the Page 4 of 18
minds of the Greek youth”. This ancient view of censorship can still be
found in many countries today.
In 1384, John Wycliffe translated the Bible into English. This caused a
lot of controversy because it allowed anyone to read the Bible.
Catholics and priests were (42) ______
(RAGE) and the pope were so
infuriated that after Wycliffe’s death, he ordered Wycliffe’s bone to be 42. ____________________
“dug up, crushed and scattered in the river”. The Bible was banned, but
later reinstated in the 16th century in England under Henry VIII’s rule
when England converted to a Protestantism. In this new religious
setting, Henry was free to marry as many times as he wanted. This
example reflects the (43)______ (JUSTICE) of censorship; how one 43. ____________________
man's opinion controls a whole nation. This brings me to a key point
about censorship. Censorship isn't so much about taking books away
from people, but rather it is about taking away their freedom of thought
and their freedom of speech. (44) ______ (FORTUNE), we have seen 44. ____________________
men and women stand up for the right to their freedom of expression
throughout history. So of course, the fourteenth century was a long time
ago, but do you realize that censorship is still alive and well today? For
instance, we have heard of the Harry Potter series. You know, the
books about the young wizard who finds himself among a magical
world of sorcery and spells…? Well, there are some (45) ______ 45. ____________________
(FUNDAMENTAL) Christian groups who claim that Harry Potter books
encourage witchcraft. As a result, they are trying to ban the books. No
one has been successful in banning the Potter books yet, but the fact
that people are trying to ban them proves that censorship is still very
much relevant in today's modern world. III. READING
Part 1: For questions 46-50, read the text below and decide which answer A, B, C, or D best
fits each gap. Write your answers in the corresponding numbered boxes provided.
Oxford is a city with such a (46) _______ reputation that many who come here find themselves
intimidated by the place and can't wait to leave, while others, taking to it like a (47) _______ to water,
find themselves returning again and again. The college lawns provide a gorgeous (48) _______ to
serious study, and in the right light, on a sunny winter's morning say, one feels as if one is floating
on air, such is the sense of unreality. Oxford may like to pretend that it is at the intellectual (49)
_______ of things, but in many ways it is no more than a sleepy (50) _______ where, to mix
metaphors, transitory students, the (51) _______ of their generation, wait in the wings, allowing their
talents to flourish before moving off into the industrial or political (52) _______. Much of this is a
myth, of course. Hardship and hard work are very much part and (53) _______ of student life. The
(54) _______ get through the three years' hard grind by simply putting their shoulders to the (55)
_______ before going on to fairly average jobs. Only for the tiny minority is Oxford the first step on
the ladder to fame and fortune. 46. A. mind-blowing B. clear-headed C. backhanded D. broken-hearted 47. A. fish B. duck C. boat D. swimmer 48. A. backdrop B. curtain C. scene D. screen 49. A. wheel B. engine C. spoke D. hub 50. A. backwater B. stream C. tributary D. watershed 51. A. froth B. cream C. fat D. caviar 52. A. peak B. abattoir C. dead-end D. fast-lane 53. A. package B. section C. province D. parcel Page 5 of 18 54. A. level-headed B. hot-headed C. hot-blooded D. kind-hearted 55. A. cart B. wheel C. engine D. boat
Part 2: For questions 51-60, fill each of the following numbered blanks with ONE suitable
word. Write your answers in the corresponding numbered boxes provided.
FROM DEADLY VENOM TO HEALING MEDICINE
In Australia, life-threatening poisonous animals have always (51) _______ a hazard to humans, but
some also act as lifesavers. Such is the (52) _______ with the notorious death adder, a snake that
is essential to the (53) _______ of antivenins.
For the past 50 years, the Australian Reptile Park has raised and milked hundreds of venomous
snakes (54) _______ their poisonous venom in order to produce a life-saving medicines. The reptile
park, (55) _______ programmes also include 500 poisonous spiders, is the sole supplier of this venom in Australia.
Hundreds of milkings are necessary to create a single dose of antivenin. The job is not easy, but it
is one that (56) _______ tremendous dividends for public health. To keep up with the (57) _______
for venom, several highly-trained staff work full-time on the programme. As John Weigel, director of
the park (58) _______ out, “We've done this for years and it (59) _______ the lives of around 280 to
300 snake bite and spider bite victims a year. That feeling's great and it's (60) _______ the effort.” 51 52 53 54 55 56 57 58 59 60
Part 3. For question 61-73, read the following passage and do the tasks that follow.
THE BIG CATS AT THE SHARJAH BREEDING CENTRE
It is one of the few places where you will be able to spot them all at the same time… the Arabian wolf,
an African cheetah, an Arabian leopard, an oryx, a gazelle. These are just some of the animals, which, on the
brink of extinction, are now getting a new lease of life thanks to the exemplary work being done at the Breeding
Centre for Endangered Arabian Wildlife in Sharjah.
Sharjah is one of the seven emirates that make up the United Arab Emirates. The Breeding Centre’s
expertise and facilities have made it a prime destination for illegally imported animals confiscated by UAE and
Sharjah authorities. In the last four years, more than 900 mammals and reptiles and 969 birds have arrived at
the centre, including 25 North African cheetahs, Houbara bustard and falcons, lions, a baby Nile crocodile
and a Burmese python that was left in a rental car at the airport.
The 25 cheetahs were all imported illegally into the UAE and were intercepted at the UAE harbour and
airport entry points. They nearly all arrived malnourished, dehydrated and highly stressed after long voyages
stuffed into boxes, crates and suitcases. Now they are bright and full of energy. The Centre’s efforts have also
been rewarded when the first cheetah mating took place at the end of 2002. Playing matchmaker with these
beautiful creatures is no easy task – successful breeding requires considerable patience and intimate
knowledge of each animal’s personality, and it is the result of intensive and expert management of each
animal within the group as well as of the group as a whole.
Because this group was still young and inexperienced in courtship matters, the keepers had to make
the introductions only after careful planning and management, much like the lead role in a Jane Austen novel.
The female cheetahs were initially intimidated by the presence of the male; however, as they advance to
oestrus, the roles are reversed and the male cheetah becomes too wary to approach during the female’s most
receptive phase of the cycle. It is the responsibility of the keeper therefore to monitor each individual and to
be able to respond to any indication from the cheetahs that the time is right for introducing a pair. The close
bond that invariably develops between the keeper and the cheetahs enables the keeper to spot even the most
subtle signs from the animals in their care. The trust between keeper and animal has also allowed the Page 6 of 18
opportunity to study cellular changes in the sexual organs of the females during the hormonal cycles that occur prior to reproduction.
The Breeding Centre’s cheetahs are also participants in the European breeding programme, which
aims to ensure that the genetic diversity of this endangered species is maintained and expanded by breeding
as many founder animals as possible to introduce new bloodlines into the captive population. In this way, the
group held at the centre plays a very important role in the future health of the international captive population,
as they are potentially all new founders. Also very important for the Sharjah Breeding Centre is the leopard- breeding programme.
The Arabian leopard, Panthera pardus nimr, is critically endangered around the world and particularly
in the Arabian peninsula, where it was once found throughout the coastal mountain ranges. Activities like
hunting, trapping and habitat destruction has reduced their range to a few isolated and fragmented populations
in Oman, Yemen and Saudi Arabia.
In the 1980s, a captive breeding programme was established near Muscat with the capture of three
leopards in southwestern Oman. The breeding programme in the UAE was initiated by the Arabian Leopard
Trust and started with the arrival of two mature specimens: a male Arabian leopard from Yemen and a female
on breeding loan from Oman in 1995. The arrival of these two animals led to the construction of the Breeding
Centre in which the leopard has played the role of flagship species.
Today there are twelve leopards at the Breeding centre, eight of which have been born at the centre
since the first cub in 1998. Once more, the secret to the centre’s success is the close relationship between
animal and keeper. The leopard is usually shy and secretive with people around, but here they react positively
to the presence of their keepers, approaching the fence so they can be talked to or scratched behind an ear.
The bond is particularly important during breeding season, when keepers decide to introduce pairs to
each other. Male leopards are known to have killed their partners on introduction, so it is essential for the
keeper to understand the leopards’ behaviour to decide when it is safe to do so. The trust is also important if
keepers need to enter dens to check on and monitor the cub’s growth. Leopard females have been known to
kil their cubs if the dens have been disturbed, but the centre’s leopards are quite comfortable with the staff
handling the new generation of cubs. Questions 61- 68
Use the information in the text to match the statements (61 – 68) with the animals (A – D). Write the
appropriate letter (A – D) in boxes 61 – 68 on your answer sheet. Write:
A if the statement refers to cheetahs at the Breeding Centre.
B if the statement refers to leopards at the Breeding Centre.
C if the statement refers to both cheetahs and leopards at the Breeding Centre.
D If the statement refers to neither cheetahs nor leopards at the Breeding Centre.
Example answer
These animals are endangered. C
61. These animals were smuggled into the UAE.
62. At first these animals did not adapt to life at the Sharjah Breeding Centre
63. These animals are regarded as the most important animal at the Centre.
64. Half of these animals were born at the Breeding centre.
65. These animals can be dangerous to one another.
66. The role of the keeper is vital in the breeding programme of these animals.
67. The first of these animals at the Breeding Centre were relatively young.
68. It is normally difficult for humans to approach these animals. Page 7 of 18 Questions 69 – 73
Complete the summary below.
Choose your answers from the box below the summary and write them in boxes 69 – 73 on your answer sheet.
NB There are more words than spaces, so you will not use them at all. SUMMARY
The Sharjah Breeding Centre now has a variety of animals including birds, mammals and (69)
__________. As its name suggests, the Centre is primarily involved in breeding and (70) __________ the
numbers of the species housed there whilst still maintaining the (71) _________ of bloodlines in order to retain
genetic health. In spite of problems involving the complex (72) __________ of the animals, a fair amount of
(73) __________ has been achieved with North African cheetahs and Arabian leopards. reptiles variety behaviour success creating expanding difficulty diversity action habitat season fish change working programme Your answers 61. 62. 63. 64. 65. 66. 67. 68. 69. 70. 71. 72. 73.
Part 4. For question 74-87, read the following passage and do the tasks that follow.
INSOMNIA – THE ENEMY OF SLEEP A
It is not unusual to have sleep troubles from time to time. But, if you feel you do not get enough sleep or
satisfying sleep, you may have insomnia, a sleep disorder. People with insomnia have one or more of the
following: difficulty falling asleep, waking up often during the night and having trouble going back to sleep,
waking up too early in the morning and unrefreshing sleep. Insomnia is not defined by the number of hours
you sleep every night. The amount of sleep a person needs varies. While most people need between 7 and
8 hours of sleep a night, some people do well with less, and some need more. B
Insomnia occurs most frequently in people over age 60, in people with a history of depression, and in women,
especially after menopause. Severe emotional trauma can also cause insomnia with divorced, widowed and
separated people being the most likely to suffer from this sleep disorder. Stress, anxiety, illness and other
sleep disorders such as restless legs syndrome are the most common causes of insomnia. An irregular work
schedule, jet lag or brain damage from a stroke or Alzeimer’s disease can also cause insomnia as well as
excessive use of alcohol or illicit drugs. It can also accompany a variety of mental illnesses. C
The mechanism that induces sleep is not known. When it becomes dark, the pineal gland in the brain secretes
a hormone called melatonin, which is thought to induce sleep. Exactly why sleep is necessary for good health
and efficient mental functioning is unknown. We do know that sleep consists of two very different states: rapid
eye movement (REM) sleep and non-REM sleep. In REM sleep, dreams occur, the eyes move under the
closed lids and there is an increase in oxygen consumption, blood flow and neural activity. REM sleep occurs
four or five times during a night. Beginning periods last about ten to fifteen minutes but the periods get longer
as the night goes on. The periods of REM sleep alternate with longer periods of non-REM sleep, when body Page 8 of 18
functions slow. Non-REM sleep has four stages. During the deepest stages (3 and 4) it is hard to rouse a
sleeper. As the night goes on, the periods of non-REM sleep become progressively lighter. Sleep in stages 1
and 2 are felt to be restorative as during this time the body repairs itself utilising a hormone called
somatostatin. Lack of stage 4 sleep is believed to be important in chronically painful conditions such as fibromyalgia. D
Healthcare providers diagnose insomnia in several ways. One way is to categorize insomnia by how often it
occurs. Another way is to identify the insomnia by what is causing the sleep deprivation. The two main types
of insomnia have been described as Primary Insomnia and Secondary Insomnia. Primary Insomnia is a
chronic condition with little apparent association with stress or a medical problem. The most common form of
primary insomnia is psychophysiological insomnia. Secondary insomnia is caused by symptoms that
accompany a medical condition such as anxiety, depression or pain. E
Improving one’s sleep hygiene helps improve insomnia in all patients. Relaxing during the hour before you go
to sleep and creating a comfortable environment suited for sleep can be helpful. Older people who wake up
earlier than normal or have trouble falling asleep may need less sleep than they used to. Changing one’s
sleep pattern, either by going to bed later or waking up earlier, can be effective in dealing with insomnia in
older people. Therapy also depends on the cause and severity of the insomnia. Transient and intermittent
insomnia may not require any direct action since these conditions last only a few days at a time. However, if
insomnia interferes with a person’s daily activities, something should be done. Usually the best method of
dealing with insomnia is by attacking the underlying cause. For example, people who are depressed often
have insomnia and looking at this problem may eliminate it. F
Not getting enough sleep can make you less productive, irritable and unable to concentrate. Lack of sleep
can make it seem as if you “got up out of the wrong side of the bed.” Early morning headaches and waking
up feeling as if you never went to sleep can result in frustration. Stress can cause insomnia but insomnia also
increases stress. Insomnia can make driving unsafe as well. Insomnia can result in missed work, which can
cause you to become less productive and miss promotions. It can leave you feeling as if you just can’t get
enough done. Insomnia can also mask serious mental disorders. People with insomnia may think that not
getting enough sleep is their only problem, but the insomnia may actually be one symptom of a larger disorder,
such as depression. Studies show that people with insomnia are four times more likely to be depressed than
people with a healthy sleeping pattern. In addition, lack of sleep can tax the heart and lead to serious
conditions like heart disease. All of these are important problems that can affect every part of your life. G
Establishing certain set routines can help insomniacs get better sleep. Examples of these routines include:
going to bed and getting up at the same time every day, avoiding napping, avoiding caffeine, nicotine, alcohol
and eating heavily late in the day, exercising regularly and making your bedroom comfortable in terms of the
bed, noise and temperature. Insomniacs should also only use their bedroom for sleep so that their bodies
associate the room with sleep. Final y, if you can’t get to sleep, don’t toss and turn all night. Get up and read
or do something that is not overly stimulating until you feel really sleepy again. Questions 74 - 79
The reading passage on Insomnia has 7 paragraphs (A – G).
From the list of headings below choose the most suitable headings for paragraphs B – G.
Write the appropriate number (i – xi) in boxes 74 – 79 on your answer sheet.
NB There are more headings than paragraphs, so you will not use them all. Page 9 of 18
Example Answer Paragraph A iv i. The Role of Sleep ii. Insomnia Medication iii.
Habits to Promote a Good Night’s Sleep iv. What is Insomnia v.
Complications for Insomniacs vi. Government Action vii.
Available Treatment for Insomnia viii. The Causes of Insomnia ix. Therapy Solutions x. Types of Insomnia xi. Current Research 74. Paragraph B 75. Paragraph C 76. Paragraph D 77. Paragraph E 78. Paragraph F 79. Paragraph G Your answers 74. 75. 76. 77. 78. 79. Questions 80 - 87
Do the following statements agree with the views of the writer of the reading passage on Insomnia?
In Boxes 80 - 87 write:
YES if the statement agrees with the writer
NO if the statement doesn’t agree with the writer
NOT GIVEN if it is impossible to say what the writer thinks about this
80. Someone who only gets four hours of sleep a night must be suffering from insomnia.
81. Travelling can cause insomnia.
82. REM sleep is felt to be the most important for the body’s rest. Page 10 of 18
83. Secondary insomnia is far more common than primary insomnia.
84. Sufferers of insomnia can attend specialist sleep clinics.
85. Many people suffering from insomnia don’t realise that they suffer from it.
86. There is no actual correlation linking insomnia and depression.
87. Sleeping during the day can make insomnia worse. Your answers 80. 81. 82. 83. 84. 85. 86. 87.
Part 5. For question 88-95, read the following passage and answer the questions that follow.
In the early 1800s, to reach the jump-off point for the West, a family from the East of the United States
could either buy steamboat passage to Missouri for themselves, their wagons, and their livestock or-as
happened more often-simply pile everything into a wagon, hitch up a team, and begin their overland trek right in their front yard.
Along the macadamized roads and turnpikes east of the Missouri River, travel was comparatively fast,
camping easy, and supplies plentiful. Then, in one river town or another, the neophyte emigrants would pause
to lay in provisions. For outfitting purposes, the town of Independence had been preeminent ever since 1827,
but the rising momentum of pioneer emigration had produced some rival jump-off points. Westport and Fort
Leavenworth flourished a few miles upriver. St. Joseph had sprung up 55 miles to the northwest; in fact,
emigrants who went to Missouri by riverboat could save four days on the trail by staying on the paddle-
wheelers to St. Joe before striking overland.
At whatever jump-off point they chose, the emigrants studied guidebooks and directions, asked
questions of others as green as themselves, and made their final decisions about outfitting. They had various,
sometimes conflicting, options. For example, either pack animals or two-wheel carts or wagons could be used
for the overland crossing. A family man usually chose the wagon. It was the costliest and slowest of the three,
but it provided space and shelter for children and for a wife who likely as not was pregnant. Everybody knew
that a top-heavy covered wagon might blow over in a prairie wind or be overturned by mountain rocks, that it
might mire in river mud or sink to its hubs in desert sand-but maybe if those things happened on this trip,
they would happen to someone else. Anyway, most pioneers, with their farm background, were used to wagons.
88. What is the topic of this passage?
A. Important river towns. B. Getting started on the trip west.
C. The advantages of traveling by wagon. D. Choosing a point of departure.
89. All of the following can be inferred from the passage about travel east of the Missouri EXCEPT that it ________________________.
A. was faster than in the West B. was easier than in the West
C. took place on good roads D. was usually by steamboat
90. The phrase “jump-off point” in the passage is closest in meaning to______________. A. a bridge across a river B. a point of departure C. a gathering place D. a trading post
91. Which of the cities that served as a jump-off point can be inferred from the passage to be farthest west?
A. Independence B. St. Joseph C. Westport D. Fort Leavenworth
92. The word “preeminent” in the passage is closest in meaning to_________________.
A. oldest B. superior C. most easily reached D. closest Page 11 of 18
93. The author implies in the passage that the early emigrants __________________. A. knew a lot about travel
B. were well stocked with provisions when they left their homes
C. left from the same place in Missouri
D. preferred wagon travel to other types of travel
94. All of the following were mentioned in the passage as options for modes of transportation from the Missouri
River to the West EXCEPT _______________.
A.a wagon B. a riverboat C. a pack animal D. a two-wheel cart
95. All of the following features of the covered wagon made it unattractive to the emigrants EXCEPT ___________.
A. the speed at which it could travel B. its bulk
C. its familiarity and size D. its cost Your answers 88. 89. 90. 91. 92. 93. 94. 95. Page 12 of 18 IV. WRITING
Part 1. Based on the passage given, write a summary on : • the purpose of LASIK
• steps to be taken in the surgery • feedback about LASIK Your summary must:
• be in continuous writing (not in note form )
• not be longer than 130 words, including the 10 words given below Begin your summary as follow:
LASIK is a breakthrough for people who have eyesight problems ...
Eye defects can be corrected by surgery these days. One of the ways is LASIK which stands for laser-assisted in situ keratomileusis.
LASIK is a surgical alternative to wearing corrective eyeglasses or contact lenses. It was developed in 1990
and quickly became popular because of its greater precision and lower frequency of complications. With
nearsighted people, the goal of LASIK is to flatten the too-steep cornea. With farsighted people, a steeper cornea is desired.
Younger people with mild nearsightedness and astigmatism are the best candidates for a good outcome. If
you are considering LASIK eye surgery, your first step is to choose a good LASIK surgeon who can evaluate
whether LASIK is right for you. Your eye surgeon will examine your eyes to determine their health, what kind
of vision correction you need and how much corneal tissue removal is required. The doctor will also ask about
any health conditions that may disqualify you altogether for LASIK surgery.
LASIK is an outpatient procedure. The LASIK surgeon uses a computer to adjust the laser for your particular
prescription. You will be asked to look at a target light for a short time while the laser sends pulses of light to
painlessly reshape your cornea. The actual LASIK surgery usually takes less than five minutes.
Before surgery, the patient's corneas are examined to determine their thickness. A topographer is used to
measure their surface contour as well. Then, using the information, the surgeon calculates the amount and
locations of corneal tissue to be removed during the operation. The operation itself is made by creating a thin
flap on the eye, folding it to enable remodeling of the tissue underneath with laser. The flap is then repositioned
and the eye is left to heal in the postoperative period.
LASIK is performed in three steps. The first step is to create a flap of corneal tissue. The second step is
remodeling the cornea underneath the flap with the laser. Finally, the flap is repositioned. A corneal suction
ring is applied to the eye, holding the eye in place. This step in the procedure can sometimes cause small
blood vessels to burst, resulting in bleeding.
Although many people who have had LASIK believe they see better than they did with eyeglasses or contact
lenses before surgery, not everyone has the same experience. The feedback given is as follows. After LASIK,
one can expect the vision to be slightly better or about the same as it was with glasses. A small percentage
of people may notice that their vision is not quite as good as it was before with glasses. However, the recipient
should be able to drive safely and perform other routine daily tasks without needing glasses or contact lenses.
A few patients experience poor outcomes from LASIK surgical procedures. Those that did, report a
significantly reduced quality of life because of vision problems. Generally, surveys determining patient
satisfaction with LASIK have found most patients satisfied, with satisfaction range being 92-98 percent. As
can be seen, LASIK is a therefore breakthrough in eye surgery to correct nearsightedness, farsightedness and astigmatism. Page 13 of 18
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Part 2: The bar chart below gives information about the percentage of the population living in urban
areas in the world and in different continents. Summarize the information by selecting and reporting
the main features, and make comparisons where relevant. Write at least 150 words.
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Part 3. Write an essay about the following topic:
“Are cameras in public places an invasion of privacy? “
Give reasons for your answer and include any relevant examples from your own knowledge or experience. Write at least 250 words.
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