Phòng giáo dục và đào tạo Phù Ninh bài thi chọn đội tuyển thi tỉnh môn Tiếng Anh lớp 9 năm 2014 -2015

Phòng giáo dục và đào tạo Phù Ninh bài thi chọn đội tuyển thi tỉnh môn Tiếng Anh lớp 9 năm 2014 -2015 cho học sinh tham khảo ,ôn tập giúp cho học sinh có thể trang bị thêm được kiến thức mới  và chuẩn bị kỳ thi sắp tới . Mời bạn đọc xem !   

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Phòng giáo dục và đào tạo Phù Ninh bài thi chọn đội tuyển thi tỉnh môn Tiếng Anh lớp 9 năm 2014 -2015

Phòng giáo dục và đào tạo Phù Ninh bài thi chọn đội tuyển thi tỉnh môn Tiếng Anh lớp 9 năm 2014 -2015 cho học sinh tham khảo ,ôn tập giúp cho học sinh có thể trang bị thêm được kiến thức mới  và chuẩn bị kỳ thi sắp tới . Mời bạn đọc xem !   

54 27 lượt tải Tải xuống
PHÒNG GIÁO DỤC VÀ ĐÀO TẠO PHÙ NINH
BÀI THI CHỌN ĐỘI TUYỂN THI TỈNH
MÔN : TIẾNG ANH - LỚP 9 - NĂM HỌC 2014-2015
(Thời gian làm bài: 120', không kể thời gian giao đề)
Đề thi có 06 trang
Họ và tên thí sinh:
……………………….......….………
Sinh ngày: ……/……/200.....
Học sinh trường THCS: ……....…….
Số báo danh
Điểm: Bằng số: ......... Bằng chữ: ..................
SỐ
PHÁCH
(do Chủ tịch
HĐ chấm
ghi)
SỐ PHÁCH
(do Chủ tịch
HĐ chấm ghi)
HỌ TÊN, CHỮ KÝ CỦA
HAI GIÁM THỊ
……………………
…………….……
HỌ TÊN, CHỮ KÝ CỦA HAI GIÁM KHẢO
1.……………..…………………………
2.………………………..………………
Chú ý: - Thí sinh làm bài trực tiếp vào đề thi này.
- Thí sinh không được sử dụng bất cứ tài liệu gì, kể cả từ điển.
---------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------
-
Part A: PHONETICS (5 pts)
I- Choose and write in your answer sheet the word whose underlined part is
pronounced differently from the rest of the group. (2 pts)
1. A. ploughed B. published C. ordered D. prayed
2. A. closure B. pleasant C. decision D. pleasure
II- Choose and write in your answer sheet the word whose stress pattern is
different from the rest of the group. (3 pts)
3. A. career B. avoid C. manage D. advise
4. A. official B. literacy C. inventory D. stationery
5. A. diversity B. severe C. education D. courageous
Part B: LEXICAL AND GRAMMAR (30 pts)
I- Choose the most suitable word or phrase to complete each sentence. (10
pts)
6. The hotel has been built on the ............. of the lake.
A. border B. boundary C. edge D. front
7. John: “I didn’t pass my driving test.” – Anna: “.............!
A. Better luck next time B. So poor
C. Congratulations D. That was nice of you.
8. She used to ............. her living by delivering vegetables to local hotels.
A. have B. win C. earn D. get
9. Although it was raining heavily, .............
A. he went out without a raincoat.
B. but he went out without a raincoat.
C. so he went out without a raincoat.
D. however he went out without a raincoat.
10. The house was .............building.
A. a stone nice old B. a nice old stone C. a nice stone old D. an old nice stone
11. Do you .............my turning the television on now?
A. object B. disapprove C. want D. mind
1
Thí sinh không được viết vào đây
12. Last year, Matt earned.............his
brother.
A. twice as much as
B. twice as many as
C. twice more than
D. twice as more as
13. You don't have to decide now, you
can............. .
A. put it aside B. call it off
C. tear it up D. think it over
14. Jenny and her sister are so ..................
They could almost be twins.
A. likeness B. alike
C. like D. the same
15. They hardly believe him and ................
A. so do I B. neither do I
C. I do, too D. I believe him
II- Use the verbs in brackets in the correct tense or form. (10 pts)
16-17. Jack (be) ................... ready in a moment. He (just finish) ................... his
breakfast.
18. None of the people (invite) ................... to the party could come.
19-20. I was terribly disappointed (discover) ................... that he (lie) ...................
to me.
21-22. Nothing (give) ................... to you if you (not study) ................... hard.
23. We (tell) ...................not to go out at night recently.
24-25. There is smoke and I smell something (burn) ................... . There (be)
................... a fire nearby.
III- Supply the correct form of the word in capital letters. (10 pts)
26. We must learn about keeping our environment (POLLUTE) ............... .
27. It is also easy to save energy, which also reduces (HOUSE) .............. bills.
28-29. You needn't go on a diet; but you have to eat (SENSE) .............. and you
mustn’t (EAT) .............. .
30. Help is immediately sent to the (SURVIVE) .............. of the earthquake.
31. My brother can repair electric (APPLY) .............. very well.
32. (ENVIRONMENT) .............. are doing their best to save the species from
dying out.
33. These (INNOVATE) .............. will conserve the earth’s resources.
34. The President’s New Year speech is going to be broadcast (NATION)..............
35. Daily newspapers often have sections for news, sports, arts, and
(CLASS) .............. advertising.
Part C: READING (25 pts)
I. Fill in each of the blanks with one suitable word. (10 pts)
Every year, eight million children across the United States spend some time at a summer
camp. For more than a century, children have enjoyed both learning new skills and
(36..........) part in a variety of activities in a friendly environment.
2
There are 10,000 camps across the country, which are designed to look (37. .......)
youngsters from the age of 6 to 18. The camps, (38. ........) anything from 1 to 8 weeks,
are often situated in beautiful lakeside areas and there is a wide range of (39..........) to
suit every pocket. The children typically do outdoor (40. .......), including some
challenging sports like climbing, or indoor activities such as drama, music or poetry. (41.
.........) the camps are not luxurious, the wooden cabins the young people sleep (42. .......)
are comfortable. The timetable does not allow very much time for relaxing because
the children are (43. .......) busy all the time. The camps are popular with the children and
many come away (44. .........) of enthusiasm. In the words of one former camper, 'I made
a lot of friends, (45...........) never on my own, and became a lot more self-confident.'
II- Choose the best answer from A, B, C or D to fill in the gaps in the following
passage. (10 pts)
The computer is undoubtedly one of the most (46) ....................... and important
inventions of the twentieth century. Boring or time-consuming jobs which, in the past,
would have been (47)...................... by hundreds of workers can now be done by one
small computer. However, the (48)......................... of the computer has not been entirely
problem-free. Many people feel that we are already too (49)..........................on
computers. They think that computers themselves are (50)........................... too powerful,
and that people are no longer in control of them.
One of the problems with a computer is that, like any other machines, it can
(51).......................... If a computer is (52)........................., the information it is storing
can be lost. If a computer program has a(n) (53)......................... in it, the computer’s
calculation can be seriously (54)........................... A faulty program in a hospital or
police computer could (55)...........................terrible mistakes.
46. A. shocking B. amazing C. astonishing D. surprising
47. A. done out B. made out C. carried out D. figured out
48. A. usage B. experiment C. introduction D. operation
49. A. dependent B. based C. influenced D. carried
50. A. becoming B. getting C. running D. turning
51. A. break up B. break down C. break into D. break out
52. A. changed B. modified C. contaminated D. damaged
53. A. foul B. abnormality C. wrongdoing D. error
54. A. devalued B. affected C. fooled D. broken
55. A. do B. produce C. find D. cause
III- Read the passage carefully and choose the correct answer (5 pts)
Many British people don’t think about clothes very much. They just like to be
comfortable. When they go out to enjoy themselves, they can wear almost anything. At
theaters, cinemas and concerts you can put on what you like from elegant suits and
dresses to jeans and sweaters. Anything goes, as long as you look clean and tidy.
But in Britain, as well as the United States, men in offices usually wear suits and ties, and
women wear dresses or skirts (not trousers). Doctors, lawyers and business people wear
quite formal clothes. And in some hotels and restaurants men have to wear ties and
women wear smart dresses.
In many years, Americans are more relaxed than British people, but they are more careful
with their clothes. At home or on holiday, most Americans wear informal or sporty
clothes. But when they go out in the evening, they like to look elegant. In good hotels
and restaurants, men have to wear jackets and ties, and women wear pretty clothes and
smart hairstyles.
3
It is difficult to say exactly what people wear informal or formal in Britain and the
United States because everyone is different. If you are not sure what to wear, watch what
other people do and do the same. You’ll feel more relaxed if you don’t look too different
from everyone else.
56. Many British people wear freely when they ........................
A. attend meetings B. attend lectures
C. spend their spare time D. meet their friends
57. Who doesn’t usually wear suits and ties?
A. Lawyers B. Doctors C. Drivers D. Secretaries
58. If you visit an American friend at home in the evening, you may find that your
friend wears.............................
A. pretty clothes B. informal clothes C. formal clothes D. dirty clothes
59. If you are in a foreign country, the best way the writer suggests to you is to
wear..................
A. strange clothes B. as the people there do
C. your native clothes D. pretty clothes
60. What do you think the passage is mainly about?
A. Recent dressing habit in Great Britain and the United States.
B. The reason why informal clothing is popular in Britain and the US.
C. When we should wear in a formal way.
D. Where we should wear in a formal way.
Part D: WRITING (20 pts)
I- Complete each of the following sentences in such a way that it means the
same as the sentence printed above it. (10 pts)
61. They bought me two laptops, but neither worked satisfactorily.
They bought..................................................................................
62. Jane’s career as a television presenter began five years ago.
Jane has……………………………………………………..….…………….
63. I’m quite happy to look after the baby for you.
I don’t..........................................................................
64. The flight to Paris lasted 3 hours.
It took…..….…………………………….…………………
65. People say that he sold his house to pay the debt.
He is ......................................................................
66. The passengers don’t realize how lucky they have been.
Little..................................................................................
67. You ought to fasten your seatbelt before driving away.
You shouldn’t ................................................................................
68. His working too much led to his illness.
If he………..…………………………………..………
69. If someone understands this book, they are cleverer than I am.
Anyone who.…………………….…………………………
70. “Would you like to go to the concert with me tonight?” Peter said to Ann.
Peter invited…..……………………………..………..……………….………
II- Write a paragraph of 100 - 120 words about the thing you like to do most
in your free time. (10 pts)
……………………………………………………………………………………………..
……………………………………………………………………………………………..
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------- THE END ------
PHÒNG GIÁO DỤC VÀ ĐÀO TẠO PHÙ NINH
HƯỚNG DẪN CHẤM THI CHỌN ĐỘI TUYỂN HỌC SINH GIỎI LỚP 9
Năm học: 2014-2015
Môn thi: Tiếng Anh - Lớp 9 THCS
(Hướng dẫn gồm 02 trang)
Part A: PHONETICS (5 điểm – Mỗi câu đúng 1 điểm)
1B 2B 3C 4A 5C
Part B: LEXICAL & GRAMMAR (30 điểm – Mỗi câu đúng 1 điểm)
I.
6C 7A 8C 9A 10B 11D 12A 13D 14B 15B
II.
16. will be
17. is just
finishing
18. invited 19. to discover
20. had lied / had been
lying
21. will be given 22. do not study 23. have been told
24. burning 25. must be
III.
26. unpolluted 27. household 28. sensibly 29. overeat 30. survivors
31. appliances 32.
Environmentalists
33. innovations 34. nationwide 35. classified
Part C: READING (25 điểm – Mỗi câu đúng 1 điểm)
I.
36. taking 37. after 38. lasting 39. prices 40. activities
41. Although /
Though / While /
Whereas
42. in 43. kept 44. full 45. was
II.
46B 47C 48C 49A 50A 51B 52D 53D 54B 55D
III.
56C 57C 58B 59B 60A
Part D: WRITING (20 điểm)
I. (10 điểm- Mỗi câu đúng 1 điểm)
61. They bought me two laptops, but neither of which worked satisfactorily.
6
62. Jane has been a television presenter for five years.
Jane has worked as a television presenter for five years.
Jane has been working as a television presenter for five years.
63. I don’t mind looking after the baby for you.
64. It took 3 hours to fly to Paris.
65. He is said to have sold his house to pay the debt.
66. Little do the passengers realize how lucky they have been.
67. You shouldn’t drive away without fastening your seatbelt.
68. If he had not worked too/so much, he would not have been ill.
69. Anyone who understands this book is cleverer than I am.
70. Peter invited Ann to go to the concert with him that night.
II. 10 điểm
Marking criteria:
- Task completion – 4 điểm:
Tùy mức độ hoàn thành các yêu cầu, giám khảo có thể chấm từ 1-4 điểm.
- Grammatical accuracy and spelling – 3 điểm:
Bài viết không lỗi chính tả dưới 4 lỗi ngữ pháp được cho 3 điểm tối đa. Cứ 5
lỗi chính tả hoặc ngữ pháp trừ 1 điểm (Trừ không quá 3 điểm).
- Coherence and cohesion (tính mạch lạc và sự liên kết câu, đoạn) – 3 điểm:
Tùy mức độ mạch lạc, liên kết câu, liên kết đoạn của bài viết, giám khảo có thể chấm 1-3
điểm.
B- HƯỚNG DẪN CHẤM:
- Tổng điểm toàn bài : 80 điểm
- Thang điểm: 20
Tổng số điểm các câu làm đúng
Điểm bài thi =
4
- Điểm bài thi được làm tròn đến 0,25
7
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Preview text:

PHÒNG GIÁO DỤC VÀ ĐÀO TẠO PHÙ NINH
Họ và tên thí sinh:
……………………….......….………
BÀI THI CHỌN ĐỘI TUYỂN THI TỈNH
Sinh ngày : ……/……/200.....
MÔN : TIẾNG ANH - LỚP 9 - NĂM HỌC 2014-2015
Học sinh trường THCS: ……....…….
(Thời gian làm bài: 120', không kể thời gian giao đề) Số báo danh Đề thi có 06 trang SỐ SỐ PHÁCH HỌ TÊN, CHỮ KÝ CỦA
Điểm: Bằng số: ......... Bằng chữ: .................. PHÁCH (do Chủ tịch HAI GIÁM THỊ (do Chủ tịch HĐ chấm ghi) HĐ chấm ……………………
HỌ TÊN, CHỮ KÝ CỦA HAI GIÁM KHẢO ghi) …………….……
1.……………..…………………………
2.………………………..………………
Chú ý: - Thí sinh làm bài trực tiếp vào đề thi này.
- Thí sinh không được sử dụng bất cứ tài liệu gì, kể cả từ điển.

--------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------- -
Part A: PHONETICS (5 pts)
I- Choose and write in your answer sheet the word whose underlined part is
pronounced differently from the rest of the group. (2 pts) 1. A. ploughed B. published C. ordered D. prayed 2. A. closure B. pleasant C. decision D. pleasure
II- Choose and write in your answer sheet the word whose stress pattern is
different from the rest of the group. (3 pts) 3. A. career B. avoid C. manage D. advise 4. A. official B. literacy C. inventory D. stationery 5. A. diversity B. severe C. education D. courageous
Part B: LEXICAL AND GRAMMAR (30 pts)
I- Choose the most suitable word or phrase to complete each sentence. (10 pts)
6. The hotel has been built on the ............. of the lake. A. border B. boundary C. edge D. front
7. John: “I didn’t pass my driving test.” – Anna: “.............!” A. Better luck next time B. So poor C. Congratulations D. That was nice of you.
8. She used to ............. her living by delivering vegetables to local hotels. A. have B. win C. earn D. get
9. Although it was raining heavily, .............
A. he went out without a raincoat.
B. but he went out without a raincoat.
C. so he went out without a raincoat.
D. however he went out without a raincoat.
10. The house was .............building. A. a stone nice old
B. a nice old stone C. a nice stone old D. an old nice stone
11. Do you .............my turning the television on now? A. object B. disapprove C. want D. mind 1
12. Last year, Matt earned.............his brother. A. twice as much as B. twice as many as
Thí sinh không được viết vào đây C. twice more than D. twice as more as
13. You don't have to decide now, you can............. .
A. put it aside B. call it off C. tear it up D. think it over
14. Jenny and her sister are so .................. They could almost be twins. A. likeness B. alike C. like D. the same
15. They hardly believe him and ................ A. so do I B. neither do I C. I do, too D. I believe him
II- Use the verbs in brackets in the correct tense or form. (10 pts)
16-17. Jack (be) ................... ready in a moment. He (just finish) ................... his breakfast.
18. None of the people (invite) ................... to the party could come.
19-20. I was terribly disappointed (discover) ................... that he (lie) ................... to me.
21-22. Nothing (give) ................... to you if you (not study) ................... hard.
23. We (tell) ...................not to go out at night recently.
24-25. There is smoke and I smell something (burn) ................... . There (be)
...................
a fire nearby.
III- Supply the correct form of the word in capital letters. (10 pts)
26. We must learn about keeping our environment (POLLUTE) ............... .
27. It is also easy to save energy, which also reduces (HOUSE) .............. bills.
28-29. You needn't go on a diet; but you have to eat (SENSE) .............. and you
mustn’t (EAT) .............. .
30. Help is immediately sent to the (SURVIVE) .............. of the earthquake.
31. My brother can repair electric (APPLY) .............. very well.
32. (ENVIRONMENT) .............. are doing their best to save the species from dying out.
33. These (INNOVATE) .............. will conserve the earth’s resources.
34. The President’s New Year speech is going to be broadcast (NATION)..............
35. Daily newspapers often have sections for news, sports, arts, and
(CLASS) .............. advertising. Part C: READING (25 pts)
I. Fill in each of the blanks with one suitable word. (10 pts)

Every year, eight million children across the United States spend some time at a summer
camp. For more than a century, children have enjoyed both learning new skills and
(36..........) part in a variety of activities in a friendly environment. 2
There are 10,000 camps across the country, which are designed to look (37. .......)
youngsters from the age of 6 to 18. The camps, (38. ........) anything from 1 to 8 weeks,
are often situated in beautiful lakeside areas and there is a wide range of (39..........) to
suit every pocket. The children typically do outdoor (40. .......), including some
challenging sports like climbing, or indoor activities such as drama, music or poetry. (41.
.........) the camps are not luxurious, the wooden cabins the young people sleep (42. .......) are
comfortable. The timetable does not allow very much time for relaxing because
the children are (43. .......) busy all the time. The camps are popular with the children and
many come away (44. .........) of enthusiasm. In the words of one former camper, 'I made
a lot of friends, (45...........) never on my own, and became a lot more self-confident.'
II- Choose the best answer from A, B, C or D to fill in the gaps in the following passage. (10 pts)
The computer is undoubtedly one of the most (46) ....................... and important
inventions of the twentieth century. Boring or time-consuming jobs which, in the past,
would have been (47)...................... by hundreds of workers can now be done by one
small computer. However, the (48)......................... of the computer has not been entirely
problem-free. Many people feel that we are already too (49)..........................on
computers. They think that computers themselves are (50)........................... too powerful,
and that people are no longer in control of them.
One of the problems with a computer is that, like any other machines, it can
(51).......................... If a computer is (52)........................., the information it is storing
can be lost. If a computer program has a(n) (53)......................... in it, the computer’s
calculation can be seriously (54)........................... A faulty program in a hospital or
police computer could (55)...........................terrible mistakes. 46. A. shocking B. amazing C. astonishing D. surprising 47. A. done out B. made out C. carried out D. figured out 48. A. usage B. experiment C. introduction D. operation 49. A. dependent B. based C. influenced D. carried 50. A. becoming B. getting C. running D. turning 51. A. break up B. break down C. break into D. break out 52. A. changed B. modified C. contaminated D. damaged 53. A. foul B. abnormality C. wrongdoing D. error 54. A. devalued B. affected C. fooled D. broken 55. A. do B. produce C. find D. cause
III- Read the passage carefully and choose the correct answer (5 pts)
Many British people don’t think about clothes very much. They just like to be
comfortable. When they go out to enjoy themselves, they can wear almost anything. At
theaters, cinemas and concerts you can put on what you like from elegant suits and
dresses to jeans and sweaters. Anything goes, as long as you look clean and tidy.
But in Britain, as well as the United States, men in offices usually wear suits and ties, and
women wear dresses or skirts (not trousers). Doctors, lawyers and business people wear
quite formal clothes. And in some hotels and restaurants men have to wear ties and women wear smart dresses.
In many years, Americans are more relaxed than British people, but they are more careful
with their clothes. At home or on holiday, most Americans wear informal or sporty
clothes. But when they go out in the evening, they like to look elegant. In good hotels
and restaurants, men have to wear jackets and ties, and women wear pretty clothes and smart hairstyles. 3
It is difficult to say exactly what people wear informal or formal in Britain and the
United States because everyone is different. If you are not sure what to wear, watch what
other people do and do the same. You’ll feel more relaxed if you don’t look too different from everyone else.
56. Many British people wear freely when they ........................ A. attend meetings B. attend lectures C. spend their spare time D. meet their friends
57. Who doesn’t usually wear suits and ties? A. Lawyers B. Doctors C. Drivers D. Secretaries
58. If you visit an American friend at home in the evening, you may find that your
friend wears.............................
A. pretty clothes B. informal clothes C. formal clothes D. dirty clothes
59. If you are in a foreign country, the best way the writer suggests to you is to wear.................. A. strange clothes B. as the people there do C. your native clothes D. pretty clothes
60. What do you think the passage is mainly about?
A. Recent dressing habit in Great Britain and the United States.
B. The reason why informal clothing is popular in Britain and the US.
C. When we should wear in a formal way.
D. Where we should wear in a formal way. Part D: WRITING (20 pts)
I- Complete each of the following sentences in such a way that it means the

same as the sentence printed above it. (10 pts)
61. They bought me two laptops, but neither worked satisfactorily.
They bought..................................................................................
62. Jane’s career as a television presenter began five years ago.
Jane has……………………………………………………..….…………….
63. I’m quite happy to look after the baby for you.
 I don’t..........................................................................
64. The flight to Paris lasted 3 hours.
 It took…..….…………………………….…………………
65. People say that he sold his house to pay the debt.
 He is ......................................................................
66. The passengers don’t realize how lucky they have been.
 Little..................................................................................
67. You ought to fasten your seatbelt before driving away.
 You shouldn’t ................................................................................
68. His working too much led to his illness.
 If he………..…………………………………..………
69. If someone understands this book, they are cleverer than I am.
 Anyone who.…………………….…………………………
70. “Would you like to go to the concert with me tonight?” Peter said to Ann.
 Peter invited…..……………………………..………..……………….………
II- Write a paragraph of 100 - 120 words about the thing you like to do most
in your free time. (10 pts)
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PHÒNG GIÁO DỤC VÀ ĐÀO TẠO PHÙ NINH
HƯỚNG DẪN CHẤM THI CHỌN ĐỘI TUYỂN HỌC SINH GIỎI LỚP 9 Năm học: 2014-2015
Môn thi: Tiếng Anh - Lớp 9 THCS
(Hướng dẫn gồm 02 trang)
Part A: PHONETICS (5 điểm – Mỗi câu đúng 1 điểm) 1B 2B 3C 4A 5C
Part B: LEXICAL & GRAMMAR (30 điểm – Mỗi câu đúng 1 điểm) I. 6C 7A 8C 9A 10B 11D 12A 13D 14B 15B II. 17. is just 16. will be 18. invited 19. to discover finishing 20. had lied / had been 21. will be given 22. do not study 23. have been told lying 24. burning 25. must be III. 26. unpolluted 27. household 28. sensibly 29. overeat 30. survivors 31. appliances 32. 33. innovations 34. nationwide 35. classified Environmentalists
Part C: READING (25 điểm – Mỗi câu đúng 1 điểm) I. 36. taking 37. after 38. lasting 39. prices 40. activities 41. Although / 42. in 43. kept 44. full 45. was Though / While / Whereas II. 46B 47C 48C 49A 50A 51B 52D 53D 54B 55D III. 56C 57C 58B 59B 60A
Part D: WRITING (20 điểm)
I. (10 điểm- Mỗi câu đúng 1 điểm)
61. They bought me two laptops, but neither of which worked satisfactorily. 6
62. Jane has been a television presenter for five years.
Jane has worked as a television presenter for five years.
Jane has been working as a television presenter for five years.
63. I don’t mind looking after the baby for you.
64. It took 3 hours to fly to Paris.
65. He is said to have sold his house to pay the debt.
66. Little do the passengers realize how lucky they have been.
67. You shouldn’t drive away without fastening your seatbelt.
68. If he had not worked too/so much, he would not have been ill.
69. Anyone who understands this book is cleverer than I am.
70. Peter invited Ann to go to the concert with him that night. II. 10 điểm Marking criteria:
- Task completion – 4 điểm:
Tùy mức độ hoàn thành các yêu cầu, giám khảo có thể chấm từ 1-4 điểm.
- Grammatical accuracy and spelling – 3 điểm:
Bài viết không có lỗi chính tả và dưới 4 lỗi ngữ pháp được cho 3 điểm tối đa. Cứ 5
lỗi chính tả hoặc ngữ pháp trừ 1 điểm (Trừ không quá 3 điểm).
- Coherence and cohesion (tính mạch lạc và sự liên kết câu, đoạn) – 3 điểm:
Tùy mức độ mạch lạc, liên kết câu, liên kết đoạn của bài viết, giám khảo có thể chấm 1-3 điểm.
B- HƯỚNG DẪN CHẤM:
- Tổng điểm toàn bài : 80 điểm - Thang điểm: 20
Tổng số điểm các câu làm đúng Điểm bài thi = 4
- Điểm bài thi được làm tròn đến 0,25
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