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The Practice Booklet for English Majors
The Practice Booklet for English Majors dành cho các bạn sinh viên tham khảo, ôn tập, chuẩn bị cho kì thi quan trọng. Đồng thời nâng cao trình độ Tiếng Anh của bạn! Mời bạn đón xem.
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Môn: Chủ đề: Lexico and Grammar - Từ vựng ngữ pháp 246 tài liệu
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Tác giả:
THE PRACTICE BOOKLET FOR ENGLISH-MAJOR (VER A)
|1
by. Nguyễn Đức Anh
2
THE PRACTICE BOOKLET FOR ENGLISH-MAJOR (VER A)
|3
THE PRACTICE BOOKLET FOR ENGLISH-MAJORS (VER A “THE PRACTICE BOOK)
được biên soạn nhằm củng cố cũng như nâng cao kiến thức cho học sinh chuyên Anh. Mỗi đề luyện
được biên soạn với trình độ nâng cao nhằm giúp các em làm tốt trong những kỳ thi như chọn học
sinh giỏi, vào 10 chuyên Anh,… Quyển sách bao gồm 15 đề tự luyện (với thêm 1 đề tặng kèm) và
20 đề học sinh giỏi của các tỉnh, thành phố những năm 2019, 2018,… Mỗi đề thi sẽ đa dạng hóa về
phần form đề cũng như là độ khó.
MỖI ĐƠN VỊ ĐỀ LUYỆN GỒM 4 PHẦN CHÍNH
• Listening (A): Củng cố kỹ năng nghe của các em. Thưởng là các dạng bài IELTS, CPE,
CAE,... và những dạng bài nghe có trình độ B2 trở lên. Trong đó, có nhiều bài có chứa nhiều
những từ mới, khuyến khích các em tìm hiểu.
• Lexico and Grammar (B): Đối với phần dạng bài này, bao gồm rất nhiều từ mới, lạ và khó.
Các em vừa có thể học được từ mới, vừa học được ngữ cảnh được dùng. Vốn từ vựng của các
em sẽ được mở rộng khi luyện nhiều đề thi.
• Reading (C): Củng cố và phát triển kỹ năng đọc hiểu của học sinh. Những đoạn văn sẽ ở cấp
độ khó hơn và dài hơn đòi hỏi các em phải tìm ra đáp án cho câu hỏi. Những câu hỏi cũng sẽ
khó hơn và cần nhiều vốn từ vựng hơn (đối với bài GUIDED CLOZE và OPEN CLOZE).
• Writing (D): Củng cố kỹ năng từ vựng và sử dụng ngữ pháp trong các bài viết lại câu ở trình
độ C1, C2. Ngoài ra còn có những đề văn phong phú giúp kích thích tính sáng tạo của các
em.
• Các đề thi mẫu: Gồm những đề thi hay và khó nhất được tuyển tập ở mọi miền của đất nước.
Ví dụ như những đề như đề thi Duyên Hải Bắc Bộ, Trại Hè Hùng Vương, Olympic 30/4, HSG
9, 10, 11, 12, QG
Sau khi làm xong bài các em có thể tự kiểm tra lại đáp án với đáp án đằng sau sách.
Ngoài ra sách còn có khu Learning Compartment ở cuối sách để các em ghi lại từ mới.
Tác giả Nguyễn Đức Anh hi vọng rằng với cuốn sách THE PRACTICE BOOKLET FOR
ENGLISH-MAJORS (VER A “THE PRACTICE BOOK) này các em sẽ đạt được điểm cao
trong các kỳ thi sắp tới.
Chúc các em thành công!
Nguyễn Đức Anh
by. Nguyễn Đức Anh
4
A. CÁC ĐỀ TỰ LUYỆN (16 ĐỀ)
BỘ ĐỀ LUYỆN THI CHO HỌC SINH
KHỐI CHUYÊN ANH
ĐỀ LUYỆN TẬP 1
Thời gian làm bài: 150 phút (Không kể thời gian giao đề)
A. LISTENING
Part 1. You are going to hear a talk on the work of a printing department at university. For questions 1-
10, complete the notes below by writing NO MORE THAN THREE WORDS AND/OR A NUMBER for
each answer.
DEPARTMENT OF THE PRINTED WORD
Statistics
- many different full- and part-time courses
- 17 students on the (1) __________ MA courses and 7 full-time research students
- 9 full-time lectures
- about (2) __________ percent of students are from outside the country
Sponsorship
- links with organizations in the publishing world
- sponsorship of students, technicians and (3)__________
- outside speakers
- workshops built to expand facilities for book binding and (4) __________
Teaching
- main work is teaching the (5) __________
- as most printing is now very technological, students have to be (6) __________
- for students without the necessary skills, there are specialist technicians who deliver (7)
__________ in computing
Facilities
- in printing, editing, page design and layout, book-binding
- former students are now working as expert book (8) _______ and ________
Research
- growing interest in the history of the printed word from early European etc printing techniques
- a visiting lecturer, Dr Yu, is an expert on early Chinese manuscripts and (9) __________
- department is very popular, with many (10) ________ for each research position.
Part 2. You will hear a piece of news called “Bottled air”. For questions 1-5, write an answer of NO
MORE THAN THREE WORDS to each of the questions below.
1. What kind of news did the man see that made him decide to start his business?
2. What is the name of the industry the man is in?
3. How much air can you buy for $115?
4. Where does the entrepreneur live now?
5. What does the man sometimes have to go to the bottom of to get air?
THE PRACTICE BOOKLET FOR ENGLISH-MAJOR (VER A)
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Part 3. You will hear a representative from British Waterways called John Sampson taling about the
canal network in England. Listen and decide whether each of the following statements is true (T) or false
(F).
1. The canals were built despite the fact that there was no public finance and very little technology.
2. From 1919 to 1929, there were many canals that were competing with each other but were not uniform
in size.
3. The new union of canals provided a continuous link between major industrial cities.
4. There are plenty of natural habitats for a variety of wildlife on and around the canals.
5. Walkers can go to the nearest waterway office to get information on circular walks so they can start and
end at the same place.
Part 4. You will hear two sports commentators called Heidi Stokes and Rob Aslett taking part in a
discussion on the subject of gyms. For questions 1-5, choose the correct answer (A, B, C or D) which fits
best according to what you hear.
1. What do Rob and Heidi think about government proposals regarding the problem of obesity?
A. They over-emphasize the role of dietary factors.
B. They represent a radical solution that must be worth trying.
C. They over-estimate the extent to which the fitness industry can help.
D. They are attempting to accommodate too many varied perspectives.
2. Heidi agrees with the suggestion that regular gym attendance
A. can discourage people from keeping fit in other ways.
B. may lead to obsessive behaviour in some cases.
C. generally forms the basis of a healthy lifestyle.
D. could be harder to keep up in rural areas.
3. When asked about motivation, Rob suggests that many gym clients lose interest
A. if they don’t get good value for money.
B. if they don’t find it enjoyable on a social level.
C. if they don’t make it part of a wider fitness regime.
D. if they don’t perceive real gains in personal fitness.
4. What does Heidi suggest about memership levels in gyms?
A. The best ones restrict access at peak times.
B. Most recruit more people than they cope with.
C. It is impossible to predict demand with any accuracy.
D. Over-recruitment can be counter-productive in the long run.
5. Rob thinks the key to successful gym markeing lies in
A. remaining true to the core values of fitness and strength.
B. appealing to a wide cross-section of the population.
C. joining forces with providers of the related activities.
D. specialising in the needs of certain key groups.
B. LEXICO AND GRAMMAR (30 POINTS)
I. Choose the best options to complete the following sentences. (15 points)
1. The scheme is too expensive to be _________.
A. compatible B. feasible C. liable D. accessible
2. The singer being accompanied _______ the flute by her husband.
A. on B. in C. at D. of
3. She crouched, watching her captor with eyes ________ as those of a basilisk.
A. sinister B. baleful C. omnious D. obnoxious
4. How annoying! You _____ again!
by. Nguyễn Đức Anh
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A. have made the self-same mistake yet of yours B. may yet make the same mistake
C. have made the same mistake yet D. have yet to make the same mistake
5. After living together for six years, Janet and Matt have finally decided to _____.
A. feel the pinch B. pull a few strings C. tie the knot D. be up and about
6. I (a) ____. He should have (b) ___ than to lend them money.
A. (a) am not sorry once and for all (b) thought more
B. (a) am not sorry for once (b) been better
C. (a) for one thing am not sorry (b) known more
D. (a) for one am not sorry (b) known better
7. I have spoken to my roommate many a time about turning his light off after midnight, but I’m just ______
my breath, apparently.
A. swallowing B. speaking under C. losing D. wasting
8. The best thing about living in the countryside is the _____ greenery.
A. myriad B. innumerable C. untold D. abundant
9. Yoga helps to tone the _______ as well as improve one’s balance, posture and coordination.
A. bearing B. stance C. standing D. muscles
10. Stress is a(n) _______ part of dieting.
A. imminent B. audacious C. inherent D. instinctive
11. Dealing with _____ refusal from an employee is easier than dealing with false compliance.
A. an offset B. a remedial C. an agile D. an outright
12. He has to work overtime, his family is rather ________ for money at the moment.
A. squeezed B. tightened C. cramped D. pressed
13. By the end of the first half of the twenty-first century women __________ against men in many sports.
A. compete B. are competing C. are going to complete D. will be competing
14. More and more trees in this area are found __________ from the effect of pollution.
A. died B. to be dead C. to be dying D. having died
15. The food she has prepared for the party is not enough, for there are __________ more people showing
up.
A. so B. too C. any D. many
16. Minh Thu changed her major from literature to English __________.
A. with the hope to be offered employment easier B. hoping more easily she gets a job
C. with the hope for being able to find better job D. hoping to find a job more easily
17. __________, the film began.
A. All of us have taken the seats B. All of us having taken the seats
C. We all having seated D. We all have been seated
18. They still haven’t made a decision __________ the new color scheme.
A. on reflection of B. with a view to C. with regard to D. by contrast with
19. ‘The 20-year policy would be a good investment’, said the insurance agent, ‘__________ you wanted
to cash it within the first ten years.’
A. even though B. in case C. lest D. even if
20. I often wish I could afford to work less, __________ people, I suspect.
A. like do most B. as do most C. the same most D. as much the same
most
II. Supply the correct form of the word in bracket to complete the paragraph. (10 points)
In an effort to escape from their hectic and (0) materialistic (MATERIALISM) city lives, more and
more Northern Europeans are buying houses in rural areas of France, Spain, Italy and Greece. Some relocate
permanently in search of a more (1) ________ (MEAN) existence. Those who cannot afford to give up
THE PRACTICE BOOKLET FOR ENGLISH-MAJOR (VER A)
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their jobs seek a (2) ________ (THERAPY) respite from their (3) ________ (STRESS) lifestyle by
relaxing for a few weeks each year in their second home in the sun.
However, many of those who relocate permanently find that life in the country is not as quiet and (4)
_______ (EVENT) as they had anticipated. Aspects of village life which seemed delightfully (5) ________
(ATMOSPHERE) in the context of a two-week holiday can grate on the nerves when you live with them
on a daily basis. Recently a group of British residents in an Italian village took local farmers to court because
they found the smell of the villagers’ pigs (6) ________ (TASTE). In other cases, foreigners have
complained to neighbours about the (7) ________ (ENTHUSIASM) early-morning crowing of their
cockerels, or to village priests about the regular tolling of church bells.
Understandably, the local inhabitants are somewhat (8) ________ (RESENT) of these attitudes.
They argue that the foreigners have an (9) ________ (REAL) view of what country life is like and that,
since no-one forced them to come and live in a village, they are being (10) ________ (CRICTICISM) by
now complaining about the inconveniences of rural life.
III. There are 5 mistakes in the following passage. Find and correct them.
Too many parents have a tough time getting clear and accessible information about the public schools
at their communities. That is why President Clinton has announced an initiative requiring all states to
produce annual report cards that are easily understood by and widely distributing to parents and th e public,
for each school, school district and the state as a whole. The report cards will include information to student
achievement, teacher professional qualifications, class size, school safety and other factors that will help
parents judge the overall performance of the schools. President Clinton’s proposal will help ensure which
parents in every state have access to the information they need to determine the quality of their schools and
identity areas in which improvement is needed.
C. READING (30 POINTS)
I. Read the following passage and decide to choose the correct answer A, B, C or D to complete it.
There is a revolution in the retail world that cannot fail to attract shoppers’ noses. In the latest
marketing ploy, smells are created in laboratories to be wafted around stores in order to (1)________the
unsuspecting into spending more money. Secret (2)________of the “designer” smells are going on in more
than a hundred stores across Britain, including bookshops, petrol stations and a chain of clothes shops.The
tailor-made aromas include coconut oil in travel agents (to (3)________exotic holidays), and leather in car
showrooms (to suggest lasting quality).
Marketing Aromatics, a company specializing in this area, believes the odours are under-used as a
marketing (4)________ . Until now, the most frequent (5)________has been in the supermarkets where the
smell from in-store bakeries has been blown among the aisles to boost sales of fresh food. “We are taking
things one stage further,” said David Fellowes, the company commercial director. “We can build on
customer loyalty by making customers (6) ________a particular smell with a particular store. It is not
intrusive. If it were it would defeat the object.”
The smells are designed to work on three levels: to relax shoppers by using natural smells such as
peppermint; to bring back memories using odours such as a whiff of sea breeze; and to encourage customer
loyalty by using a corporate perfume ‘logo’ to (7)________a company’s image. Dr. George Dodd, scientific
advisor to Marketing Aromatics, believes smells can affect people’s moods. “It’s a very exciting time.
Smells have enormous (8)________to influence behaviour,” he said. Critics say retailers are (9) ________to
subliminal advertising. “Not telling consumers that this is happening is an (10)________ invasion of their
privacy. People have the right to know,” said Conor Foley of Liberty, the civil liberties association.
1. A. entice B. trap C. force D. deceive
2. A. investigations B. analyses C. operations D. trials
3. A. remember B. arouse C. evoke D. desire
4. A. advertisement B. tool C. gadget D. gimmick
by. Nguyễn Đức Anh
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5. A. effect B. concept C. type D. application
6. A. join B. associate C. relate D. merge
7. A. make B. fix C. capture D. promote
8. A. concentration B. adaptation C. potential D. efficiency
9. A. resorting B. taking C. moving D. reacting
10. A. undeserving B. unjustified C. unofficial D. unlicensed
II. Read the text and choose the correct answer A, B, C or D for each question.
Quite different from storm surges are the giant sea waves called tsunamis, which derive their name
from the Japanese expression for “high water in a harbor.” These waves are also referred to by the general
public as tidal waves, although they have relatively little to do with tides. Scientists often referred to them
as seismic sea waves, far more appropriate in that they do result from undersea seismic activity.
Tsunamis are caused when the sea bottom suddenly moves, during an underwater earthquake or
volcano for example, and the water above the moving earth is suddenly displaced. This sudden shift of
water sets off a series of waves. These waves can travel great distances at speeds close to 700 kilometers
per hour. In the open ocean, tsunamis have little noticeable amplitude, often no more than one or two meters.
It is when they hit the shallow waters near the coast that they increase in height, possibly up to 40 meters.
Tsunamis often occur in the Pacific because the Pacific is an area of heavy seismic activity.Two
areas of the Pacific well accustomed to the threat of tsunamis are Japan and Hawaii. Because the seismic
activity that causes tsunamis in Japan often occurs on the ocean bottom quite close to the islands, the
tsunamis that hit Japan often come with little warning and can, therefore, prove disastrous. Most of the
tsunamis that hit the Hawaiian Islands, however, originate thousands of miles away near the coast of Alaska,
so these tsunamis have a much greater distance to travel and the inhabitants of Hawaii generally have time
for warning of their imminent arrival.
Tsunamis are certainly not limited to Japan and Hawaii. In 1755, Europe experienced a calamitous
tsunami, when movement along the fault lines near the Azores caused a massive tsunami to sweep onto the
Portuguese coast and flood the heavily populated area around Lisbon. The greatest tsunami on record
occurred on the other side of the world in 1883 when the Krakatoa volcano underwent a massive explosion,
sending waves more than 30 meters high onto nearby Indonesian islands; the tsunami from this volcano
actually traveled around the world and was witnessed as far away as the English Channel.
1. The paragraph preceding this passage most probably discusses _______.
A. underwater earthquakes B. storm surges C. tides D. tidal waves
2. According to the passage, all of the following are true about tidal waves EXCEPT that _______.
A. they are caused by sudden changes in high and low tides
B. this terminology is not used by the scientific community
C. they are the same as tsunamis
D. they refer to the same phenomenon as seismic sea waves
3. The word “displaced” is closest in meaning to _______.
A. moved B. filtered C. located D. not pleased
4. It can be inferred from the passage that tsunamis _______.
A. cause severe damage in the middle of the ocean
B. generally reach heights greater than 40 meters
C. are far more dangerous on the coast than in the open ocean
D. are often identified by ships on the ocean
5. Water that is “shallow” is NOT _____________.
A. deep B. clear C. coastal D. tidal
6. A main difference between tsunamis in Japan and in Hawaii is that tsunamis in Japan are more likely to
___________.
THE PRACTICE BOOKLET FOR ENGLISH-MAJOR (VER A)
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A. come from greater distances B. originate in Alaska
C. arrive without warning D. be less of a problem
7. The possessive “their” refers to ____________.
A. the Hawaiian Islands B. thousands of miles
C. these tsunamis D. the inhabitants of Hawaii
8. A “calamitous” tsunami is one that is _____________.
A. at fault B. disastrous C. extremely calm D. expected
9. From the expression “on record”, it can be inferred that the tsunami that accompanied the Krakatoa
volcano ____________.
A. was not as strong as the tsunami in Lisbon B. might not be the greatest tsunami ever
C. was filmed as it was happening D. occurred before efficient records were kept
10. The passage suggests that the tsunami resulting from the Krakatoa volcano _____.
A. was far more destructive close to the source than far away
B. resulted in little damage
C. was unobserved outside of the Indonesian islands
D. caused volcanic explosions in the English Channel
III. Read the paragraph and think of ONE word that fits best in each blank.
One day it will seem strange (1) ________retrospect, that we spent much more thought and effort on
developing human ability than on making good (2)________of it, once we had it. There are innumerable
examples. We (3) ________them in casual conversation and occasionally they catch a journaiisfs attention.
Doctors provide a good source of complaints: they (4) ________to undergo a particularly protracted
and detailed training and – at the end of it - many of them spend a substantial part of their (5) ________day
in relatively routine or clerical operations. Has anyone ever considered how much money could be saved
by splitting (6) ________these two aspects of GP’s job? Nurses have recently rented their age-old complaint
that their scarce and (7) ________womanpower is frittered away in quite unskilled work. The educational
world is (8)________. of examples of highly paid specialists typing their own letters with two (9)________.
We promote top research academics to headships of departments and give them unadequate support
services. Even in business, the provision of secretarial help tend to go by seniority and not by the (10)
________of routine work that has to be done.
IV. You are going to read a news reporting about the recent Amazon rainforest conflagration. There are
5 pararaphs which have been removed. Choose the correct paragraph (A-F) to gap in the blank (1-5).
There is one paragraph that you don’t need.
AMAZON RAINFOREST FIRES
GLOBAL LEADERS URGED TO DIVERT BRAZIL FROM 'SUICIDE' PATH
Experts say international pressure may be only way to sway Bolsonaro government
International pressure may be the only way to stop the Brazilian government from taking a “suicide” path
in the Amazon, one of the country’s most respected scientists has said, as the world’s biggest rainforest
continues to be ravaged by thousands of deliberate fires.
(1) ____________________________________________
“Our house is burning,” tweeted the French president, Emmanuel Macron, who called for emergency talks
on the subject at this week’s G7 summit. But the response to the crisis has been mixed: while Norway and
Germany have halted donations to the Brazilian government’s Amazon fund, the EU has recently signed a
trade deal with South America, and the UK spent this week focusing on post-Brexit business with Brazil.
(2) ____________________________________________
Carlos Nobre, a senior researcher with the Institute of Advanced Studies at the University of São Paulo,
said the surge in deforestation was taking the rainforest closer to a tipping point beyond which swaths of
by. Nguyễn Đức Anh
10
the usually humid forest would become a dry savannah, with dire consequences for the climate, wildlife
and forest dwellers.
Nobre said deforestation was on course to rise by 20-30% this year and was “very likely” to pass 10,000 sq
km for the first time in more than 10 years. The trend has been worsening for several years, but it has
accelerated under Bolsonaro, who has weakened the environment agency and expressed support for miners,
farmers and loggers.
“The situation is very bad. It will be terrible,” Nobre told the Guardian. “A very large number of these fires
are due to the cultural push that ministers are giving. They are pushing deforestation because it is good for
the economy. Those who do illegal deforestation are feeling empowered.”
Nobre co-authored a study last year that predicted the southern, eastern and central regions of the Amazon
would reach an irreversible stage of degradation once 20%-25% of the forest was cleared. This was not
expected for 20-25 years, but Nobre said the tipping point was likely to be brought forward by about five
years if this year’s rate of forest destruction continued.
(3) ________________________________________________
Brazil has recorded more than 72,000 fires this year, an 84% increase on the same period in 2018, according
to the INPE. Not all were forest fires, but more than half were in the Amazon.
(4) ________________________________________________
“People are scared. The hospitals are full of people with respiratory diseases. In 60 years, this is the first
time I feel difficulty breathing,” said Ivaneide Bandeira Cardozo, the coordinator of the environmental
organisation Kanindé. “It’s a thousand times worse than in other years.
“Bad farmers think they can commit all kinds of illegality because they will suffer no punishment … It
seems Brazil has no law, that all the laws are in tatters.”
(5) __________________________________________________
The vast majority of Brazilians want to protect the forest, according to opinion polls, but the government
has prioritised business interests. Bolsonaro announced this week that he would resume mega-hydro
projects in the Amazon that were halted on environmental grounds. His son has proposed a bill in Congress
that would further weaken protections around indigenous territory and nature reserves.
(Source: The Guardian)
A. In one of the worst affected municipalities, Porto Velho, environmental activists said there were fires
around the city and the streets were filled with smoke.
B. The large number of conflagrations – set illegally to clear and prepare land for crops, cattle and property
speculation – has prompted the state of Amazonas to declare an emergency, created giant smoke clouds that
have drifted hundreds of miles, and sparked international concerns about the destruction of an essential
carbon sink.
C. The UK’s stance was condemned by Friends of the Earth. The campaigner Guy Shrubsole said: “If this
is what we are prepared to do to line up trade deals, rather than take a world-stage opportunity to protect
the obviously irreplaceable Amazon, you have to wonder where our priorities lie. The UK government
shouldn’t trade with any countries who are ignoring their Paris climate change commitments, least of all
Bolsonaro’s Brazil when they’re burning their forests down to sell us and the world soya and beef.”
D. On Wednesday, the UK trade minister Conor Burns was shaking hands with his counterparts in Brasilia
and declaring a desire to “deepen relations”. Asked about the fires, he declined to comment but reportedly
said Bolsonaro’s government had “legitimate ambitions to bring prosperity to its people”. Scientists say the
ongoing destruction will have dire consequences for Brazil and the world.
E. In the five days to Wednesday, there were 7,746 fires in Brazil, according to data from the country’s
National Institute for Space Research (INPE). This follows a 278% rise in deforestation last month. The
figures are preliminary, but a rising trend has been observed by other satellite monitoring systems.
THE PRACTICE BOOKLET FOR ENGLISH-MAJOR (VER A)
|11
F. In the soya frontier state of Mato Grosso, which has had more fires than anywhere else in Brazil this
year, burning has been detected inside indigenous lands and nature reserves.
D. WRITING
I. Complete the following sentences without changing the meaning of the given sentences.
1. This sum of money will make him keep our secret. [tongue]
→ We will get __________________________________________________________.
2. The direct aim of the statement is to make the public aware of the present of the situation. [boils]
→ The statement __________________________________________________________.
3. She knew she couldn’t with her temptation to eat a bar of chocolate. [spite]
→ She __________________________________________________________.
4. I’ve met her just about 20 minutes ago so I’m not really accustomed to call her with her first name. [basis]
→ I’ve __________________________________________________________.
5. It is no fun to judge about someone’s body like that. [pronounce]
→That’s __________________________________________________________.
II. Many have said that methodology (style of studying) should depend on what teacher teach. But many
said students should develop their own ones.
What extent do you agree or disagree? Write an essay of at least 200 words.
THE END
BEST OF LUCK
BỘ ĐỀ LUYỆN THI CHO HỌC SINH
KHỐI CHUYÊN ANH
ĐỀ LUYỆN TẬP 2
Thời gian làm bài: 150 phút (Không kể thời gian giao đề)
A. LISTENING
Section 1. You will hear two psychologists talking about modern childhood. For questions 1-5, choose the
answer (A, B, C, or D), which fits best according to what you hear.
1. What does Daniel imply about past images of childhood?
A. They are entirely fictional.
B. They all show the misfortunes of childhood.
C. They are diverse.
D. They represent the innocence of childhood.
2. When mentioning the children throwing bags on the bus-stop, Louise is _____.
A. critical
B. amused
C. angry
D. sarcastic
3. According to Daniel, _____.
A. children are failing to learn adequate social skills
B. children do not eat a balanced diet
C. children are becoming involved in political scandals
D. children are far more sociable than they used to be
4. What does Louise say about the media?
A. Manipulative actors have a negative effect on children.
B. It encourages celebrities to inspire young children.
C. Adverts are aimed more at young people than adults.
D. It glorifies unrealistic ideals.
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5. Daniel implies that _____.
A. children would be happier if their parents taught them at home
B. machines are more of a menace to children than people are
C. teachers aren’t helping children to be competitive enough
D. most teenage problems stem from an unbalanced diet
Section 2. You will hear five different people being interviewed on the radio about Christmas. For questions
6-10, decide whether these following statements are True (T) or False (F).
6. Speaker 1 feels enthusiastic about this celebration.
7. Speaker 2 feels happier than expected.
8. Speaker 3 feels upset.
9. Speaker 4 feels bored with this Christmas.
10. Speaker 5 feels satisfied with her Christmas.
Section 3. You will hear part of a lecture on photography. For questions 11-20, complete the notes below.
Write NO MORE THAN TWO WORDS for each answer.
Notes from Photography Lecture 2
❖ Exposure = the amount of light you let strike your (11)__________.
❖ A good photographer must know: 1. how much light is required
2. how to control light reaching film
1. how much light is required:
usually determined by camera’s (12) __________ light meter
2. how to control light reaching film:
usually taken care of by aperture and shutter (13) __________
❖ An aperture is simply a (14) __________that lets light pass through.
- aperture size is (15)__________ in f-numbers
- a smaller f-number allows more light in
❖ The shutter has a (16)__________ role
- prevents light from reaching film until the (17)__________of exposure
- opens for a predetermined amount of time
- shutter (18)__________is expressed in fractions of a second.
❖ Overexposure = (19)__________ than necessary to capture image
- pale shades and poor, washed-out colors
❖ Underexposure: = not enough light to capture image
- dark image, poor details and (20) __________
(DHBBCSP20142015)
B. LEXICO AND GRAMMAR
I. Choose the correct answer A, B, C or D to complete the sentences.
1. When the ship docked at Hamburgm, they found a ________ in the hold.
A. gate-crasher B. stowaway C. interloper D. trespasser
2. She has drawn ________ praise for her charitable works.
A. abundant B. luxurious C. massive D. lavish
3. He kept telling us about his in the most _______ detail.
A. diagrammatic B. programmatic C. graphic D. photographic
4. When I saw the mouse scuttling toward me; I nearly jumped out of my ______.
A. belly B. skin C. head D. stomach
5. Last night, Riri was found leaving Aston Kutcher’s bachelor _____, prompting people to dig into their
curious relationship.
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A. hermitage B. pad C. niche D. slot
6. When writing a scholarship essay, you should reflect on your past as it is a rich seam to _____.
A. mine B. exploit C. use D. open
7. This was a _____ reaction, given the bitter hostility between two countries.
A. predictable B. comprehensive C. scrupulous D. quintessential
8. The book was written with all of the author’s genuineness, _____ lies its charm and value
A. therefore B. thereby C. thereof D. therein
9. It’s best to meet your problems ________ and solve them before they get worse.
A. eye-on B. hair-on C. nose-on D. head-on
10. Sending out e-mails that people haven’t asked for to ________ addresses is often known.
A. multiple B. countless C. widespread D. sufficient
II. Supply the correct form of the word in bracket to complete the passage.
TAYLOR SWIFT’S “LOVER” REVIEW
The deluxe version of Taylor Swift’s seventh studio album comes with a facsimile of the singer’s
journal. It contains selected diary entries that make for surprisingly glum reading. We see Swift progress
from (1. EYE) ______ 13-year-old (“I heart school!”) to one of the world’s biggest stars: the latter the
source of considerable woe. There are complaints about fans outside her house, worries about her
relationships failing due to “the nasty world that just wants to ruin things” and about 2016, when her
personal woes, including her mother’s cancer diagnosis, were compounded by public spats with other artists
– most (2. NOTE) ______ Kanye West – a succession of think-pieces (3. MOAN)____ her awfulness and,
most (4. BOGGLE) _______ of all, her (5. SOLICITATION)_____ adoption as a (6. FIGURE) _______
of the American alt-right after she declined to endorse a presidential candidate. “This summer,” she writes,
from the thick of it, “is the apocalypse.”
The album that resulted from said apocalypse, 2017’s Reputation, was a messy, uneven explosion of
bitterness and (7. CYNICAL) _____ amid the love songs, on which Swift’s desire for public redress
sometimes overwhelmed her songwriting smarts: you could understand why her mouth tended to purse
itself into a cat’s bum of disapproval, but by the time you got to This Is Why We Can’t Have Nice Things,
a (8. DRESS) _____of a former friend now expelled from Swift’s life of champagne-swilling luxury, it was
hard not to wish she’d give it a rest. Under these circumstances, you’d be forgiven for heaving a weary sigh
as Lover’s opening track I Forgot That You Existed springs into life. We seem to be back exactly where we
left off: another (9. PERFIDY) _____ ex-pal getting it in the neck, to the (10. COMPANY) _____ of jaunty
piano and brittle-sounding laughter.
It’s a strange way to open Lover, because it’s a (11. NAME) _____ : if Swift can’t keep the lemon
out of her gob entirely – You Need to Calm Down is a forgettable bit of how-dare-you, in which the actions
of celeb-baiting internet trolls get mixed up with those of (12. HOMOPHOBIC) _____ – the tone of Lover
is noticeably different from its predecessor, the bitterness largely expunged in favour of (13. SOT)_____
paeans to her British partner, actor Joe Alwyn. He gets hymned in every conceivable way, from the Mazzy
Star-ish title track to London Boy, on which an artist once (14. IRONY) _____ labelled America’s
Sweetheart slips charmingly into the British vernacular – it’s all “down the pub” this and “his best mate”
that and “I fancy you” the other.
Indeed, it’s tempting to say he’s hymned a little too much. The big problem with Lover is that it’s
too long, the suspicion being that Swift is trying to reassert her commercial dominance by (15. BET)_____.
Reputation represented a relative sales wobble, shifting a mere 4.5m copies as opposed to 1989’s 10m, and
she’s recently signed a new record deal, of which Lover is the first fruit.
(Source: The Guardian)
III. There are 10 mistakes in the following passage. Find and correct them.
by. Nguyễn Đức Anh
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When constructing eco-friendly homes, builders allocate specific types of energy-efficient resources
for specific areas of the home. For instance, it is common to affix single or double panels on the tops of hot
water heaters to absorb solar energy and provide a costly-effective, continual, renewable power source.
These types of hot water heaters are inexpensive to install and unobtrusive to the eye. In case of wind power,
it is neither attractive nor particularly efficient to erect a towering turbine next to a single home; rather it is
built in an area where it can power several homes at last. Furthermore, what homebuilders position their
homes influences their energy efficiency. A home with south-facing windows will absorb the natural
radiation from the sun, thus heat the home without using any energy-producing device. And builders line
homes with the best forms of insulation so any energy is used to heat a home, whether it be natural or from
electricity transmitted through the grid, will not easily escape from it.
C. READING (30 POINTS)
I. Read the passage and choose the correct answer A, B, C or D that best fits in the gap.
Stressful atmospheres. (1) ________ of deadlines and long hours dominate office life, according to
a survey (2) ________ recently.
The majority of those questioned said a good salary and career (3) ________ were their main reason
for working. But (4) ________ numbers did not believe their employers offered either.
In general the survey found that most felt that (5) ________ of life was more important than (6)
________and company perks. Most would prefer employers to offer (7) ________ hours, challenging tasks
and job (8) _____ rather than perks such as company cars and private health care. Many employers' (9)
____ to understand this meant more than a third worried about their work on holiday, and 40 per cent took
days off (10) ____ when not ill.
Workers were also (11) ________ by the conditions they had to work in. A fifth struggled with (12)
___ technology, badly lit offices and chairs which caused backache. Half said their (13) ________would
increase if their environment improved.
On the plus side, the biggest (14) ________ was the friendship offered by colleagues, and it appears
that the office also affords the chance to flirt with colleagues, make (15) ________ calls to friends abroad,
steal stationery and play computer games
1. A. weight B. force C. heaviness D. pressure
2. A. published B. printed C. publicised D. proclaimed
3. A. outlooks B. odds C. prospects D. views
4. A. important B. impressive C. heavy D. significant
5. A. quality B. calibre C. excellence D. worth
6. A. rank B. status C. degree D. grade
7. A. pliable B. elastic C. amenable D. flexible
8. A. safety B. security C. sanctuary D. protection
9. A. failure B. defeat C. deficiency D. lack
10. A. indisposed B. unwell C. injured D. sick
11. A. pestered B. inflamed C. irritated D. ruffled
12. A. behind the times B. expired C. out-of-date D. invalid
13. A. fertility B. capacity C. value D. productivity
14. A. compensation B. damages C. reimbursement D. atonement
15. A. idiosyncratic B. unique C. personal D. individual
II. You will read an article about air pollution and mental health. The heading of each paragraph has
been removed. Read carefully and fill in the blank with the heading (i-ix). There is one that you don’t
need.
AIR POLLUTION AND ITS BRAIN EFFECT
(1) ______________________________________________________________
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Analysing data from 151 million people in the US and 1.4 million people in Denmark, researchers have
found that there is a strong correlation between poor air quality and higher rates of bipolar disorder,
schizophrenia, personality disorders and major depression. This suggests there is a link, but not necessarily
that pollution is causing these conditions.
(2) ______________________________________________________________
When the team looked at health insurance claims in the US, they found that the strongest predictor of being
diagnosed with bipolar disorder – after ethnicity – was air quality. Previous studies have unearthed a
correlation in the UK between polluted areas and teenagers reporting psychotic experiences and local air
pollution and psychiatric disorders in Swedish children.
(3) ______________________________________________________________
“We don’t really know very much overall. We’ve only got a handful of studies and most have
methodological problems,” says Helen Fisher of King’s College London, who worked on the UK teenager
study. One problem is a lack of data on what an individual’s true exposure to air pollution has been, with
some research looking at city-wide air quality measurements rather than specific addresses. That’s a big
weakness given we know air pollution exposure can vary significantly from one street to an adjacent one.
In the new study, exposure in the US was mapped at a county level, some of which are thousands of square
miles in area.
(4) ______________________________________________________________
The study tried to take into account confounding factors where data was available, including income,
ethnicity and population density. But an obvious factor that could be linked to both mental health and
pollution could be traffic noise, which is known to increase stress and disrupt sleep.
In some other studies, Fisher says deprivation could be the key factor, given that poverty is associated with
both psychiatric conditions and pollution.
(5) ______________________________________________________________
While the evidence is not very strong yet, Fisher says it shows there is an association between dirty air and
mental disorders that warrants further research.
(6) ______________________________________________________________
Some of the smallest pollutants – particulate matter known as PM2.5s – can pass through the blood-brain
barrier, potentially affecting the brain. Another possibility is that increased inflammation in the body, which
air pollution is known to cause, may ignite the brain’s stress response. A third is pollution caus ing epigenetic
changes, which affect the activity of DNA, perhaps leading to altered levels of brain chemicals. But Fisher
stresses caution: “These are very tentative mechanisms”.
(7) ______________________________________________________________
Stronger evidence of a link might not have a huge impact on policy because the case for action on air
pollution – such as it shortening lives through lung and heart problems – is strong. But if dirty air was found
to be causing mental conditions it would “open new avenues to the prevention and treatment of mental
conditions,” writes John Ioannidis of Stanford University in a commentary article in PLOS Biology.
(8) ______________________________________________________________
Fisher says research into air pollution and effects on mental health is about five to ten years behind the huge
body of evidence on the physical health impacts. The two key things that need addressing are studies looking
at exposure to dirty air over longer periods of time, and much better geographical resolution, helped by
people carrying individual pollution monitors. Such research is underway.
HEADINGS
i. What has this new study discovered?
ii. What else could explain the associations between dirty air and psychiatric conditions?
iii. So how seriously should we take the link between air pollution and mental health?
iv. How strong is the link between pollution and these conditions?
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v. How advisable can this research bring out to people?
vi. Why does it matter if a link is proven between air quality and our brains? Shouldn’t we care because of
the physical effects anyway?
vii. How good is the evidence for these?
viii. What’s being doing to find out more?
ix. In what ways could pollution affect our brains?
III. Read the text carefully and choose the correct answer A, B, C or D for each question.
YOU ARE WHAT YOU SPEAK
Does the language you speak influence the way you think? Does it help define your world view?
Anyone who has tried to master a foreign tongue has at least considered the possibility. As have those
who have ever had a close foreign friend.
At first glance, the idea that language influences thought seems perfectly plausible. [A] Conveying
even simple messages requires that you make completely different observations depending on your
language. Imagine being asked to count some pens on a table. [B] Let’s say there are eleven. [C] But a
Russian also has to consider what gender the pens are (neuter) and then use the neuter form of the word
for eleven. [D] And a Japanese speaker has to take into account their shape (long and cylindrical) as well,
and use the word for eleven designated for items of that form.
On the other hand, surely pens are just pens, no matter what your language compels you to specify
about them. Little linguistic peculiarities, though amusing, don't change the objective world we are
describing. So how can they alter the way we think?
Scientists and philosophers have been grappling with this thorny question for centuries. There
have always been those who argue that our picture of the universe depends on our native tongue. Since the
1960s, however, with the ascent of thinkers like Noam Chomsky and a host of cognitive scientists, the
consensus has been that linguistic differences don't really matter, that language is a universal human trait
and that our ability to talk to one another owes more to our shared genetics than to our varying cultures.
But now the pendulum is beginning to swing the other way as psychologists re-examine the question.
The new generation of scientists is not convinced that language is innate and hard-wired into our brain.
“Language is not just notation.” says Dan Slobin of the University of California. “The brain is shaped by
experience." Slobin and others say that small, even apparently insignificant differences between languages
do effect the way speakers perceive the world. “Some people argue that language just changes what you
attend to,” says Lera Boroditsky of the Massachusetts Institute of Technology. “But what you attend to
changes what you encode and remember.”
This is what Slobin calls ‘thinking for speaking' and he argues that it can have a huge impact on
what we deem important. For instance, about a third of the world's languages describe location in
'absolute' terms: speakers of many Pacific Island languages would say 'north of the tree' or ‘seaward from
the tree' rather than ‘beside the tree', as we might in English. In these languages, you always need to know
where you are in relation to fixed external reference points, says Slobin. “Even when you are in a dark
windowless room, or travelling on a bus in the dark.” he says, "you must know your location relative to
the fixed points in order to talk about events and locations.” So, even if you didn’t use the word 'north' in
conversation, you would always know where it was.
Whether your language emphasises an object's shape, substance or function also seems to effect
your relationship with the world, according to John Lucy, a researcher at the Max Planck Institute for
Psycholinguistics. He has compared American English with Yucatec Maya, spoken in Mexico’s Yucatan
Peninsula. Among the many differences between the two languages is the way objects are classified. In
English, shape is implicit in many nouns. We think in terms of discrete objects; and it is only when we
want to quantify amorphous things like sugar that we employ units such as ’cube’ or 'cup'. But in
Yucatec, objects tend to be defined by separate words that describe shape. So, for example, a 'short flat
THE PRACTICE BOOKLET FOR ENGLISH-MAJOR (VER A)
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leather’ is a wallet. Likewise, 'long banana' describes the fruit, while 'flat banana' means banana leaf and a
'seated banana' is a banana tree.
Boroditsky also argues that even artificial classification systems, such as gender, can be important.
The word ‘sun’ is neuter in Russian, feminine in German and masculine in Spanish. Some psychologists
claim that these inconsistencies suggest gender is just a meaningless tag, but Boroditsky disagrees. “To
construct sentences in these languages,” she says. “involves thinking about gender - even if it’s arbitrary -
thousands of times every day.”
To test how this affects the way people think, she presented Spanish and German-Speaking
volunteers with nouns that happened to have opposite genders in their native tongues. 'Key', for instance,
is feminine in Spanish and masculine in German and 'bridge' is masculine in Spanish and feminine in
German. Boroditsky asked the volunteers to come up with adjectives - in English - to describe these items.
German speakers described keys as ‘awkward’, 'worn', ‘jagged’ and ‘serrated’, while Spanish speakers
saw them as 'little’, 'lovely', 'magic' and 'intricate'. To Germans, bridges were 'awesome', 'fragile',
‘beautiful’ and 'elegant’, whereas Spanish speakers considered them 'big', 'solid', ‘dangerous’, 's trong' and
‘sturdy’.
1. A positive answer to the questions in the first paragraph would most probably be given by _______.
A. a student at an advanced stage of foreign language learning
B. a person who has worked abroad but has not learned a second language
C. a person who has been involved in an intimate relationship with a foreigner
D. a foreigner who has many close friends
2. Which of the following square brackets [A], [B], [C], or [D] best indicates where in the paragraph the
sentence “As an English speaker, you only have to count them and give the number.”can be inserted?
At first glance, the idea that language influences thought seems perfectly plausible. [A] Conveying even
simple messages requires that you make completely different observations depending on your language.
Imagine being asked to count some pens on a table. [B] Let’s say there are eleven. [C] But a Russian also
has to consider what gender the pens are (neuter) and then use the neuter form of the word for eleven. [D]
And a Japanese speaker has to take into account their shape (long and cylindrical) as well, and use the
word for eleven designated for items of that form.
A. [A] B. [B] C. [C] D. [D]
3. Which of the following sentences best expresses the meaning of the sentence in bold in paragraph 3?
A. Objective as it may seem, the world we are depicting is almost susceptible to intriguing linguistic
subtleties.
B. No matter how intriguing they are, minor peculiar linguistic features have no impacts on the objective
world depicted.
C. The objective world being described is too amusing to be altered by any peculiar linguistic features.
D. However amusing it is, the world being depicted is not subject to any impacts of little linguistic
peculiarities.
4. The question in paragraph 4 is described as thorny because _______.
A. nobody knows the answer B. the answer varies according to the language analysed
C. it is difficult to answer D. it has only recently been considered important
5. What is the purpose of the reference to the pendulum? (paragraph 4)
A. to show that genetic differences among races are insignificant
B. to suggest that Chomsky’s theory is no longer accepted as correct
C. to suggest that human speech patterns are hereditary
D. to state that cultural differences account for linguistic differences
6. According to Lera Boroditsky, what a person pays closest attention to reflects their_______.
A. linguistic prowess B. thought processes
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C. powers of observation D. intellectual abilities
7. In a typical Pacific Island language _______.
A. orientation is vitally important B. recognition of every type of vegetation is essential
C. descriptions of journeys are relatively brief D. north is always the point of reference
8. According to John Lucy, English speakers think of objects as_______.
A. needing units of measurement B. not having a dear shape
C. separate and distinct D. masculine or feminine
9. An amorphous object in paragraph 7 is one which has _______.
A. an indefinite shape B. an indistinct smell
C. a strong flavor D. a dense texture
10. The presence of gender in a language _______.
A. leads to confusion for native English speakers
B. determines the way complex sentences are constructed
C. affects the way objects are perceived
D. determines the order in which adjectives appear
IV. Read the following passage and think of ONE word that fits best in the number blank. (6 points)
WESTERN CIVILISATION’S OWN WILD CARNIVORE
As human housing sprawls across what was only (relatively) recently forest and farmland,
foxes discover city life, and come in from the cold
At the last official estimation by the United Nations Population Fund in 2011, the human population
was thought to exceed seven billion. Over 50 per cent of humans are urbanite – dwelling in cities or towns
built by humans for humans, meaning that a large (1)_____ of our planet is urbanised – transformed to suit
our needs, not (2)_____ of wildlife. Even the wildest-looking parks and gardens found inside human habitats
are very (3)_____ from naturally-occurring rough grass and woodland that was traditionally the home of
the ubiquitous red fox. If (4)_____, the fox’s legendary instinct for outwitting people is becoming far more
fact than fiction in the current day and age. While we’ve invited their close cousins, dogs, to share our
homes and conveniences, foxes have taken it upon (5)_____ to join us, cunningly making use of our waste,
learning to (6)_____ in the shadows and mapping our sleeping cities as new frontiers to adapt to and occupy.
Rarely seen during the day, red foxes and their cousins, the supposedly more primitive grey foxes, generally
patrol gardens and alleyways in the (7)_____ of night. Their excellent hearing and sharp (8)_____ of smell
mean that a fleet-footed retreat happens long before any humans arrive on the scene. Most fox activity is
noticed via unsecured bin-contents, scattered by marauding scavengers, pungent scent markings and dug-
out entry points under garden fences. Posing little to no threat (9)_____ domestic animals like cats, it’s
likely that they (10)_____ less welcome urban invaders such as rats and mice well in check. Just another
attractive prospect for foxes that are looking to leave the countryside for an inviting life within the concrete
jungle.
V. You will be reading an article about famous a popular TV cartoon series. Seven paragraphs (including
the example) have been removed from the text. Choose the correct paragraph (A-H) to fits in the blank
from (1
example
-7). There is one paragraph that you don’t need. (Eg. 1/F)
(Source: Objective CPE)
PARAGRAPHS
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D. WRITING (30 POINTS)
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I. Complete the following sentences without changing the meaning of the given one. Use only three to
eight words only including the word given.
1. She’s making me tired by singing the same song for like a thousand times. (OUT)
-> She’s _______________________________________ for like a thousand times.
2. Your ability to make decisions quickly and adapt makes you a survivor. (FEET)
-> It ________________________________ and adapt that makes you a survivor.
3. His though of his omnipotence was pulled down right after he lost his competition with others. (TWO)
-> He was ________________________________ right after he lost his competition with others.
4. Alice is really worried to choose whether to move with his company since she was limited to a month for
her decision. (UNDER)
-> Alice ________________________________ decide by the end of the month whether to move with his
company.
5. We worry that our children will under the influence of the perverted information on the Internet. (PREY)
-> We worry that ________________________________ the perverted information on the Internet.
II. Many parents remonstrate that their children are worringly getting exposure to such perverted culture
as pornography, gabbling, … in such a young age by accessing on the Internet.
Discuss about this problem in an essay of at least 200 words.
What extent do you agree or disagree?
BỘ ĐỀ LUYỆN THI CHO HỌC SINH
KHỐI CHUYÊN ANH
ĐỀ LUYỆN TẬP 3
Thời gian làm bài: 150 phút (Không kể thời gian giao đề)
A. PHONETICS
Choose the word whose stress partern is placed differently from the others.
1. A. demonstrative B. extravagant C. legitimate D. septicaemia
2. A. crescendo B. attorney C. compromise D. endeavour
3. A. salamander B. sanatorium C. sanitarium D. saturation
4. A. entrepreneur B. encyclopedia C. anonymity D. representation
5. A. subculture B. vigorous C. gadgetry D. consensus
B. LEXICO AND GRAMMAR
I. Complete the following sentences by circling the correct answer A, B, C or D.
1. The crew of the air balloon ____ the sand bags to help the balloon rise over the hill.
A. capsized B. jettisoned C. salvaged D. augmented
2. Hawkins is ____ in his field; no other contemporary scientist commands the same respect.
A. disparaged B. obsolete C. anachronistic D. preeminent
3. The lectures on quantum physics were invariably ____ ; the lecturer ____ his ill-prepared material in a
manner guaranteed to send even the most ardent student to sleep.
A. stimulating - delivered B. pedestrian - enthused about
C. soporific - droned D. scintillating - intoned
4. The ____ weather forced us to stay indoors.
A. enticing B. glorious C. restorative D. inclement
5. The model paraded in front of the celebrities with ____ ; it was impossible to tell that this was her first
assignment.
A. panache B. opprobrium C. shame D. trepidation
6. Anne mentioned John's habitual boasting about his wardrobe as an example of his ________ ways.
A. erratic B. egotistical C. flexible D. tactful
7. Tribal differences in the country have created an _____ cycle of violence for years.
A. interminable B. intermittent C. endless D. effortless
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8. His neighbors found his ______ manner bossy and irritating, and they stopped inviting him to backyard
barbeques.
A. insentient B. magisterial C. reparatory D. restorative
9. With a(n) ______ grin, the boy quickly slipped the candy into his pocket without his mother’s knowledge.
A. jaundiced B. stereotypical C. nefarious D. sentimental
10. The authorities, fearing a ______ of their power, called for a military state in the hopes of restoring
order.
A. subversion B. premonition C. predilection D. infusion
II. Supply the correct form of the word in bracket to complete the passage.
DEALING WITH PHOBIAS
Do you feel hysterical at the thought of spiders? Do you start to shake if you think that you might
have to touch cotton wool? It is estimated that between three to five million Britons suffers from such
phobias, and the (0) majority (MAJOR) of these people do not (1) ______ (GO) any form of treatment.
Most (2)______ (RATION) fears begin in the first instance as mild forms of (3) ________ (ANXIOUS),
and only develop gradually into (4)______ (BLOW) phobias. They seem to be becoming increasingly
frequent in all expansion of technology, people who are (5)________ (CUSTOMARY) to controlling their
(6) _______ (STYLE) with the push of a button panic when things go wrong. Men are less likely to suffer
from such fears than women, but attempts by either men or women simply to (7)____ (REGARD) them
can exacerbate the problem.
Nowadays, however, phobias can be treated. The easiest option is prescription drugs, which
effectively control the physical symptoms, but may have (8)_______ (DESIRE) side-effects. The other
option is behavioural therapy, in which you gradually learn to (9)_____ (COME) your fear through facing
up to it. This is a safe and lasting (10)______ (ALTER) to drug treatment.
III. There are 5 mistakes in the following paragraph. Find and correct them.
There is a long-standing debate among users of “new media” and Internet Service Providers
(ISPs) about so-called “net neutrality” the idea that no-one should control the Internet). Both sides
claim to uphold what they call "Internet freedom", but it appears they have diverging views of exactly
which is meant by freedom but it appears they have diverging views of exactly which is meant by
freedom in this context.
For supporters of neutrality, Internet freedom means equal, affordable access for whatever
online applications and content they choose. In contrast, the ISPs say a free Internet means that the
industry should be unimpeded by government oversight and that high- speed connections should be
available for anyone who can afford it.
The debate is over grown with so many technical jargon that it hasn't attracted widespreading
attention, but what's at stake is nothing less than the future of the Internet. The issue, essentially, is
whether financial corporations become gatekeepers of online content and traffic, or whether small
independent organisations can access the new technology without restrictions. Whichever way it goes,
the outcome is likely to change the whole of popular culture.
IV. Fill in the blank with ONE suitable preposition.
1. Directed by a hypocritical, the organization is rotten _______ the core.
2. Investors have taken heart _______ the improving economic situation.
3. All her hard work paid _______ in the end and she’s now successful.
4. The prospective buyer had decided to look _______ the property before committing himself.
5. The statements that she gave were borne _______ by the other witnesses, so the suspect was found guilty
by the magistrate.
(TRÍCH HSGDHBB20172018)
C. READING
by. Nguyễn Đức Anh
22
I. Read the following passage and decide which answer (A, B, C or D) best fits each gap.
CHILD LABOUR
Child workers, some as young as 10, have been found working in a textile (1) _____ in conditions
described as close to slavery to produce clothes that appear destined for one of the major high street (2)
_____.
Speaking to a British newspaper, the children described long hours of (3) _____work and threats and
beatings. The company said it was unaware that clothing intended for its (4) _____ had been improperly (5)
____ to a (6)____ that used child labour. It further announced it had withdrawn the garments involved until
it had investigated the alleged (7) _____ of the (8) _____ code it imposed on manufacturers three years ago.
The discovery of these children working in appalling conditions in the Shahpur Jat area of Delhi has
renewed concerns about the (9) ____ by some large retail chains of their (10) _____ production to India,
recognised by the United Nations as one of the world's hotspots for child labour. According (11) _____ one
(12) ____ , over 20 per cent of India's economy is (13) _____ on children, which comes to a total of 55
million youngsters under 14 working.
(14) _____ in the West should not only be demanding answers from retailers about how their (15) _____
are produced but also should
be looking into their consciences at how they spend their money and whether
cheap prices in the West are worth the suffering caused to so many children.
1. A. office
B. facility
C. factory
D. bureau
2. A. warehouse
B. warehouses
C. retailers
D. retailer
3. A. impaid
B. unpaid
C. without pay
D. without payment
4. A. stores
B. branch
C. outlet
D. warehouses
5. A. outsource
B. outsourcing
C. outsources
D. outsourced
6. A. association
B. closed shop
C. retailer
D. sweatshop
7. A. errors
B. breaches
C. mistakes
D. wrongdoings
8. A. ethical
B. ethnic
C. ethnical
D. ethic
9. A. outsources
B. outsource
C. outsourcing
D. outsourced
10. A. garments
B. garment
C. raiment
D. raiments
11. A. to
B. by
C. of
D. from
12. A. estimated
B. estimating
C. estimates
D. estimate
13. A. depends
B. dependent
C. dependant
D. dependence
14. A. Consumer
B. Consumption
C. Consumers
D. Consume
15. A. goods
B. ware
C. stuff
D. garment
Part 2. Read the passage and choose the correct answer for each question.
Before 1815 manufacturing in the United States had been done in homes or shops by skilled artisans.
As master craftworkers, they imparted the knowledge of their trades to apprentices and journeymen. In
addition, women often worked in their homes part-time, making finished articles from raw material supplied
by merchant capitalists. After 1815 this older form of manufacturing began to give way to factories with
machinery tended by unskilled or semiskilled laborers. Cheap transportation networks, the rise of cities, and
the availability of capital and credit all stimulated the shift to factory production.
The creation of a labor force that was accustomed to working in factories did not occur easily. Before
the rise of the factory, artisans had worked within the home. Apprentices were considered part of the family,
and masters were responsible not only for teaching their apprentices a trade but also for providing them with
some education and for supervising their moral behaviors. Journeymen knew that if they perfected their skill,
they could become respected master artisans with their own shops. Also, skilled artisans did not work by the
THE PRACTICE BOOKLET FOR ENGLISH-MAJOR (VER A)
|23
clock, at a steady pace, but rather in bursts of intense labor alternating with more leisurely time.
The factory changed that. Goods produced by factories were not as finished or elegant as those done
by hand, and pride in craftsmanship gave way to the pressure to increase rates of productivity. The new
methods of doing business involved a new and stricter sense of time. Factory life necessitated a more
regimented schedule, where work began at the sound of a bell and workers kept machines going at a constant
pace. At the same time, workers were required to discard old habits, for industrialism demanded a worker who
was alert, dependable, and self-disciplined. Absenteeism and lateness hurt productivity and, since work was
specialized, disrupted the regular factory routine. Industrialization not only produced a fundamental change in
the way work was organized; it transformed the very nature of work.
The first generation to experience these changes did not adopt new attitudes easily. The factory clock
became the symbol of the new work rules. One mill worker who finally quit complained revealingly about
"obedience to the ding-dong of the bell—just as though we are so many living machines." With the loss of
personal freedom also came the loss of standing in the community. Unlike artisan workshops in which
apprentices worked closely with the masters supervising them, factories sharply separated workers from
management. Few workers rose through the ranks to supervisory positions, and even fewer could achieve the
artisan's dream of setting up one's own business. Even well-paid workers sensed their decline in status.
In this newly emerging economic order, workers sometimes organized to protect their rights and
traditional ways of life. Craftworkers such as carpenters, printers, and tailors formed unions, and in 1834
individual unions came together in the National Trades' Union. The labor movement gathered some
momentum in the decade before the Panic of 1837, but in the depression that followed, labor's strength
collapsed. During hard times, few workers were willing to strike or engage in collective action. And skilled
craftworkers, who spearheaded the union movement, did not feel a particularly strong bond with semiskilled
factory workers and unskilled laborers. More than a decade of agitation did finally bring a workday shortened
to 10 hours to most industries by the 1850's, and the courts also recognized workers' right to strike, but these
gains had little immediate impact.
Workers were united in resenting the industrial system and their loss of status, but they were divided
by ethnic and racial antagonisms, gender, conflicting religious perspectives, occupational differences, political
party loyalties, and disagreements over tactics. For them, the factory and industrialism were not agents of
opportunity but reminders of their loss of independence and a measure of control over their lives. As United
States society became more specialized and differentiated, greater extremes of wealth began to appear. And
as the new markets created fortunes for the few, the factory system lowered the wages of workers by dividing
labor into smaller, less skilled tasks.
1. Which of the following can be inferred from the passage 1 about articles manufactured before 1815?
A. They were primarily produced by women.
B. They were generally produced in shops rather than in homes.
C. They were produced with more concern for quality than for speed of production.
D. They were produced mostly in large cities with extensive transportation networks.
2. Which of the sentences below best expresses the essential information in the highlighted sentence in the
passage 2? Incorrect answer choices change the meaning in important ways or leave out essential information.
A. Masters demanded moral behavior from apprentices but often treated them irresponsibly.
B. The responsibilities of the master to the apprentice went beyond the teaching of a trade.
C. Masters preferred to maintain the trade within the family by supervising and educating the younger
family members.
D. Masters who trained members of their own family as apprentices demanded excellence from them.
3. The word "disrupted" in the passage 3 is closest in meaning to ________.
A. prolonged B. established C. followed D. upset
by. Nguyễn Đức Anh
24
4. In paragraph 4, the author includes the quotation from a mill worker in order to ________.
A. support the idea that it was difficult for workers to adjust to working in factories
B. to show that workers sometimes quit because of the loud noise made by factory machinery
C. argue that clocks did not have a useful function in factories
D. emphasize that factories were most successful when workers revealed their complaints
5. All of the following are mentioned in paragraph 4 as consequences of the new system for workers EXCEPT
a loss of ________.
A. freedom B. status in the community
С. opportunities for advancement D. contact among workers who were not managers
6. The phrase "gathered some momentum" in the passage 5 is closest in meaning to ________.
A. made progress B. became active C. caused changes D. combined forces
7. The word "spearheaded" in the passage 5 is closest in meaning to________.
A. led B. accepted C. changed D. resisted
8. Which of the following statements about the labor movement of the 1800's is supported by paragraph 5?
A. It was most successful during times of economic crisis.
B. Its primary purpose was to benefit unskilled laborers.
C. It was slow to improve conditions for workers.
D. It helped workers of all skill levels form a strong bond with each year
9. The author identifies political party loyalties, and disagreements over tactics as two of several factors that
________.
A. encouraged workers to demand higher wages
B. created divisions among workers
C. caused work to become more specialized
D. increased workers' resentment of the industrial system
10. Complete the table below by indicating which of the answer choices describe characteristics of the
period before 1815 and which describe characteristics of the 1815-1860 period. There are 2 choices that
you don’t need.
Before 1815
1815-1850
Answer Choices
i. A united, highly successful labor movement took shape.
ii. Workers took pride in their workmanship.
iii. The income gap between the rich and the poor increased greatly.
iv. Transportation networks began to decline.
v. Emphasis was placed on following schedules.
vi. Workers went through an extensive period of training.
vii. Few workers expected to own their own businesses.
III. Read the passage and think of ONE word that best fits in the numbered blank.
HELL MONEY
Resembling real banknotes but not an officially recognised currency, the (1)________ of burning
Hell Money is also believed to distract evil spirits so they chase the cash instead of the departed soul of the
dead.
Hell Money, also known as Ghost Money and Spirit Money, has been discovered in archaeological
excavations and its use can be traced back to the first millennium BCE—however, money was not in paper
(2)______ then, but instead made of stone, bones and later metal.
The design of Hell Money banknotes is an art form. They are printed on joss paper in vivid colours
and elaborate designs, with the King of Hell featuring on their front side. The size can (3)_______, but in
most cases they all have huge denominations.
THE PRACTICE BOOKLET FOR ENGLISH-MAJOR (VER A)
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Even though most banknotes display (4)_______ in the millions and billions, there are a few notes
with values of tens or hundreds. The 100 dollar note is particularly interesting with the King of Hell
multiplied four-fold because the Chinese word (5)__________ “four” is a homonym of the word “death”.
(Source: GB Times)
D. WRITING
I. Complete the following sentence without changing the meaning of the original sentence and the given
word.
1. She bursted in laugh since she couldn’t control herself. (SPITE)
-> She roared ___________________________________________________________________.
2. Studying in the early morning was really irritating. (CRACK)
-> Studying ____________________________________________________________ flesh.
3. When he says, I have no chance to speak. (LIPS)
-> Not ___________________________________________________________________.
4. Don’t assume easily that you are destined to fail when you have just started. (DOOMED)
-> Don’t take ___________________________________________________________________.
5. Turner is unlikely to win next month’s mayoral election. (SHOT)
-> Turner is ___________________________________________________________________.
II. Lately, the Amazon rainforest has experienced a terrible conflagration. Many scientists have claimed
that it started from global warming and overheating, and, the main derivation of global warming are
such humanity’s acts as deforestation, waste disposal, …
From the mentioned piece of information, what should we do to protect the environment? Should we
depend on the governmental force or by ourselves?
Write an essay of at least 200 words to discuss about this matter. You can use from your own
experience and knowledge.
THE END
BEST OF LUCK
BỘ ĐỀ LUYỆN THI CHO HỌC SINH
KHỐI CHUYÊN ANH
ĐỀ LUYỆN TẬP 4
Thời gian làm bài: 150 phút (Không kể thời gian giao đề)
A. LISTENING
I. You will hear three different extracts. For questions 1 – 6, choose the answer which fits best according
to what you hear. There are two questions for each extract.
EXTRACT 1
You hear a man talking about a project being launched in a group of small Atlantic islands.
1. What is the main objective of the project?
A) To raise environmental awareness B) To encourage tourism in the islands
C) To follow the movements of tides
2. What is the speaker’s opinion of the new project?
A) The idea is over-ambitious B) The approach is innovative
C) The experiment is unscientific
EXTRACT 2
You hear part of an interview with an art critic, in which an exhibition featuring the latest work of
photographer Tim Fitzgerald is discussed.
3. What is the art critic’s opinion of Fitzgerald’s latest work?
A) It demonstrates his lack of artistic range B) It compares favourably with his previous work
by. Nguyễn Đức Anh
26
C) It shows poor understanding of relationships
4. The art critic says that Fitzgerald’s pictures in the current show
A) are unsuitable for rounding up the exhibition B) do not manage to engage the visitor’s interest
C) lack artistic originality
EXTRACT 3
You hear a woman on the radio talking about her favourite piece of music.
5. How does the speaker say she feels when listening to her favourite piece of music?
A) Engrossed B) Nostalgic C) Inspired
6. The speaker believes that critics of her favourite piece of music are wrong to
A) doubt the level of its popularity B) disregard the composer’s skills
C) underrate it for its wide appeal
II. You will hear a zoo keeper called Gareth talking to members of the public about changes in zoo
practices over the last sixty years. For questions 7 – 15, complete the sentences with a word or short
phrase.
• Gareth thinks attention has shifted from keeping enclosures free of (7) __________ to making them
similar to animals’ natural environment.
• He says it is difficult to provide natural surroundings while maintaining the animals’ __________ (8) to
the public.
• At Hadley Zoo, keepers devise programmes which provide (9) __________to the animals as part of their
care.
• In the 1980s, zoo animals were regarded as similar to (10) __________ by members of the public.
• Gareth explains how the word (11) __________ illustrates the attitude of the public to zoo animals.
• In one zoo, visitors can manipulate special (12) __________ ,allowing them to interact with the animals.
• Gareth says that the apes bred in captivity have an attitude of (13) __________ to visitors.
• The aim of training dangerous animals is to achieve (14) __________ when handling is required.
• When the use of (15) __________ was stopped, elephants became healthier and more sociable
B. LEXICO AND GRAMMAR
I. Choose the correct answer A, B, C or D to complete the following sentence.
1. The defendant waited anxiously for the jury to ______ the decision that would seal his fate.
A. render B. deprecate C. rejuvenate D. disparage
2. Brian was an ______ child, he was sent to the principal’s office on numerous occasions for his rude
classroom behavior.
A. impeccable B. impertinent C. observant D. obscure
3. Orson was truly a(n) ______: towering over others at six feet nine inches, he was also one of the most
influential and successful producers in the feature film industry.
A. behemoth B. anathema C. demagogue D. viceroy
4. ______ that took American art out of the romanticism of the mid 1800’s and carried it to the most
powerful heights of realism.
A. Winslow Homers’ paintings B. It was Winslow Homers’ paintings
C. When Winslow Homers’ paintings D. Paitings of Winslow Homers’
5. Oil spills will ______ even the healthiest of marine ecosystem.
A. play havoc on B. break ground with
C. pay the consequences for D. take their toll one
6. Disagreements among party members have led to a major political _______.
A. wrangle B. tussle C. scrap D. squabble
7. _______ police were called to the scene where violent protesters posed a threat to the public.
A. Trouble B. Riot C. Mutiny D. Crowd
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|27
8. Their decision on whether I get the job or not will be based mostly on my academic ________.
A. reputation B. credit C. standing D. credentials
9. Take the doctor’s advice into consideration. He’s in ________ earnest about the epidemic.
A. mortally B. fatally C. gravely D. deadly
10. Most people who win a lot of money __________ usually it on unnecessary things.
A. consume B. give C. squander D. throw
II. Supply the correct form of the word in brackets to complete the passage. (10 points)
Those people who fear that three decades of significant technological (1. BREAK)_______have
produced a generation of (2. WORK)____and unhelpful Internet addicts will be (3. LIFT)______by a
survey showing that some teenagers are better trained than they ever were, domestically speaking. Nearly
60% of parents said that their teenagers were (4. THOROUGHNESS)______at looking after themselves,
agreeing with the statement that ‘My son/daughter can organise a meal and cook it.’ Those parents with
children aged 14–18, were most likely to be in agreement with this. The aim of the survey was to (5.
VALUE)__________the attitude of parents towards their teenagers.
About 1,000 parents were asked if they agreed with (6. MIX)_________views on typical teenage
behaviour and lifestyles in the early years of the 21st century. In the analysis of responses it was found that,
while teenagers regarded weekends as a time of (7. WIND) _______, most parents considered them a time
for study or family (8. UNIONSHIP) ____. However, the contention that it’s useful to have a teenager
because of their seemingly (9. BEARING)_____ability to know how the TV and computers work was a
point that almost everyone (10. SCRIPT)_____to.
III. There are 10 errors in the passage. Find and correct them.
A feminine is a person, usually a woman, who believes that women should be regarded as equally
to men. She, or he, deplores discrimination against women in the home, place of work or anywhere, and her
principle enemy is the male chauvinist, who believes that men are naturally super. Tired of being referred
to as “the weaker sex”, women are becoming more and more militancy and are winning the age-old battle
of the sexes. They are sick to death of sexy jokes which poke fun at women. They are no longer content to
be regarded as second-class citizens in terms of economic, political and social status. They criticize beauty
contests and the use of glamour female models in advertisements which they describe as the exploit of
female beauty, since women in these situations were represented as mere sex objects. We no longer live in
the male-dominate societies of the past. Let us hope, moreover, that the revolution stops before we have a
boring world in which sex doesn’t make much difference. We already have unisex hairdressers an d fashions.
What next?
eg: feminine -> feminist
C. READING (30 POINTS)
I. From the words listed below, choose the one which best fits the space, A, B, C or D.
LONDON’S BLACK CABS
Black cabs, officially known as Hackney Carriages, are (1) _______ London and are special for a
number of reasons. For a start, they are the only taxis in the city that can be hailed from the kerb with a
raised hand signal to get the driver’s attention. Currently, it is estimated that there are 20,000 black cabs (2)
____ on the capital’s streets. Their origin, in fact, can be (3) _______ the name ‘Hackney Carriage’ said to
derive from the French word haquenée referring to the type of horse used to pull the carriages in the days
of horse-drawn carriages. The first horse-drawn Hackney coaches appeared on London’s streets in the 17th
century during the reign of Queen Elizabeth I. As transport developed and motor cars were (4)___, motor
cabs replaced the horse-drawn carriages. Since the end of the 19th century, various car manufacturers’
vehicles have been used as motor cabs but it was not until the mid-20th century that the cabs we have been
(5) _______ over the last decades first appeared.
by. Nguyễn Đức Anh
28
It is such a(n) (6) _______ of becoming a black cab driver in London and it is (7) _______. If you
want to gain this honour you will need to have passed the infamous test known as ‘the Knowledge’, which
was first introduced in 1851 following (8) _______ of complaints by passengers whose cab drivers got lost.
This incredibly difficult test can take around three or four years to prepare for and you can often catch a
glimpse of those drivers who are doing just this zipping around London on their mopeds, with a map (9)
_______ to a clipboard on their handlebars. These people are essentially trying not only to master the 25,000
or so streets within a six-mile radius of Charing Cross, but also to work out the most direct routes from
place to place. They must know thousands of ‘points of interest’ such as hotels, hospitals, places of worship,
theatres, stations, sports and leisure facilities, to name but a few. Practically everywhere and anywhere that
a potential passenger would wish to be taken to or from must be known, so a nodding acquaintance, for a
black cab driver, is (10) _______, and perhaps this is the most difficult part, knowing the quickest way to
get from one place to another. Little wonder so few people are successful.
1. A. commensurate with B. equivalent to C. synonymous with D. tantamount to
2. A. hereabouts B. hither and thither C. or thereabouts D. there and then
3. A. ferreted out from B. hunted down from C. mapped out to D. traced back to
4. A. all the rage B. of high standing C. of repute D. in vogue
5. A. clued in on B. genned up on C. in the know about D. no stranger to
6. A. handiwork B. procurement C. realisation D. undertaking
7. A. beyond you B. no brainer C. no mean feat D. over your head
8. A. droves B. hordes C. packs D. swarms
9. A. chained B. fastened C. linked D. sealed
10. A. beyond measure B. beyond redemption C. beyond the pale D. beyond the veil
II. Read the text and choose the correct answer A, B, C or D for each question.
Fossil tree resin, commonly known as amber, has the ability to encase and preserve things for
extensive periods of time. Researchers in Kaliningrad, Russia, have recently discovered fossilized
carnivorous plants for the first time. Encased in the variety of amber commonly found in the Baltic region,
leaves from these rare and interesting plants have been preserved for what scientists estimate to be between
35 and 47 million years.
Amber is often confused with sap because of its sticky, liquid form. It is chemically different, though,
and hardens to such an extent that it can immaculately preserve what it encases. As a result, researchers
often encounter insects and other animals preserved in amber for long periods of time. Considered a type
of fossil, these findings are incredibly useful, as the animals found in amber are not usually found elsewhere
in the fossil record. Plants, on the other hand, are rarely seen preserved this way. This new discovery, along
with amber-encased animals, provides scientists with a more comprehensive view of life in earlier times.
The newly discovered plant fossils are also groundbreaking for two more specific reasons: They are
the only fossilized carnivorous plant traps ever found, as well as the only fossilized
evidence of the plant family Roridulaceae. The Roridulaceae plant has been seen only in seed form until
now. While the seeds did offer scientists valuable information, the trapping mechanism of the plant's leaves
was left to conjecture. In these newly discovered fossils, the leaves of the plants are fully intact and contain
organic animal matter that had been captured in the leaves' tentacles when the plant was living.
Geologists and botanists in Germany published these findings in the Proceedings of the National
Academy of Sciences, noting that the leaves look similar to a genus of carnivorous plants called Roridula,
which, until now, were considered endemic to Africa, where they still thrive. Unlike Venus flytraps, which
are known to catch and dissolve insects using a digestive mechanism, all Roridula plants (and their newly
discovered ancestor) absorb nutrients secondhand through a symbiotic relationship with an insect known as
Pameridea. The Pameridea insect generates a greasy film, which allows it to live on Roridula's leaves
without being ensnared in the plant's tentacles. The insect then captures and digests its prey while still on
THE PRACTICE BOOKLET FOR ENGLISH-MAJOR (VER A)
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the leaves of the plant, and then passes nutrients to the plant through its feces. This way of ingesting nutrients
is the major link between this insect and the Roridulaceae family of plants.
The new fossil discovery in Russia completely challenges the conclusions that scientists had
previously drawn about the paleobiogeography of the species. Roridulaceae was previously thought to
originate from the prehistoric Pangaean supercontinent called Gondwana, which included modern-day
Africa, South America, India, Antarctica, and Australia. However, recent findings suggest that the shared
ancestors of these plant species had a much wider distribution. Researchers will need to continue to search
for plant matter preserved in amber to fill in more of the blanks in the fossil record.
1. The primary purpose of this passage is to ________.
A. explain how scientists use new technology to explore old findings.
B. contrast the differences among various types of fossil tree resin.
C. inform the reader about new plant fossils discovered in amber.
D. encourage the reader to learn more about the plant fossil record.
2. Based on the information in the passage, the reader can infer that the author ________.
A. was part of the research team that discovered the new fossils.
B. considers the discovery of the plant fossils in amber scientifically valuable.
C. thinks the conclusions drawn by the scientists in Germany are flawed.
D. does not expect scientists to find many more fossils in amber.
3. The author claims that animal fossils found in amber are important to scientists because they ________.
A. are immaculately preserved samples of ancient life forms.
B. contain remains of life forms not otherwise found in the fossil record.
C. are easier to study than fossils found buried in rock formations.
D. contain DNA that resembles various types of animals living today.
4. The word "immaculately" most nearly means ________.
A. correctly. B. innocently. C. perfectly. D. purely.
5. In line 7, the author uses the phrase "rare and interesting plants" to emphasize the importance of ___.
A. the discovery of the fossilized carnivorous plants. B. the study of paleontology and geology.
C. the preservation of the existing fossil record. D. the continued exploration in the Baltic region.
6. It can reasonably be inferred from the passage that ________.
A. scientists will begin to find Roridula plants in warm regions outside of Africa.
B. future discoveries could change current theories about plant evolution.
C. plants fossilized in amber can only be found in the Baltic region of Russia.
D. the Venus flytrap is the only plant with a symbiotic relationship with insects.
7. Which choice provides the best evidence for the answer to the previous question?
A. Lines 36-41 ("Geologists … thrive") B. Lines 43-46 ("all Roridula … Pameridea")
C. Lines 55-58 ("The new fossil … species") D. Lines 58-64 ("Roridulaceae was … distribution")
8. According to information in the passage, the Pameridea insect is able to live on Roridula's leaves without
being eaten by the plant because ________.
A. the insect secretes a substance that prevents it from getting caught in the plant's tentacles.
B. the plant does not need to eat the insect because it gets its energy from photosynthesis.
C. the insect does not stay on the plant's leaves long enough to get caught in its sticky leaves.
D. the plant only ingests insects that have already died and begun to decompose.
9. The word "thrive" most nearly means ________.
A. advance. B. develop. C. flourish. D. succeed.
10. Which choice best describes how the discovery of the ancestor of the Roridulaceae plant changed
scientists' thinking?
A. They realized that the fossilized plants are more closely related to the Venus flytrap than previously thought.
by. Nguyễn Đức Anh
30
B. They realized that the fossilized plants did not have a symbiotic relationship with the Pameridea insect.
C. They realized that the fossilized plants ingested insects directly rather than secondhand like modern Roridula
plants.
D. They realized that the Roridulaceae plant family was more widely distributed than previously believed.
III. Read the passage and think of ONE word that best fits in the numbered blank. (10 points)
A portrait of Michael Gove so large it can “be seen from space” has been drawn on the sand on the
North Yorkshire coast to (1)_________ his stance on Brexit.
The anti-Brexit (2)______ group Led By Donkeys travelled to Redcar to install the drawing
measuring 7,500 sq metres, which features a quote from the cabinet minister in which he said the UK “didn’t
vote to leave without a deal” in the 2016 EU referendum.
Since writing that in March in a Daily Mail article, the minister, who is in charge of no-deal planning,
has (3)_______ Boris Johnson’s decision to prorogue parliament.
@Led By Donkeys wrote on Twitter: “Hey, Vote Leave leader Michael Gove, remember in March
you admitted there’s no mandate for No Deal cos nobody voted for it in the 2016 referendum? We thought
we’d remind the country via a 7,500 sq/m sand installation on Redcar beach that can be seen from space.
You’re welcome.”
The group said it installed the giant sand drawing in north-east England because it believed the region
would be one that would (4) _________ the most from a no-deal Brexit.
“The government is (5) ______ the 2016 referendum gives it a mandate to crash us out of the EU
without a deal, but that’s nonsense,” said Will Rose of Led By Donkeys. “Gove is right – nobody ever voted
for a no-deal Brexit. Now the government is suspending parliament so even MPs will find it hard to have a
say. “We decided to do this sand installation in Redcar because the north-east will be hit hard by a no-deal
Brexit. Nobody voted to lose jobs and investment.”
On Sunday morning, Gove refused on BBC One’s Andrew Marr Show to confirm that the
government would (6) ____ by legislation blocking a no-deal Brexit if it was forced through by Tory rebels
and the opposition when the Commons sits this week. Led By Donkeys was (7) _____ in December 2018
by four remain supporters who initially wanted to bring the pronouncements of key Brexiters to a wider
audience by turning them into Twitter posts that were pasted on to advertising hoardings.
One of their (8) _____ efforts was of Johnson saying in July 2017: “There is no plan for no deal
because we’re going to get a great deal.” The men, who are current or former members of Greenpeace, also
followed Nigel Farage’s protest (9) _______ on London in two vans displaying digital ads and produced an
enormous banner that was unfurled at the anti-Brexit rally in March.
They take their name from the phrase used to (10) _______ British soldiers during the first world
war: “Lions led by donkeys.”
D. WRITING (30 POINTS)
I. Complete the second sentence without changing the meaning of the original sentence.
1.You should not use this button unless the machine goes out of control. (HAYWARE)
→ Under ____________________________________________________________________________.
2. After thinking carefully, I decided to buy a new car. (MATURE)
→ On ____________________________________________________________________________.
3. She was petrified when the roof of her house suddenly fell down. (CAVING)
→ The ____________________________________________________________________________.
4. If you think you are the cat’s whiskers, you won’t make any progress. (NOWHERE)
→ Suffering ____________________________________________________________________.
5. I listened really hard to catch the drift of his speech. (STRAINED)
→ My ____________________________________________________________________________.
THE PRACTICE BOOKLET FOR ENGLISH-MAJOR (VER A)
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II. Is praising others, even if the praise is excessive or undeserved, a necessary part of life? Plan and
write an essay in which you develop your point of view on this issue. Support your position with reasoning
and examples taken from your reading, studies, experience, or observation. Please write an essay of at
least 200 words on this question.
THE END
BEST OF LUCK
BỘ ĐỀ LUYỆN THI CHO HỌC SINH
KHỐI CHUYÊN ANH
ĐỀ LUYỆN TẬP 5
Thời gian làm bài: 150 phút (Không kể thời gian giao đề)
A. LISTENING
I. Listen to the recording and complete the note with NO MORE THAN TWO WORDS.
FOUR BUSINESS VALUES
Many business values can result in (1)_____________________
Senior managers need to understand and deal with the potential (2)_________ that may result.
Collaboration
During a training course, the speaker was in a team that had to build a (3)____________
Other teams experienced (4)___________ from trying to collaborate.
The speaker's team won because they, reduced collaboration.
Sales of a (5)______________ were poor because of collaboration.
Industriousness
Hard work may be a bad use of various company (6)______________
The word 'lazy' in this context refers to people who avoid doing tasks that are (7)____________
Creativity
An advertising campaign for a (8)____________ was memorable but failed to boost sales.
Creativity should be used as a response to a particular (9) ____________
Excellence
According to one study, on average, pioneers had a (10) ____________ that was far higher than that of
followers.
Companies that always aim at excellence may miss opportunities.
II. You will hear two people speaking about their fondness for trains. For questions 1-5, choose the
correct answer (A, B, C or D) which fits best according to what you hear.
1) What point does Philip make about the people who are involved in the locomotive side of trains?
A) Some avoid doing it because its too dirty.
B) Some worry about the dangers involved.
C) Some find it to be an instinctive activity.
D) Some only do it for the financial rewards it
brings.
2) When Mike discusses why he enjoys the world of trains, what contrast does he identify between
the different groups of people he interacts with?
A) A difference in social status.
B) A difference in ages.
C) A difference in technical ability.
D) A difference in motivation.
3) What view is stated by Mike about how the railway has helped him in his role as a parent?
A) It has helped him develop a closer relationship
with his daughter.
B) It has taught him patience.
C) It has helped him focus on his daughters career
possibilities.
D) It has given him stability in his life.
4) When discussing different aspects of the railway, both speakers agree that ___________.
by. Nguyễn Đức Anh
32
A) Age does not need to be a handicap.
B) Both men and women are equally welcome.
C) It can be quite demanding.
D) Cleanliness is not the first adjective that springs
to mind.
5) What final conclusion do both speakers reach about volunteering on the railway?
A) The time they have spent has been difficult but
worth it.
B) They have both learnt a lot.
C) They are better people for having been
involved with it.
D) It has helped them grow while at the same time
giving them a direction for the future.
B. LEXICO AND GRAMMAR
I. Choose the correct answer A, B, C or D for each question.
1. If the work-force respected you, you wouldn't need to _________ your authority so often.
A. assert B. affirm C. maintain D. inflict
2. The factory is working below _________ because of the shortage of essential materials.
A. range B. scope C. capacity D. denstiy
3. His new designs are ______ the trend in women’s fashion right now.
A. aiming B. setting C. building up D. following
4. She wants to give full ______ to her anger about discrimination.
A. manifestation B. vent C. wear D. barometer
5. Without telling her directly, they ______ that she’d got the job.
A. prophesied B. inferred C. insinuated D. intimated
6. Athletes need to have a higher _________ of protein and vitamins in order to stay heathy
A. intake B. increase C. infection D. production
7. He claimed _____ from military service because he was a foreign national
A. liability B. exception C. demobilization D. exemption
8. It’s Prime Minister’s right to ______ an election at any time he likes
A. summon B. nominate C. call D. submit
9. The footballer never really recovered from the injury ______ at the beginning of the season.
A. got B.struck C.endured D.sustained
10. The drought ________ considerable problems for farmers.
A. instigated B. posed C. flexed D. pressed
11. At the start of the course, everyone is assigned a(n) ________ of studies.
A. advisor B. consultant C. counsellor D. guide
12. Jerry has been burning the midnight ________ over the last few days; his final exam is soon.
A. lamp B. light C. candle D. oil
13. In my first year at university I lived in the halls of ________ .
A. abode B. residence C. dwelling D. accommodation
14. Books taken from the short ________ section are due to be returned the next day.
A. borrowing B. credit C. loan D. return
15. You are bound to find information on the stock market crash of 1987 in the newspaper ________ .
A. files B. archives C. records D. collections
16. The accused confidently ________ that he was innocent.
A. preserved B. maintained C. conserved D. defended
17. We did our best to fix the broken computer but our efforts bore no ________.
A. success B. fruit C. luck D. end
18. I knew my mother would ________ a face the minute she saw my new haircut.
A. drag B. lift C. pull D. raise
19. There are a lot of computer programmes nowadays, but really good ones are few and far ________.
THE PRACTICE BOOKLET FOR ENGLISH-MAJOR (VER A)
|33
A. between B. apart C. away D. amongst
20. He is such a kind and caring young boy - he wouldn’t hurt a ________ .
A. bird B. worm C. fly D. bug
II. Supply the correct form of the word in bracket to complete the passage.
The signal broke a seven-hour wait of (1. AGONY) intensity and sparked scenes of (2. JUBILEE) at the
European Space Agency’s mission control in Darmstadt. The team in charge of the Rosetta mission
achieved what at times seemed an impossible task by landing a (3. ROBOT) (4. CRAFT) on a comet for
the first time in history. The moment the tension broke came shortly after 1600 GMT when the Philae
called home. “We are there. We are sitting on the surface. Philae is talking to us,” said a (5. JUBILEE)
Stephan Ulamec, Philae lander manager at the DLR German space centre. “We are on the comet.” Andrea
Accomazzo, the Rosetta flight operations director, added: “We cannot be happier than we are now.”
But celebrations were tempered by the later discovery that the probe’s two harpoons had not fired to
fasten the craft down in the (6. LOW) gravity. Scientists now think the probe may have bounced after
first coming into contact with the surface. Ulamec said: “Maybe today we didn’t just land once, we landed
twice.” The safe, if (7. CARE), (8. TOUCH) of the lander gives scientists a unique chance to ride (9.
BOARD) a comet and study from the surface what happens as its activity ramps up as it gets closer to the
sun. The first images beamed back from the lander’s descent revealed a dramatic (10. SCAPE) of pits and
precipices, craters and boulders. However, there have been gaps in its radio link with the orbiting Rosetta
mothership.
III. There are 10 mistakes in the passage. Find and correct them.
There are numerous reason behind the choice of clothing we make, ranging from the practice to the bizarre,
but in every likelihood humans began wearing clothes in order to shield themselves of the elements.
‘The Iceman’, found mummifying in the ice of a glacier on the Italian-Austrian border in 1991, was still
clad with remarkably well-preserved garments which would obviously have protected him from the rain
and cold five thousand years ago.
The clothing worn by people living in warmer climates further illustrates this basic function of clothing. In
hot, dry desert regions, people tend to wear cool, flowing materials which cover much of body, including
the head. This helps keep them cool during the heat of the day and helps to keep the wearer warm at night
when temperatures increase dramatically. On the other hand, many peoples living in tropical regions, with
their constant high temperatures and humidity, are sparse clothed.
Not all clothing is functional, moreover, and at different times throughout history people, especially
women, have worn clothes which are impractical – restricting the wearer’s movements and in some cases
cause physical discomfort. Examples of such restrictive clothing can be seen in the hooped and corseted
gowns worn by wealthy women in the 18th century, and in the opulent, heavy robes traditionally worn by
royalties. Such customs send a clear message that the wearer does not need to work but occupies a
position in society that others can be commanded to work for them.
Example: 0. reason
→
reasons
IV. Fill in the blank with ONE suitable preposition.
1. The school examination for eleven-year-olds was done_________ with some years ago.
2. Tuck your shirt ________your trousers.
3. At first Tim insisted he was right, but then began to back ________
4. He is a solicitor________ profession.
5. A huge crowd turned _________ in the pouring rain to cheer the president.
PART C. READING
I. Read the passage and choose the correct answer that best fill in the blank.
OFFICE STRESS
by. Nguyễn Đức Anh
34
Stressful atmospheres, (1) _______ of deadlines and long hours dominate office life, according to a survey
(2) _______ recently.
The majority of those questioned said a good salary and career (3) _______ were their main reason for
working. But (4) _______ numbers did not believe their employers offered either. In general the survey
found that most felt that (5) _______ of life was more important than (6) _______and company perks. Most
would prefer employers to offer (7) _______ hours, challenging tasks and job (8) _______ rather than perks
such as company cars and private health care. Many employers’ (9) _______ to understand this meant more
than a third worried about their work on holiday, and 40 per cent took days off (10) _______when not ill.
Workers were also (11) _______ by the conditions they had to work in. A fifth struggled with (12) _______
technology, badly lit offices and chairs which caused backache. Half said their (13) _______ would increase
if their environment improved.
On the plus side, the biggest (14) _______ was the friendship offered by colleagues, and it appears that the
office also affords the chance to flirt with colleagues, make (15) _______ calls to friends abroad, steal
stationery and play computer games.
1. A. weight B. force C. heaviness D. pressure
2. A. published B. printed C. publicised D. proclaimed
3. A. outlooks B. odds C. prospects D. views
4. A. important B. impressive C. heavy D. significant
5. A. quality B. calibre C. excellence D. worth
6. A. rank B. status C. degree D. grade
7. A. pliable B. elastic C. amenable D. flexible
8. A. safety B. security C. sanctuary D. protection
9. A. failure B. defeat C. deficiency D. lack
10. A. indisposed B. unwell C. injured D. sick
11. A. pestered B. inflamed C. irritated D. ruffled
12. A. behind the times B. expired C. out-of-date D. invalid
13. A. fertility B. capacity C. value D. productivity
14. A. compensation B. damages C. reimbursement D. atonement
15. A. idiosyncratic B. unique C. personal D. individual
II. Read the text and choose the correct answer A, B, C or D for each question.
THE FUTURE OF NEWSPAPERS
Anybody who says they can reliably forecast the future of newspapers is either a liar or a fool. Look
at the raw figures, and newspapers seem doomed. Since 2000, the circulation of most UK national dailies
has fallen by between a third and a half. The authoritative Pew Research Center in the USA reports that
newspapers are now the main source of news for only 26 percent of US citizens as against 45 percent in
2001. There is no shoratge of prophets who confidently predict that the last printed newspaper will be safely
buried within 15 years at most.
Yet one of the few reliable facts of history is that old media have a habit of surviving. An over-
exuberant New York journalist announced in 1935 that books and theatre ‘have had their day’ and the daily
newspaper would become ‘the greatest organ of social life’. Theatre dully withstood not only the newspaper,
but also cinema and then television. Radio has flourished in the TV age; cinema, in turn, has held its own
against videos and DVDs. Even vinyl records have made a comeback, with online sales up 745 percent
since 2008.
Newspapers themselves were once new media, although it took several centuries before they became
the dominant medium for news. This was not solely because producing up-to-date news for a large
readership over a wide area became praticable and economic only in the mid-19th century, with the steam
press, the railway and the telegraph. Equally important was the emergence of the idea that everything around
THE PRACTICE BOOKLET FOR ENGLISH-MAJOR (VER A)
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us is in constant movement and we need to be updated on its condition at regular intervals- a concept quite
alien in the medieval times and probably also to most people in the early modern area. Now, we expect
change. To our medieval ancestors, however, the only realities were the passing of the seasons, punctuated
by catastrophes such as famine, flood or disease that they had no reliable means of anticipating. Life, as the
writer Alain de Botton puts it, was ‘ineluctably cyclical’ and ‘the most important truths were recurring’.
Journalism as a full-time trade from which you could hope to make a living hardly existed before the
19th century. Even then, there was no obvious reason why most people needed news on a regular basis,
whether daily or weekly. In some respects, regularity of newspaper publication and rigidity of format was,
and remains, a burden. Online news readers can dip in and out according to how they perceive the urgency
of events. Increasingly sophisticated search engines and algorithms allow us to personalise the news to our
own priorities and interests. When important stories break, internet news providers can post minute-by-
minute updates. Error, misconception and foolish speculation can be connected or modified almost
constantly. There are no space restrictions to prevent narrative or analysis, and documents or events cited
in news stories can often be accessed in full. All this is a world away from the straitjacket of newspaper
publication. Yet few if any providers seem alive to the new medium’s capacity for spreading understanding
and enlightenment.
Instead, the anxiety is always to be first with the news, to maximise reader comments, to create heat
and sound and fury and thus add to the sense of confusion. In the medieval world what news there was was
usually exchanged amid the babble of the market place or the tarven, where truth competed with rumour,
mishearing and misunderstanding. In some respects, it is to that world that we seem to be returning.
Newspapers have never been very good- or not as good as they ought to be- at telling us how the world
works. Perhaps they now face extinction. Or perhaps , as the internet merely adds to what de Botton
discribes as our sense that we live in ‘ an improvable and fundamentally chaotic universe’, they will discover
that they and they alone can guide us to wisdom and understanding.
1. In the first paragragh, the writer is presenting __________.
A. his interpretation of a current trend.
B. evidence that supports a widespread view.
C. his prediction on the future of print journalism.
D. reasons for the decline in newspaper readership.
2. What point is the writer making in the second paragraph?
A. Existing media are not necessarily replaced by new ones.
B. The best media technologies tend to be the most long-lasting.v
C. Public enthusiasm for new types of media is often unpredictable.
D. It is inevitable that most media technologies will have a limited life.
3. Which phrase in the second paragraph has the same meaning as ‘held its own against’?
A. ‘had their day’ B. ‘withstood’ C. ‘flourished’ D. ‘made a comeback’
4. In the third paragraph, the writer stresses the importance of __________.
A. a shift in people’s attitudes towards the outside world.
B. certain key19th- century advances in mechanisation.
C. the challenges of news distribution in the pre-industrial era.
D. the competition between newspapers and more established media.
5. What does the writer suggest is the main advantage of online news sites?
A. the flexibility of the medium B. the accuracy of the reporting
C. the ease of access for their users D. the breadth of their potential readership
III. Read the passage and think of ONE word that best fits in the numbered blank.
A BELATED CONFESSION
by. Nguyễn Đức Anh
36
“I have been having a crush on you for the past 4 years, I never had the (1)______ to tell you, but I can’t
be so cowardly anymore.” said Peter as he caught Helen hand in the crowd watching fireworks.
Helen was taken (2)_______ by Peter’s words, both because he appeared out of nowhere and also never
had she expected a boy, so silent and seemed uninterested in class’ business, would like her.
“Peter? Why are you here? I thought you said you wouldn’t come.”
“-Listen, we don’t have much time (3)_________, I’m moving to another country, this will be the last
(4)________ we can be together until a few more years”
“Why didn’t you tell-“
“-I realized that I had made a mistake, a huge one. I had always been such an (5)________, never made an
effort to make friends, but you always tried to (6)________ me, you truly changed me, and so I don’t
want to lose you.”
No (7)________ words were said, they slowly turned to the sky. Little does Peter know, Helen had also
had something for him, but she had been afraid that her friends would’ve teased her. Ever since her
boyfriend (8)________ her and her friends turned their back on her, Peter has always been there for her,
he never talked much, mostly listen, but that’s enough for her.
At that (9)_______ moment, she knew she didn’t want to let him go, but then it was too late. He’d always
been stoic, never wanted others to worry about him, so he decided to keep it a secret before he leaves.
That night, there wasn’t (10)________ his first kiss but also her first time feeling truly cared about and
loved.
IV. In the following text, five paragraphs have been removed. Above the extract you will find the five
removed paragraph PLUS one paragraph which doesn't fit. Choose from the paragraphs (A-F) the one
which fits each gap (1-5). There is one extra sentence you do not need to use.
THE INDUSTRIAL REVOLUTION
The Industrial Revolution is the name given to the massive social, economic, and technological change in
18th century and 19th century Great Britain. It commenced with the introduction of steam power (fuelled
primarily by coal) and powered, automated machinery (primarily in textile manufacturing).
The technological and economic progress of the Industrial Revolution gained momentum with the
introduction of steam-powered ships, boats and railways. In the 19th Century it spread throughout
Western Europe and North America, eventually impacting the rest of the world.
CAUSES
The causes of the Industrial Revolution were complex and remain a topic for debate, with some historians
seeing the Revolution as an outgrowth of social and institutional changes wrought by the final end of
feudalism in Great Britain following the English Civil War in the 17th century.
The Enclosure movement and the British Agricultural Revolution made food production more efficient
and less labor-intensive, forcing the surplus population who could no longer find employment in
agriculture into the cities to seek work in the newly developed factories.
The colonial expansion of the 17th century with the accompanying development of international trade,
creation of financial markets and accumulation of capital is also cited as a set of factors, as is the scientific
revolution of the 17th century.
The importance of a large domestic market should also be considered an important cause catalyst of the
Industrial Revolution, particularly explaining why it occurred in Britain. In other nations (e.g. France),
markets were split up by local regions often imposing tolls and tariffs on goods traded among them. The
restructuring of the American domestic market would trigger the second Industrial Revolution over 100
years later.
EFFECTS
The application of steam power to the industrial processes of printing supported a massive expansion of
newspaper and popular book publishing, which reinforced rising literacy and demands for mass political
THE PRACTICE BOOKLET FOR ENGLISH-MAJOR (VER A)
|37
participation. Universal white male suffrage was adopted in the United States, resulting in the election of
the popular General Andrew Jackson in 1828 and the creation of political parties organized for mass
participation in elections.
1. ________________
In France, the July Revolution widened the franchise and established a constitutional monarchy. Belgium
established its independence from the Netherlands, as a constitutional monarchy, in 1830. Struggles for
liberal reforms in Switzerland's various cantons in the 1830s had mixed results. A further series of
attempts at political reform or revolution would sweep Europe in 1848, with mixed results, and initiated
massive migration to North America, as well as parts of South America, South Africa, and Australia.
TEXTILE MANUFACTURE
In the early 18th century, British textile manufacture was based on wool which was processed by
individual artisans, doing the spinning and weaving on their own premises. This system is called a cottage
industry. Flax and cotton were also used for fine materials, but the processing was difficult because of the
pre-processing needed, and thus goods in these materials made only a small proportion of the output.
Use of the spinning wheel and hand loom restricted the production capacity of the industry, but a number
of incremental advances increased productivity to the extent that manufactured cotton goods became the
dominant British export by the early decades of the 19th century. India was displaced as the premier
supplier of cotton goods.
Step by step, individual inventors increased the efficiency of the individual steps of spinning (carding,
twisting and spinning, and subsequently rolling) so that the supply of yarn fed a weaving industry that
itself was advancing with improvements to shuttles and the loom or 'frame'. The output of an individual
labourer increased dramatically, with the effect that these new machines were seen as a threat to
employment, and early innovators were attacked and their inventions wrecked. The inventors often failed
to exploit their inventions, and fell on hard times.
2. ____________
He created the cotton mill which brought the production processes together in a factory, and he developed
the use of power - first horse power, then water power and finally steam power - which made cotton
manufacture a mechanised industry.
WHY EUROPE?
One question that has been of active interest to historians is why the Industrial Revolution occurred in
Europe and not in other parts of the world, particularly China. Numerous factors have been suggested
including ecology, government, and culture. Benjamin Elman argues that China was in a high level
equilibrium trap in which the non-industrial methods were efficient enough to prevent use of industrial
methods with high capital costs.
Kenneth Pommeranz, in The Great Divergence, argues that Europe and China were remarkably similar in
1700, and that the crucial differences which created the Industrial Revolution in Europe were sources of
coal near manufacturing centres and raw materials such as food and wood from the New World which
allowed Europe to economically expand in a way that China could not. Indeed, a combination of all of
these factors is possible.
WHY GREAT BRITAIN?
The debate around the concept of the initial startup of the Industrial Revolution also concerns the thirty to
hundred year lead the British had over the continental European countries and America. Some have
stressed the importance of natural or financial resources the United Kingdom received from its many
overseas colonies or that profits from the British slave trade between Africa and the Caribbean helped fuel
industrial investment.
by. Nguyễn Đức Anh
38
Alternatively, the greater liberalisation of trade from a large merchant base may have been able to utilise
scientific and technological developments emerging in the UK and elsewhere more effectively than other
states with stronger monarchies, such as China's Emperors and Russia's Tzars.
The UK's extensive exporting cottage industries also ensured markets were already open for many forms
of early manufactured goods. The nature of conflict in the period resulted in most British warfare being
conducted overseas, reducing the devastating effects of territorial conquest impacting much of the rest of
Europe.
Another theory believes that Great Britain was able to succeed in the Industrial Revolution due to its
dense population for its small geographical size, and the availability of natural resources like copper, tin
and coal, giving excellent conditions for the development and expansion of industry.
3. ___________________________
THE "PROTESTANT WORK ETHIC"
Another theory is that the British advance was due to the presence of an entrepreneurial class which
believed in progress, technology and hard work. The existence of this class is often linked to the
Protestant work ethic and the particular status of so-called Dissenter Protestant sects that had flourished
with the English revolution.
Reinforcement of confidence in the rule of law, which followed the establishment of the prototype of
constitutional monarchy in Great Britain in the Glorious Revolution of 1689, and the emergence of a
stable financial market there based on the management of the National Debt by the Bank of England,
contributed to the capacity for, and interest in, private financial investment in industrial ventures.
The Dissenters found themselves barred or discouraged from some public offices when the restoration of
the monarchy took place and membership in the official Anglican church became, once more, an
important advantage.
Historians sometimes consider this social factor to be extremely important, along with the nature of the
national economies involved. While members of these sects were excluded from certain circles of the
government, they were considered as fellow Protestants, to a limited extent, by many in the middle class,
such as traditional financiers or other businessmen.
4. ________________
This argument has, on the whole, tended to neglect the fact that several inventors and entrepreneurs were
rational free thinkers or "Philosophers" typical of a certain class of British intellectuals in the late 18th
century, and were by no means normal church goers or members of religious sects.
Examples of these free thinkers were the Lunar Society of Birmingham (which flourished from 1765 to
1809). Its members were exceptional in that they were among the very few who were conscious that an
industrial revolution was then taking place in Great Britain. They actively worked as a group to encourage
it, not least by investing in it and conducting scientific experiments which led to innovative products.
5. _______________
Industrialization also led to the creation of the factory. One of the earliest reformers of early factory
conditions was Robert Owen. Josiah Wedgwood was another prominent early industrialist. The factory
system was largely responsible for the rise of the modern city, as workers migrated into the cities in
search of employment in the factories.
PARAGRAPH
A. Given this relative tolerance and the supply of capital, the natural outlet for the more enterprising
members of these sects would be to seek new opportunities in the technologies created in the wake of
the Scientific revolution of the 17th century.
B. To capitalize upon these advances, it took a class of entrepreneurs, of which the most famous is
Richard Arkwright. He is credited with a list of inventions, but these were actually the products of such
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|39
as Thomas Highs and John Kay; Arkwright nurtured the inventors, patented the ideas, financed the
initiatives, and protected the machines.
C. In the United Kingdom, the Reform Act 1832 addressed the concentration of population in districts
with almost no representation in Parliament, expanding the electorate, leading to the founding of
modern political parties and initiating a series of reforms which would continue into the 20th century.
D. Furthermore, the stable political situation, in addition to the greater receptiveness of the society (as
compared to other European countries) are reasons that add to this theory, enhancing its plausibility.
E. The transition to industrialization was not wholly smooth, for in England the Luddites — workers
who saw their livelihoods threatened — protested against the process and sometimes sabotaged
factories.
F. It was this process which started the urbanisation of areas in around the west of the country. As
agricultural workers lost their jobs on the farm, they turned in increasing numbers to the city to provide
them with employment. Many new cities sprung up as factories were built close to raw supplies such as
coal and wool - and the people moved near the factories to find work.
PART D. WRITING
I. Complete the sentences without changing the meaning of the given one.
1. I was not surprised to hear that Harry had failed his driving test.
→It came _______________________________________.
2. She wore a hearing-aid, even though she could hear the phone ring perfectly well.
→She wasn’t so _______________________________________.
3. The sales man told me that my new car would be delivered next Wednesday.
→ According _______________________________________.
4. Their chances of success are small.
→ It is not _______________________________________.
5. This affair does not concern you.
→ This affair is no _______________________________________.
II. Complete the sentences without changing the meaning of the given one. Do not change the form of
the given word in any way.
1. My cat has lost its appetite. (OFF)
→My cat _______________________________________.
2. Gerald never had enough to live on until he married that rich businesswoman. (SHORT)
→Gerald _______________________________________.
3. His reactions are quite unpredictable. (KNOWS)
→One _______________________________________.
4. There are several categories of people who do not have to pay the new tax. (EXEMPT)
→There are _______________________________________.
5. Ours is the only company allowed to import these chemicals. (MONOPOLY)
→Our _______________________________________.
III. Nowadays, there are many couples chosing to live together without having a baby.
Is it a good thing or bad thing? What’s your point of view on this issue? Write in an essay of at least
300 words.
THE END
BEST OF LUCK
BỘ ĐỀ LUYỆN THI CHO HỌC SINH KHỐI
CHUYÊN ANH
ĐỀ LUYỆN TẬP 6
Thời gian làm bài: 150 phút (Không kể thời gian giao đề)
by. Nguyễn Đức Anh
40
THE PRACTICE BOOKLET FOR ENGLISH-MAJOR (VER A)
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by. Nguyễn Đức Anh
42
THE PRACTICE BOOKLET FOR ENGLISH-MAJOR (VER A)
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by. Nguyễn Đức Anh
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THE PRACTICE BOOKLET FOR ENGLISH-MAJOR (VER A)
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by. Nguyễn Đức Anh
46
THE PRACTICE BOOKLET FOR ENGLISH-MAJOR (VER A)
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BỘ ĐỀ LUYỆN THI CHO HỌC SINH
KHỐI CHUYÊN ANH
ĐỀ LUYỆN TẬP 7
Thời gian làm bài: 150 phút (Không kể thời gian giao đề)
(Dựa theo các form đề HSG lớp 9)
PART A. PHONETICS.
Choose the word that has main stress placed differently from the others:
1. A. generous B. suspicious C. constancy D. sympathy
2. A. acquaintance B. unselfish C. attraction D. humorous
3. A. loyalty B. success C. incapable D. sincere
4. A. carefully B. correctly C. seriously D. personally
5. A. excited B. interested C. confident D. memorable
PART B. LEXICO AND GRAMMAR
I. Choose the correct answer A, B, C or D to complete the sentence.
1. We can’t apply the same theory to this situation – it is__________opposite to the one we encountered
last month.
A. diabolically B. diagonally C. diametrically D. diachronically
2. This new glue is very useful for small repairs as it _______ very quickly.
A. thickens B. stiffens C. sets D. fixes.
3. The girl, saddened by her mother’s attitude towards her_________love, locked herself in her room and
cried through the night.
A. calf B. kitten C. puppy D. bunny
4. It’s true. I have heard it straight from the _________. My brother works for him and he told my brother
that he is up to something dark.
A. nag’s head B. lion’s den C. grapevine D. horse’s mouth
5. From time to time he ______ himself to a weekend in a five-star hotel.
A. craves B. indulges C. treats D. benefits
6. The weather is going to change soons, I can feel it in my ______.
A. skin B. bone C. brain D. teeth
7. John ______ his job last month and since then he ______ out of work.
A. lost/was B. has lost/has been C. was lost/is D. lost/has been
8. The lecture was so lengthy that the students ______ and daydream.
A. come off B. put off C. turn off D. get off
9. She was ______ out of 114 applicants for the position of Managing Director.
A. short-changed B. short-listed C. short-sighted D. short-handed
10. There is a pressing need to make some rarefied subjects of research intelligible to those living beyond
the_________tower.
A. golden B. silver C. diamond D. ivory
II. Supply the correct form of the word in bracket to complete the passage.
FRANKENSTEIN'S REAL CREATOR
In these days of (0) genetic engineering, it is not unusual to hear the name
Frankenstein invoked by those who fear the consequences when humans seek to
create a being in their own (1)_______.
Often overlooked, however, is the fact that the tale originated, not as a folk legend,
still less as a wildly original film script, but as a literary (2)_______. Even today,
to read the chilling story of an inventor and the uncontrollable monster he created
is at once both a thought-provoking and an (3)_______ experience. What's more,
the (4)_______ popularity of the novel and its modern-day relevance are all the
GENE
LIKE
MASTER
SETTLE
ENDURE
by. Nguyễn Đức Anh
48
more remarkable when we remember it was written almost 200 years ago, by an
18-year-old woman called Mary Shelley. Over the decades, (5)_______ films have
attempted to capture the full horror of her story, but none have come close to
equalling the power of Mary Shelley's frightening prose. Amongst (6)_______ and
commentators, Frankenstein has long been (7)_______ as a powerful piece of
Gothic fiction, representing as it does an (8)_______ fusion of contemporary
philosophy, literary skill and (9)_______ vision. It is only recently, however, with
increased media attention devoted to the philosophical issues her novel raises, that
there has been a more general (10)_______ of interest in Mary herself.
(Extract from: Proficiency Practice Test Plus)
NUMBER
ACADEMY
KNOWLEDGE
ORDINARY
IMAGINE
REVIVE
III. In the paragraph before some lines are correct and some have a word should not be there. Indicate
the correct lines with a tick (√). For the incorrect lines, underline or write the word.
LINE SENTENCE
1.
In the world of birds, this bill design is a prime example of evolutionary
2.
fine-tuning. Shorebirds such as oystercatchers use their bills to pry on open
3.
the tightly sealed forward shells of their prey, hummingbirds have stiletto-like
4.
bills to probe the deepest nectar-bearing flowers, and kiwis that smell out
5.
earthworms thanks to nostrils which located at the tip of their beaks. But few
6.
birds are more intimately tied to their source of sustenance than
7.
are crossbills. Two species of these finches, named for the way
8.
the upper and lower parts of their bills cross away, rather than meet in
9.
the middle, reside in the evergreen forests of North America
10.
and feed on the seeds therefore held within the cones of coniferous trees.
PART C. READING
I. You are going to read an extract from a book about comedy. Choose the answer (A, B, C or D which
you think fits best according to the text.
COMEDIANS
What drives moderately intelligent persons to put themselves up for acceptance or disparagement? In short,
what sort of individual wants to be a comedian? When we hear the very word, what does the label suggest?
Other professions, callings and occupations attract separate and distinct types of practitioner. Some
stereotypes are so familiar as to be cheaply laughable examples from the world of travesty, among them
absent-minded professors, venal lawyers, gloomy detectives and cynical reporters. But what corny
characteristics do we attribute to comedians? To a man or woman, are they generally parsimonious, vulgar,
shallow, arrogant, introspective, hysterically insecure, smug, autocratic, amoral, and selfish? Read their
superficial stories in the tabloids and so they would appear.
Rather than look at the complete image, perhaps we need to explore the initial motives behind a choice of
career. Consider first those who prefer a sort of anonymity in life, the ones who'd rather wear a uniform.
The psychological make-up of individuals who actively seek to resign their individuality is apparent among
those who surrender to the discipline of a military life. The emotional and intellectual course taken by those
who are drawn to anonymity is easily observed but not easily deflected. They want to be told what to do
and then be required to do it over and over again in the safety of a routine, often behind the disguises of a
number of livery. If their egos ache with the need for recognition and praise,
it's a pain that must be contained, frustrated or satisfied within the rut they occupy. The mere idea of standing
up in front of an audience and demanding attention is abhorrent.
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Nor will we find our comics among the doormats and dormice, the meek. There's precious little comedy in
the lives of quiet hobbyists, bashful scholars, hermits, anchorites and recluses, the discreet and the modest,
ones who deliberately select a position of obscurity and seclusion. Abiding quietly in this stratum of society,
somewhere well below public attention level, there is humour, yes, since humour can endure in the least
favourable circumstances, persisting like lichen in Antarctica. And jokes. Many lesserknown comedy
writers compose their material in the secret corners of an unassuming existence. I know
of two, both content to be minor figures in the civil service, who send in topical jokes to radio and TV shows
on condition that their real names are not revealed.
In both cases I've noticed that their comic invention, though clever, is based upon wordplay, puns and
similar equivoques, never an aggressive comic observation of life. Just as there may be a certain sterility in
the self-effacement of a humble life, so it seems feasible that the selection process of what's funny is
emasculated before it even commences. If you have no ginger and snap in your daily round, with little
familiarity with strong emotions, it seems likely that your sense of fun will be limited by timidity to a simple
juggling with language.
If the comedian's genesis is unlikely to be founded in social submission, it's also improbable among the top
echelons of our civilization. Once again, humor can be found among the majestic. Nobles and royals,
statesmen and lawmakers, have their wits. Jokes and jokers circulate at the loftiest level of every advanced
nation, but being high-born seems to carry no compulsion to make the hoi polloi laugh. Some of our rulers
do make us laugh but that's not what they're paid to do. And, so with the constricted comedy of those who
live a constricted life, that which amuses them may lack the common touch.
Having eliminated the parts of society unlikely to breed funnymen, it's to the middle ranks of humanity,
beneath the exalted and above the invisible, that we must look to see where comics come from and why.
And are they, like nurses and nuns, called to their vocation? As the mountain calls to the mountaineer and
the pentameter to the poet, does the need of the mirthless masses summon forth funsters, ready to administer
relief as their sole raison d'etre? We've often heard it said that someone's a 'born comedian' but will it do
for all of them or even most of them? Perhaps we like to think of our greatest jesters as we do our greatest
painters and composers, preferring to believe that their gifts are inescapably driven to expression. But in
our exploration of the comedy mind, hopefully finding some such, we are sure to find some quite otherwise.
1. What does the writer imply about comedians in the first paragraph?
A. People in certain other professions generally have a better image than them
B. It is possible that they are seen as possessing only negative characteristics.
C. It is harder to generalise about them than about people in other professions.
D. They often cannot understand why people make negative judgements of them.
2. What does the writer say about people who wear uniforms?
A. They criticise performers for craving attention.
B. It is unusual for them to break their normal patterns of thought.
C. They are more aware of their inadequacies than others may think.
D. The desires they have are never met when they are at work.
3. The writer says in the third paragraph that shy people ________.
A. may be able to write humorous material but could not perform it.
B. are capable of being more humorous than they realise.
C. fear that what they find humorous would not amuse others.
D. do not get the recognition they deserve even if they are good at comedy.
4. In the fourth paragraph, the writer criticises the kind of comedy he describes for its lack of
________.
A. originality
B. coherence
C. sophistication
D. spirit
by. Nguyễn Đức Anh
50
5. Which of the following word can best replace the word raison d'etre ?
A. aspiration
B. hatred
C. apathy
D. lethargy
II. Read the following passage and choose the correct answer A, B, C or D to complete.
The national park movement began in the United States in 1870 when a team of explorers suggested that
part of the Yellowstone River region be (1) ______ in order to protect its geothermal (2) ______, wildlife,
forests and (3) ______ scenery for the benefit of future generations. Congress (4) ______ by creating
Yellowstone National Park, the world's first, in 1872.
The idea proved (5) ______, and the number of national parks in this country grew rapidly, new parks being
set up by presidential (6) ______ and sometimes as the result of gifts by states of the union or by individuals.
Administration of this increasingly complex system was in the hands of the U.S. Army for thirty years from
1886, but then Congress created the National Park Service as part of the Department of the Interior to (7)
______ it.
Today, in addition to what might be thought of as typical national parks, the Service also manages places
of historic interest, hiking trails, seashores, rivers, (8) ______ of scientific interest and memorials. In all,
more than 300 entities are involved, covering over 32 million hectares. Each unit is directed by a
superintendent who is responsible for all aspects of the operation. Staff (9) ______ administrative personnel
and, according to the nature of the unit, park rangers, naturalists, historians, and (10) ______ workers.
1. A. set up B. set aside C. set by D. set in
2. A. tokens B. characters C. features D. traits
3. A. breathless B. optimal C. exceptional D. prominent
4. A. countered B. retrieved C. designated D. responded
5. A. prevailing B. banal C. widespread D. popular
6. A. analogy B. proclamation C. constitution D. dissemination
7. A. oversee B. overlook C. overcharge D. overact
8. A. observatories B. reserves C. reservoirs D. estuaries
9. A. cover B. control C. undergo D. undertake
10. A. maintenance B. sustainable C. protectorate D. conservation
III. Think of ONE word that best fits in the blank in the following passage.
THE MAP THIEF
For a couple of years, Gilbert Bland was a unique figure in the privileged world of antique map dealing. He
made a 100% profit on every map he sold, (1)_______ because he was a clever businessman, but because
he was a thief. In the mid-1990s, Bland crept around libraries in the USA, armed (2)_______ a sharp razor
and a baggy shirt, and sliced out those ancient maps which took (3)_______ fancy. Some were worth tens
of thousands of dollars, and he (4)_______ on to sell them through both mail-order catalogues and his shop
in Florida.
(5)_______ Bland's historical knowledge of maps was patchy at best, his knowledge of (6)_______ exact
location in the rare book stacks was second to (7)_______. When he heard that early maps of, (8)_______,
Seattle were becoming popular, he would know precisely (9)_______ to start slicing.
His crimes only came (10)_______ light when a researcher in a Baltimore library noticed that a man
appeared to be tearing a page from a 200-year-old book (11)_______ if it were a newspaper. At
(12)_______, it was assumed that this was an isolated case, and the library and the police were happy to
(13)_______ Bland off with a warning. (14)_______ later did they (15)_______ across his notebooks,
which contained elaborate details of all his thefts.
IV. You are going to read an article about famous picture of the Earth taken from the moon. Six
sentences are removed from the article. Choose the sentence from A-H that best fits the gapped from 1-
6. There is ONE sentence you don’t need and AN example.
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by. Nguyễn Đức Anh
52
PART D. WRITING
I. Complete the second sentence without changing the meaning of the given one.
1. The umbrella is really useful in the right time in London.
The umbrella can come ________________________________________________.
2. He still can not compensate for what he had done to his family.
He still can not make _____________________________________________.
3. I can’t say it out loud because my teacher is standing behind me.
On account ____________________________________________________.
4. I didn’t even know it was you having my back at that moment.
Little _________________________________________________________.
5. She can’t help herself laughing out loud.
She roared ___________________________________________________.
II. Complete the second sentence without changing the meaning of the given one. Do not change the
form of the word in bracket in any way.
6. If he doesn’t get rid of smoking, my parent will always complain. (AWAY)
Unless _________________________________________________________.
7. Not for another five years did the whole truth about the murder come out. (ELAPSED)
It was _________________________________________________________.
8. He said that word in front of my family and it made me really embarrassed. (TOES)
Had he _________________________________________________________.
9. The matter has become messier since he came down to the project. (WEATHER)
He _________________________________________________________.
10. We never permit pets to come into this hotel. (ALLOWED)
Under _________________________________________________________.
III. Some people believe that learning depends not upon the personality or methodology (a system of
methods used in a particular area of study or activity) of the teacher, but rather on the student's
attitude to his or her own learning.
To what extent would you support or reject this idea? Give reasons for your answer and include any
relevant examples from your own knowledge or experience. Write at least 250 words.
THE END
BEST OF LUCK
BỘ ĐỀ LUYỆN THI CHO HỌC SINH
KHỐI CHUYÊN ANH
ĐỀ LUYỆN TẬP 8
Thời gian làm bài: 150 phút (Không kể thời gian giao đề)
A. LISTENING (10 POINTS)
I. From question 1 to 5, listen to a part of speech by Mark Zuckerberg on the development of Internet.
(Extract from: HSGQG2017)
TASK 1
For question 1 to 3, match the changes that Internet connection makes with the corresponding spaces.
Write ONE letter next to each country.
1. India
2. Zambia
3. Uganda
A. agriculture practice
B. school work
C. community projects
D. business practices
E. food supply
E. child rearing
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TASK 2
From question 4 to 5, choose TWO letters from A to D. Which TWO statements are TRUE according to
the talk?
4. _______
5. _______
II. Listen to a talk on the history of Balinese Culture and complete the table with the missing
information. Write No MORE THAN THREE word taken from the recording for each answer in the
spaces provided. (HSGQG2014)
DATE
EVENT
IMPORTANCE OF ART
3000 BC (beginning of
the (1)______)
Rice farmers from China
settled in Bali
Built temples with wood and stone carvings
14
th
century
lntroduction to Hinduism
Artists employed by (2)_______ and focused
on epic narratives
1906
Dutch East lndies Company
established
Art became expression of opposition to
(3) _______
1920s
(4) _______ of tourism
Encouraged use of new materials, techniques
and subjects
1945
lndependence
New art with scenes of everyday life (e.g.
harvests, market scenes, daily tasks, (5)
_____ and _____) reflecting national identity
B. LEXICO AND GRAMMAR (40 POINTS)
I. Choose the correct answer A, B, C or D to complete the sentence. (10 points)
1. Teachers should not only be knowledgeable but also ______; students should feel comfortable
approaching them with questions or problems.
A. wheedling B. patronizing C. laconic D. affable
2. The pain medication Kristy received after surgery offered relief; however, the overwhelming feeling of
______ was an unexpected side effect, and she didn’t like being groggy.
A. extortion B. compellation C. lethargy D. affirmation
3. The sailor’s ______ complexion bespoke his many sunny days at the lookout post.
A. swarthy B. syncopated C. pallid D. wan
4. Having _______ his dinner, he immediately ran away.
A. pigged out B. wolfed down C. squirreled away D. fished for
5. Unanswered, the demands for nuclear deterrents have ____ fears of civil war.
A. flashed up B. prognosticated C. sidetracked D. stoked up
6. Other _____ her sense of humor, Meredith has few admirable traits.
A. than B. except C. apart D. besides
7. _____ on another optimistic subject for British wildlife – butterflies to be exact – Edwin Mullins
explains why he is so bewitched by them.
A. Thinking B. Aligning C. Alighting D. Noticing
8. Medical supplies were exempt from the economic sanctions _____ by the UN Security Council in
August 1990.
A. 10 percent of people with Internet access have
been helped with poverty relief.
B. Out of every ten people, one is granted with access
to the Internet.
C. 140 people employment opportunities are
provided for 260.
D. More than half a billion children are provided
with educational facillities at low cost.
by. Nguyễn Đức Anh
54
A. initiated B. instituted C. introduced D. imposed
9. The Guyanese mining community is small but powerful and Indians fear that the government will turn
a _____ eye to their protests.
A. private B. blind C. black D. open
10. The US continued to _____ money into the South to keep it in power, again sinking deeper into the
quicksand in the process.
A. pour B. drop C. spill D. flow
II. Supply the correct form of the word in bracket to complete the passage. (10 points)
WORD OF THE YEAR 2018
First appearing in English in the mid-17th century, from the medieval Latin toxicus, “toxic” has also
been used to describe workplaces, schools, relationships, cultures and stress over the last year, said the
dictionary, with the #MeToo movement shining a spotlight on “toxic (1)________ (LINE)”, a term used to
describe the effect of (2)________ (TYPICAL) that negatively shape male behaviour.
However, the word was most associated with the word “chemical”, appearing most frequently in discussions
about the environment, including “toxic substance”, “toxic gas”, “toxic waste” and “toxic air”.
The debate fostered by the Brexit vote has also been described as a toxic environment, along with the
(3)______ (RHETORICAL) of world leaders, said the dictionary, while social media platforms “have
come under fire for the toxic impact they have on our mental health”.
Oxford University Press’s president of dictionaries, Casper Grathwohl, said: “Reviewing this year
in language, we repeatedly (4)______ (COUNT) the word ‘toxic’ being used to describe an increasing set
of conditions that we’re all facing. Qualifying everything from the (5)_______ (TRENCH) patriarchy to
the constant blare of (6)_____ (POLAR) political rhetoric, ‘toxic’ seems to reflect a growing sense of how
extreme, and at times radioactive, we feel aspects of modern life have become.”
Oxford’s word of the year is intended to “reflect the passing year in language”. Other words and
phrases (7)_______ (LIST) for 2018 included “big d*ck energy”, defined by Oxford as “an attitude of
understated and casual confidence”; gammon, which is “typically used in the UK as a (8)_______
(DEROGATE) term for an older middle-class white man whose face becomes flushed due to anger when
expressing political (typically (9)_____ (WING)) opinions”; and “orbiting”, which is “the action of (10)
_______ (INTERRUPT) withdrawing from direct communication with someone while still monitoring,
and sometimes responding to, their activity on social media”.
Last week Collins Dictionary chose the term “single-use”, referring to products made to be used once
and then thrown away, as its word of the year.
(Source: The Guardian)
III. Complete the passage with the appopriate forms of the words given in the box. (10 points)
SHIP FREEZER
INTREPIDITY FEAR CONCEPTION BAN MORPH
BREEZE FAST PLUMB TOMB EVENT
Every autumn the Arctic undergoes a radical (1)______. As the sun dips below the horizon one last
time—not to rise again until spring—the icy seascape darkens, the temperatures (2)______, and the sea ice
swells into a brutal fortress, so thick that no icebreaker can penetrate it. Research vessels flee south,
desperate to avoid getting trapped during the (3)______ season. But this year scientists—and a few lucky
journalists, including me—will dare to do just the opposite.
In late September we will set sail from Tromsø, Norway, heading east along Siberia, then north
toward the North Pole. Our captain will steer us into a massive ice floe and kill the ship’s engines —dooming
it to freeze in place as the ice quickly thickens. The ship will remain (4)______ for a full year as we float
in the clutches of the Arctic Ocean.
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|55
The goal of the mission, called MOSAiC (Multidisciplinary Drifting Observatory for the Study of
Arctic Climate), is to better understand why the top of the world is warming at such an alarming rate—
twice as fast as lower latitudes. “The Arctic is the epicenter of global warming,” says Markus Rex, a climate
scientist at the Alfred Wegener Institute in Germany and MOSAiC coordinator. Yet researchers do not
completely understand why. This $150-million mission—the first to study the central Arctic over an entire
year—intends to change that situation.
A few (5)______ adventurers have attempted such a fate, only to falter. In 1893 Norwegian explorer
Fridtjof Nansen (6)______ his ship, the Fram, into the ice in the hope that it would carry him toward the
North Pole. But when it became clear he would never reach the pole, he (7)______ the mission and skied
hundreds of miles to land. Still, the Fram made it across the Arctic ice cap intact, (8)______ reaching the
open North Atlantic Ocean. “We’re following in the footsteps of giants, if you will,” says Matthew Shupe,
an atmospheric and oceanic scientist at the University of Colorado Boulder and the National Oceanic and
Atmospheric Administration who (9)______ the MOSAiC mission more than 10 years ago.
This excursion will be, by far, the largest in history. At any one time, around 60 scientific personnel
will be working onboard the research icebreaker Polarstern; they will be shuttled back and forth by sea,
when possible, or air. In all, some 300 people from across the world will have conducted studies on the ice.
They will observe every aspect of the Arctic system: the wandering ice, the drifting snow, the swirling
ocean, the (10)______ atmosphere, the life that calls it home and the ways these attributes interact.
IV. There are 10 mistakes in the passage. Find and correct them. (10 points)
THE BLOOD AND TEARS, NOT THE MAGNOLIAS
“12 Years a Slave” isn’t the first movie about slave in the United States — but it may be the one that
finally makes it possible for American cinema to continue to sell the ugly lies it’s been hawking for more
than a century. Written by John Ridley and direct by Steve McQueen, it tells the true story of Solomon
Northup, an African-American freeman who, in 1841, was snatched on the streets of Washington, and sold.
It’s at once a familiar, utterly strange and deeply American story in which the period trappings long beloved
by Hollywood — the paternalistic gentry with their pretty plants, their genteel manners and all the fiddle-
dee-dee rest — are the backdrop for an outrage.
The story opens with Solomon (Chiwetel Ejiofor) already slaved and cutting sugar cane on a
plantation. A series of flashbacks shifts the story to an earlier time, when Solomon, live in New York with
his wife and children, accepts a job from a pair of white men to play violin in a circus. Soon the three are
enjoying a civiling night out in Washington, sealing their camaraderie with heaping plates of food, flowing
wine and the unstated conviction — if only on Solomon’s part — of a shared humanity, a fiction that
evaporates when he wakes the next morning shackled and discovers that he’s been sold. Thereafter, he is
passed among master to master.
It’s a desperate path and a story that seizes you almost immediately with a visceral force. But Mr.
McQueen keeps everything moving so fluidly and efficiently that you’re too busy worried about Solomon,
following him as he travels from auction house to plantation, to linger long in the emotions and ideas that
the movie churns up.
(Source: The New York Times)
C. READING (30 POINTS)
I. GUIDED CLOZE TEST (15 POINTS)
One of the hazards that electronic media like the television, radio or computers (1)_____ these days
is the (2)_____ in book reading.
The concern (3)_____ mainly to the younger generations who are strongly (4)_____ by the glamour
of the silver screen and, consequently, don’t (5)_____ the importance of acquiring first-hand information
from books.
by. Nguyễn Đức Anh
56
To (6)_____ reading for pleasure and to propagate a while array of publications like encyclopedias,
(7)_____ books, manuals or fiction, radical soulutions should be applied. Firstly, more (8)_____ ought to
be put on the educational (9)_____. Youngsters should be made to feel comfortable while reading either for
information or self-satisfaction in public places like airports, buses or on the beach. Secondly, libraries must
be subsidized more accurately in order to provide the potential reader with (10)_____ choice of publications
and to become more publically active so as to put books at people’s (11)_____ rather than keep them under
lock and key. Fund collecting actions organized by libraries might also (12)_____ the public awareness of
the advantages of becoming (13)_____ in a good book.
Finally, the mass media themselves might contribute substantially by recomending of purchase or
valuable best-sellers and inspiring their viewers to (14)_____ their knowlegde and erudition, and thus help
them to (15)_____ the habit of spontaneous everyday reading.
1. A. denote B.play C.arise D.pose
2. A.rarity B.decline C.shortage D.deficiency
3. A.indicates B.affects C.applies D.embodies
4. A.exposed B.tempted C.submitted D.involved
5. A.recognize B.observe C.view D.distinguish
6. A.incite B.revert C.encourage D.instill
7. A.referral B.referable C.referee D.reference
8. A.relevance B.persistence C.emphasis D.focus
9. A.factor B.point C.matter D.ground
10. A.prolific B.ample C.lavish D.lush
11. A.availibility B.usage C.disposal D.benefit
12. A.raise B.amplify C.inflate D.expand
13. A.occupied B.inhaled C.incorporated D.engrossed
14. A.enrich B.magnify C.arouse D.elaborate
15. A.grow B.evolve C.develop D.proceed
II. READING COMPREHENSION (10 POINTS)
THE MAGINOT LINE
THE PRACTICE BOOKLET FOR ENGLISH-MAJOR (VER A)
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1. Which of the following statements is true?
A. The Maginot Line provided absolutely no benefit to the French.
B. The Maginot Line is still used by the French army today.
C. Maginot's experiences during WWI led to his support for the line.
D. The French were betrayed by the Belgians during World War II.
by. Nguyễn Đức Anh
58
2. Which best expresses the author's purpose in writing the fourth paragraph?
A. To persuade readers that the Maginot Line was not at all thin.
B. To inform readers of the types of defences along the Maginot Line.
C. To describe what the inside of the Maginot Line looked like.
D. To compare and contrast defences along the Maginot Line.
3. Which best describes the weakness of the Maginot Line?
A. It was built from cheap material and could not resist attack.
B. Poor screening let spies take control of the forts from within.
C. The line was not fortified along France's border with Belgium.
D. The French underestimated the power of newer German tanks.
4. Which of the following is a false statement?
A. André Maginot fought against the French in the First World War.
B. André Maginot served as the Minister of War for France.
C. The Maginot Line is named after André Maginot.
D. After WWI, André Maginot believed that Germany would attack France again.
5. Which best explains why André Maginot wanted to build up France's defence rather than
their offense?
A. After WWI, France and Germany became history's greatest allies.
B. France needed protection from the Germans and the hostile Belgians.
C. Maginot feared that French commanders might invade Germany if they had the power.
D. France had far fewer people than Germany and needed to save manpower.
6. Which best defines the meaning of the word stalemate as it is used in the second paragraph?
A. When troops lose morale because they miss their families
B. When two sides are locked in a draw
C. When breathing is made difficult by foul odours
D. When one side has a large advantage over the other
7. Which best expresses the main idea of the last paragraph of this text?
A. It describes how the Maginot Line is still used today.
B. It restates the main points of the text.
C. It discusses how the French used the Maginot Line during World War II.
D. It explains how the Maginot Line is used as a symbol.
8. How did the French lose control of the Maginot Line?
A. The Germans overtook the fortresses with military power.
B. The Germans tunnelled into the fortresses using new technology.
C. The French were starved out of the fortresses by German siege.
D. The French surrendered the fortresses.
9. Which was not part of Germany's strategy to invade France in World War II?
A. Position a decoy force in front of the Maginot Line
B. Sneak troops into France by tunnelling underneath the Maginot Line
C. Bring a large army through Belgium
D. Move very quickly
10. Which title best expresses the main idea of this text?
A. Undefeatable: How the Maginot Line Became the World's Strongest Fortress
B. André Maginot: France's Greatest Patriot
C. Strong as the Weakest Link: The Mighty Maginot Wall and Its Shortcomings
D. Blood Feud: The History of War Between France and Germany
CBCADBADBC
THE PRACTICE BOOKLET FOR ENGLISH-MAJOR (VER A)
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III. OPEN CLOZE (5 POINTS)
THE PSYCHOLOGY OF SELLING
The psychology of retailing has come to rely on highly sophisticated techniques. Over and (1)
_______ the design of the shops and the packaging of the merchandise, clever positioning of goods also
ensures that the natural flow of people takes them to (2) ________ and every section in a shop. Customers
are led gently, but at the same time with deadly accuracy, towards the merchandise in such a way (3)
_______ to maximise sales.
Manufacturers compete for the right to have their products displayed at the most effective level. In
supermarkets, there is a crucial section in the tiers of vertical shelving somewhere between waist height and
eye (4) _______, where we are most likely to take note of a brand. In the old days, when we went into a
shop, we (5) _______our way up to the counter, behind (6) _______ would be the shopkeeper and virtually
all of the merchandise, and were served with what we wanted. Those days are (7) _______ and truly over.
Today, we are used to serving (8) _______ in supermarkets; products are laid before us as enticingly as (9)
_______, and impulse purchases are encouraged as a major part of the exercise. As a result of this, we, as
shoppers, have to keep our wits (10) ______ us to resist the retailers’ ploys.
D. WRITING
I. SENTENCE TRANSFORMATION
Complete the second sentence without changing the meaning of the given one.
1. The party was so lively until his arrival. (SWING)
→ Now ___________________________________________________________________________.
Now that he arrived at the party, it didn’t go with a swing.
2. Though feeling unwell, she was still eager to start the camping trip. (BIT)
→ She _________________________________________________________________________color.
She chomped/champed/chafed at the bit though feeling off color.
3. I’m sure your teacher won’t run you down about your essay. (DANGER)
→ There’s _________________________________________________ against you about your essay.
There’s no danger of your teacher’s inveighing against you about your essay.
4. This picture reminds me of the storm wreaking havoc on my village that day. (CUT)
→ This picture jogs ________________________________________________________.
This picture jogs my mind about that day when the storm cut a swathe through my village.
5. Yesterday when she was off, the teacher cricticized her severely. (VAIN)
→ Yesterday when ________________________________________________________.
Yesterday when she was off, the teacher took her name in the vain.
II. ESSAY WRITING
Is it better not to know what is going on if we cannot do anything about it? Plan and write an essay in
which you develop your point of view on this issue. Support your position with reasoning and examples
taken from your reading, studies, experience, or observations.
(Extracted from SAT Nov 2015)
BỘ ĐỀ LUYỆN THI CHO HỌC SINH
KHỐI CHUYÊN ANH
ĐỀ LUYỆN TẬP 9
Thời gian làm bài: 150 phút (Không kể thời gian giao đề)
A. LISTENING (10 POINTS)
I. (Extracted from Proficiency Expert) (5 points)
by. Nguyễn Đức Anh
60
II. You will hear a journalist called Amy Freville talking about her trip to a centre for ayurvedic
treatments. For questions 1 - 9, complete the sentences with a word or short phrase. (5 points)
AYURVEDIC TREATMENTS
Amy says that the atmosphere at the centre where she stayed was similar to that of a (1) ____
Amy uses the word (2) ____ to describe her physical and mental state before going to the centre.
Amy uses the English word (3) ____ to give us an idea of what 'doshas' are.
Amy was surprised to be asked about her (4) ____ in a questionnaire.
Amy would define herself as a (5) ____ sleeper by nature.
Amy was pleased to hear that her diet would feature (6) ____ tasting foods as well as sweet things.
Amy gives (7) as an example of emotional imbalance caused by an inappropriate diet.
When asked, Amy named (8) ____ as the negative emotion that she would most like to eradicate.
Amy denies experiencing feelings of (9) ____ during the guided yoga sessions with her therapist.
(Extracted from Proficiency Expert Student’s Resource Book)
B. LEXICO AND GRAMMAR (30 POINTS)
I. Choose the correct answer A, B, C or D to complete the sentence. (10 points)
1. The student was extremely foolhardy; he had the ____ to question the senior professor's judgment.
A. wisdom B. temerity C. interest D. trepidation
2. By sheer ______ force, the men pushed the truck to the side of the road and out of danger.
A. virile B. persnickety C. meticulous D. suave
3. ______ as a money-market account, a certificate of deposit is recommended by financial experts for its
high yeald.
A. Although it is not such a liquid investment B. Although not as liquid an investment
C. Though no liquid an investment D. While not being so liquid an investment
4. Fleck was certainly not the only critic to do a hatchet ______ on his latest novel.
A. work B. employment C. job D. career
5. The prime minister dismisses criticism that he has _____ the economy and social issues.
A. advanced B. recovered C. proceeded D. neglected
6. The young, thin boy surprised his wrestling opponent with his ______ strength.
A. fraudulent B. wiry C. frolicsome D. pretentious
THE PRACTICE BOOKLET FOR ENGLISH-MAJOR (VER A)
|61
7. Popular magazines now ________ the subject of mental illness, while the government is encouraging
research into mental health
A. broach B. embark C. refer D. crack
8. Becoming a CEO was the ________ glory of her career.
A. heading B. tipping C. inducting D. crowning
9. It should be ________ clear that we are all under pressure.
A. conspicuously B. immensely C. fully D. abundantly
10. I can’t imagine what I’ve done to make him let loose such a _________ of abuse at me.
A. shower B. storm C. torrent D. flood
II. Supply the correct form of the word in bracket to complete the sentence and the paragraph. (10
points)
Paragraph Cloze
The anxiety of (0. OBSOLETE) _obsolescence_____ is strong in contemporary letters, not so much
because literature is actually obsolete as because any downward graph, projected out forever, goes to zero.
From its corner of the culture the novel has (1. ENVY) ______ watched its competitors for public attention
go through rapid (2. ADVANCING) ______ and innovation. The faster they go the more novels look (3.
STATE) ______ in comparison. Many people today playing Candy Crush on the subway or at thirty
thousand feet would, just a decade ago, have been reading. Television has evolved into an (4. MORPH)
______ creature with tendrils in all corners of our (5. TASK) ______ and screen-illumined daily lives. One
cannot do the dishes while reading a novel, but an iPad props up just fine.
The anxiety over literature felt by writers, publishers, and readers is (6. ACERBITY) ______ by the
fact that rival media are increasingly (7. OPTION) ______ literary techniques once thought to belong solely
to the novel. A slow edging out can be discerned, then (8. PROJECTION) ______ all the way to
replacement. Television is at the (9. FRONT) ______ of this movement. It’s been so successful that a 2014
New York Times essay asked,
“Are the New ‘Golden Age’ TV Shows the New Novels?” I’ve heard the refrain personally, often
from people who a generation ago would have been dedicated readers. Just recently a friend of mine, leaning
against my bookshelf, asked, “Why should I read novels? I can satisfy any (10. YEARN) ______ I have for
fiction with TV. It’s just so good now.”
(Erik P. Hoel, Fiction in the Age of Screens, The New Atlantis)
Sentence cloze
6. It is predicted that all countries will establish a territory on the Internet and try to defend their ______.
(SOVEREIGN)
7. He believed aggression could be kept in check via ________, namely through play. (SUBLIMINAL)
8. The police were accused of _______ the investigation. (HAND)
9. Her death soon fell into ____________. (OBVIOUS)
10. My sister suggested buying a(n) ________ bookcase where the pieces came in a flat pack for us to put
together ourselves. (ASSEMBLE)
III. There are 10 mistakes in the passage. Find and correct them. (10 points)
WATTLED JACANA’S BASIC INSTINCT
What kind of dad stays home with the kids while their mother is over having sex? A wattled jacana
dad—even when he knows that he’s being cuckolded and the offspring he’s reminding may not be his.
Several species of Jacana are among the animal world’s most extreme cases of sex-role reversal, says
behavioral ecologist Peter Wrege of Cornell University. An assertive female collects a harem of up to five
smaller males. In the phase of about a week, she lays four eggs in one male’s nest while continuing to mate
openly with him or others - “as much as 65 matings for one clutch,” Wrege says.
by. Nguyễn Đức Anh
62
Even in monogamous bird species, a female may “sneak copulations elsewhere,” he says. But as
Wrege and colleague Stephen Emlen observed during years of research in Panama, the wattled jacana
female’s cuckoldry is either public and frequent. To see how that affects maternity of offspring, they tracked
dozens of birds’ mating and egg laying, took blood freebies, and ran DNA tests.
The researchers concluded that for a jacana male with a promiscuous partner, “the risk of raising
unrelated young may be as high as 75 percent.” In other words: He’s seen her mating with others, yet for
three months he encumbers eggs and raises chicks unlikely to all be his.
Why do the males do this? “Basically, they’re stuck,” Wrege says. Hunting for a less promiscuous
female would take time better spent trying to sire eggs. This way, although they may finish up with other
males’ kids, they also achieve the biological imperative of having their own.
(Source: National Geographic)
C. READING (30 POINTS)
I. OPEN CLOZE (10 POINTS)
Despite the bad publicity surrounding ‘Mad Cow Disease’ in the 1990s, the hamburger remains an
icon for the twentieth century. In its (1) _______, preparation, purchase and very place of consumption, it
tells in (2) _______ the history of the century. In each decade its character and its image subtly reflected
the shifting fashions and preoccupations of the era.
Its origins are (3) _______ in an uncertainty that only assists its status as a characterless object to
which each generation may add whatever (4) _______ it chooses. Its connections with the German city of
Hamburg are unclear. Although every (5) _______ civilization has had some form of ground meat patty,
most food historians do accept a link with the eponymous Baltic port.
Thus the hamburger enters history as the plain but honest food of poor but ambitious immigrants to
the United States. Indeed, according to one food expert, it had its origins in the fare of a German-owned
shipping line on (6) _______ vessels in the 1880s Hamburg beef was minced and then mixed with
breadcrumbs, eggs and onions and served with bread.
But it was at the World Fair in St Louis in 1904 that it first became a symbol of mass-produced
cuisine. It was there that the bun was first introduced and the result was (7) ________ popular. Soon after,
in 1921, the first hamburger chain was established. But generally the burger remained a wholesome home-
made dish. Older Americans still (8) _______ childhood memories of Mom grinding good fresh steak
and, after adding onion and seasoning, taking the result out to the charcoal grill in the garden, but like all
things American, when exported it has been debased and (9) _______.
The hamburger first entered British consciousness as part of the post-Second World War spending
(10) _______, when beef became a symbol of the new prosperity. When, in the late 1950s, the frozen
beefburger was introduced (renamed to avoid unnecessary questions about why it did not taste of ham),
the thin little cake of bland rubbery meat was a glamour product. It was somehow foreign and, of course,
frozen, which was then the height of new technology.
1. A. foundation B. provenance C. cradle D. descent
2. A. microcosm B. miniature C. diminution D. pocket
3. A. dipped B. cloaked C. dwarfed D. misted
4. A. dressing B. savour C. relish D. gusto
5. A. culinary B. gastronomical C. pedigree D. mosaic
6. A. which B. that C. what D. whose
7. A. amply B. frantically C. profusely D. wildly
8. A. yearn B. endear C. cherish D. relish
9. A. deflected B. perverted C. depraved D. garbled
10. A. spree B. thrift C. flux D. binge
II. READING COMPREHENSION (10 POINTS)
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THE ORIGIN OF THE PACIFIC ISLAND PEOPLE
The greater Pacific region, traditionally called Oceania, consists of three cultural areas: Melanesia,
Micronesia, and Polynesia. Melanesia, in the southwest Pacific, contains the large islands of New Guinea,
the Solomons, Vanuatu, and New Caledonia. Micronesia, the area north of Melanesia, consists primarily
of small scattered islands. Polynesia is the central Pacific area in the great triangle defined by Hawaii,
Easter Island, and New Zealand. Before the arrival of Europeans, the islands in the two largest cultural
areas, Polynesia and Micronesia, together contained a population estimated at 700,000.
Speculation on the origin of these Pacific islanders began as soon as outsiders encountered them, in
the absence of solid linguistic, archaeological, and biological data, many fanciful and mutually exclusive
theories were devised. [1] Pacific islanders are variously thought to have come from North America,
South America, Egypt, Israel, and India, as well as Southeast Asia. Many older theories implicitly
deprecated the navigational abilities and overall cultural creativity of the Pacific Islanders. For example,
British anthropologists G. Elliot Smith and W. J. Perry assumed that only Egyptians would have been
skilled enough to navigate and colonize the Pacific. [2] They inferred that the Egyptians even crossed the
pacific to found the great civilizations of the New World (North and South America). [3] In 1947
Norwegian adventurer Thor Heyerdahl drifted on a balsa-log raft westward with the winds and currents
across the pacific from South America to prove his theory that Pacific islanders were Native Americans
(also called American Indians). Later, Heyerdahl suggested that the Pacific was peopled by three
migrations: by Native Americans from the Pacific Northwest of North America drifting to Hawaii, by
Peruvians drifting to Easter Island, and by Melanesians. In 1969 he crossed the Atlantic in an Egyptian
style reed boat to prove Egyptian influences in the Americas. Contrary to these theorists, the
overwhelming evidence of physical anthropology, linguistics, and archaeology shows that the Pacific
islanders came from Southeast Asia and were skilled enough as navigators to sail against the prevailing
winds and currents [4].
The basic cultural requirements for the successful colonization of the Pacific islands include the
appropriate boat-building, sailing, and navigation skills to get to the islands in the first place,
domesticated plants and gardening skills suited to often marginal conditions, and a varied inventory of
fishing implements and techniques. It is now generally believed that these prerequisites originated with
peoples speaking Austronesian languages (a group of several hundred related languages) and began to
emerge in Southeast Asia by about 5000 B.C.E. The culture of that time, based on archaeology and
linguistic
reconstruction, is assumed to have had a broad inventory of cultivated plants including taro, yarns,
banana, sugarcane, breadfruit, coconut, sago, and rice. Just as important, the culture also possessed the
basic foundation for an effective maritime adaptation, including outrigger canoes and a variety of fishing
techniques that could be effective for overseas voyaging.
Contrary to the arguments of some that much of the Pacific was settled by Polynesians
accidentally marooned after being lost and adrift, it seems reasonable that this feat was
accomplished by deliberate colonization expeditions that set out fully stocked with food and
domesticated plants and animals. Detailed studies of the winds and currents using computer simulations
suggest that drifting canoes would have been a most unlikely means of colonizing the pacific. These
expeditions were likely driven by population growth and political dynamics on the home islands, as well
as the challenge and excitement of exploring unknown waters. Because all Polynesians, Micronesians,
and many Melanesians speak Austronesian languages and grow crops derived from Southeast Asia, all
these peoples most certainly derived from that region and not the New World or elsewhere. The
undisputed pre-Columbian presence in Oceania of the sweet potato, which is a New World domesticate,
has sometimes been used to support Heyerdahl’s “American Indians in the Pacific” theories. However,
this is one plant out of a long list of Southeast Asian domesticates. As Patrick Kirch, an American
by. Nguyễn Đức Anh
64
anthropologist, points out, rather than being brought by rafting South Americans, sweet potatoes might
just have easily been brought back by returning Polynesian navigators who could have reached the west
coast of South America.
1. According to paragraph 1, all of the following are true statements about Melanesia, Micronesia,
and Polynesia EXCEPT _________.
A. Collectively, these regions are traditionally known as Oceania.
B. These islands of Micronesia are small and spread out.
C. Hawaii, Easter Island, and New Zealand mark the boundaries of Polynesia.
D. Melanesia is situated to the north of Micronesia.
2. By stating that the theories are mutually exclusive the author means that _________.
A. if one of the theories is true, then all the others must be false.
B. the differences between the theories are unimportant.
C. taken together, the theories cover all possibilities.
D. the theories support each other.
3. Which of the following can be inferred from paragraph 2 about early theories of where the first
inhabitants of the Pacific islands came from?
A. They were generally based on solid evidence.
B. They tried to account for the origin of the characteristic features of the languages spoken by Pacific
islanders.
C. They assumed that the peoples living in Southeast Asia did not have the skills needed to sail to the
Pacific islands.
D. They questioned the ideas of G. Elliot Smith and W. J. Perry.
4. The word implements in the passage is closest in meaning to _________.
A. skills B. tools C. opportunities D. practices
5. In paragraph 3, why does the author provide information about the types of crops grown and
boats used in Southeast Asia during the period around 5000 B. C. E.?
A. To evaluate the relative importance of agriculture and fishing to early Austronesian peoples.
B. To illustrate the effectiveness of archaeological and linguistic methods in discovering details about life
in ancient times.
C. To contrast living conditions on the continent of Asia with living conditions on the Pacific islands.
D. To demonstrate that people from this region had the skills and resources necessary to travel to and
survive on the Pacific islands.
6. Which of the sentences below best expresses the essential information in the underlined sentence
in the passage? Incorrect choices change the meaning in important ways or leave out essential
information.
A. Some people have argued that the Pacific was settled by traders who became lost while transporting
domesticated plants and animals.
B. The original Polynesian settlers were probably marooned on the islands, but they may have been joined
later by carefully prepared colonization expeditions.
C. Although it seems reasonable to believe that colonization expeditions would set out fully stocked, this
is contradicted by much of the evidence.
D. The settlement of the Pacific islands was probably intentional and well planned rather than accidental
as some people have proposed.
7. The word undisputed in the passage is closest in meaning to _________.
A. mysterious B. unexpected C. acknowledged D. significant
8. According to paragraph 4, which of the following is NOT an explanation for why a group of
people might have wanted to colonize the Pacific islands?
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|65
A. As their numbers increased, they needed additional territory.
B. The winds and currents made the islands easy to reach.
C. The political situation at home made emigration desirable,
D. They found exploration challenging and exciting.
9. Why does the author mention the views of Patrick Kirch?
A. To present evidence in favor of Heyerdahl’s idea about American Indians reaching Oceania
B. To emphasize the familiarity of Pacific islanders with crops from many different regions of the
world
C. To indicate that supposed proof for Heyerdahl’s theory has an alternative explanation.
D. To demonstrate that some of the same crops were cultivated in both South America and
Oceania.
10. Look at the four numbered brackets that indicate where the following sentence could be added
to the passage: “Later theories concentrate on journeys in the other direction”. Where could
the sentence best fit?
A. [1] B. [2] C. [3] D. [4]
III. OPEN CLOZE TEST (10 POINTS)
THE PAST, PRESENT AND FUTURE OF CLIMATE CHANGE
There is no evidence that President Lyndon Johnson read the 1965 report. He certainly didn’t
(1)_______ on it. The idea of deliberately changing the Earth’s reflectivity, whether with ping-pong balls
or by other (2) _____, was outlandish. The idea that the fuels on which the American and world
economies were based should be phased out would have seemed even more so. And there was, back then,
no conclusive proof that humans were warming the Earth.
Proof took time. Carbon dioxide is not the only greenhouse gas. Methane and nitrous oxide trap
heat, too. So does water vapour, which thereby amplifies the effects of the others. Because warmth drives
evaporation, a world warmed by carbon dioxide will have a moister atmosphere, which will make it
warmer still. But water vapour also condenses (3) ______ clouds—some of which cool the world and
some of which warm it further. Then and now, the complexities of such processes make precision about
the amount of warming expected for a given carbon-dioxide level unachievable.
Further complexities abound. (4)_____ fossil fuels releases particles small enough to float in the air
as well as carbon dioxide. These “aerosols” warm the atmosphere, but also shade and thereby cool the
surface below; in the 1960s and 1970s some thought their cooling power might overpower the warming
effects of carbon dioxide. (5)_____ eruptions also produce surface-cooling aerosols, the effects of which
can be global; the brightness of the sun varies over time, too, in subtle ways. And even without such
external “forcings”, the internal dynamics of the climate will shift heat (6)_____ the oceans and
atmosphere over various timescales. The best known such shifts, the El Niño events seen a few times a
decade, show up in the mean surface temperature of the world as a whole.
These complexities (7)______ that, for a time, there was doubt about greenhouse warming, which
the fossil-fuel lobby deliberately fostered. There is no legitimate doubt today. Every decade since the
1970s has been (8)_____ than the one before, which rules (9) _____ natural variations. It is possible to
compare climate models that account for just the natural forcings of the 20th century with those that take
into (10) ____ human activities, too. The effects of industry are not statistically significant until the 1980s.
Now they are indisputable.
(Global Warming 101-The Economists)
D. WRITING (30 POINTS)
I. SENTENCE TRANSFORMATION (5 POINTS)
1. The shop had been closed down due to low profit-making. (LIQUIDATION)
→ On _____________________________________________________________________________.
by. Nguyễn Đức Anh
66
2. My exam started to be really obstacling at first but it got better and better. (DISGUISE)
→ My exam ________________________________________________________________________.
3. Fans from all over the world were furious because the film studio had exploited the singer’s death for
profit. (CASHED)
→ The film studio ______________________________________________ fans from all over the world.
4. Tim seems very much to enjoy himself at every party we come to. (APPEARANCE)
➔ Tim _____________________________________________________ life at every party we come to.
5. One should accept both good and bad things in life instead of holding fate responsible for anything
wrong. (BLAME)
➔ Rather ________________________________________________________________ smooth.
II. Is it necessary to take risks in order to achieve success? Plan and write an essay in which you
develop your point of view on this issue. Support your position with reasoning and examples taken from
your reading, studies, experience, or observations.
THE END
BỘ ĐỀ LUYỆN THI CHO HỌC SINH
KHỐI CHUYÊN ANH
CONSOLIDATION TEST 1
[TEST 10]
Thời gian làm bài: 150 phút (Không kể thời gian giao đề)
A. LISTENING (10 POINTS)
I. You will hear a holiday company representative talking to a group of tourists in a large hotel about
things they can do during their holiday. For questions 1-5, write the correct letter, A-H, according to
what information the speaker gives about each of the following excursions. Write your answers in the
space provided.
Excursions
1. dolphin watching _______
2. forest walk ________
3. cycle trip _________
4. observatory trip ________
5. horse riding _________
II. For questions 6-10, listen to a news report on Dubai by the BBC and fill in the missing information.
Write NO MORE THAN FOUR WORDS taken from the recording for each answer in the space
provided.
Although described as an oil-rich city, Dubai has thrived mainly through (6) _________, real estate,
aviation, trade, banking and finance.
Compared to the old Dubai, the new one is absolutely (7) _________, hence its name ‘the city of cranes’.
Dubai’s stringent law has led to many arrests among Westerners. A case in point is a British PhD student
convicted of spying and later released after a five-month (8) ______.
The welcoming face of Dubai belies the presence of human rights issues, the most controversial one being
(9) _________.
When it comes to human development and innovation, Dubai is a force (10) __________.
Information
A. all downhill
B. suitable for beginners
C. only in good weather
D. food included
E. no charge
F. swimming possible
G. fully booked today
H. transport not included
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B. LEXICO AND GRAMMAR (30 POINTS)
I. Choose the correct answer A, B, C or D to complete the sentence. (10 points)
DBCCDBCAAD
1. A(n) ______ spirit only causes more stress and strife; it is better to forgive and forget.
A. apathetic B. restorative C. flaccid D. vindictive
2. The food at the buffet table was a ______ array of delights that even the most disciplined dieter would
find difficult to resist.
A. tempestuous B. tantalizing C. tantamount D. truculent
3. Although the patient received intensive treatment, there was no_______ improvement in her condition.
A. decipherable B. legible C. discernible D. intelligible
4. Nobody has any firm information, so we can only_________ on what caused the accident.
A. guess B. contemplate C. speculate D. assume
5. Cars have been banned from the city center, which makes the area much safer for _________.
A. passer-by B. onlookers C. footmen D. pedestrians
6. Dominant individuals may use ____ gestures to underline their power.
A. submissive B. expansive C. flirtatious D. nervous
7. Andrew’s _____ was to only tell his mother bad news when she was busy, so that she would have less
chance to react.
A. tactics B. intent C. ploy D. threat
8. The elderly are particularly _____ to this form of illness.
A. vulnerable B. weak C. wimpy D. trivial
9. It was Alice’s year: a new home, a better job – everything just clicked into ___.
A. place B. position C. space D. spot
10. The light from the car _____ as it receded into the distance.
A. seeped out B. rolled away C. shone out D. faded away
II. Read the passage and supply the correct form of the word in bracket. (10 points)
RED-HEADNESS FUN MAKINGS
Far from being admired as an extraordinary genius, Leonardo da Vinci was repeatedly
(1) ________ (LAMP) and teased about his unusual red hair and his unconventional sexuality by other
leading artists of his day. Although the work of the great Italian was popular in his time, an extensive new
study of the artist to be published this week has outlined evidence that he was the butt of gossipy jokes in
Renaissance Milan.
Author Simon Hewitt has (2) ________ (EARTH) a little-studied image held in Germany, a
“comic strip” design made in 1495 to illustrate a poem, that showed how Leonardo was once ridiculed. In
one of its colourful images, An Allegory of Justice, a ginger-haired clerk, or court lawyer, is shown seated
at a desk, mesmerised by other young men, and represents Leonardo da Vinci. “The identity of Leonardo
as the red-headed scribe is totally new,” Hewitt told the Observer ahead of the publication of Leonardo da
Vinci and the Book of Doom.
“The comic-strip picture is in an obscure (3) ________ (SCRIPT) in Berlin and has never been
consulted before by any Leonardo scholar.”
The key passage in Hewitt’s book identifies the painter through a series of clues in the precious
illustration. He is shown as a “left-handed clerk … with a wooden lyre at his feet: evidently a caricature of
Leonardo da Vinci”. The lyre was Leonardo’s instrument and his father, Ser Piero, who is depicted resting
his right arm on his shoulder, “is (4) ________ (BRAND) a sheet of paper that surely represents the
anonymous document denouncing Leonardo for sodomy, deposited in a Florence tamburo in April 1476”.
Red-headedness was rare in 15th-century Milan, but not unknown, and was regarded as (5)
________ (FREAK). Hewitt suspects Leonardo was descended from the Khazars, a Turkic people from
by. Nguyễn Đức Anh
68
the Asian steppe who scattered around the Black Sea and eastern Europe and had red hair. “As the 13th -
century Arab historian Ibn Sa’id al-Maghribi put it: ‘Their (6) ________ (COMPLEXITY) are white,
their eyes blue and their hair flowing and (7) ________ (DOMINEER) reddish.’ ”
Close study of the illuminated manuscript copy of Gaspare Visconti’s epic poem Paolo e Daria,
revealed to Hewitt that Leonardo da Vinci is also likely to be the object of (8) ________ (RIDICULOUS)
because of the absent-minded way he is shown to be drawing on the tablecloth, rather than on his sketch
notebooks, and by his apparent fascination with a half-naked young man who is clutching “a rocket-like,
Leo-invented contraption”.
“Further evidence of Leonardo’s identity, and homosexual (9) ________ (LEAN), is provided by
the group of eight strapping figures (10) ________ (ALONG),” argues Hewitt, who has conducted five
years of research into Leonardo and his circle in search of the truth about a controversial portrait, La Bella
Principessa. Along the way, he discovered the image from Visconti’s epic poem which also features a
young blonde woman holding a pair of scales. Hewitt identifies this as Bianca Sforza, the daughter of the
duke of Milan and the subject of the
disputed wedding portrait by
Leonardo da Vinci, completed a year
later.
III. There are one missing word in
each line of the passage. Find and
add them. ( 10 points)
Line 1: have some/ups/and downs
(Oxford Word Skills Advanced)
C. READING (30 POINTS)
I. OPEN CLOZE TEST
BITCOIN
The UK and other EU governments are planning a (1)______ on bitcoin, a cryptocurrency that is
not (2)______ by banks, amid growing concerns that the digital currency is being used for money
laundering and tax (3)______.
The Treasury plans to regulate bitcoin and other cryptocurrencies to bring them (4)______ anti-
money laundering and counter-terrorism financial legislation. Traders will be forced to disclose their
identities, ending the (5)______ that has made the currency attractive for drug dealing and other illegal
activities.
Under the EU-wide plan, online platforms where bitcoins are traded will be required to carry out
(6)______ diligence on customers and report suspicious transactions. The UK government is negotiating
amendments to the anti-money-laundering directive to ensure firms’ activities are (7)______ by national
authorities.
Economists have compared bitcoin’s meteoric rise with past (8)______, such as the tulip mania of
the 17th century and the dotcom bubble that began in the late 90s with the Nasdaq index in New York and
burst in 2000. Both examples foreshadow a painful collapse for a currency that has no (9)______ value to
those who hold it beyond that (10)______ to it by a community of owners. Should they realise the
emperor has no clothes en masse, there could be a rude awakening.
(Source: The Guardian/Olympic 30/4)
1. A. crackdown B. walk-out C. lowdown D. toss-up
2. A. underscored B. underwritten C. upholstered D. underpinned
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3. A. invasion B. elusion C. indictment D. evasion
4. A. in line with B. in line for C. on line with D. on line for
5. A. animosity B. anonymity C. pseudonym D. misnomer
6. A. preemptive B. tender C. prudish D. due
7. A. overlooked B. overseen C. overdriven D. overthrown
8. A. insinuations B. economies of scale C. bubbles D. junctures
9. A. intrinsic B. intricate C. civic D. immaculate
10. A. preordained B. ascribed C. conferred D. etched
II. READING COMPREHENSION 1
DICTIONARY
If you've ever played Scrabble, you know who the ultimate arbiter in that word game is: You
challenge a word your opponent makes by reaching for that infallible judge, the dictionary. After all, a
dictionary is a definitive collection of words, spellings, and meanings, right?
Actually, that isn't quite so, because while we regard dictionaries as catalogs of correctness, the truth
is that dictionaries do not tell the whole story. We can think of them as horses pulling tidy carts of our
cluttered language, but in fact, as David Skinner wrote in the New York Times (May 17, 2013), "in
following Webster's you're following the followers." That's because language is an ever-changing thing in
which new words are invented all the time and old words are put to new use. Keeping up with this is an
impossible task, as the writers of the Oxford English Dictionary, or OED, found out over 150 years ago.
In 1879, members of the Philological Society of London began working with James Murray of
Oxford University Press to produce a more complete dictionary than what was available at the time. In ten
years, they estimated, they would publish a four-volume, 6,400-page dictionary covering all English
language vocabulary from the Early Middle English period (c. AD 1150) onward. However, five years along
they were only as far as the word "ant"! The task of tracking new words and new meanings of existing
words while examining the previous seven centuries of the language's development proved monumental.
It turned out that their work required ten volumes, included over 400,000 words, and was not fully published
until 1924. Even then, the editors' first job after completion of the monstrous OED was to print an
addendum, which came out a mere nine years later.
As Skinner says, "There is always much more to know about a word than what a dictionary can tell
you."
According to Global Language Monitor, a new word is created every 98 minutes; this results in an
average of about 14 words per day. They come from regular people; from writers; from specialized,
often scientific fields; and from the Internet.
A short list of the words spawned by the Internet and its technologies includes "blog," "avatar,"
"spam," and "webisode." Every year, Merriam-Webster's, publisher of America's premier dictionary, adds
a jumble of words that have been coined by Web users and promulgated across the Internet's multitudinous
channels: websites, chat rooms, forums, blogs, and, of course, social media platforms.
Just like other professional and social realms, the Internet produces both new words and new
definitions of old words. The word "troll," for example, dates back to 1616 as a name for "a dwarf or giant
in Scandinavian folklore inhabiting caves or hills." In the last decade, however, "troll" emerged as a term
for someone who participates in Internet discussions, not to contribute meaningfully, but for the sole
purpose of making harsh rebuttals and insults.
Dictionary makers are faced with tough decisions. Any dictionary that doesn't include Internet-
produced words would be seen as being behind the times, although many feel that dictionaries go too far in
their role as recorders of what gets said rather than rule-makers of correct usage. One of the most
controversial new entries happened in 2013, when several major dictionaries added a definition for
"literally" that literally means the literal opposite of its meaning! To some it seemed to erode the very
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70
purpose of a dictionary, but consensus prevailed, and Merriam-Webster's lists "in effect; virtually" as one
meaning of literally. In response to criticism it received, Merriam-Webster's wrote, "the use is pure
hyperbole intended to gain emphasis." Seemingly as a concession to those who call the definition incorrect,
it added, "but it often appears in contexts where no additional emphasis is necessary."
For those who grumble about the imperfection that this entry enjoins, perhaps the best attitude to
have is that expressed on the Oxford English Dictionary's Web site: "An exhilarating aspect of a living
language is that it continually changes."
1. The stance the author takes in the passage is best described as that of ______.
A. a columnist discussing a topic of interest. B. a pundit advocating support for a position.
C. a reporter investigating a current event. D. a researcher cataloguing historical data.
2. According to the first two paragraphs, what claim does the author seek to refute?
A. The assertion that Merriam-Webster's is the best authority to follow
B. The assumption that Scrabble users rely on dictionaries for aid
C. The notion that dictionaries are absolute and undeniable authorities
D. The prediction that dictionaries will become cluttered over time
3. The word "monumental" most nearly means ______.
A. important. B. impossible. C. tremendous. D. ungainly.
4. What idea does the author convey through the use of the succession of phrases "from regular
people; from writers; from specialized, often scientific fields"?
A. Definitions of words reflect usage for varied purposes among different people.
B. Dictionaries must be accessible to users from all walks of life.
C. People from several professional fields contributed to the development of the OED.
D. Words come from many sources, including nonphilological ones.
5. What conclusion can best be drawn from lines ("Every year, … social media platforms")?
A. Dictionaries are easily updated through online and other digital tools.
B. Navigating the Web requires adopting new meanings for existing words.
C. The Internet is the most prolific source of new words today.
D. Words gain not only meaning but also legitimacy through usage.
6. Which choice provides the best evidence for the answer to the previous question?
A. ("According to … per day") B. ("The word … or hills")
C. ("In the last … insults") D. ("One of the most … meaning")
7. What conclusion can be drawn from the data in the graphic?
A. Before 2014, fewer than five words from the Internet were added.
B. Fewer words from the Internet were added before 2009 than during that year.
C. More words from the Internet were added after 2010 than before.
D. So far, in the 21st century, twenty-six words from the Internet have been added.
8. The word "erode" most nearly means ______.
A. diminish B. corrode C. consume D. wear
9. Based on the passage, which choice best describes the relationship between language and
dictionaries?
A. Dictionaries reflect the flaws and inconsistencies of language.
B. Dictionaries attempt to address the idea that language changes over time.
C. Dictionaries establish definite meanings for new words.
D. Dictionaries support the opinion that the study of language is exhilarating.
10. The data in the graphic most clearly support which conclusion from the passage?
A. Dictionaries are imperfect records of the English language.
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B. Language changes in response to the needs of those who use it.
C. Many new words originate from evolving technologies.
D. Online usage constantly adapts the meaning of existing words.
III. READING COMPREHENSION 2
Read the following text and gap in the most suitable heading (A-I) for each paragraph. There is one
that you don’t need.
THE RAINFOREST - THE LUNGS OF THE EARTH
More and more rainforests are being deforested worldwide - the consequences are drastic. Because
with the forest not only plants and living beings disappear, but also many other existential things, such
as the air we breathe every day.
1
Tropical forests extend around the equator over the land masses of the planet. They are complex
biotopes that are still barely accessible to people in many areas and thus far from fully researched. This is
not yet fully foreseeable what the rainforest does for our planet. Good reasons to preserve rainforests, there
are, however, according to the current state of our knowledge a lot.
For example, rainforests are home to about two-thirds of the species of animals and plants on our
planet. We do not yet know all the species that thrive under tropical canopy, but already a quarter of all
medicines are made from substances that are part of the flora of tropical rainforests.
Globally, the rainforest plays a key role in stabilizing the climate and groundwater. Rainforests bind
CO2, which is released during slash-and-burn and thus contributes to global warming. How far the rainforest
influences the characteristics of the Gulf Stream can not be ignored. One thing is for sure - without the
wetlands on the equator it would be uncomfortably cold in Europe. Climate change due to the disappearance
of the tropical forest would be disastrous.
In addition, enough rainwater seeps into the soils of the rainforests to feed the water-bearing strata
hundreds of kilometers away: the tropical rainforests of Africa nourish the springs of the Egyptian oases
just before the Mediterranean coast!
2
In addition to their biodiversity and their importance to the global climate, tropical forests are true
treasure troves. Our everyday life is full of products that we owe to the rainforest. Among them are spices,
tropical fruits like mangos and papayas, but also products like coffee and cocoa!
And even rubber, palm oil or tropical woods are indispensable to the lives of people in industrialized
countries.
In addition, there is the pharmaceutical use of the "rainforest pharmacy", in which every year new
plants are discovered that are medically usable. In the depths of the tropical forests are probably hidden
plants that contain remedies against as yet incurable diseases. With the decline of rainforests, we are
destroying undiscovered potential for future generations. And it should not be forgotten that there are still
people who live in and with the tropical forest - indigenous cultures with sometimes thousands of years old
customs and languages that disappear together with the rainforest. Although they would be worth protecting
as part of human cultural heritage.
3
Yet more than 13 million square kilometers of continental area are covered by tropical rainforests.
On a positive note, the destruction of forests is less rapid today than it was a few years ago. But still: more
than 60,000 square kilometers of rainforest are lost every year. This also disappears the homeland of the
people and animals who found their livelihood here before.
4
The causes of deforestation are manifold. Among the worst polluters is the clearing for pasture land
production and animal feed for mass animal husbandry. But the clearing for the establishment of palm oil
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plantations is a cause of forest destruction. The occurrence of mineral resources under the forest floor also
often seals the fate of forest stands. And of course, it's not just large corporations and industries, but also
small farmers who are tackling the rainforest in search of a livelihood.
5
With each piece of tropical forest disappearing, deforestation continues. This not only kills numerous
species, but also destroys the world's climate and destroys the planet's water cycle. After extensive clearing,
the risk of soil erosion, drought disasters and floods increases, and landslides are more common. That's why
the protection of the rainforest affects us all. All humanity relies on the treasure trove, the tropical forest,
the lungs of the earth. And everyone can contribute. Even small changes in your own consumption patterns
help to reduce the burden on the natural resources of our planet. This is not difficult and often goes hand in
hand with an improved attitude to life.
6
For example, the conscious purchase of food - who buys from the local producer in the season, for
example on the market or at the farmer, gets high-quality products, often without plastic packaging and in
many cases from controlled cultivation. Whether it is fruit and vegetables or organic meat, you can taste the
difference! And by the way, you are leaving global logistics, which is shipping food around the world, with
horrendous CO2 emissions.
If you go a step further, you can leave the car, cycle or walk and do something good for your own
health and the rainforest. In any case applies here: refuel no biofuel!
You can also reduce your own paper consumption and switch to recycled or alternative paper. No
longer are all alternatives unsightly gray! It goes without saying that plastic should be dispensed with to a
large extent, and it is also fun with pretty fabric bags that you can also wash!
7
The deforestation of rainforest areas is not every day evening. Numerous organizations around the
world are working to prevent the loss of tropical forests by planting trees. In the Sierra del Lacandón
National Park, for example, a rainforest area of 33,000 ha was reforested through donations. By monitoring
biodiversity and the use of forest rangers, such areas can be secured and thus the destruction be slowed
down. The most effective is the long-term protection of the rainforest through the involvement of local
organizations and the development of new sources of revenue for the inhabitants of the affected areas.
(Source: NIKIN)
HEADINGS
A. Rainforest under fire: so much rainforest disappears every year
B. Tropical forests are treasure chambers
C. The protection of the forests: what each individual can do
D. Fate stoler
E. The causes of destruction
F. Actively contribute to reforestation
G. The consequences of the clearcutting
I. The wealth of the rainforest benefits us all
IV. GAPPED TEXT
You are going to read an article in which 5 paragraphs (A-F) have been removed. Read and carefully
and choose the correct paragraph to fill in the blanks (1-5)
EDUCATION NEEDS AN OVERHAUL, BUT CLOSING PRIVATE SCHOOLS IS NOT
THE ANSWER
The Labour party’s radical proposals to shake up England’s schooling system has thrust educational
debate into the spotlight, shattering the post-millennial political consensus of what’s best for our children.
A Labour government would dismantle the very foundations of the current education landscape –
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abandoning tests at the end of primary school, replacing the schools inspectorate, and abolishing private
schools altogether. Labour claims it’s the party fighting for social justice rather than social mobility. It is
certainly offering a different vision to that of the Conservatives, who want to create more places at selective
grammar schools.
1
It’s an impossible task for teachers. Classroom divides are driven by inequalities outside the school
gates. It’s an arms race that the wealthy are destined to win – just look at the boom in private tutoring.
Education acts as a positional good – it’s not what qualifications you have that matters, but how much better
they are than those of other pupils. Schools have worked wonders to get more children on free school meals
passing national school benchmarks at age 16, but children from privileged homes have leaped further ahead
in the academic stakes.
2
A guaranteed way to reduce middle-class advantage would be to roll out lotteries for state school
admissions, and pick pupils randomly. It is undeniably the most equitable means of allocating places to
equally deserving candidates. But that’s unlikely to win many votes in a general election. Promoting social
mobility is not always politically palatable.
3
The best school systems balance the trust and support needed to retain and develop teachers with the
external challenge required to hold the system to account for our children’s learning. In this country,
teachers will tell you, there’s none of the former and all of the latter. Nowhere else has embraced league
tables and school inspections quite like us. And there is no evidence that Ofsted inspections improve school
outcomes.
Schools are the victims of Campbell’s law. This states that anything that is measured with simple
statistics will be distorted as people game the system to improve their performance. Extra time devoted to
preparing for English, mathematics and traditional academic subjects in league tables has squeezed out
subjects such as music, art, languages and physical education. Teachers “teach to the test”, drilling pupils
with the best answers to questions likely to come up in exams.
4
The rising levels of distrust among teachers, amid the booming industry of consultants advising on
how to pass inspections, suggests more fundamental change, as Labour has mooted, is now required. We
need to consider the kind of society we aspire to foster for the next generation. Do we want a narrow but
efficient range of subjects for all, or do we want to support a breadth of expertise and success across a
wealth of subjects, which includes music, fine arts and drama? Do we want a system that offers a basic
education for all, and options to pursue creative and vocational routes as well as academic ones?
5
(Source: The Guardians)
PARAGRAPH
A. Rising exam scores are heralded as evidence of improved standards, but the quality and breadth
of education children receive is likely to have declined. How do we rid the system of these unintended
consequences? It’s not by doing away with tests, but by rebalancing the assessment regime. We need a
mix of tests: some instigated by teachers to diagnose the particular needs of the pupils in their classes;
some used by schools to track their own progress; some deployed by researchers to look at the
effectiveness of different educational approaches; and others used by external bodies to sample and
monitor education standards.
B. The answers are unlikely to come from populist policies bubbling up from the cauldron of
modern politics. One thing that all major political parties agree on is that education should be evidence-
informed. The most logical step, if we were to adhere strictly to this principle, would be to remove
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74
education policymaking from political interference altogether, creating an arm’s-length government body
with a strategic remit to oversee schools. But that is unlikely to feature in an election manifesto any time
soon.
C. But how do these policies stack up against the hard evidence? What’s undeniable is that we
need to rethink the current approach to education. Amid stagnating social mobility, schools remain the
great hope of levelling a grotesquely uneven playing field. But the achievement gap between poorer
children and their better-off peers continues to be stark. Reviews of progress on narrowing the gap have
adopted an increasingly futile tone.
D. The vote in favour of the motion came after the shadow education secretary, Angela Rayner,
said a future Labour government would scrap the “tax loopholes” that benefit private schools in its first
budget. And it followed Rayner’s announcement that Labour would overhaul school inspections in
England by abolishing Ofsted, a proposal that received a mixed welcome by teachers and prompted
accusations of lowering standards by its opponents.
E. In our new book, What Works? Research and Evidence for Successful Teaching, we assess the
evidence from more than 200 reviews of 8,000 studies to provide teachers with the best strategies for
improving learning. The most effective approaches relate to what happens in classrooms between teachers
and pupils – not new types of schools or shiny new national reforms.
F. Nationalising private schools wouldn’t demolish the divide between education’s haves and
have-nots – even if you were able to overcome the legal and financial obstacles required for such a
dramatic move. Middle-class parents would still manage to gain advantage in the state system,
monopolising the best state schools.
V. OPEN CLOZE TEST
Over the last hundred years, much of the art of using herbs in cooking and medicine has been lost,
especially in industrialised societies. Until recently, few people in the crowded cities had the space to
grow plants or vegetables, and so (1) __________ in the country did knowledge of herbs linger on. (2)
__________ the advent of refrigeration, however, which meant that the strong smell of old meat no longer
had to be disguised, and the appearance of packaged food and easily-available medicines, the growing of
herbs declined rapidly.
Nowadays, there is hardly anyone who does not have a small patch of garden, or a (3) __________
sill or balcony or balcony large enough for a pot or two of herbs. These facts, (4) __________ with the
beginnings of a revolt (5) __________ standardised foods and perhaps also a mistrust of the (6)
__________ effects of some of today's medicines, mean that herbs have taken (7) __________ a new
popularity.
The culinary uses of herbs are endless and they can be used to good effect all year (8) __________,
in dried form or cut fresh. (9) __________ aids to beauty and for medicinal (10) __________, there is
now a vast range of available. Herbs are for all occasions and all seasons.
(DHBB2019)
D. WRITING (30 POINTS)
I. SENTENCE TRANSFORMATION
1. He worked very hard but he was unable to earn enough for his living. [nose]
➔ Despite _________________________________ meet.
2. I didn’t have the faintest idea about the quirks of the antiques business, so I couldn’t give you any
advice. [ken]
➔ Had ________________________________________________________________________.
3. The teacher has terrified his students by using draconian disciplinary measures. [dint]
➔ The teacher, ____________________________________________________________ heart.
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4. Lisa was so emotional with the result that she became unconscious [out]
➔ Overcome________________________________________________________________________.
5. For most of the match, Brazil were the much better side, and won 4–0. [league]
➔ ________________________________________________________________________.
6. As the course becomes more complicated, many students simply give up. [fall]
➔ The course________________________________________________________.
7. You must not show off all your skills until the last lap. [bolt]
➔ It is vital that _____________________________________________________.
8. I ran out of all my energy due to the painstaking race. [worn]
➔ I was _____________________________________________________.
9. His scores were extremely high, raising much speculation from the press. [fuelled]
➔ His off _____________________________________________________.
10. He tried to guide us into an inferior brand but to no avail. [fobbed]
➔ Try _____________________________________________________.
II. Can people who are not famous be better role models than people who are famous?
Plan and write an essay in which you develop your point of view on this issue. Support your position
with reasoning and examples taken from your reading, studies, experience, or observations.
THE END
BỘ ĐỀ LUYỆN THI CHO HỌC SINH
KHỐI CHUYÊN ANH
ĐỀ LUYỆN TẬP 11
Thời gian làm bài: 150 phút (Không kể thời gian giao đề)
A. MULTIPLE CHOICE (100 POINTS)
A.I.1. READING PASSAGE #1 (10 POINTS)
IMAGE AND THE CITY
In the city, we are barraged with images of the people we might become. Identity is presented as
plastic, a matter of possessions and appearance; and a very large proportion of the urban landscape is taken
up by slogans, advertisements, flatly photographed images of folk heroes – the man who turned into a
sophisticated dandy overnight by drinking a particular brand of drink, the girl who transformed herself into
a femme fatale with a squirt of cheap scent. The tone of the wording of these advertisements is usually pert
and facetious, comically drowning in its own hyperbole. But the pictures are brutally exact: they reproduce
every detail of a style of life, down to the brand of cigarette-lighter, the stone in the ring, and the economic
row of books on the shelf.
Even in the business of the mass-production of images of identity, this shift from the general to the
diverse and particular is quite recent. Consider another line of stills: the back-lit, soft-focus portraits of the
first and second generations of great movie stars. There is a degree of romantic unparticularity in the face
of each one, as if they were communal dream-projections of society at large. Only in the specialized genres
of westerns, farces and gangster movies were stars allowed to have odd, knobby cadaverous faces. The hero
as loner belonged to history or the underworld: he spoke from the perimeter of society, reminding us of its
dangerous edges.
The stars of the last decade have looked quite different. Soft-focus photography has gone, to be
replaced by a style which searches out warts and bumps, and emphasizes the uniqueness not the generality
of the face. Voices, too, are strenuously idiosyncratic; whines, stammers and low rumbles are exploited as
features of “star quality”. Instead of romantic heroes and heroines, we have a brutalist, hard-edged style in
which isolation and egotism are assumed as natural social conditions.
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76
In the movies, as in the city, the sense of stable hierarchy has become increasingly exhausted; we no
longer live in a world where we can all share the same values, and the same heroes. (It is doubtful whether
this world, so beloved of nostalgia moralists, ever existed; but lip-service was paid to it, the pretence, at
last, was kept up.) The isolate and the eccentric push towards the centre of the stage; their fashions and
mannerisms are presented as having as good a claim to the limelight and the future as those of anyone else.
In the crowd on the underground platform, one may observe a honeycomb of fully-worked-out worlds, each
private, exclusive, bearing little comparison with its nearest neighbour. What is prized in one is despised in
another. There are no clear rules about how one is supposed to manage one’s body, dress, talk, or think.
Though there are elaborate protocols and etiquettes among particular cults and groups within the city, they
subscribe to no common standard.
For the new arrival, this disordered abundance is the city’s most evident and alarming quality. He
feels as if he has parachuted into a funfair of contradictory imperatives. There are so many people he might
become, and a suit of clothes, a make of car, and a brand of cigarettes, will go some way towards turning
him into a personage even before he has discovered who that personage is. Personal identity has always
been deeply rooted in property, but hitherto the relationship has been a simple one – a question of buying
what you could afford, and leaving your wealth to announce your status. In the modern city, there are so
many things to buy, such a quantity of different kinds of status, that the choice and its attendant anxieties
have created a new pornography of state.
The leisure pages of the Sunday newspapers, fashion magazines, TV plays, popular novels,
cookbooks, window displays all nag at the nerve of our uncertainty and snobbery. Should we like American
cars, hard-rock hamburger joints, Bauhaus chairs…? Literature and art are promoted as personal
accessories, the paintings of Mondrian or the novels of Samuel Beckett “go” with certain styles like
matching handbags. There is in the city a creeping imperialism of taste, in which more and more
commodities are made over to being mere expressions of personal identity. The piece of furniture, the pair
of shoes, the book, the film, are important not so much in themselves but for what they communicate about
their owners; and ownership is stretched to include what one likes or believes in as well as what one can
buy.
1. What does the writer say about advertisements in the first paragraph?
A. They often depict people that most other people would not care to be like.
B. The pictures in them accurately reflect the way that some people really live.
C. Certain kinds are considered more effective in cities than others.
D. The way in which some of them are worded is cleverer than it might appear.
2. What does a “femme fatale” refer to?
A. a beautiful woman who spends her time enjoying herself
B. a gorgeous woman who realizes most men’s dream
C. a potential good wife
D. an attractive woman who may bring unhappiness to men
3. The word “facetious” is closest in meaning to _____.
A. flippant B. prevalent C. impudent D. complacent
4. The writer says that if you look at a line of advertisements on a tube train, it is clear that ___.
A.city dwellers have very diverse ideas about what image they would like to have
B. some images in advertisements have a general appeal that others lack
C. city dwellers are more influenced by images on advertisements than other people are
D. some images are intended to be representative of everyone’s aspirations
5. What does the writer imply about portraits of old movie stars?
A. They reflected an era in which people felt basically safe.
B. They made people feel that their own faces were rather unattractive.
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C. They tried to disguise the less attractive features of their subjects.
D. Most people did not think they were accurate representations of the stars in them.
6. What does the writer suggest about the stars of the last decade?
A . Most people accept that they are not typical of society as a whole.
B. They make an effort to speak in a way that may not be pleasant on the ear.
C. Some of them may be uncomfortable about the way they come across.
D. They make people wonder whether they should become more selfish.
7. The writer uses the crowd on an underground platform to exemplify his belief that _____.
A. no one in a city has strict attitudes towards the behavior of others
B. no single attitude to life is more common than another in a city
C. people in cities would like to have more in common with each other
D. views of what society was like in the past are often accurate
8. The writer implies that new arrivals in a city may _____.
A. acquire a certain image without understanding what that involves
B. underestimate the importance of wealth
C. decide that status is of little importance
D. change the image they wish to have too frequently
9. The novels of Samuel Beckett is an example of _____.
A. classic literature works that make their owners feel superior to other people
B. literature works of high artistic value
C. possessions that show owners’ identity
D. what is wanted by the majority in the society
10. What point does the writer make about city dwellers in the final paragraph?
A. They are unsure as to why certain things are popular with others.
B. They are keen to be the first to appreciate new styles.
C. They want to acquire more and more possessions.
D. They are aware that judgments are made about them according to what they buy.
A.I.2. READING PASSAGE #2 (15 POINTS)
METEORITE IMPACT AND DINOSAUR EXTINCTION
There is increasing evidence that the dramatically of meteorites have had important effects on Earth,
particularly in the field of biological evolution. Such disastrous continue to pose a natural hazard to life on
Earth. Twice in the twentieth century, large meteorite objects are known to have collided with Earth.
If an impact is large enough, it can disturb the environment of the entire Earth and cause an ecological
catastrophe. The best-documented such impact took place 65 million years ago at the end of the Cretaceous
period of reviewing history. This break in Earth’s history is marked by a mass extinction, when as many as
half the species on the planet became extinct. While there are a dozen or more mass extinctions in the
diverse record, the Cretaceous mass extinction has always intrigued paleontologists because it marks the
end of the age of the dinosaurs. For tens of millions of years, those great creatures had flourished. Then,
suddenly, they disappeared.
The body that impacted Earth at the end of the Cretaceous period was a meteorite with a mass of
more than a trillion tons and a diameter of at least 10 kilometers. Scientists first identified this impact in
1980 from the worldwide layer of sediment deposited from the dust cloud that enveloped the planet after
the impact. This sediment layer is enriched in the rare metal iridium and other elements that are relatively
abundant in a meteorite but very rare in the crust of Earth. Even diluted by the terrestrial material excavated
from the crater, this component of meteorites is easily identified. By 1990 geologists had located the impact
by. Nguyễn Đức Anh
78
site itself in the Yucatán region of Mexico. The crater, now deeply buried in sediment, was originally about
200 kilometers in diameter.
This impact released an enormous amount of energy, excavating a crater about twice as large as the
lunar crater Tycho. The explosion lifted about 100 trillion tons of dust into the atmosphere, as can be
determined by measuring the thickness of the sediment layer formed when this dust varied to the surface.
Such a quantity of material would have blocked the sunlight completely from reaching the surface, plunging
Earth into a period of cold and darkness that lasted at least several months. The explosion is also calculated
to have produced vast quantities of nitric acid and melted rock that sprayed out over much of Earth, starting
vast fires that must have consumed most terrestrial forests and grassland. Presumably, those environmental
ages could have been responsible for the mass extinction, including the death of the dinosaurs.
Several other mass extinctions in the repeated record have been tentatively identified with large
large, but none is so dramatic as the Cretaceous event. But even without such specific documentation, it is
clear that potentially of this size do occur and that their results can be catastrophic. What is a catastrophe
for one group of living things, however, may create opportunities for another group. Following each mass
extinction, there is a sudden evolutionary burst as new species develop to fill the ecological niches opened
by the event.
Impacts by meteorites represent one mechanism that could cause global catastrophes and seriously
influence the evolution of life all over the planet. [A] According to some estimates, the majority of all
extinctions of species may be due to such harmful. [B] Such a perspective fundamentally changes our view
of biological evolution. [C] The standard criterion for the survival of a species is its success in competing
with other species and adapting to slowly changing environments. [D] Yet an equally important criterion is
the ability of a species to survive random global ecological catastrophes due to promising.
Earth is a target in a cosmic shooting gallery, subject to random violent events that were unsuspected
a few decades ago. In 1991 the United States Congress asked NASA to investigate the hazard posed today
by large potentially on Earth. The group Perform the study concluded from a detailed analysis that
potentially from meteorites can indeed be hazardous. Although there is always some risk that a large impact
could occur, careful study shows that this risk is quite small.
11. The word “pose” is closest in meaning to ________.
A. claim B. model C. assume D. present
12. In paragraph 2, why does the author include the information that dinosaurs had flourished for
tens of millions of years and then suddenly disappeared?
A. To support the claim that the mass extinction at the end of the Cretaceous is the best-documented of
the dozen or so mass extinctions in the geological record
B. To explain why as many as half of the species on Earth at the time are believed to have become extinct
at the end of the Cretaceous
C. To explain why paleontologists have always been intrigued by the mass extinction at the end of the
Cretaceous
D. To provide evidence that an impact can be large enough to disturb the environment of the entire planet
and cause an ecological disaster
13. Which of the following can be inferred from paragraph 3 about the location of the meteorite
impact in Mexico?
A. The location of the impact site in Mexico was kept secret by geologists from 1980 to 1990.
B. It was a well-known fact that the impact had occurred in the Yucatán region.
C. Geologists knew that there had been an impact before they knew where it had occurred.
D. The Yucatán region was chosen by geologists as the most probable impact site because of its climate.
14. According to paragraph 3, how did scientists determine that a large meteorite had impacted
Earth?
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A. They discovered a large crater in the Yucatán region of Mexico.
B. They found a unique layer of sediment worldwide.
C. They were alerted by archaeologists who had been excavating in the Yucatán region.
D. They located a meteorite with a mass of over a trillion tons.
15. The word “excavating” is closest in meaning to ________.
A. digging out B. extending C. destroying D. covering up
16. The word “consumed” is closest in meaning to ________.
A. changed B. exposed C. destroyed D. covered
17. According to paragraph 4, all of the following statements are true of the impact at the end of
the Cretaceous period EXCEPT ________.
A. A large amount of dust blocked sunlight from Earth.
B. Earth became cold and dark for several months.
C. New elements were formed in Earth’s crust.
D. Large quantities of nitric acid were produced.
18. The phrase “tentatively identified” is closest in meaning to ________.
A. identified after careful study B. identified without certainty
C. occasionally identified D. easily identified
19. The word “perspective” is closest in meaning to ________.
A. sense of values B. point of view C. calculation D. complication
20. Paragraph 6 supports which of the following statements about the factors that are essential for
the survival of a species?
A. The most important factor for the survival of a species is its ability to compete and adapt to gradual
changes in its environment.
B. The ability of a species to compete and adapt to a gradually changing environment is not the only
ability that is essential for survival.
C. Since most extinctions of species are due to major meteorite impacts, the ability to survive such
impacts is the most important factor for the survival of a species.
D. The factors that are most important for the survival of a species vary significantly from one species to
another.
21. Which of the sentences below best expresses the essential information in the following
sentence?
Earth is a target in a cosmic shooting gallery, subject to random violent events that were unsuspected a
few decades ago.
Incorrect choices change the meaning in important ways or leave out essential information.
A. Until recently, nobody realized that Earth is exposed to unpredictable violent impacts from space.
B. In the last few decades, the risk of a random violent impact from space has increased.
C. Since most violent events on Earth occur randomly, nobody can predict when or where they will
happen.
D. A few decades ago, Earth became the target of random violent events originating in outer space.
22. According to the passage, who conducted investigations about the current dangers posed by
large meteorite impacts on Earth?
A. Paleontologists B. Geologists C. The United States Congress D. NASA
23. Look at the four letters (A, B, C, and D) that indicate where the following sentence could be
added to the passage.
This is the criterion emphasized by Darwin’s theory of evolution by natural selection.
A. [A] B. [B] C. [C] D. [D]
by. Nguyễn Đức Anh
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24/25. An introductory sentence for a brief summary of the passage is provided below. Complete
the summary by selecting the TWO answer choices that express the most important ideas in the passage.
Some sentences do not belong in the summary because they express ideas that are not presented in the
passage or are minor ideas in the passage.
Scientists have linked the mass extinction at the end of the Cretaceous with a meteorite impact
on Earth.
Answer choices
(1) Scientists had believed for centuries that meteorite activity influenced evolution on Earth.
(2) The site of the large meteorite impact at the end of the Cretaceous period was identified in 1990.
(3) There have also been large meteorite impacts on the surface of the Moon, leaving craters like Tycho.
(4) An iridium-enriched sediment layer and a large impact crater in the Yucatán provide evidence that a
large meteorite struck Earth about 65 million years ago.
(5) Large meteorite impacts, such as one at the end of the Cretaceous period, can seriously affect climate,
ecological niches, plants, and animals.
A.II. GUIDED CLOZE TEST 1 (15 POINTS)
CHINESE HACKERS
There are (26) _____ fears about Chinese cyber attacks on Western media outlets after two of
America’s largest newspapers said Chinese hackers had (27) _____ their computer systems. A statement
said: “Evidence shows that infiltration efforts target the monitoring of the Journal’s (28) _____ of China.
Earlier, the New York Times said it had faced repeated hacking attacks as it prepared a story tracing the
hidden (30) _____ of the family of Wen Jiabao, the country’s premier.
The (31) _____ came just weeks after Chinese authorities forced a NYT reporter to leave the
country. Two months after the paper’s Shanghai bureau chief David Barboza authored the account of the
billions (32) _____ by Mr Wen’s relatives, Beijing refused to (33) _____ a visa for his co lleague Chris
Buckley. The paper said that as Mr Barboza was working on the piece, hackers had broken into its
systems and cracked passwords for every employee. They (34) _____ the email accounts of Mr Barboza.
“Security experts (35) _____ by The New York Times to detect and block the computer attacks
gathered digital (36) _____ that Chinese hackers, using methods that some consultants have associated
with the Chinese military in the past, breached The Times’ network,” the paper said.
Last year, hackers who according to WikiLeaks were linked to the Chinese military, infiltrated
European Union computers, (37) _____ the emails of Herman Van Rompuy, the President of the
European Council. China’s Ministry of National Defence has (38) _____ any role in the ha cking.
26. A. enlarging B. growing C. spreading D. inflating
27. A. broken B. injured C. hurt D. infiltrated
28. A. covering B. covers C. coverage D. covered
29. A. loot B. prizes C. abundance D. riches
30. A. revelations B. betrayal C. exhibition D. display
31. A. amassed B. gathered C. aggregated D. assembled
32. A. refresh B. renew C. resume D. transform
33. A. broke down B. broke away C. broke through D. broke into
34. A. rented B. leased C. hired D. borrowed
35. A. evidence B. signs C. witnesses D. tokens
36. A. relating B. associating C. connecting D. accessing
37. A. refused B. prohibited C. denied D. vetoed
A.III. GUIDED CLOZE TEST 2 (10 POINTS)
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For many people doing physical exercise may (38)_____ a painful torturing of the body. Therefore,
there’s usually something we come up with that is of bigger importance than putting one’s muscles through
their paces. Unless we are forced to go in for a physical training, we are (39)_____ to treat it as something
of a lower (40)_____ than staying in front of the TV set, spending time in a pub (41)_____ alcoholic
beverages or consuming excessive quantities of fattening confectionery in a café. We need to be
considerably motivated to take up a body workout and build our physical fitness. What usually (42)_____
individuals from (43)_____ themselves to strenuous exercise in the fear of fatigue, discomfort or even the
(44)_____ of being outdone by true fitness zealots.
However, getting fit is fully a matter of common sense. Different forms of exercise may be of great
(45)_____ to the human body increasing its strength, flexibility and endurance. When supported by a
nutritious diet, much better performance of the heart and the lungs improves the blood circulation making
an individual more resistant to stressful situations as well as more (46)_____ to infections and diseases.
In the first place, self-discipline that is requisite for proceeding with such physical effort ought to be
attained to ensure that the intention of becoming healthier and more vigorous isn’t (47)_____ by any
(48)_____ impediments.
38. A. incorporate B. entail C. administer D. correspond
39. A. tended B. implied C. affirmed D. inclined
40. A. superiority B. privilege C. advantage D. priority
41. A. smacking B. sipping C. seething D. sniffing
42. A. repels B. denies C. opposes D. rejects
43. A. commiting B. absorbing C. involving D. engrossing
44. A. hindrances B. impairments C. preventions D. inhibitions
45. A. liking B. benefit C. appreciation D. gain
46. A. irresistible B. preventative C. immune D. wary
47. A. persecuted B. tormented C. harassed D. suppressed
48. A. short B. minor C. trivial D. frivolous
A.IV. LEXICO AND GRAMMAR (25 POINTS)
A.IV.1. WORD CHOICE (10 POINTS)
49. Angela’s work was praised for its ______ attention to detail.
A. meticulous B. significant C. subtle D. concentrated
50. Losing his entire business to the flood, Bill’s only ______ was to file bankruptcy.
A. dross B. enigma C. fervor D. recourse
51. The team was _____ devastated by the result.
A. deeply B. utterly C. thoroughly D. accutely
52. We ______ up a friendship the very first time we met.
A. struck B. launched C. cropped D. settled
53. The man’s choice to run away virtually _____ to an admission of guilt.
A. resulted B. came C. amounted D. added
54. After sitting in the contentious board meeting for two hours, Allen’s necktie began to feel like a
______ around his neck.
A. decorum B. garland C. noose D. renegade
55. The heat was absolutely ______, making everyone irritable, sweaty, and uncomfortable.
A. oppressive B. taciturn C. salient D. prosaic
56. Becoming a CEO was the ________ glory of her career.
A. heading B. crowning C. inducting D. tipping
57. It should be ________ clear that we are all under pressure.
A. conspicuously B. immensely C. fully D. abundantly
by. Nguyễn Đức Anh
82
58. I can’t imagine what I’ve done to make him let loose such a _________ of abuse at me.
A. shower B. storm C. torrent D. flood
A.IV.2. GRAMMAR AND STRUCTURES (7 POINTS)
59. If ___ in the shopping malls, the restaurants with similar price ranges and menus can make profits.
A. each uncluttered next to the other B. each cluttering next to the other
C. each cluttered next to another D. each decluttered next to the other
60. _____, creative interests are put to one side as we struggle with our academic subjects.
A. As often happens with young people B. Often happening with young people
C. Often does it happen to young people D. Often happening to young people
61. Probably no man had more effect on the daily lives of most people in the US, _____.
A. as Henry Ford, a pioneer in automobile production.
B. rather than Henry Ford, a pioneer in automobile production.
C. than did Henry Ford, a pioneer in automobile production.
D. more than Henry Ford, a pioneer in automobile production.
62. _____, many people are very optimistic about economic growth in the next year.
A. Despite the fact that the economy is going down B. But for the economy is going down
C. On account of the fact that the economy is going down D. Before entering the water
63. The endless parade of _____ on television has made today’s young girls obsessed with their bodie.
A. celebrities enhancing surgically B. surgically enhanced celebrities
C. surgical celebrities enhanced D. enhanced surgically celebrities
64. Janice’s parents did when she was just a baby, so I _____ family she ever had.
A. was all the B. was the whole C. have the whole D. have all the
65. We talked just as easily as we had in the past, when we would sit ____ and discuss our friends and our
hopes for the future.
A. in the field behind Joan’s house atop the rabbit hutch
B. in the field atop the rabbit hutch behind Joan’s house
C. atop the rabbit hutch in the field behind Joan’s house
D. behind Joan’s house in the field atop the rabbit hutch
A.IV.3. PHRASAL VERB AND IDIOMS (8 POINTS)
66. He managed to ____ his team with high spirits.
A. imbue B. inculcate C. ingrain D. instill
67. ____ by their new finds, the archeologists said they had made dramatic new finds of Viking
settlements.
A. Buoyed up B. Irked out C. Sounded off D. Perked up
68. Cheap electricity was soon ____ from nuclear reactors.
A. calling back B. popping out C. issuing forth D. phasing in
69. Robbing an old man is ____ contempt.
A. under B. sub C. below D. beneath
70. Be careful! The young horse hasn’t been ____.
A. got round B. broken in C. taken over D. set up
71. The woman in the hospital bed next to me talked a ____ streak all day. I don’t where she got the
energy from!
A. white B. golden C. blue D. red
72. I am ready to eat ____. My prediction about the game was completely wrong.
A. raven B. crow C. starling D. magpie
73. The film got a lot of hype, but I thought it was a bit of a(n) ___.
A. all mouth and no trousers B. Bob’s your uncle
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C. Earworm D. damp squib
74. I forgot to water my flowers, and now they’re as dead as a ____.
A. doornail B. ditchwater C. churchmouse D. millpond
75. John has a memory like a _____—I had to leave him three separate reminders about the play
tomorrow night.
A. bunny B. goldfish C. sieve D. deuce
A.V. PHONETICS (10 POINTS)
A.V.1. DIFFERENT PRONUNCIATION (5 POINTS)
76. A.
A.V.2. STRESS PATTERN (5 POINTS)
81. A. PARALYSIS B. DIAGONAL C. EUPHEMISM D. RAMBUTAN
82. A. TRIATHLON B. PRESENTIMENT C. CALLIGRAPHY D. LUNATIC
83. A. PNEUMONIA B. DISINTER C. ANTENNA D. INTERPOLATE
84. A. INAMORATA B. ARACHNOPHOBIA C. ERGONOMICALLY D. EMANCIPATION
85. A. AMBIDEXTROUS B. ABNORMALITY C. ADVANTAGEOUS D. AGRICULTURE
A.VI. SYNONYM & ANTONYM (5 POINTS)
86. The pea-souper made it impossible to go mountaineering. (SYN.)
A. rain B. fog C. typhoon D. snow
87. They lived in a house adjacent to the railway. (SYN.)
A. far away B. isolated C. juxtapositional D. off the beaten track
88. I found a sequestered place and laid down with my book. (SYN.)
A. placid B. boisterous C. tumultuous D. rowdy
89. When he was drinking, Ken was hell on wheels. (ANT.)
A. cantankerous B. irascible C. dour D. cordial
90. Adam says he's an open book, but I've seen him sneaking out of his house late at night. (ANT.)
A. forthright B. disingenuous C. candid D. fair and square
A.VII. ERROR RECOGNITION (10 POINTS)
91. The fish called menhaden are silvery in color and (A) a distinct black shoulder spot behind (B) their
gill opening and a variable (C) number of smaller spots on (D) their sides.
92. She was wandering (A) around (B) on (C) a daze (D) this morning.
93. Probably the most disputed (A) piece of clothing (B) during this period was the corset. Both
physicians and early feminists (C) subscribed to (D) their use.
94. I was rather (A) surprised by her elemental (B) and unique (C) talent in bending (D) fingers.
95. Participating (A) in camp fire songs, fighting off hungry mosquitoes and bursting (B) many blisters
on his feet quickly squelched (C) Giorgio’s desire camping (D).
96. Periods (A) of glaciation (B) have extended (C) the whole of human existence (D) for the past 2
million years.
97. He thinks it is my duty to bring (A) up the kids and doesn’t see why he should bring (B) himself out
to take them (C) to school and help (D) them with their homework.
98. At the moment, which species survive (A), which decline (B) to threatened or even status (C) and
which succumb for (D) extinction is something of a lottery.
99. When Bloomfield tried to dispute (A) the point, the doctor had no thoughts of losing (B) down. He
turned (C) away and refused (D) to listen.
100. As the carriage (A) of expressions, the head (B) of puppets is the most important position (C) to
show personalities of characters (D).
B. WRITTEN TEST (100 POINTS)
by. Nguyễn Đức Anh
84
B.I. WORD FORMATION (20 POINTS)
B.I.1. WORD FORMATION 1 (10 POINTS)
1. The emergency aids have been sent to _____ places in the world. (FAMINE)
2. We all find him really _____ and amicable. He’s a good person to talk with. (NATURE)
3. The government have been taking enormous effort to _______ the conflict. (ESCALATION)
4. However, it is astonishing that no mention is made of the _______ phenomenon of globalisation and of
the consequences that arise with respect to the study of international monetary questions. (MAKE)
5. Yet he proves to be far from the _______ wealthy gentleman they were expecting. (URBAN)
6. Fitzwater struck a ____ tone, saying he didn’t think anybody was to blame. (CONCILE)
7. You have to stop your _____ attitude. Your complaints won’t do you any go od. (PET)
8. Your running away is a(n) _____ of your guilt. (ESSENTIAL)
9. She finds herself to not be so _____. Though having been robbed and pickpocketed for many times, she
still doesn’t know what to do or gain any more experience while she’s in the city. (WISDOM)
10. (TIME)
[10.1] In particular, manufacturers of ____ fentanyl patches have come under scrutiny for defective
products.
[10.2] Our ____ project was severely cricticized as no one had enough time to fully dedicated to it.
[10.3] The developers dealt with the problem in the ____ fashion, burying the industrial waste in
landfill sites.
[10.4] Although it would be ____ to undertake, an analysis of such cases might throw light upon
the circumstances in which he preferred the reiterated note.
B.I.2. WORD FORMATION 2 (10 POINTS)
SHIP FREEZER
INTREPIDITY FEAR CONCEPTION BAN MORPH
BREEZE FAST PLUM TOMB EVENT
Every autumn the Arctic undergoes a radical (11)______. As the sun dips below the horizon one last
time—not to rise again until spring—the icy seascape darkens, the temperatures (12)______, and the sea
ice swells into a brutal fortress, so thick that no icebreaker can penetrate it. Research vessels flee south,
desperate to avoid getting trapped during the (13)______ season. But this year scientists—and a few lucky
journalists, including me—will dare to do just the opposite.
In late September we will set sail from Tromsø, Norway, heading east along Siberia, then north toward
the North Pole. Our captain will steer us into a massive ice floe and kill the ship’s engines—dooming it to
freeze in place as the ice quickly thickens. The ship will remain (14)______ for a full year as we float in
the clutches of the Arctic Ocean.
The goal of the mission, called MOSAiC (Multidisciplinary Drifting Observatory for the Study of Arctic
Climate), is to better understand why the top of the world is warming at such an alarming rate—twice as
fast as lower latitudes. “The Arctic is the epicenter of global warming,” says Markus Rex, a climate
scientist at the Alfred Wegener Institute in Germany and MOSAiC coordinator. Yet researchers do not
completely understand why. This $150-million mission—the first to study the central Arctic over an entire
year—intends to change that situation.
A few (15)______ adventurers have attempted such a fate, only to falter. In 1893 Norwegian explorer
Fridtjof Nansen (16)______ his ship, the Fram, into the ice in the hope that it would carry him toward the
North Pole. But when it became clear he would never reach the pole, he (17)______ the mission and skied
hundreds of miles to land. Still, the Fram made it across the Arctic ice cap intact, (18)______ reaching the
open North Atlantic Ocean. “We’re following in the footsteps of giants, if you will,” says Matthew Shupe,
an atmospheric and oceanic scientist at the University of Colorado Boulder and the National Oceanic and
Atmospheric Administration who (19)______ the MOSAiC mission more than 10 years ago.
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This excursion will be, by far, the largest in history. At any one time, around 60 scientific personnel will
be working onboard the research icebreaker Polarstern; they will be shuttled back and forth by sea, when
possible, or air. In all, some 300 people from across the world will have conducted studies on the ice.
They will observe every aspect of the Arctic system: the wandering ice, the drifting snow, the swirling
ocean, the (20)______ atmosphere, the life that calls it home and the ways these attributes interact.
B.II. OPEN CLOZE (20 POINTS)
B.II.1. OPEN CLOZE 1
CAN SKYSCRAPERS PREVENT TORNADOES?
The reason Tornado Alley, the area (21)____ from Texas to South Dakota and from the Rocky Mountains
to Kansas, is the most active tornado spot in the U.S.—it sees hundreds a year—is not because it's flat
farmland. It's because tornadoes form when two opposite weather systems collide (22)____ certain
conditions, and this occurs with great (23)____ in Tornado Alley. During springtime in that region, a
constant stream of cool, dry air blowing southeast from Canada runs into a similarly steady stream of
warm, moist air moving northwest (24)____ the Gulf of Mexico. As these weather fronts interact, they
build high-intensity thunderstorms that, if they're strong enough, can create a powerful updraft of air. Low
pressure at the ground and in the middle or upper atmosphere interacts with the rising air to create a
(25)____ vortex that can eventually extend a tornado funnel to the ground.
It just so (26)____ that most cities with a lot of skyscrapers are situated in places where tornado-feeding
conditions evolve less frequently. But tornadoes do in (27)____ sometimes hit cities, says Gary Conte, a
warning coordination meteorologist at the Upton, New York, outpost of the National Weather Service,
citing recent touchdowns in Dallas, Memphis, Miami and four of New York City's five boroughs
(Manhattan has been spared, so far). Skyscrapers and topography don't (28)____ . "Tornadoes form
thousands of feet above building tops," Conte says. "Skyscrapers won't prevent the funnel from coming
down, but they might (29)____ its shape so that it doesn't look as nice and neat as it does on a flat
surface like the plains. That doesn't make it any (30)____ of a tornado, though."
(Source: Popsci)
B.II.2. OPEN CLOZE 2
When I was a child, it was fairly unusual to go on a foreign holiday. The prices of international
flights were exorbitant (31) _____ to those offered by today’s budget airlines. Package holiday to tropical
resorts were pretty much unheard-of. Instead my parents would (32) ____ our aged car with the necessary
belongings, and our family holiday would begin with a twelve-hour drive through the night. Our (33)
____ was always the same: exotic Scotland.
Each year, my parents booked a different (34) ____ cottage, usually next to an isolated beach and
invariably with no mod cons (35) ____. The beds were always lumpy and damp. There wouldn’t be even
a washing machine, never mind a TV.
No doubt we were surrounded by spectacular scenery, but this meant (36) ____ to me or my sister.
Plastic buckets and spades were the (37) ____ of all our holiday entertainments. Armed with these and a
towel, we would tear (38) ____ to the beach every morning. We built extravagant sandcastles, we burried
my father alive, we saved the lives of stranded jellyfish, we collected jewels, and we dug to Australia.
Summer holidays lasted at least a year back then.
I pity the kids today with their two-week breaks in the sun. Who wants (39) ____ resorts boasting
restaurants serving authentic (40) ____ cuisine? Who needs artificial lagoons featuring wave machines
and plastic waterfalls? Show me an eight-year-old girl on a Scottish beach with a bucket and spade. I will
show you what real holiday fun is all about.
B.III. ERROR RECOGNITION (10 POINTS)
There are 10 mistakes in the passage. Find and correct them.
INDUSTRY 4.0
by. Nguyễn Đức Anh
86
B.IV. GAP FILLING (20 POINTS)
B.IV.1. GAP FILLING 1 (10 POINTS)
Choose the correct phrase in the box to complete the sentences. Only 10 words will be used.
51. Nobody likes Peter very much because he's so annoying. He's a right __________!
52. Andy is so boring. Did you know that his idea of a perfect day is going to the station to collect train
registration numbers? What a / an __________!
53. I know that you don't like your job very much, but I wish you would stop complaining about it all the
time. Don't be such a / an __________!
54. Imelda loves working here: she's a real __________.
55. Alan is an excellent and intelligent manager who runs the department well and deals effectively with
any problems that come up. Everyone agrees that he's a / an __________.
56. You've been sitting in front of the television for almost four hours. Why don't you turn it off and go
for a walk? You're turning into a / an __________.
57. We were having a wonderful evening until Anne joined us. Why does she have to be so negative about
everything all the time? She's such a / an __________!
58. Don't be such a /an __________! If you concentrated instead of speaking all the time, you would get
more work done.
59. If you want some help, ask Imelda. She's always happy and willing to help out: she's a real ___!
60. I hope Rick comes out with us tonight. He's such good fun, always the __________.
(Extracted from “Check for your Idioms and Phrasal Verbs” by Rawdon Wyatt)
B. IV. 2. PREPOSITION (10 POINTS)
Fill in the blank with no more than ONE preposition/particle.
61. The accusation that we have wasted public money on this project is entirely ________ foundation.
62. The new version of the software is laden _________ useful features.
63. He's well _____ with the boss, these days.
64. Even after all these years, I still hanker ____ a motorbike.
65. Nobody has yet come ____ with any information relating to the girl's death.
66. Britain is having to contend with an ageing population, the implications of which could impinge
______ almost all of us in one way or another.
67. She galloped ______ her speech as if she wanted to finish as soon as possible.
68. The conflict ate ____ ______ their relationship and led to divorce.
69. He was elbowed ______ before he had been intent to resign.
70. She usually dreams her life ____ but actually doesn’t lift a finger to achieve it.
B.V. SENTENCE TRANSFORMATION (10 POINTS)
71. Many children in the world lack of attention and care and under the threat of many serious diseases.
(VICTIM)
→ Many children slip ________________________________________________________.
72. With a view to taking over the position, Jack cleverly talked the boss into resigning. (JOCKEYED)
→ So as ________________________________________________________.
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73. I was allowed to give her a hand on her project. (SERVICE)
→ I was given ______________________________________________________________.
74. After making fun of me, he was in my bad books. (PEEVE)
→ After making a _____________________________________________________________.
75. There are so many stellar applicants for the job that we can't choose between them. (RICHES/AS)
→ It’s truly _____________________________________________________________________.
76. My mom always praise the next door kids’ well-behaviour which is really infuriating. (VIRTUES)
→ That my mom ___________________________________________________________ side.
77. It came as a surprise that the government haven’t lifted any finger to do away with burglary.
(CRACKDOWN)
→ It took _______________________________________________________________________.
78. The party won’t be less enjoyable by a nasty guy like you. (DAMPER)
→ A nasty piece _________________________________________________________________.
79. The movie star’s unacceptable behaviour at the red carpet was a hot issue. (CONDUCT/PALE)
→ It was _________________________________________________________________ potato.
80. Her thought of her higher class than us makes us really infrustrating. (CUT)
→ What extremely ________________________________________________________________.
B.VI. ESSAY WRITING (20 POINTS)
“Can people who are not famous be better role models than people who are famous?”
What extent do you agree or disagree?
Use specific reasons and examples in your essay.
PART C. LISTENING (50 POINTS)
I. Listen to a piece of news about India’s development and fill in the missing information with NO
MORE THAN THREE WORDS. (20 POINTS)
The reporter uses the phrase “(1)________________” to depict the status of India today.
Some domains that show India’s increasing power:
• Economy: multiple (2) ________________ were implemented.
→ considerable GDP rise
→ having the third strongest (3) _________________
• (4) ____________ is another factos.
+ Threefold increase in (5) ___________
+ Intentions to augment (6) ______________
+ Bring among a few (7) ________________
→ the fourth most powerful military
→ Strong geopolitical alliances, exemplified by India’s intervention in the (8)________
• Greater role in the United Nations.
• Large population
• The largest single democratic nation
Some issue that India needs to adress:
• Corruption and bribery
• (9) _______________
• Acute (10) ____________
• Social class division.
(extracted from Master The Art Of NEC by Ambrosia)
II. For questions 11-15, listen to a discussion on the subject of attitudes to work and choose the correct
answer A, B, C, or D which fits best according to what you hear. (From HSGQG 2018). (10 POINTS)
by. Nguyễn Đức Anh
88
11. Lois agrees with John's point that _______.
A. the psychological effects of unemployment can be overstated
B. some people are better equipped to deal with unemployment than others
C. problems arise when unemployment coincides with other traumatic events
D. most people dread the prospect of unemployment
12. Lois agrees with the listener who suggested that _______. .
A. people should prepare for redundancy as they would for retirement
B. voluntary work may be more rewarding than paid work
C. not everybody can expect a high level of job satisfaction
D. work is only one aspect of a fulfilling life
13. What Is John’s attitude towards people who see work as a "means to an end"?
A. He accepts that they have made a valid choice.
B. He feels they may be missing out on something important
C. He doubts their level of commitment to the job.
D. He fears it will lead to difficulties for them later.
14. When asked about so-called "slackers" at work, John points out that _______.
A. their views are unacceptable in a free labour market
B. such an attitude has become increasingly unacceptable
C. people often jump to unfair conclusions about them
D. they accept the notion that work is a necessary evil
15. Lois quotes the psychologist Freud in order to _______.
A. provide a contrast to the ideas of Bertrand Russell
B. question the idea that a desire to work is a natural thing
C. show how intellectual ideas have shifted over time
D. lend weight to John's ideas about increased social mobility
III. For questions 16-20, listen to a news report predicting the winner of the 2018’s World Cup and
match each number (16-20) in A with one corresponding letter (A-I) in B. Write your answers in the
corresponding numbered boxes provided. (10 POINTS)
16. Brazil
A. may gain an advantage due to its high investment capabilities.
17. Pakistan
B. has the most abundant pool of grassroots players.
18. Switzerland
C. is expected to excel at this year’s game after a period of downfall.
19. Russia
D. has the highest funding towards top-notch training and facilities.
20. England
E. increases its chance of winning by playing host this year.
F. is forecasted to win this year’s game with a success rate of nearly 30 percent.
G. shows the least interest in the competition according to a source.
H. stands the highest chance of victory due to home advantage.
I. possibly makes it to the final thanks to an outstanding player.
IV. Listen to the recording and label the diagram of the bike below. Choose five answer from the box
and write the correct answer A-H next to each one. (10 POINTS)
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A. soft material gives extra comfort E. made from old kitchen equipment
B. uses a standard design F. allow riders to change position
C. special shape reduces weight G. exceptionally light
D. relatively narrow H. recycled from old bikes
THE END
BEST OF LUCK
90
BỘ ĐỀ LUYỆN THI CHO HỌC SINH
KHỐI CHUYÊN ANH
ĐỀ LUYỆN TẬP 12
Thời gian làm bài: 150 phút (Không kể thời gian giao đề)
(THEO FORM ĐỀ VÀO 10 CHUYÊN SƯ PHẠM HÀ NỘI)
I. Choose the best answer for each of the following questions. Write your answers (A,B,C, or D) in the
corresponding numbered boxes on the answer sheet.
1. He was rather ____ me. He just said ‘No!’
A. short with B. crude to C. rude with D. tactless to
2. _______ when they learned that the chairman would not be able to join the meeting.
A. When they realized why they were all there in that early time of the day
B. Hardly had the committee learned the reason of the meeting
C. However professional they tried to be seen
D. It wasn’t until they got a phone call about an urgent meeting the next day
3. He agreed to accept the position _______ that he would be given a share of the company’s profit.
A. in the agreement B. on the understanding C. with the purpose D. with the aim
4. Remember not to cough or sneeze at the table. ______, excuse yourself.
A. For necessary B. As necessary C. With all need D. If need be
5. The scientists _____ the festival of Ramadan, but they were too busy with their research in the
laboratory.
A. would have liked to commemorate B. would have loved to have observed
C. would prefer to have obeyed D. would sooner have celebrated
6. Police have warned people to be ______ when strangers call at the door and to ask to see proof of
identity.
A. choosy B. cagey C. wary D. scarey
7. New consumer protection legislation comes into ____ next April.
A. law B. force C. statute D. act
8. The factory is working below ______ because of the shortage of essential materials.
A. range B. scope C. capacity D. denstiy
9. If the work-force respected you, you wouldn't need to ____ your authority so often.
A. assert B. affirm C. maintain D. inflict
10. Jonelle is a(n) ______ of the kind of student we seek: someone who is both academically strong and
actively involved in the community.
A. paradox B. mandate C. catalyst D. exemplar
11. Abdul found his ten-hour shifts at the paper clip factory repetitive and ______.
A. fatuous B. nebulous C. wearisome D. malleable
12. I’m not all that well ____ the ways of the world in economic terms.
A. off with B. up to C. on with D. up on
13. This old jacket of mine is _____.
A. wearing out B. throwing out C. fallen out D. worked out
14. Martin just loves to ______ his teeth into a really challenging crossword.
A. grind B. get C. put D. sink
15. I kept trying to convince him that it was a good idea until I _____, but he’s so stubborn, he just kept
disagreeing with me!
A. was blue in the face B. lent color C. was beet red D. had a yellow streak
II. Choose the word whose underlined part is pronounced differently from that of the others. Write
your answers (A,B,C, or D) in the corresponding numbered boxes on the answer sheet
16. A. scissor B. dessertspoon C. connoisseur D. disposses
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17. A. plush B. glands C. calf D. splinter
18. A. epitome B. eloquence C. perishable D. essence
III. Choose the word whose primary stress is placed differently from that of the others. Write your
answers (A,B,C, or D) in the corresponding numbered boxes on the answer sheet.
19. A. world-famous B. peace-loving C. well-founded D. best-seller
20. A. honorable B. intimacy C. participate D. interviewer
IV. Read the text below and decide which answer best fits each gap. Write your answers (A,B,C, or D)
in the corresponding numbered boxes on the answer sheet. There is an example at the beginning (0).
BACK TO NATURE
While I was walking through my neighborhood park recently, I was (0)___B. pleasantly____ surprised to
find that I was not alone in my desire to get out and see nature at its finest. The autumn season and its
accompanying (21) _____ of leaves had brought us city-dwellers out in (22) _____.
With wisdom of (23) _____, I realize I really shouldn't have been as surprised as I was because nature has
a way of attracting crowds. Even travel agents have (24) _____ and each year sees more and more 'eco-
holidays' on (25) _____ for those wishing to 'reunite' themselves with the great outdoors. It is fact, too,
that the world's zoos and aquariums attract more people annually than all professional events (26) _____.
According to Edward O. Wilson, a Harvard ecologist, humans have an (27) _____ love of nature and an
actual need to (28) _____ themselves in it. Children are the greatest examples of what Wilson has termed
'biophilia' or love of life. Point out a butterfly or an anthill to almost any child and watch their eyes (29)
_____ up with interest and curiosity. Or, for that matter, just watch grown-ups as they stroll through the
park on a lovely autumn day. Their relaxed expressions are enough to show that they are truly
appreciative of their (30) _____, but beneficial, contact with nature.
(0) A. utterly B. pleasantly C. constantly D. congenially
21. A. throwing B. letting C. dropping D. shreddings
22. A. flocks B. schools C. mobs D. droves
23. A. retrospect B. review C. hindsight D. recollection
24. A. worked out B. caught on C. noted D. understood
25. A. show B. display C. sale D. offer
26. A. combined B. mixed C. added D. totaled
27. A. inner B. inherited C. innate D. deep-seated
28. A. drown B. boggle C. plunge D. huddle
29. A. glow B. light C. gleam D. shine
30. A. swift B. little C. tiny D. puny
V. Read the following passage and choose the best answer (A,B,C, or D) to the questions that follow.
Write your answers (A,B,C, or D) in the corresponding numbered boxes on the answer sheet.
YOU ARE WHAT YOU SPEAK
Does the language you speak influence the way you think? Does it help define your world view?
Anyone who has tried to master a foreign tongue has at least considered the possibility. As have those
who have ever had a close foreign friend.
At first glance, the idea that language influences thought seems perfectly plausible. [A] Conveying
even simple messages requires that you make completely different observations depending on your
language. Imagine being asked to count some pens on a table. [B] Let’s say there are eleven. [C] But a
Russian also has to consider what gender the pens are (neuter) and then use the neuter form of the word
for eleven. [D] And a Japanese speaker has to take into account their shape (long and cylindrical) as well,
and use the word for eleven designated for items of that form.
92
On the other hand, surely pens are just pens, no matter what your language compels you to specify
about them. Little linguistic peculiarities, though amusing, don't change the objective world we are
describing. So how can they alter the way we think?
Scientists and philosophers have been grappling with this thorny question for centuries. There
have always been those who argue that our picture of the universe depends on our native tongue. Since the
1960s, however, with the ascent of thinkers like Noam Chomsky and a host of cognitive scientists, the
consensus has been that linguistic differences don't really matter, that language is a universal human trait
and that our ability to talk to one another owes more to our shared genetics than to our varying cultures.
But now the pendulum is beginning to swing the other way as psychologists re-examine the question.
The new generation of scientists is not convinced that language is innate and hard-wired into our brain.
“Language is not just notation.” says Dan Slobin of the University of California. “The brain is shaped by
experience." Slobin and others say that small, even apparently insignificant differences between languages
do effect the way speakers perceive the world. “Some people argue that language just changes what you
attend to,” says Lera Boroditsky of the Massachusetts Institute of Technology. “But what you attend to
changes what you encode and remember.”
This is what Slobin calls ‘thinking for speaking' and he argues that it can have a huge impact on
what we deem important. For instance, about a third of the world's languages describe location in
'absolute' terms: speakers of many Pacific Island languages would say 'north of the tree' or ‘seaward from
the tree' rather than ‘beside the tree', as we might in English. In these languages, you always need to know
where you are in relation to fixed external reference points, says Slobin. “Even when you are in a dark
windowless room, or travelling on a bus in the dark.” he says, "you must know your location relative to
the fixed points in order to talk about events and locations.” So, even if you didn’t use the word 'north' in
conversation, you would always know where it was.
Whether your language emphasises an object's shape, substance or function also seems to effect
your relationship with the world, according to John Lucy, a researcher at the Max Planck Institute for
Psycholinguistics. He has compared American English with Yucatec Maya, spoken in Mexico’s Yucatan
Peninsula. Among the many differences between the two languages is the way objects are classified. In
English, shape is implicit in many nouns. We think in terms of discrete objects; and it is only when we
want to quantify amorphous things like sugar that we employ units such as ’cube’ or 'cup'. But in
Yucatec, objects tend to be defined by separate words that describe shape. So, for example, a 'short flat
leather’ is a wallet. Likewise, 'long banana' describes the fruit, while 'flat banana' means banana leaf and a
'seated banana' is a banana tree.
Boroditsky also argues that even artificial classification systems, such as gender, can be important.
The word ‘sun’ is neuter in Russian, feminine in German and masculine in Spanish. Some psychologists
claim that these inconsistencies suggest gender is just a meaningless tag, but Boroditsky disagrees. “To
construct sentences in these languages,” she says. “involves thinking about gender - even if it’s arbitrary -
thousands of times every day.”
To test how this affects the way people think, she presented Spanish and German-Speaking
volunteers with nouns that happened to have opposite genders in their native tongues. 'Key', for instance,
is feminine in Spanish and masculine in German and 'bridge' is masculine in Spanish and feminine in
German. Boroditsky asked the volunteers to come up with adjectives - in English - to describe these items.
German speakers described keys as ‘awkward’, 'worn', ‘jagged’ and ‘serrated’, while Spanish speakers
saw them as 'little’, 'lovely', 'magic' and 'intricate'. To Germans, bridges were 'awesome', 'fragile',
‘beautiful’ and 'elegant’, whereas Spanish speakers considered them 'big', 'solid', ‘dangerous’, 'strong' and
‘sturdy’.
31. A positive answer to the questions in the first paragraph would most probably be given by _______.
A. a student at an advanced stage of foreign language learning
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B. a person who has worked abroad but has not learned a second language
C. a person who has been involved in an intimate relationship with a foreigner
D. a foreigner who has many close friends
32. Which of the following square brackets [A], [B], [C], or [D] best indicates where in the paragraph the
sentence “As an English speaker, you only have to count them and give the number.”can be inserted?
A. [A] B. [B] C. [C] D. [D]
33. Which of the following sentences best expresses the meaning of the sentence in bold in paragraph 3?
A. Objective as it may seem, the world we are depicting is almost susceptible to intriguing linguistic
subtleties.
B. No matter how intriguing they are, minor peculiar linguistic features have no impacts on the objective
world depicted.
C. The objective world being described is too amusing to be altered by any peculiar linguistic features.
D. However amusing it is, the world being depicted is not subject to any impacts of little linguistic
peculiarities.
34. The question in paragraph 4 is described as thorny because _______.
A. nobody knows the answer B. the answer varies according to the language analysed
C. it is difficult to answer D. it has only recently been considered important
35. What is the purpose of the reference to the pendulum? (paragraph 4)
A. to show that genetic differences among races are insignificant
B. to suggest that Chomsky’s theory is no longer accepted as correct
C. to suggest that human speech patterns are hereditary
D. to state that cultural differences account for linguistic differences
36. According to Lera Boroditsky, what a person pays closest attention to reflects their_______.
A. linguistic prowess B. thought processes
C. powers of observation D. intellectual abilities
37. In a typical Pacific Island language _______.
A. orientation is vitally important B. recognition of every type of vegetation is essential
C. descriptions of journeys are relatively brief D. north is always the point of reference
38. According to John Lucy, English speakers think of objects as_______.
A. needing units of measurement B. not having a dear shape
C. separate and distinct D. masculine or feminine
39. An amorphous object in paragraph 7 is one which has _______.
A. an indefinite shape B. an indistinct smell
C. a strong flavor D. a dense texture
40. The presence of gender in a language _______.
A. leads to confusion for native English speakers
B. determines the way complex sentences are constructed
C. determines the order in which adjectives appear
D. affects the way objects are perceived
VI. You are going to read four different reviews from 4 different posts about the movie “The
Graduate”. For questions 41–50, choose from the reviews A – D. Choices may be chosen more than
once.
Which review
41. uses more than one contradiction to make its point?
42. neglects to identify the powerful role played by music in this film?
43. is critical of the rhythm of the film?
44. suggests the film contains elements which are hard to believe?
94
45. feels an actors contribution was not appreciated as much as it should have been?
46. makes the point that the story on which the film was based is distasteful?
47. offers the suggestion that this film has become a cinematical reference?
48. looks at the film from different points in time?
49. offers a fleeting glimpse into the unfair way male and female behaviour is judged in society?
50. seems unnecessarily preoccupied by the timing of various elements of the film?
“THE GRADUATE”
(A) [THE NEW YORK TIMES]
The Graduate, the pungent story of the sudden confusions and dismays of a bland young man fresh out of
college who is plunged headlong into the intellectual vacuum of his affluent parents' circle of friends, it
fashions a scarifying picture of the raw vulgarity of the swimming-pool rich, and it does so with a lively
and exciting expressiveness through vivid cinema. Further, it offers an image of silver-spooned,
bewildered youth, standing expectantly out with misgiving where the brook and the swimming-pool meet,
that is developed so wistfully and winningly by Dustin Hoffman, an amazing new young star, that it
makes you feel a little tearful and choked-up while it is making you laugh yourself raw. That's all. And yet
in pursuing this simple story line, which has been adorned with delicious incidents and crackling dialogue
in the screenplay by Calder Willingham and Buck Henry, based on a novel by Charles Webb, the still
exploring Mr. Nichols has done such sly and surprising things with his actors and with his came, or,
rather, Robert Surtees's camera, that the overall picture has the quality of a very extensive and revealing
social scan. Funny, outrageous, and touching, The Graduate is a sophisticated film that puts Mr. Nichols
and his associates on a level with any of the best satirists working abroad today.
(B) [THE GUARDIAN]
If ever a movie captured the audience's imagination with its musical soundtrack, it was The Graduate,
that irresistibly watchable 1967 classic. Simon and Garfunkel's eerie and sublime The Sound of Silence
perfectly captures both Ben's alienation and bewilderment about what he should do with his life, and then
his postcoital disenchantment and self-loathing. The Graduate itself does not seem the same in 2017 as it
did in 1967. Then the emphasis was on sophisticated black comedy with a hint of 60s radicalism and
student discontent, mediated through the older generation of suburbanites. Watched in the present day, the
element of predatory abuse is inescapable. You cannot see it without wondering how it might look and
feel if the sexual roles were reversed. But a modern audience might also, paradoxically, be much less
content with the villainous role the film finally assigns to Mrs Robinson, be more sympathetic to her
midlife crisis, and remember the pathos of her abandoned interest in art. Calder Willingham and Buck
Henry's screenplay, adapted from Charles Webb's 1963 novel, cleverly allows you to wonder if Mr
Robinson was, in some conscious or subconscious way, complaisant in his wife's adventure. The
excellence of Katherine Ross as Mrs Robinson's daughter, Elaine, is often overlooked. A hugely
pleasurable film.
(C) [THE TELEGRAPH]
The Graduate, starring Dustin Hoffman and Anne Bancroft and directed by Mike Nichols, is actually a
very nasty film, and a very, very funny one. As the benchmark for every inter-generational relationship
film since, it tends to live in the male public imagination largely as a reference point for cheeky forbidden
fantasies regarding older women the world over. It takes about three minutes, roughly the length of time it
takes Hoffman to get down the moving walkway to Simon and Garfunkel's Sound of Silence and from the
airport to the suffocating atmosphere of his graduation party, where he gets gradually trapped into a
relationship with one of his parents' friends, to realise that The Graduate is actually a very nasty film, and
a very, very funny one. Directorially, it is as cutting-edge late-Sixties as you can get, all fish-bowl
juxtapositions, dappled light and pensive close-ups. But the world we're in here is essentially a Fifties
THE PRACTICE BOOKLET FOR ENGLISH-MAJOR (VER A)
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hangover, a staid, suburban one still ruled over by The Old Folk, a place where the reason you get
together with a seductively smoking alcoholic in her forties is not so much because you find her attractive
but because she's the only person in the vicinity as bored as you. The result is an exercise in
claustrophobia that makes Panic Room look like a western by comparison. By the end, it doesn't matter
that the lesson he's learned is the one that the old folks were telling him in the first place, that he should
find a nice girl his own age. The feeling of freedom is immense.
(D) [VARIETY]
The Graduate is a delightful, satirical comedy-drama about a young man's seduction by an older woman,
and the measure of maturity which he attains from the experience. An excellent screenplay by Calder
Willingham and comedy specialist Buck Henry, based on the Charles Webb novel, focuses on Hoffman,
just out of college and wondering what it's all about. Predatory Miss Bancroft, wife of Murray Hamilton,
introduces Hoffman to mechanical sex, reaction to which evolves into true love with Miss Ross, Miss
Bancroft's daughter. In the 70 minutes which elapse from Hoffman's arrival home from school to the
realization by Miss Ross that he has had an affair with her mother, pic is loaded with hilarious comedy
and, because of this, the intended commentary on materialistic society is most effective. Only in
retrospect does one realize a basic, but not overly damaging, flaw that Hoffman's achievements in school
are not credible in light of his basic shyness. No matter, or not much, anyway. Only in the final 35
minutes, as Hoffman drives up and down the LA-Frisco route in pursuit of Miss Ross, does the film falter
in pacing, result of which the switched-on cinematics become obvious, and therefore tiring, although the
experience is made tolerable by the excellent music of Simon and Garfunkle.
VII. Supply the correct form of the words given in brackets. . Write your answers in the corresponding
numbered boxes on the answer sheet. There is an example at the beginning (0).
A MUSLIM HERO
In Algiers Barbarossa took over as the (0) __leader__ (LEAD). In the face of (51)____ (NEW)
Spanish pressure Barbarossa showed his political cunning and sought help from Sleyman the
Magnificent, the Islamic sultan of the vast Ottoman Empire centered in Constantinople (present-day
Istanbul, Turkey). Sleyman sent him 2,000 janissaries, the elite of the Ottoman army. In exchange,
Algiers became a new Ottoman sanjak, or district, which allowed Barbarossa to carry on his (52)____
(PIRATE) while conquering additional strongholds. Nevertheless, the main threat remained right on his
doorstep: the Spanish still occupied the Peón of Algiers. In 1529 he (53)____ (BOMB) the garrison into
surrender before beating its commander to death.
Barbarossa’s (54)____ (FAMOUS) spread throughout the Muslim world. Experienced corsairs,
such as Sinan the Jew and Ali Caraman, came to Algiers, drawn by the prospects of making their fortunes.
But Barbarossa fought for (55)____ (POLICY) as well. When Charles V’s great Genovese (56)____
(ADMIRATION) Andrea Doria captured ports in Ottoman Greece, Sleyman (57)____ (SUM)
Barbarossa, who quickly answered the call. To impress the sultan, he loaded his ships with luxurious gifts:
tigers, lions, camels, silk, cloth of gold, silver, and gold cups, and 200 (58)____ (SLAVERY) women for
the harem in Istanbul. Sleyman was delighted and made Barbarossa admiral in (59)____ (MISCHIEF)
of the Ottoman fleet. (Explore the pages of a pirate's pilfered atlas.) Barbarossa now commanded over a
hundred galleys and galliots, or half galleys, and started a strong (60)____ (NAVY) campaign all around
the Mediterranean.
(Source: National Geographic)
VIII. Read the text below and think of ONE word which best fits each gap. Write your answers in the
corresponding numbered boxes on the answer sheet.
Face-to-face conversation is a (61)_______ process: You speak to me, I reply to you and so on. Two-way
(62)_______ depends on having a coding system that is understood by both (63)_______ and receiver,
and an agreed convention about signaling the beginning and end of the (64)_______. In speech, the
96
coding system is the language like English or Spanish; the convention that one person speaks at a time
may seem too obvious to (65)_______. In fact, the signals that people use in conversation and meetings
are often non-verbal. For example, lowering the pitch of the (66)______ may mean the end of a sentence,
a sharp intake of breath (67)_______ signal the desire to interrupt, catching the chairman’s (68)_______
may indicate the desire to speak in a formal (69)_______ like a debate, a clenched fist may indicate anger.
When these (70)_______ signals are not possible, more formal signals may be needed.
IX. There are 10 mistakes in the passage. Find and provide correction on your answer sheet. (71-80)
1
5
10
15
Unlike many other species of turtle, the red-ear terrapin is not rare. In fact, four to five
million hatchings are exported annually from American farms. About 200,000 are sold in the
United Kingdom.
It is ranked that as many as 90 per cent of the young terrapins die in their first year because
of the poor conditions in which they are kept. Those which survive may live for 20 years and
arrive the size of a dinner plate. At this staging they require a large tank with heat and specialized
lightning.
Terrapins carry salmonella bacteria which can poison people. This is why the sale of
terrapins was banished in the United States in 1975. They are still, however, exported to the
United Kingdom.
Modern turtles come from a very antique group of animals that lived over 200 million
years ago. At this time dinosaurs were just beginning to establish them.
Different types of turtles have interesting features: some box turtles are known to have
lived for over 100 years, since other species of turtles can remain underwater for more than 24
hours. And the green turtle is the most prolific of all reptiles, lying as many as 28,000 eggs each
year.
If unwanted pet turtles are unleased into the wild, many will die and those which survive
will threaten the lives of native plants and animal.
X. Complete the second sentence, using the word given so that it has a similar meaning to the sentence
printed before it. Write between THREE and EIGHT words, including the word given in brackets, in
the space provided on the answer sheet. Do not change the word given in brackets in any way. Write
your answers in the corresponding numbered boxes on the answer sheet.
81. They tried to pull the door instead of pushing it. (IN)
They tried to ______________________________________________________it.
82. It’s unlikely that he will appear on time. (TURN)
There’s ______________________________________________________ on time.
83. Her special ability is fast thinking which is the main factor to her success. (OF)
She is ______________________________________________________ her feet.
84. It’s not difficult to be well-trained in organizing your timetable. (OFF)
You can ___________________________________________ with no difficulties.
85. The team trained hard so as to make it through the final round. (ADVANCING)
The team trained hard with ___________________________________________ .
XI. Finish each of the following sentences in such a way that is exactly the same as the sentence
printed before it. Write your answers in the corresponding numbered boxes on the answer sheet.
86. Because of her carelessness, she failed miserably in the final exam.
Now ___________________________________________.
87. It has been rumored that you would get married soon.
I have heard ___________________________________________.
88. Her singing career has stopped forever since the scandal.
It was ___________________________________________________________ standstill.
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89. Because of my lacking concentration on studying, I had failed.
If I had applied ____________________________________________________.
90. The boy exaggerated himself on wearing luxurious clothes.
The boy was vain _____________________________________________ .
XII. “Are non-famous figures real inspiration for children’s development?”
Write a paragraph of at least 140 words discussing about the statement.
THE END
BEST OF LUCK
BỘ ĐỀ LUYỆN THI CHO HỌC SINH
KHỐI CHUYÊN ANH
ĐỀ LUYỆN TẬP 13
Thời gian làm bài: 150 phút (Không kể thời gian giao đề)
(THEO FORM ĐỀ VÀO 10 CHUYÊN NGOẠI NGỮ HÀ NỘI)
PHẦN 1: CÁCH PHÁT ÂM CỦA ÂM VỊ TRONG TỪ
Chọn 01 trong 04 lựa chọn có phần gạch chân có cách phát âm khác với những lựa chọn còn lại
1.
A. PRELIMINARY
B. PREFERABLE
C. DERIVATION
D. PREPARATION
2.
A. DROUGHT
B. DAUGHTER
C. LAUGHTER
D. CAUGHT
3.
A. CABOODLE
B. ABSOLVE
C. DAMASK
D. MACAW
4.
A. PIZZA
B. LIZARD
C. PUZZLE
D. MUZZLE
5.
A. PLATTER
B. PLATOON
C. PLASMA
D. PLANET
PHẦN 2: TRỌNG ÂM
Chọn 01 từ trong 04 từ đã cho có cấu trúc trọng âm khác với các từ còn lại.
6.
A. GRANDILOQUENT
B. SERENDIPITY
C. SURREPTITIOUS
D. VIRTUOSO
7.
A. EUPHEMISM
B. OFFICIALDOM
C. ARITHMETIC
D. MILLENNIUM
8.
A. ANTIQUITY
B. ANTICIPATE
C. ANTIPATHY
D. ANTIQUATED
9.
A. ANALYSIS
B. ANTITHESIS
C. DIAGNOSIS
D. PARENTHESIS
10.
A. CONSCIENTIOUS
B. FRANCOPHONE
C. UNRECOVERABLE
D. OCEANIC
PHẦN 3: TỪ HOẶC CỤM TỪ ĐỒNG NGHĨA
Chọn 01 từ/cụm từ trong 04 lựa chọn có nghĩa gần nhất với từ/cụm từ được gạch chân trong câu
hỏi.
11. He was truculent and difficult to deal with.
A. pugnacious
B. ecstatic
C. exultant
D. blithe
12. The fighting which started in the night had petered out by morning.
A. lingered
B. continued
C. paused
D. duplicated
13. The best thing about the location of the house is its proximity to the town centre.
A. convenience
B. propinquity
C. accessibility
D. protraction
PHẦN 4: TỪ HOẶC CỤM TỪ TRÁI NGHĨA
Chọn 01 từ/cụm từ trong 04 lựa chọn trái nghĩa với từ hoặc cụm từ được gạch chân trong câu
hỏi.
14. Where I work, suits are de rigueur for all employees.
A. optional
B. voluntary
C. purposeful
D. meaningless
15. Today's newspaper contains a searing exposé of police corruption.
A. happy
B. melancholic
C. angry
D. crictical
16. Oh, don't mention that fight they had months ago—let sleeping dogs lie!
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A. to leave a situation alone so as to avoid
worsening it.
B. to undertake or agree to perform a risky,
dangerous, or impossible job or task.
C. to appear smug or overly pleased with
oneself to others, especially over something
one has done, received, or accomplished.
D. to toss, throw, or heave something out and
away from oneself.
PHẦN 5: TÌM LỖI SAI
Chọn 01 trong 04 từ/cụm từ được gạch chân có chứa lỗi sai ở mỗi câu hỏi.
17. The San Andreas Fault in California is just one section to an active circle of earthquake zones and
volcanoes known as the "Ring of Fire" that surrounds the Pacific Ocean.
A. just
B. to
C. known as
D. surrounds
18. However, marriages of members of different groups (interclass, interfaith, and interracial
marriages) are increasing , probably because of the greater mobile of today’s youth and the fact that
they are restricted by fewer prejudices as their parents.
A. groups
B. interclass
C. mobile
D. prejudices
19. Sales was non-existent, I was overdrawn at the bank, I’d come up huge debts and the man who
sold me the shop was threatening to sue me because I hadn’t paid him.
A. non-existent
B. overdrawn
C. at
D. come
20. The big majority of students who make well in the Cambridge Proficiency Examination have
learnt to use a good monolingual dictionary effectively.
A. big
B. make
C. learnt
D. monolingual
21. This is not an useless threat! Call the police right away!
A. useless
B. Call
C. right
D. away
22. I turned away on revulsion when they showed a close-up of the operation.
A. away
B. on
C. revulsion
D. of
PHẦN 6: HOÀN THÀNH CÂU
Chọn 01 lựa chọn đúng trong 04 lựa chọn cho sẵn để điền vào chỗ trống trong mỗi câu hỏi.
23. What’s all this crying __________?
A. without the aid of
B. with the aid of
C. in aid of
D. within the aid of
24. You could have done ______ inviting Sam to the party.
A. better or worse than
B. a lot worse than
C. much better as
D. nothing as worse as
25. A neuron cell cannot only receive messages from sense organs, but it can also ____ .
A. to transmit messages throughout the body.
B. by transmitting messages throughout the body.
C. transmit messages throughout the body.
D. a transmitter of messages throughout the body.
26. Although we now believe this to be impossible, early scientists tried to produce ____ motion
machines, that is, machines which would never stop.
A. perpetual
B. everlasting
C. undying
D. forever
27. Veronica is so __ that, in such a large class, I expect you’ve barely had time to notice her.
A. self-critical
B. self-absorbed
C. self-effacing
D. egotistical
28. Van Gogh suffered from depression _____ by overwork and ill-health.
A. brought on
B. coming about
C. taken up
D. put through
29. This area is absolutely ______ for more investment.
A. cutting back
B. better off
C. breaking down
D. crying out
30. I slept badly last night and am feeling particularly ______ this morning.
A. far-reaching
B. slow-witted
C. top-heavy
D. off-hand
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31. After living together for six years, Janet and Matt have finally decided to _____.
A. feel the pinch
B. pull a few strings
C. tie the knot
D. be up and about
32. The party was already _____ by the time we arrived. Everyone was singing and dancing.
A. in full swing
B. up in the air
C. over the moon
D. under a cloud
PHẦN 7: ĐIỀN TỪ
Chọn 01 lựa chọn đúng trong 04 lựa chọn cho sẵn để điền vào chỗ trống trong đoạn văn.
The classical composer Ernst Hoffsberger, who passed away earlier this week, truly (33)______
the world of contemporary classical music and was a great source of inspiration to a whole generation
of (34)______ young artists in various fields. In many ways his three symphonies completely
(35)______ the achievements of all other composers of the late twentieth century and by fusing the
classical genre with jazz, rock and latterly hip-hop, his work at times bore little (36)______ to what is
commonly considered to be a classical sound.
Born in California just after the Second World War, Hoffsberger had a strict religious
(37)______ during which he was taught classical piano by his father. He first found work as a(n)
(38)______ journalist, playing and composing music in his free time. During the late sixties, he worked
together in collaboration with a number of other amateur musicians before finally (39)______
professional with the first public performance of his inspirational Tenor Sax Concerto in 1971.
From then on, throughout the seventies and eighties, each new work seemed to (40)______ the
limits of the orchestral medium and also helped to bring classical music to a wider audience. What
many people consider Hoffsberger's defining quality that kept his music fresh and original was that he
never lost the human touch which gave him the ability to sitdown and jam with musicians and artists
from all walks of life.
33. A. revolutionised B. restored C. renovated D. refurbished
34. A. branching B. budding C. blooming D. bursting
35. A. overcame B. overshadowed C. overturned D. overwhelmed
36. A. similarity B. familiarity C. resemblance D. identification
37. A. family B. background C. childhood D. upbringing
38. A. non-contract B. off-the-books C. freelance D. odd-job
39. A. taking B. getting C. making D. turning
40. A. overpass B. bypass C. surpass D. encompass
PHẦN 8: BÀI ĐỌC 1
Đọc đoạn văn và trả lời 8 câu hỏi kèm theo.
The response of most animals when suddenly faced with predator is to flee. Natural selection
has acted in a variety of ways in different species to enhance the efficacy of the behaviors, known as
“flight behaviors” or escape behaviors that are used by prey in fleeing predators. Perhaps the most
direct adaptation is enhanced flight speed and agility.
Adaptations for speed, however, are likely to require sacrifices biter attributes, so we might
expect only some species to adopt a simple fast flight strategy. Another way of enhancing the
effectiveness of flight is to move in an erratic and unpredictable way. Many species, like ptarmigans,
snipes, and various antelopes and gazelles, flee from predators in a characteristic zigzag fashion. Rapid
unexpected changes in flight direction make it difficult for a predator to track prey. In some species,
like the European hare, erratic zigzag flight might be more effective in the presence of predators that
are faster than they are and straight flight more effective against predators that are slower. One
observation that supports this suggestion is the recorded tendency for slow-flying black-headed show
frequent changes in flight direction when they spot a peregrine falcon (peregrines are adept at capturing
flying birds).
100
A quite different way of enhancing escape by flight is to use so-called “flash” behavior. Here,
the alarmed prey flees for a short distance and then “freezes.” Some predators are unexcited by
immobile prey, and a startling flash of activity followed by immobility may confuse them. “Flash”
behavior is used in particularby frogs and orthopteran insects which make conspicuous jumps and then
sit immobile. In some species, “flash” behavior is enhanced by the display of bright body markings.
Good examples of insects with the colorful markings are the red and yellow under-wing moths. At rest,
both species are a cryptic brown color. When they fly, however, brightly colored hind wings are
exposed, which render the moths highly conspicuous. Similarly, some frogs and lizards have brightly
colored patches or frills that may serve a “flash” function when they move quickly. Some species even
appear to possess “flash” sounds. The loud buzzing and clicking noises made by some grasshoppers
when they jump may serve to emphasize the movement.
41. The word “enhance” is closest in meaning to _______.
A. encourage
B. resist
C. increase
D. reveal
42. The description of the prey’s movement as “zigzag” suggests that the movement is _____.
A. reliable
B. fast
C. constant
D. unpredictable
43. It can be inferred from the passage that the European hare _____.
A. is faster than most of its predators
B. is capable of two kinds of flight
C. is more likely to escape using straight flight
D. is preyed upon by gulls and falcons.
44. It can be inferred that black-beaded gulls change direction when they spot a peregrine falcon for
which of the following reasons?
A. The falcons are faster than the gulls.
B. The gulls want to capture the falcons.
C. The falcons are unpredictable.
D. The gulls depend on the falcons for
protection.
45. The word “alarmed” is closest in meaning to ______.
A. moving
B. selected
C. frightened
D. exhausted
46. All of the following are mentioned as characteristics of “flash” behavior EXCEPT _____.
A. brief conspicuous
activity
B. immobility
C. bright body
markings
D. aggressive fighting
47. The hind wings of red and yellow under-wing moths function in a way that is most similar to
___.
A. the hind wings of peregrine falcons.
B. The zigzag flight of European hares.
C. The colored patches on frogs.
D. The clicking of grasshoppers.
48. Why does the author mention “grasshopper” in the last line?
A. To contrast animals that “flash” with animals that “freeze”
B. As an example of an animal whose “flash” behavior is a sound
C. To compare the jumping behavior of insects and reptiles
D. As an example of a predator that moths escape by using “flash” behavior.
PHẦN 9: BÀI ĐỌC 2
Đọc đoạn văn và trả lời 8 câu hỏi kèm theo.
Until recently, hunting for treasure from shipwrecks was mostly fantasy; with recent
technological advances, however, the search for sunken treasure has become more popular as a
legitimate endeavor. This has caused a debate between those wanting to salvage the wrecks and those
wanting to preserve them.
Treasure hunters are spurred on by the thought of finding caches of gold coins or other valuable
objects on a sunken ship. One team of salvagers, for instance, searched the wreck of the RMS
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Republic, which sank outside the Boston harbor in 1900. The search party, using side-scan sonar, a
device that projects sound waves across the ocean bottom and produces a profile of the sea floor,
located the wreck in just two and a half days. Before the use of this new technology, such searches
could take months or years. The team of divers searched the wreck for two months, finding silver tea
services, crystal dinnerware, and thousands of bottles of wine, but they did not find the five and a half
tons of American Gold Eagle coins they were searching for.
Preservationists focus on the historic value of a ship. They say that even if a shipwreck's treasure
does not have a high monetary value, it can be an invaluable source of historic artifacts that are
preserved in nearly mint condition. But once a salvage team has scoured a site, much of the
archaeological value is lost. Maritime archaeologists who are preservationists worry that the success of
salvagers will attract more treasure-hunting expeditions and thus threaten remaining undiscovered
wrecks. Preservationists are lobbying their state lawmakers to legally restrict underwater searches and
unregulated salvages. To counter their efforts, treasure hunters argue that without the lure of gold and
million-dollar treasures, the wrecks and their historical artifacts would never be recovered at all.
49. What is the main idea of this passage?
A. Searching for wrecks is much easier with new technologies like side-scan sonar.
B. Maritime archaeologists are concerned about the unregulated searching of wrecks.
C. The search of the RMS Republic failed to produce the hoped-for coins.
D. The popularity of treasure seeking has spurred a debate between preservationists and
salvagers.
50. The word "sunken" is closest in meaning to which of the following words?
A. broken
B. underwater
C. ancient
D. hollow
51. Which of the following could best replace the phrase "a profile" as used in the passage?
A. a projection
B. an execution
C. a highlight
D. an outline
52. Which of the following statements is best supported by the author?
A. The value of a shipwreck depends on the quantity of its artifacts.
B. Preservationists are fighting the use of technological advances such as side-scan sonar.
C. The use of sound waves is crucial to locating shipwrecks.
D. Side-scan sonar has helped to legitimize salvaging.
53. The author uses the phrase "mint condition" in to describe ____.
A. something perfect
B. something
significant
C. something tolerant
D. something magical
54. All of the following were found on the RMS Republic EXCEPT ____.
A. American Gold Eagle
coins
B. silver tea
services
C. wine bottles
D. crystal dinnerware
55. From the passage, you can infer that a preservationist would be most likely to ____.
A. shun treasure-seeking salvagers
B. be a diver
C. put treasures in a museum
D. do archaeological research
56. The word "scoured" is most similar to which of the following?
A. scraped away
B. scratched over
C. scrambled around
D. searched through
PHẦN 10: HOÀN THÀNH HỘI THOẠI
Chọn 01 lựa chọn đúng ở mỗi câu hỏi để điền vào chỗ trống.
57. – Barcelona defeated Real Madrid by 6 goals to two. – _____.
A. That’s incredible
B. I’ll think about it later
C. Let’s do it together
D. Thanks all the same.
102
58. – Why don’t you join us on the sightseeing tour? – _____.
A. I’m afraid so
B. Don’t mention it
C. Please do it for me
D. Another time, please
59. Son: “This herb smells horrible!”
Mom: “Be that as it may, it will do you a ________ of good” .
A. power
B. wealth
C. strike
D. visit
60. – Why are you jealous of him? – Because _____.
A. he’s green with envy about my teacher
B. he’s the apple of my teacher’s eye
C. he’s feelings for my teacher
D. he’s always mooning over my teacher
61. – How do you think about Dylan these days?
– We are aware that he has tried his best; ________, his work is just not good enough.
A. let alone
B. albeit
C. be that as it may
D. come what may
PHẦN 11: SẮP XẾP
Chọn 01 lựa chọn là trật tự đúng của các lượt lời trong hội thoại/câu văn để thành một đoạn văn
hoàn chỉnh đã cho
62. 1. Our director's speech was very interesting.
2. He said that our younger generation had to study hard.
3. He spoke about the most important tasks of our school.
4. Last week we held a meeting at our school.
5. Our meeting was addressed by our director and some of the teachers.
A. 5,1,2,4,3
B. 4,5,1,3,2
C. 4,5,3,2,1
D. 1,4,2,3,5
63. 1. Unfortunately not. If it was left up to me, I wouldn’t bother. But my dad says that shoes tell
you a lot about a person so he has me brushing and polishing every other day. It’s such a pain.
2. No, you’re right. In fact, no one in my family does. The most I have to do is get the plates out
of the dishwasher.
3. Lucky you! I wish we had one. And what about cleaning shoes?
4. You have a machine to do that as well, I suppose.
5. Same here. I’m not made to do it that often, but I still dread having to do it.
6. Right, let’s see, jobs and duties. Where shall we begin?
7. Let’s talk about washing up first. Now that’s something I really can’t stand. My mum makes
me do it after every meal at the weekend, and she won’t let me go out with my friends until I’ve
done it. I just think that’s so unfair. I mean, none of my friends have to do it. I bet you don’t
either, do you?
A. 3,7,4,6,1,5,2
B. 4,2,3,7,1,6,5
C. 7,3,6,1,4,2,5
D. 6,7,2,3,4,1,5
64. 1. I suppose it has to be when I entered my first international competition this year. I came first
in the Big Air event and won some money.
2. And what's the achievement that you're most proud of so far?
3. Good co-ordination and balance helps, but you don't have to be born with it. If you practice
for a few days, you'll get it anyway, even if you're not naturally sporty.
4. In today's edition of Sports Showcase we talk to 19- year- old Liz Harris, one of the country's
rising stars in the fast- growing sport of snowboarding. How long have you been into
snowboarding, Liz?
5. Let's hope you can go on winning! Would you say, Liz, that there are any particular qualities
or strengths you need to have to be a snowboarder?
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6. I first did it when I was on holiday with my parents. When I was younger I used to go skiing
every year with them and then one year I tried snowboarding, and I haven't skied since then.
That was five years ago.
A. 4,6,2,1,5,3
B. 3,2,6,1,4,5
C. 4,2,6,5,1,3
D. 1,4,5,2,6,3
65. 1. In winter they decided to make a snow maiden and that they did.
2. Since that day she had become their daughter.
3. They were childless.
4. A miracle happened: the snow maiden breathed once or twice, opened her eyes and smiled to
the old people.
5. There lived an old man and his wife.
A. 3,4,2,5,1
B. 4,5,1,2,8
C. 5,3,1,4,2
D. 3,4,2,5,1
66. 1. Oh, that’s awful.
2. No, I meant the one on your forehead. It’s pretty nasty.
3. Yeah, well, it’s my own stupid fault, really.
4. Which one? The one on my chin?
5. Oh, that! I fell off my bike and hit my head on the road.
6. How did you get that scar, if you don’t mind me asking?
A. 6,4,2,5,1,3
B. 4,2,1,6,5,3
C. 4,1,2,3,5,6
D. 4,6,5,3,1,2
PHẦN 12: VIẾT LẠI CÂU
Chọn câu đồng nghĩa hoặc cận nghĩa nhất với câu đã cho trong câu hỏi.
67. In the aftermath of the tsunami disaster, entire coastal regions of Sri Lanka lay devastated.
A. Whole coastal areas of Sri Lanka were made desolate by the disaster of tsunami.
B. Since tsunami disaster hit Sri Lanka, some of its coastal areas have been unable to recover.
C. The tsunami disaster left all of Sri Lanka, especially its coastal regions, with severe damage.
D. Due to their proximity to the coast, many parts of Sri Lanka were nearly destroyed by the tsunami
disaster.
68. His public announcement of the secret plans was considered a sheer breach of confidence and was
heavily criticized by the other members of the council.
A. Although encountering disapproval from the council, he confidently spilled the beans about the
plans.
B. His disclosure of the confidential plans made the strong criticisms by the other council members
come to a halt.
C. The breaches perpetrated by him were officially announced to the people no matter how hard the
council disapproved.
D. His divulging the plan to the public was seen as traitorous, arousing severe criticisms from
the other councilors.
69. Glenn explained that it was his Ehlers-Danlos syndrome that had caused his shoulder to dislocate
while he was opening a door.
A. Glenn thinks that his shoulder disconnecting while he was opening a door may have been caused by
his Ehlers-Danlos syndrome
B. Ehlers-Danlos syndrome, as it is explained by Glenn, often results in a shoulder’s becoming
disconnected while one is opening the door.
C. That his shoulder’s becoming disconnected as he opened the door was brought about by his Ehlers -
Danlos syndrome is what Glenn stated.
D. It seems that it was Glenn’s Ehlers-Danlos syndrome that can explain how he dislocated his
shoulder while he was opening a door.
104
70. The critics tore into much Picasso’s work, mostly because of a failure to understand that he was
trying to break away from traditions of the Renaissance.
A. Most critics disliked the art of Picasso and tried to separate themselves from anti-Renaissance
movement in case it didn’t success.
B. It is crictical to realize that Picasso wanted to get rid of the Renaissance and its methods because
they were too restricting.
C. Sympathy from the critics was not something Picasso received because he opposed the traditional
ideas of the Renaissance.
D. Picasso, in his attempt to escape the old Renaissance habits through his art, faced strong attacks by
the critics who couldn’t see this.
71. He didn’t love her because of her lack of perseverance.
A. Despite her lack of perseverance, he loved her.
B. By virtue of lacking perseverance, he didn’t love her.
C. He lacked his perseverance to love her.
D. As he lacked perseverance, he loved her.
PHẦN 13: KẾT HỢP CÂU
Chọn câu đồng nghĩa hoặc cận nghĩa nhất với cặp câu đã cho trong câu hỏi.
72. The 2022 FIFA World Cup is an important competition in international football. Almost everyone
around the world is looking forward to it.
A. The 2022 FIFA World Cup is so important a competition in international football that almost
everyone around the world is looking forward to it.
B. The 2022 FIFA World Cup is too important a competition in international football that almost
everyone around the world to look forward to it.
C. So important is the 2022 FIFA World Cup competition in international football that almost everyone
around the world is looking forward to.
D. The 2022 FIFA World Cup is such important competition in international football that almost
everyone around the world is looking forward to it.
73. I don't know what made you think Adam was against our policy. Now, let me clear the air and
convince you that he's our most loyal supporter.
A. You seemingly questioned Adam's policy observance even though he is a man of his words, which I
can make evident.
B. You might be persuaded by somebody that Adam has staunchly backed, which can resolve your
uncertainty about his position.
C. Conscious of Adam's faithfulness, your agonies about his perpetration against the policy could be
shown to be ridiculous by conversing with me.
D. I will prove that he's the most true-blue to get rid of your skepticism about Adam's adherence to the
policy, which I have no idea where it started.
74. Greenpeace has realized the seriousness of environmental pollution. It urges the government
worldwide to take action soon.
A. Having realized the seriousness of environmental pollution, Greenpeace urges the government
worldwide to take action soon.
B. Greenpeace has realized the seriousness of environmental pollution so that it urges the government
worldwide to take action soon.
C. Greenpeace has realized the seriousness of environmental pollution whereas it urges the government
worldwide to take action soon.
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D. Realized the seriousness of environmental pollution, or else Greenpeace urges the government
worldwide to take action soon.
75. She was the first woman in the Philippines. She was elected as the president of the country.
A. She was the first woman who is elected as the president of the Philippines.
B. She was the first woman elected as the president of the Philippines.
C. She was the first woman being elected as the president of the Philippines.
D. She was the first woman to be elected as the president of the Philippines.
76. He is anxious about leaving for home soon. He has had no news of his family for two weeks.
A. Being anxious about leaving for home soon, he has had no news of his family for two
B. He is anxious about leaving for home soon because he has had no news of his family for two years.
C. He is anxious about leaving for home two weeks earlier so that he has some news of his family.
D. He is anxious about leaving for home two weeks earlier so that he has some news of his family.
PHẦN 14: HOÀN THÀNH VĂN BẢN
Chọn 01 cụm từ hoặc câu trong 04 lựa chọn cho sẵn trong mỗi câu hỏi để điền vào chỗ trống
tương ứng trong bài luận đã cho.
RADICAL WAYS TO 'REFREEZE' THE ARCTIC
An iceberg would then form naturally inside, before being ejected a month later. According to
the team behind the project, the hexagonal shape may encourage the icebergs (or "ice babies" as
Kotahatuhaha refers to them) to interlock with one another and form larger frozen masses.
(77)________ The designers are yet to finalize how the vehicle would be powered, though they intend
for the vessel to be fully sustainable. But could the submarines, in theory, work?
Andrew Shepherd, a professor of Earth observation at the UK's Leeds University, described the
idea as an "interesting engineering solution," though he questioned the project's scalability. He
estimated that replacing polar ice at the same rate it has disappeared in the last four decades would
require around 10 million submarines.
"That's a lot of machines," Shepherd said in an email. "For context, that's not far off the total
number of Model-T Fords built in all time."
(78)________
"The Arctic has lost ice from year to year in the last decade," he said on the phone from Jakarta.
"So we tried to solve the problem through a different way of thinking.
"Richer countries have millions to spend on (sea walls and) protection, but what about poor
countries with no budget for (defending against) rising sea levels? This is a problem the world now
faces together. We have a different approach: (79)________”
A possible flaw in the proposal -- and others like it -- is that making ice does not significantly
alter sea levels. If the ice is still floating in the water it formed from, then sea's overall mass doesn't
change. (The icebergs would have to be "moved on to land" if they were to lower sea levels, Shepherd
said).
(80)________. Snow and ice reflect significantly more sunlight than open water does, so bigger, frozen
surfaces mean more radiation is sent back to space.
77. A. But for Kotahatuhaha and his team, big problems require bold innovation.
B. It's an early concept design, and many questions remain.
C. Since 1990, British physicist John Lanham has explored a technique known as marine cloud
brightening, in which particles -- such as the salt in seawater -- are injected into clouds to
increase the amount of sunlight they reflect.
D. Detractors say that plans to refreeze the Arctic address the symptom, not the cause.
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78. A. While he accepts that his iceberg-making submarines are a "utopian project," he wants
experts from different fields to help build radical visions into viable solutions.
B. Indeed, even if proposals did prove feasible, none would combat the carbon consumption
responsible for diminishing sea ice in the first place.
C. As Julienne Stroeve, a professor at University College London and senior scientist at the
National Snow and Ice Data Center, told CNN when the Arizona State University's team first
proposed its wind-powered pump concept:
D. But for Kotahatuhaha, the proposal is not only about feasibility -- it's about finding a
different way to approach climate challenges.
79. A. Rather than defending against sea level rises, we think it's better (to carry out) some kind of
intervention to tackle the problem.
B. Brighter clouds could mean that less sunlight reaching the Earth's surface, thus reducing
summer melting and encouraging the replenishment of ice during the winter.
C. Researchers found that treated ice was thicker and more reflective than untreated ice.
D. Innovation is the first step to opening (our) way of thinking, then technology and research
regarding ... feasibility must be deepened.
80. A. They need collaboration from civil engineers, electrical engineers, economists and others.
B. Elsewhere, the US non-profit group Ice911 has spent the last decade developing a highly
reflective sand-like material that can be scattered on ice to protect it from the sun's rays.
C. But reversing, or at least slowing, the alarming decline of polar sea ice is about more than
rising oceans.
D. Thus, the excess heat at lower latitudes would still be transported towards the Arctic via
atmospheric and oceanic circulation and this would counter efforts to grow ice in the Arctic.
B. PHẦN THI TỰ LUẬN
81. Viết một văn bản khoảng 250 từ về chủ đề sau:
“Both in society and in our own lives, today's problems are serious and require serious solutions.
Increasingly, however, people are taught to laugh at things that aren't usually funny and to cope
with difficult situations by using humor. They are even advised to surround themselves with funny
people. There is strong evidence that laughter can actually improve health and help fight disease.”
(Extract from Marshall Brain, How Laughter Works)
Is humor the best way to approach and solve problems?
THE END
BEST OF LUCK
BỘ ĐỀ LUYỆN THI CHO HỌC SINH
KHỐI CHUYÊN ANH
ĐỀ LUYỆN TẬP 14
Thời gian làm bài: 150 phút (Không kể thời gian giao đề)
A. LISTENING (10 POINTS)
• Bài nghe gồm 2 phần; mỗi phần được nghe 2 lần, mỗi lần cách nhau 05 giây; mở đầu và kết thúc mỗi
phần nghe có tín hiệu.
• Mở đầu và kết thúc bài nghe có tín hiệu nhạc. Thí sinh có 02 phút để hoàn chỉnh bài trước tín hiệu
nhạc
kết thúc bài nghe.
• Mọi hướng dẫn cho thí sinh (bằng tiếng Anh) đã có trong bài nghe.
I. Listen to an extract from CNN about AIDS. For questions from 1-10, fill in the numbered spaces
with NO MORE THAN FOUR WORDS AND/OR A NUMBER.
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In the past, AIDS was considered a (1) ___________.
When the virus launch its assault, the patient developed cancer in parts of the body and became (2)
_____. However, a (3) _______ can be maintained if diagnosed early.
In Africa, the virus was apparently detected among (4) __________.
The first five cases of HIV were diagnosed with (5) _______ and (6) _________.
New medicines have given AIDS a (7) “_____” status and reduce the possibility of spreading the
(8)_____ (HIV virus) to others.
As medication is made available at our fingertips, people’s attitude has been fairly (9) ___ _____.
The proportion of HIV cases in the United States to the total number of cases far and wide is (10)
_____.
II. Listen to a discussion on the subject of attitudes to work and choose the correct answer A, B, C,
or D which fits best according to what you hear. Write your answers in the corresponding numbered
boxes provided.
1. Lois agrees with John's point that _______.
A. the psychological effects of unemployment can be overstated
B. some people are better equipped to deal with unemployment than others
C. problems arise when unemployment coincides with other traumatic events
D. most people dread the prospect of unemployment
2. Lois agrees with the listener who suggested that _______. .
A. people should prepare for redundancy as they would for retirement
B. voluntary work may be more rewarding than paid work
C. not everybody can expect a high level of job satisfaction
D. work is only one aspect of a fulfilling life
3. What Is John’s attitude towards people who see work as a "means to an end"?
A. He accepts that they have made a valid choice.
B. He feels they may be missing out on something important
C. He doubts their level of commitment to the job.
D. He fears it will lead to difficulties for them later.
4. When asked about so-called "slackers" at work, John points out that _______.
A. their views are unacceptable in a free labour market
B. such an attitude has become increasingly unacceptable
C. people often jump to unfair conclusions about them
D. they accept the notion that work is a necessary evil
5. Lois quotes the psychologist Freud in order to _______.
A. provide a contrast to the ideas of Bertrand Russell
B. question the idea that a desire to work is a natural thing
C. show how intellectual ideas have shifted over time
D. lend weight to John's ideas about increased social mobility
B. PHONOLOGY (5 POINTS)
Part 1. Choose the word whose underlined part pronounced differently from the others.
1. A. ginger B. gingham C. giggle D. glacis
2. A. mercury B. percolate C. sergeant D. servant
3. A. blizzard B. puzzle C. pizza D. drizzle
4. A. libel B. revival C. liable D. liberal
5. A. saboteur B. amateur C. entrepreneur D. hauteur
Part 2. Choose the word whose its stress partern is placed differently from the others.
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1. A. mollify B. dissipate C. tentative D. panaccea
2. A. armchair B. innate C. accent D. datum
3. A. bigotry B. adherent C. asylum D. flamboyant
4. A. frivolous B. hibernate C. jeopardize D. procrastinate
5. A. morale B. moustache C. contour D. disease
C. LEXICO AND GRAMMAR (30 POINTS)
Part 1. Choose the best options A, B, C or D to complete the following sentences.
1. _______ wait for no man.
A. Time and time B. Time and tide C. Time and fire D. Time and river
2. This new model of car is the _______ in driving luxury.
A. penultimate B. ultimate C. quick D. rapid
3. I feel it must be too late to apologize to my piano teacher, but at least I've got it off my _______.
A. chest B. heart C. stomach D.soul
4. Hands _______, the dancers were circling to the right and left In an impressive manner.
A. held high B. were held highly C. high holding D. having highly held
5. When a show is popular, everyone is content but if its popularity _______ . It is likely to be
scrapped.
A. subsides B. dims C. fades D. weakens
6. At _______ last, the disabled girl won an Oscar for her performance against all odds.
A. dim B. long C. distant D. far
7. The mayor failed to deliver key promises in his manifesto, but to give him his _______ he tried his
best to improve the city's infrastructure.
A. account B. view C. owing D.due
8. Every time the government meets their demands, the union leaders move the _______.
A. lamp posts B. bus stops C. goalposts D. roadblocks
9. Their company has been _______ ever since that scandal was all over the newspapers. No one wants
to do business with them anymore.
A. blackballed B. blueballed C. redballed D. celeste-balled
10. With the wisdom of _______, I shouldn’t have lent him money.
A. retrospect B. credence C. reminiscence D. hindsight
II. Supply the correct form of the word in bracket to complete the sentences.
1. The ending was rather _______ although the film was so intense. (CLIMAX)
2. The _______ of these toys soon wore off and the children became bored with them. (NOVEL)
3. The party is at _______ with the president over public spending. (HEAD)
4. Babies are entirely _______, concerned only with when they will next be fed. (CENTRE)
5. He was accused of _______, unreliability, and a lack of convictions. (ARTIFICIAL)
6. I've _______ the CNN homepage as I use it regularly to get the latest news. (MARK)
7. The _______ at the temple are bringing heart for peace and prosperity. (DEVOTION)
8. A(n) _______ life, lack of physical activity, stressful jobs, and bad habits can influence one's heath in
a very bad way. (PACE)
9. Officials urged caution in anticipation of catastrophic and _______ flooding in the days to come.
(THREAT)
10. The store manager explained _______ that only certan items were sold at a discount. (APOLOGY)
III. There are 10 mistakes in the passage. Find and correct them.
It is very difficult to succeed of the music business; nine out of ten bands that releases a first record fail
to produce the second. Surviving in the music industry requires luck and patience, but most of all it
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requires an intricate knowledge of how a record company is functioned. The process begins when a
presenter of a company's Artists and Repertoire (A & R) department visits bars and night clubs,
scouting for young, talented bands. After the representative identifies a promised band, he or she will
work to negotiate a contract with that band. The signature of this recording contract is a slow process.
A company will spend a long time to investigate the band itself as well as current trends to popular
music. During this period, it is important that a band reciprocates with an investigation of its own,
learning as much as possible about the record company and making personnel connections within the
different departments that will handle their recordings.
D. READING (40 POINTS)
I. Read the passage below and then choose the correct answer A, B, C or D.
Do you ever wish you were more optimistic, someone who always (1) ______ to be successful?
Having someone around who always (2) ______ the worst isn’t really a lot of (3) ______ – we all know
someone who sees a single cloud on a sunny day and says, ‘It looks (4) ______ rain.’ But if you catch
yourself thinking such things, it’s important to do something (5) ______ it.
You can change your view of life, (6) ______ to psychologists. It only takes a little effort, and you
will find life more rewarding as a (7) ______. Optimism, they say, is partly about self-respect and
confidence, but it’s also a more positive way of looking at life and all it has to (8) ______. Optimists are
more (9) ______ to start new projects and are generally more prepared to take risks.
Upbringing is obviously very important in forming your (10) ______ to the world. Some people are
brought up to (11) ______ too much on others and grow up forever blaming other people when anything
(12) ______ wrong. Most optimists, on the (13) ______ hand, have been brought up not to (14) ______
failure as the end of the world- they just (15) ______ with their lives.
1. A. counted B. expected C. felt D. waited
2. A. worries B. cares C. fears D. doubts
3. A. amusement B. play C. enjoyment D. fun
4. A. so B. to C. for D. like
5. A. with B. against C. about D. over
6. A. judging B. according C. concerning D. following
7. A. result B. reason C. purpose D. product
8. A. supply B. suggest C. offer D. propose
9. A. possible B. likely C. hopeful D. welcome
10. A. opinion B. attitude C. view D. position
11. A. trust B. believe C. depend D. hope
12. A. goes B. fails C. comes D. turns
13. A. opposite B. next C. other D. far
14. A. regard B. respect C. suppose D. think
15. A. get up B. get on C. get out D. get over
II. Read the passage and choose the correct answer A, B, C or D for each question.
In the course of its history, human inventions have dramatically increased the average amount of
energy available for use per person. Primitive peoples in cold regions burned wood and animal dung to
heat their caves, cook food, and drive off animals by fire. The first step toward the developing of more
efficient fuels was taken when people discovered that they could use vegetable oils and animal fats in
lieu of gathered or cut wood. Charcoal gave off more intensive heat than wood and was more easily
obtainable than organic fats. The Greeks first began to use coal for metal smelting in the 4th century, but
it did not come into extensive use until the Industrial Revolution.
110
In the 1700s, at the beginning of the Industrial Revolution, most energy used in the United States and
other nations undergoing industrialization was obtained from perpetual and renewable sources, such as
wood, water streams, domesticated animal labor, and wind. These were predominantly locally available
supplies. By mid-1800s, 91 percent of all commercial energy consumed in the United States and
European countries was obtained from wood. However, at the beginning of the 20th century, coal became
a major energy source and replaced wood in industrializing countries. Although in most regions and
climate zones wood was more readily accessible than coal, the latter represents a more concentrated
source of energy. In 1910, natural gas and oil firmly replaced coal as the main source of fuel because
they are lighter and, therefore, cheaper to transport. They burned more cleanly than coal and polluted
less. Unlike coal, oil could be refined to manufacture liquid fuels for vehicles, a very important
consideration in the early 1900s, when the automobile arrived on the scene.
By 1984, non-renewable fossil fuels, such as oil, coal, and natural gas, provided over 82 percent
of the commercial and industrial energy used in the world. Small amounts of energy were derived from
nuclear fission, and the remaining 16 percent came from burning direct perpetual and renewable fuels,
such as biomass. Between 1700 and 1986, a large number of countries shifted from the use of energy
from local sources to a centralized generation of hydropower and solar energy converted to electricity.
The energy derived from non-renewable fossil fuels has been increasingly produced in one location and
transported to another, as is the case with most automobile fuels. In countries with private, rather than
public transportation, the age of non-renewable fuels has created a dependency on a finite resource that
will have to be replaced.
Alternative fuel sources are numerous, and shale oil and hydrocarbons are just two examples. The
extraction of shale oil from large deposits in Asian and European regions has proven to be labor
consuming and costly. The resulting product is sulfur-and nitrogen-rich, and large scale extractions are
presently prohibitive. Similarly, the extraction of hydrocarbons from tar sands in Alberta and Utah is
complex. Semi-solid hydrocarbons cannot be easily separated from the sandstone and limestone that
carry them, and modern technology is not sufficiently versatile for a large-scale removal of the material.
However, both sources of fuel may eventually be needed as petroleum prices continue to rise and
limitations in fossil fuel availability make alternative deposits more attractive.
1.What is the main topic of the passage?
A. Application of various fuels B. Natural resources and fossil fuels
C. A history of energy use D. A historical review of energy rates
2.The phrase “per persion” is close in meaning to ______.
A. per capita B. per year C. per family D. per day
3.It can be inferred from the first paragraph that ______.
A. coal mining was essential for primitive peoples
B. the Greeks used coal in industrial productions
C. the development of efficient fuel was a gradual process
D. the discovery of efficient fuels was mostly accidental
4. The phrase “in lieu” is closest in meaning to______.
A. in spite B. in place C. in every way D. in charge
5 .The author of the passage implies that in the 1700s, sources of energy were ______.
A. used for commercial purposes B. used in various combinations
C. not derived from mineral deposits D. not always easy to locate
6 .According to the passage, what was the greatest advantage of oil as fuel?
A. It was a concentrated source of energy.
B. It was lighter and cheaper than coal.
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C. It replaced wood and coal and reduced pollution.
D. It could be converted to automobile fuel.
7. According to the passage, the sources of fossil fuels will have to be replaced because _____ .
A. they need to be transported B. they are not efficient
C. their use is centralized D. their supply is limited.
8. It can be inferred from the passage that in the early 20th centurgy, energy was obtained primarily
from______.
A. fossil fuels B. nuclear fission
C. hydraulic and solar sources D. burning biomass
9. The author of the passage implies that alternative sources of fuel are currently ______.
A. being used for consumption B. being explored
C. available in few locations D. examined on a lar
10. The word “prohibitive” is closest in meaning to______.
A. prohibited B. provided
C. too expensive D. too expedient
III. Read the passage and think of ONE word that best fits in the numbered blank.
BOOK SURGERY
Before the days of digital storage files and the easy accessible of the internet, almost every family
home boasted a (1) ___ of encyclopedias, a world atlas and a selection of other weighty tomes that (2)
_____ as an invaluable source of reference. Although these hefty volumes have (3) ______ been
rendered obsolete by ongoing technological advances, there is often a genuine reluctance to get (4)
_____ of them. Those with attractive binding may find a new use as an (5) __________ design feature,
but the rest are invariably consigned to otherwise empty bookshelves in dusty corners of spare
bedrooms.
The artist Brian Dettmer could, (6) __________, come to their rescue. He has come up with an
ingenious way of giving such books a new (7) __________ of life. Using what he calls ‘book surgery’,
Brian creates a sculpture out of (8) __________ redundant volume. After sealing the edges of the book,
he painstakingly cuts into the surface to create intricate patterns (9) __________ 3D. He never adds
anything to his creations, however, for the skill (10) __________ both in making precise incisions and
in knowing exactly how much material to take away.
IV. You will read an article from a scientific web page. 5 sentences have been removed from the text.
Read the passage and choose the correct sentence (A-F) to gap in the numbered blank (1-5). There
is one you don’t need.
Today (August 26), the Drug Enforcement Administration announced plans to create new regulations
to expand scientific and medical research on marijuana in the US. Scientists hope the proposal will
allow additional growers to enter the supply chain and hopefully bump up the quality of the material.
(1) ________ The statement issued today notes that the pending applications would be decided on after
the new growing regulations are established.
“There’s cause for some celebration,” Sue Sisley of the Scottsdale Research Institute tells The
Scientist. But, she adds, it’s not clear how long it will take for them to first get the new rules enacted
before they can make finally decisions on applications. “____________”
Scottsdale Research Institute (SRI) was one of the organizations that had filed an application for DEA
approval to grow marijuana for research, so scientists there could study whether cannabis can reduce
the symptoms of post-traumatic stress disorder in military veterans. Sisley recently completed a clinical
trial testing the hypothesis using cannabis provided by the University of Mississippi, the only supplier
112
the National Institute on Drug Abuse (NIDA) has had a contract with to grow marijuana for research
for nearly 50 years.
The cannabis that researchers receive from NIDA is “a moldy, green powder that is diluted with stems,
sticks, leaves . . . it’s not just the flowering tops of the plants,” Sisley says. Essentially, researchers are
receiving suboptimal plant material that does not “mimic the real-world flower,” making it hard to
replicate what individuals are using outside of research studies, she says.
A study published on bioRxiv in 2016 confirmed Sisley’s assessment of the NIDA-contracted
cannabis, which had 10–15 percent less THC, the main psychoactive ingredient in marijuana, than the
least potent cannabis sold at legal dispensaries, Science reported then. That study was published just
weeks after DEA’s 2016 announcement to accept applications from new growers and offered hope to
Sisley and others who wanted access to higher-quality cannabis for their research. (3)________
(4) ________But when SRI submitted its application to become one of those growers and hadn’t heard
anything in more than two years, the institute decided to file a petition to the US Court of Appeals in
Washington, DC. Late last month, the court ruled the DEA would need to respond within 30 days to
SRI’s petition and so the DEA released the public statement. In an email to The Scientist, Katherine
Pfaff, a spokesperson for the agency, says that “until recently, the demand for research-grade marijuana
was limited, and a single grower was sufficient to meet the demand of the research community. DEA
believes that it would be beneficial to have additional growers given the increased demand for
research-grade marijuana.”
NIDA says in an emailed statement that “there has been no major increase in the level of demand for
cannabis by researchers in recent years” and that it has “expanded the inventory of marijuana availa ble
for research.” It noted that more information about the strains available is published on the agency’s
website. (5) _______“The bottom line is scientists need access to options . . . we need to be able to
access all of the diverse cultivars that are readily available in these regulated markets,” Sisley says.
A. DEA’s announcement in 2016 seemed to indicate that the federal government understood
researchers’ needs and planned to approve new growers of research-grade cannabis.
B. We all know DEA . . . and all federal agencies are experts in delay.
C. After years of stalling, the agency says it plans to provide notice on pending applications from
growers—but only after it establishes new regulations for suppliers.
D. But because DEA never implemented the policy on new growers that it promised, “we’re
exactly where we were three years ago” in terms of research, says Nolan Kane, an ecologist and
evolutionary biologist at the University of Colorado Boulder and a coauthor of the study on the
quality of NIDA cannabis.
E. In 2016, the agency said it would accept applications for new growers, but as Nature reported
in May, dozens of applications had been submitted but none had been reviewed, approved, or
denied.
F. A study published earlier this year again pointed out that what the NIDA supplier provides to
researchers is still vastly different from what’s being sold at marijuana dispensaries, according to
Nature.
E. WRITING (15 POINTS)
I. Complete the second sentences without changing the meaning of the original sentence and the
given word.
1. We did not have to lean on him much before he agreed. (PRESSURE)
→ We did not _____________________________________________________.
2. Returning from the battle, they had no money left. (RUB)
→ Returning _____________________________________________________.
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3. His irresponsible attitude is endangering his career as a doctor. (JEOPARDY)
→ His career ___________________________________________________.
4. He may add a small amount of English accent in his American accent. (SUGGESTION)
→ He ___________________________________________________.
5. Looking back, I shouldn’t have reminded my teacher about the exam. (JOGGED)
→ In ___________________________________________________.
II. According to a 2011 research by the International Institute for Asian Studies, extra classes or
private tutoring sessions have become increasingly common throughout Vietnam with a “current
enrolment of more than 30 percent and 50 percent of primary and secondary students respectively”.
In fact, they have almost become a “shadow” education system, existing alongside the mainstream
education those students are getting at school.
Discuss the causes and consequences of this recent tendency. If you are against this trend, offer
possible solutions. You should use your own ideas, knowledge and experience and support your
arguments with examples and relevant evidence. (Write at least 250 words.)
THE END
BEST OF LUCK
BỘ ĐỀ LUYỆN THI CHO HỌC SINH
KHỐI CHUYÊN ANH
FINAL TEST
[TEST 15]
Thời gian làm bài: 150 phút (Không kể thời gian giao đề)
*Note: This test is dedicated to revise and consilidate which means many revised questions from other
above test will be printed in. If you feel this test is superfluous or redundant, you may skip this test.
A. LISTENING (10 POINTS) (Extracted from Test 8)
I. From question 1 to 5, listen to a part of speech by Mark Zuckerberg on the development of
Internet. (Extract from: HSGQG2017)
TASK 1
For question 1 to 3, match the changes that Internet connection makes with the corresponding
spaces. Write ONE letter next to each country.
1. India
2. Zambia
3. Uganda
TASK 2
From question 4 to 5, choose TWO letters from A to D. Which TWO statements are TRUE according
to the talk?
4. _______
5. _______
A. agriculture practice
B. school work
C. community projects
D. business practices
E. food supply
E. child rearing
A. 10 percent of people with Internet access have
been helped with poverty relief.
B. Out of every ten people, one is granted with access
to the Internet.
C. 140 people employment opportunities are
provided for 260.
D. More than half a billion children are provided
with educational facillities at low cost.
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II. Listen to a talk on the history of Balinese Culture and complete the table with the missing
information. Write No MORE THAN THREE word taken from the recording for each answer in the
spaces provided. (HSGQG2014)
DATE
EVENT
IMPORTANCE OF ART
3000 BC (beginning of
the (1)______)
Rice farmers from China
settled in Bali
Built temples with wood and stone carvings
14
th
century
lntroduction to Hinduism
Artists employed by (2)_______ and
focused on epic narratives
1906
Dutch East lndies
Company
Established
Art became expression of opposition to
(3) _______
1920s
(4) _______ of tourism
Encouraged use of new materials,
techniques and subjects
1945
Lndependence
New art with scenes of everyday life (e.g.
harvests, market scenes, daily tasks, (5)
_____ and _____) reflecting national
identity
B. LEXICO AND GRAMMAR (30 POINTS)
I. Choose the correct answer A, B, C or D to complete the sentence.
1. What’s special about Phil is that whenever something __________ me extremely, he always seems
to be there reassuring me tenderly.
A. aggravates B. mitigates C. deteriorates D. agitates
2. We talked just as easily as we had in the past, when we would sit ____ and discuss our friends and
our hopes for the future.
A. in the field behind Joan’s house atop the rabbit hutch
B. in the field atop the rabbit hutch behind Joan’s house
C. atop the rabbit hutch in the field behind Joan’s house
D. behind Joan’s house in the field atop the rabbit hutch
3. He managed to ____ his team with high spirits.
A. imbue B. inculcate C. ingrain D. instill
4. The actors gave a very ________ performance, and the critics expressed their disapproval in
their reports the following day.
A. pie-in-the-sky B. run-of-the-mill C. good-for-nothing D. behind-the-scene
5. The princess's nanny's autobiography really gives the ______ on life among the royals.
A. know-how B. low-down C. look-out D. show-down
6. She was rudely awakened by a sudden bout of ______ turbulence.
A. stern B. somber C. weighty D. heavy
7. Tribal differences in the country have created an _____ cycle of violence for years.
A. interminable B. intermittent C. endless D. effortless
8. His neighbors found his ______ manner bossy and irritating, and they stopped inviting him to
backyard barbeques.
A. insentient B. magisterial C. reparatory D. restorative
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9. With a(n) ______ grin, the boy quickly slipped the candy into his pocket without his mother’s
knowledge.
A. jaundiced B. stereotypical C. nefarious D. sentimental
10. The authorities, fearing a ______ of their power, called for a military state in the hopes of restoring
order.
A. subversion B. premonition C. predilection D. infusion
II. Supply the correct form of the word in bracket to complete the passage and the sentences.
CIVILISATION
Civilisation can be interpreted in many ways and has meant different things to different people:
to Levi-Strauss its (0)___essential___ (ESSENCE) feature was boiled food; Nietzsche wanted to
reverse it and Arnold Toynbee called it ‘progress towards (1)______ (SAINT)’.
We all use the word loosely to mean culture we approve of. Yet it is not too late to rescue
civilisation from (2)__________ (REPRESENT). An old and disinterested vision of what it means to
be civilised is waiting to be revived.
At the heart of every civilising project there is a common (3)______ (IMPEL): this is the
human itch to (4)_______ (FORM) nature, to mould earth, cleave waves and warp environments in
(5)_____ (PROBABILITY) ways. Civilisations are actively engaged in reshaping the world for human
use, stamping landscapes with new patterns of clearings and channels, feld systems and street grids.
In (6)_______ (EXCEPT) cases, civilisations try to secede from nature altogether, to deny the
animal side of (7)_____ (HUMAN) and to domesticate the wild man within by elaborate manners.
Civilisation may be heroic and admirable, but it is not necessarily good and is frequently
(8)_____ (SUCCEED) in the long run. Indeed, if (9)_______ (LONG) can be taken as a measure of
success, the world’s most enduring societies have been the (10)_______________ (SUBMIT) ones
which abjured the civilising ambition and settled for the food and shelter that nature provides.
11. I saw a(n) ________ of documents scattered around his table. (MISCELLANEOUS)
12. Jetlag is a component of diurnal sleepiness and nocturnal _____ and general fatigue. (WAKE)
13. We often go for a(n) ________ treatment after a month of arduousness. At first, the herb’s smell
may be unpleasant but it becomes relaxing after then. (THERAPY)
14. Tran Thanh is a full-fledged and _____. He works as an MC at first then he spreads his career to
comedian, talent judge. (HYPHENATION)
15. _______ aims to develop a landscape that will be self-sustaining and productive for generations.
(CULTURAL)
16. Against everyone hypercriticism, the movie has proved a ______ success. (ATMOSPHERE)
17. This is the first time I have seen a true ________ reconstruction of a Tyrannosaurus. (ATOM)
18. France won the World Cup Championship after a(n) _____ match. (BITE)
19. You had better not _____ gay people. They have their own rights to happily live like you.
(GRATE)
20. We earned a(n) ___________ of free trial on this application which means we could use this
application free for 3 months. (SEMESTER)
III. The passage below contains 5 errors in spelling, grammar, and word form. Underline the errors
and write the corrections in the corresponding numbered boxes. There are THREE examples at the
beginning (0, 00, 000).
1
Before 1960, the UK pop scene offered few of substance. A faint shade of its American
counterpast, it could boast only the questionable talents of sanitised singers like Cliff
Richard and Tommy Steele. But then along came the revolution; fizzling out of the
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5
10
14
teen-oriented coffee bars and the building club circuit came the likes of Korner and
Barber as R&B emerged. It was not long before ‘bluephoria’ had gotten hold and the
blues and R&B circuit quickly evolved with bands of calibre of the Rolling Stones and
the Graham Bon Organisation shaking things up in London. But the capital did not have
a monopoly so far as new talent was concerned – far from it. The north was awakening,
too, and soon the Beat groups would arrive, taking the music world by storm. Acts such
as the Animals and the Beatles were formed the latter needing no introduction, of
course. It wasn’t long before the tables had changed; American pop was soon playing
second fiddle to Brit-style bands. The Beatles, championing the cause, took British
popular music to new levels of success. Before long, the world couldn’t get enough of
this plucky quarter. ‘Beatlemania’ had dominated. John, Paul, Ringo and George could
do no wrong.
0. little (line 1)
00. shadow (line 1)
000. counterpart (line 1)
C. READING (30 POINTS)
I. Read the text below and choose the correct answer for each question.
History of one Japanese calculator
Throughout the history of humankind, techologization has become dominant in our life since the
fast-growing of Industrial Revolution was from England, especially the first steam engine machine.
From that point, the inescapabilty of complicated semiconductor had an opportunity to put new foots in
a real play. One thing which people could not unforgettable was a first conductor from America in
1941 but that was used for trash-laden useless machine. On the other hand, next 4 years, in Japan, after
defeating in World War II, Kashio Seisakujo, a Japanese engineer in fabrication technology,
manufactured and managed the process of producing state-of-the-art cigarettes which could allow the
smokers to enjoy the life without using the hands for rushing the ashes on each cigarette.
Accidentally, during the working days in Tokyo, Kashio Seisakujo walked on the pavement to
his dwelling where was located in the outskirt of the capital. He noticed about a giant billboard with
mesmerizing lights in Tokyo nighttime. As that first time, he wondered why he did not develop an
object which could be portable, easy to carry, and necessary. After wandering multiple times under the
nighttime with downpour, he found an idea about making bells and whistles calculators instead of
spending around the clock in the factory with air contamination of smoking. The combination of using
compactor from America and the bright –and-shine commercial billboard in Ginza was to help him to
begin a first step to operate family business with his brothers: Toshio, Kazuo, and Yukio
At the beginning, the funds came from working cigarettes in the factory. Moreover, his
organization was a small start-up entrepreneur with old-fashioned machines to design the calculator. In
his workshop, 100% of portable calculators were made by hands with cogs in the engine and spinal
gears inside. Thanks to Kashio’s talent and vast specialized knowledge from his previous experience,
he used solenoids to make a first Japanese portable calculator. To be more understandable, solenoids
were invented by André-Marie Ampère, a French physician. At that time of his invention, his name
was used to measure how strong the flow of electronics was. Back to Kashio’s timeline, the reason why
he must use solenoids was to make electromagnetic field for creating the flow of accelerated current.
On his electrical current flow, he also used capacitors to create a perfect closed-circuit connection like
the flow of human circulatory system. It means his portable calculator was bigger than 30 times than
some current portable calculators that we know today. Therefore, your pocket’s jeans would not
suitable for his invention before the 1950s.
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During the recovery after World War II, Japan had suffered a lot failure but the greatest
contribution from America was a great chance to settle a new face of country from democracy to
meritocracy. [A] At the same time, Kashio had created first 10-key number calculator, then there was
no hope in one product so he attempted to adjust with a little bit of differences on the number of
keypads like from 10 to 15 and then 20 and so on. [B] That technique that would lead a new growth
leaps and bounds was a first achievement to pre-establish first headquarter in near future. [C] Many
Japanese believed that his contributions could shape Japanese economy and technology after wartime.
[D] Without him, the renaissance of futuristic robotic and automatic machine in Japan might be slim.
In 1957, the first headquarter was established in Shibuya, Tokyo. However, before finding the
headquarter, his brothers made some long and short discussions. Toshio believed that we would
establish the company in Kita because that was near the outskirt of cosmopolitan where people could
purchase in both territories. Meanwhile, Yukio offered in Koto due to having an export-import
shipyard and international logistics which could help them to trade with foreign countries in the nickel
of the time. During the discussion, Kazuo argued that we must establish in the center of Tokyo, the
capital of Japan, to show off the powerful company in front of other rival competitors. The last person
was Kashio who had to be a leader right now. He selected Shibuya because more and more pedestrians
walk every day in here and that location where he had been an idea about creation. Furthermore, most
international visitors came here more than other areas in Tokyo. That was a reason to build a first
headquarter in Shibuya, Tokyo.
[E]
At same time, in 1957, the first model was Model 14-A whose cost was an arm and a leg or
approximately 485,000 yen. This device was a breakthrough of Silicon technology which would appear
in different parts of the globe. In Model 14-A, that was a long-length table and heavy like a ton because
it must be carried by 4 healthy and muscular men. Because of the weight, many businesswomen in
Japan needed to ask for the help from white-collar males to adjust the table. On the screen, they used
illuminating pad to show numbers or line results but the results would run up and down based on the
way of Japanese written system. It means the numbers ran from up to down and from right to left, not
from left to right like English written system. Related to power consumption, it consumed 300 Watt per
hour in 100 Voltage, compared with 110 Voltage from national energy supply. In conclusion, his
device spent a lot of both cash and energy for households and businesses.
[F]
In the 1980s, the boom of Japanese economy had come. That occurrence affected to Kasio’s
family business. With the foreign investments and the assiduity of Japanese, Kasio could be confident
in technological innovation. First, he made a first musical instrument (Electronic Piano) which could be
lightweight and easy to carry by one thin adult. Then, he introduced different affordable scientific
calculators, wristwatches, cameras, and other stuffs for Japanese. The new age of Japanese technology
had flipped a new page with many unexpected and longstanding ways.
[G]
Kashio, in fact, built his own assembly line in Yamagata, Yamagata Prefecture after the rapid
development of Japanese economy. As a result, he could make mass production and just-in-time
distribution to different stores by stores, from domestic to international customers. When the
organization was in the green, Kashio utterly gave the green light to open more and large
manufacturing outside Japan. For instance, he tried to open some factories in China but computerized
in Japan to prevent some errors during production and operation stages.
[H]
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Most of products from him are necessities and eco-friendly not only in Japan but also in other
countries. On the other hand, when people mention Casio, their answers which appear in their minds
are always Casio scientific calculator. Sooner or later, Casio calculator will be dominant in
marketplace. To distinguish with other competitors, there are some main keys to describe the
differences. On the top of left hand side, we can see the logo CASIO which was printed in bold dark
capital letters to attract the customer. Next to the logo, it is the golden stamp in rectangular shape from
Economic and Control Department because they want to prevent from infringement on copyright and
duplication. Both of criminal actions can affect Casio’s business in the long-term. On the top of right
hand side, the serial code of Casio is a good way to demonstrate customers on what type and which
functions of calculator will be appropriate for their interests. For example, FX-300MS cannot show the
numerator and denominator in vertical line while FX-570 ES Plus can operate that function well. All of
100% Casio scientific calculators has LCD screen or Liquid Crystal Display screen like television
screen or laptop screen and most LCDs or other outside parts are made by polymerization with 94%
aromatic benzene rings: polystyrene. Moreover, polystyrene is most favorable choice for Casio LCD
screen and other plastic products because of cost-saving and convenience. In the detrimental side, even
though using more and more chemicals in Casio Factories can lead to be harmful for human health,
especially cancer causation, manufacturers still accept to continue working inside manufacturing. Most
of Casio calculator’s parts are made in China but not all of them. For example, the chip and the screen
are manufactured in Japan before transporting to China to assemble. Furthermore, the outside silver
shield is partial made in both China and Japan while the protector part which can cover in the front
after using was perfectly made in China.
The function of Casio products is the most paramount reason why people love purchasing. In
Casio scientific calculator, the screen must be bigger and wider in both length and width. To be more
understandable, if Casio s’ serial number is more than 500, the diagonal’s screen will be more
approximate 3 times than the width. On the other side of the coin, if Casio’s serial number is with
lower than 500, the diagonal’s screen will be over 4.5 times than the width because of the shrinkage of
the width. The program of the function for scientific calculator has 3 types: programming, graphic, and
one-line. If the result shows on the same line, that will be one-line. If the result shows on the separated
line and no any graph, that will be programming. On the face of scientific calculator, the central
movement pad is such a great controller to fix many mistakes on Mathematics functions showing on
screen by moving back and forward on them. Last but not least, many customers always want to
purchase the calculators with suitable keypads. To be more clear, we put a medical pill as the standard
measurement and the length is 2 cm. In FX Calculator, the width of each important keypad should be
shorter than a half of medical pill or 0.75 cm while the the length of each of them must be exactly same
a half of medical pill.
(Credit: Cao Mai Thanh Tam and posted on group of Chuyen Tieng Anh CVT)
Section I.1. Choose the correct answer (A, B, C or D) for each question.
1. What is the meaning of the main introduction?
A. The importance of previous technology can set a new way for latest invention
B. Humankind replies on technology but ignores its history
C. The Age of Technology could be appeared or disappeared freuently
D. Kashio is a main character in this invention of conductor industry
2. What is the closest meaning “Bells and Whistles” in paragraph 2?
A. Obstetrical B. Flippant C. Ravishing D. Murmured
3. Which factor that leads him to have an idea to make the calculator?
A. The sound of smooth music
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B. The glamourous street lights
C. The raining like cats and dogs at night
D. The luminescent advertising lights
4. At the beginning of making calculator, why did he use traditional methods to produce original
calculator?
A. His company loved using old-fashioned to respect Japanese culture
B. His company was not a big fish in a small pond
C. His company was not provided or supported more funds
D. Their profits from previous occupations was not in abundant to open
5. Why did the author mention about “Closed-circuit” in paragraph 3?
A. Kashio had both knowledge and specialized skills to do engineering
B. Closed-circuit flow was a best way to product in Japan
C. Both of his brothers had only uniue techniue to construct
D. That would be a good way to compete other rivals in marketplace near future
6. Which factor was the most paramount in building the calculator?
A. Conductor B. Solenoids C. Plasma D. Human-power
7. Why did the author mention André-Marie Ampère in paragraph 3?
A. He was the most important person who affected on future Casio’s decisions.
B. His invention did the most contributory in France.
C. Without that invention from him, Kashio would have not known how to construct.
D. The history of the invention of calculator would not appeared.
8. What did author compare “Closed-circuit” part with?
A. The human part which comprised renal parts and excretory parts
B. The human part which made up of grey matter and white matter
C. The human part which consisted of the lung and esophagus
D. The human part which comprised artery and vein
9. What was the highest hospitality from America for Japan?
A. Relief the deaths from nuclear attacks in Hiroshima and Nagasaki
B. Making a pavement for Western education
C. Establishment a new version of Western political party
D. Search-and-kill tactic of the reminders who approved with dictatorship
10. What is the opposite meaning “Meritocracy” in paragraph 4?
A. Nepotism B. Autocracy C. Skilled-oriented D. Gerontocracy
11. Which location in paragraph 4 is suitable for this sentence?
“Multiplying a variety of calculators was only one alternative at that time to convince more
purchasers in Japanese Economic Recovery”.
A.[A] B.[B] C.[C] D.[D]
12. What is the closest meaning “Logistics” in paragraph 5?
A. Regimentation B. Coordination C. Inventory D. Martensitic
13. Why did the author make the reference on his brother’s brainstorming?
A. Unknown where to settle or make new space for mother company
B. Confusion of selecting locations because there are two sides of a coin in each location
C. There were many choices but less opportunities to explore in Tokyo
D. All of them attempted to be dominant each other to reach the finish line
14. Why did the author mention Mr. Kashio as a leader to select the headuarter?
A. The more pearls of wisdom and skills he got, the more favorable he allowed to select
120
B. Through thick and thin, he had more experience from previous occupation. Now, he was a
perfect person to guide their brothers.
C. He was the oldest brother among in his family. As a result, who was the oldest would be a
leader.
D. Japanese were suffered from a Great Failure, so Mr. Kashio knew how to defeat Western
economy back.
15. This paragraph has been removed. Which position will be suitable for that paragraph?
“After the transition based on new economic policies, the living standards had been being improved
and set on a right track of global economy. Moreover, those policies which have already adopted up
to now shaped Casio’s decisions. For example, Mr. Kashio, now, a CEO, shared a positive plan to
expand one factory near outside Tokyo. After economically governmental reconstruction was
introduced, Mr. Kashio used his management skills to swap from the previous location to a new area
where was more far-flung from the capital of Japan.”
A.[E] B.[F] C.[G] D.[H]
16. What is the antonym of “longstanding” in paragraph 7?
A. Benevolent B. Going-concern C. The wheels turn D. Evanescent
17. Which is NOT the following of Casio’s products in 1980s?
A. Functional calculated stuffs C. Heavyweight electric pianos
B. Attractive Wristwatches D. Film-taken devices
18. How could Mr.Kashio do the trade outside Japan?
A. Open-door economy from Japan after World War II
B. Discussion with foreign investors
C. Finding one foreign country to export the products
D. Looking for one foreign country to ship Casio’s parts to manufacture
19. Why did Mr.Kashio want to computerize in home country?
A. Many foreign hackers stole his copyright and ideas to produce Casio products
B. Thwart from human-made mistakes in manufacturing in each layer
C. The grass is greener on the other side of the fence
D. China would overcome and control his hierarchical organization near future
Section I.2. Filling NO MORE THAN 1 WORD AND/OR 1 NUMBER in each blank on the diagram
with suitable word formation.
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Section I.3. Find the suitable paragraph for each sentence counting from top to down. There's one
example.
0. The introduction of the New Age of semiconductor. _____1_______
28. The idea to make a first Japanese calculator had risen
29. The residue from their occupations was so far so good to do own business
30. His invention was exorbitant but slightly useful at that period of time
II. Read the text and choose the correct option (A, B, C or D) that best fits in the numbered blanks.
(1) ____ all the frenzied decluttering, organising and tidying going on these days, it’s easy to
overlook the special things worth keeping. They may be locked in a safe-deposit box, wrapped in tissue
in a wardrobe or entombed in a plastic container in a storage unit. They might be faded or torn, eaten
by moths and the (2)_____ of time. Rescuing a family artefact takes thought and often money.
But the act of saving it and honouring it can be tremendously satisfying. Ingrid Fetell Lee,
designer, author and (3)_____ of the blog the Aesthetics of Joy, believes in the power of ordinary
things to create extraordinary happiness. “I think when you keep fewer things, you (4)_____ them
more,” she says. “Instead of having thousands of photos in boxes, you keep and frame the ones you
really love.”
Lee says that when objects are (5)____ with experiences, they can (6)___ a memory of an event
or sensation. “Keeping those things closely around you matters, sort of like souvenirs from a vacation,”
she says. “There is a sensory experience (7)______ in that object.”
There’s an (8)______-expanding number of ways to preserve those memories. Shana Novak of
the Heirloomist created a business of photographing them, blowing up the images and turning them
into artwork. Novak, who is based (9)_____ New York, has photographed a beloved Millennium
Falcon model, a (10)_______ handwritten recipe book and a grandfather’s violin. “These treasures
have the same love-from-the-gut feeling,” she says. “They are all special in their own way.”
(Source: The Independent)
1. A. Beyond B. Amid C. Over D. Within
2. A. progression B. quotation C. passage D. transition
3. A. maker B. initator C. framer D. founder
4. A. value B. appraise C. clutch D. price
5. A. devoted B. plunged C. endued D. invested
6. A. incite B. prompt C. plead D. prick
7. A. pierced B. lodged C. embedded D. ingrained
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8. A. never B. whatsoever C. ever D. even
9. A. in B. on C. at D. of
10. A. threadbare B. dilapidated C. moth-eaten D. tattered
III. Read the passage and think of ONE word that best fits in the numbered blank.
STATES THAT ARE FALLING APART
The U.S. economy is a $20.5 trillion (1)_____ - and the nation’s infrastructure is the scaffolding
upon which it depends. In many parts of the country, however, years of neglect have left critical
transportation infrastructure in a (2)____ of serious and often dangerous disrepair.
The effects of deteriorating infrastructure range in severity, from potholes adding unnecessary
wear and (3)____ to vehicles to catastrophic failures, like the I-35 bridge (4)____ that killed 13 people
in Minneapolis in 2007. According to some estimates, delays due to roadway (5)____ - which are often
caused by inadequate infrastructure - take a more than $120 billion toll on the economy every year.
Though the U.S. economy has grown at a steady (6)____ over the past century, infrastructure
spending has not (7)____ up. Federal, state, and local governments invested the equivalent of 4.2% of
GDP in infrastructure (8)____ in the late 1930s, according to a report published by Congressional
Research Service, the policy research arm of the U.S. Congress. As (9)____ 2016, infrastructure
spending (10)____ just 1.5% of GDP.
Today, state and local spending account for the vast majority of infrastructure investment, and
some states are doing a better job than others at maintaining roads and bridges (…)
(Source: 24/7 Wall St.)
D. WRITING (30 POINTS)
I. Complete the second sentence without changing the meaning of the original one. (Extracted from
Test 11)
1. Many children in the world lack of attention and care and under the threat of many serious diseases.
(VICTIM)
→ Many children slip ________________________________________________________.
2. With a view to taking over the position, Jack cleverly talked the boss into resigning. (JOCKEYED)
→ So as ________________________________________________________.
3. I was allowed to give her a hand on her project. (SERVICE)
→ I was given ______________________________________________________________.
4. After making fun of me, he was in my bad books. (PEEVE)
→ After making a _____________________________________________________________.
5. There are so many stellar applicants for the job that we can't choose between them. (RICHES/AS)
→ It’s truly _____________________________________________________________________.
6. My mom always praise the next door kids’ well-behaviour which is really infuriating. (VIRTUES)
→ That my mom ___________________________________________________________ side.
7. It came as a surprise that the government haven’t lifted any finger to do away with burglary.
(CRACKDOWN)
→ It took _______________________________________________________________________.
8. The party won’t be less enjoyable by a nasty guy like you. (DAMPER)
→ A nasty piece _________________________________________________________________.
9. The movie star’s unacceptable behaviour at the red carpet was a hot issue. (CONDUCT/PALE)
→ It was _________________________________________________________________ potato.
10. Her thought of her higher class than us makes us really infrustrating. (CUT)
→ What extremely ________________________________________________________________.
II. “Internet is defaming us.”
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Do you agree or disagree with the statement? Write an essay of at least 200 words discussing about
the problem. Use any example or reason from your experience or knowledge.
THE END
BỘ ĐỀ LUYỆN THI CHO HỌC SINH
KHỐI CHUYÊN ANH
GIVE-AWAY TEST
Thời gian làm bài: 150 phút (Không kể thời gian giao đề)
PART A. LISTENING
Part 1: Listen to a conversation between two training college students and their liaison officer who
is enrolling them in a volunteer programme which provides English support in a local secondary
school and answer the questions by writing NO MORE THAN TWO WORDS in the space
provided.
1. According to liaison officer, what do volunteers help provide?
2. What can volunteers help students check and correct?
3. What aspect of students’ self- management can volunteers assist greatly with improving?
4. What will volunteers try to develop in the students so that they exert themselves more?
5. What is it that teachers have that allows them to respond to individual student requirements?
Part 2: You will hear part of a radio discussion with Ellen Harrington of the Meadow Lane
Residents Group, and Tim Barlow from CartonTown Planning Department. Choose the correct
answer (A, B, C or D) which fits best according to what you hear. Write your answers in the
corresponding numbered boxes.
6. What was Ellen's first reaction when the town centre was closed to traffic?
A. She was delighted B. She was terrified.
C. She was miserable D. She was suspicious.
7. How does Tim feel about the changes in the town centre?
A. He regrets they were made so quickly.
B. He is proud the town council went forward with them.
C. He believes they were inevitable.
D. He thinks the town council should have foreseen the problem.
8. What does Tim think about the protest Ellen's group is planning?
A. He doesn't think it will accomplish anything.
B. He doesn't think drivers will be affected.
C. He thinks it will be dangerous.
D. He thinks it is not aimed at the right people.
9. How does Ellen react to Tim's comments?
A. She accepts his main point.
B. She thinks he is being evasive.
C. She thinks he doesn't understand human nature.
D. She considers his comments unrealistic.
10. What does Ellen think will make the protest effective?
A. the inconvenience it will cause to drivers
B. the number of demonstrators who will take part
C. the amount of publicity it will generate
D. the forthcoming election
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Part 3: For questions 11-20: Listen to a piece of news from BBC about Advent. Write NO MORE
THAN THREE WORDS taken from the recording for each answer.
The biggest festival is celebrated on 25th December in Britain is Christmas. The four weeks before
Christmas are called Advent, and are traditionally celebrated in churches by (11)______ each Sunday
during Advent. These days, a large number of Britons who are not very (12) ______still celebrate
Christmas. The signs of Christmas are as early as (13) ______long before Advent. The shops are the first
places to think about Christmas. The British spend on average (14) ______ (around $1000) per person
on Christmas every year.Shops attract shoppers’ attention by putting up Christmas decorations and
playing (15) ______or (16) ______ and some shop workers wear Christmas hats. To make preparations
for Christmas, people buy (17) ______ Christmas cards to send to your friends and relatives; presents for
loved ones, food such as turkey or goose for the special Christmas dinner, and lots of chocolates, (18)
______for everyone to enjoy. The excited children about the coming Christmas list presents they would
like, and give them to their parents, or send them to Santa Claus. Advent calendars are a way of (19)
______to Christmas. They have a window to open for every day from 1st - 24th December (Christmas
Eve). A basic Advent calendar has a (20) ______behind each window, but a chocolate Advent calendar
is more favorable to children
PART B. LEXICO AND GRAMMAR
Part 1. Choose the correct answer A, B, C or D to complete the sentence.
21. Mr. Six tried to be close with Thu but it seemed that Thu was frustrated by his trying-to-be-close and
remained __________.
A. accomodating B. aloof C. cognizant D. assiduous
22. Stop using your _______, kid! It’s not good to offend others and even in those words.
A. studious B. indigenous C. libelous D.
obsequious
23. The CFO of the company has been reportedly witnessed to be involved in ______ activities.
A. nefarious B. tractable C. impetinent D. inexorable
24. He is pretentiously a good person. But all that _______ is not gold.
A. sheens B. zaps C. glitzs D. glitters
25. I regretted having ______ the whole time. I was so indecisive.
A. muddled along B. abstracted away C. keyed into D. ploughed
on
26. This will probably be the ______ achievement of her career.
A. itemised B. uncanny C. damaging D. crowning
27. Laos has a land area ______ are members of hill tribes ensconced in the virtually inaccessible
mountain valleys of the north.
A. about the same as Great Britain but a population of only four million people, many of them
B. comparable to that of Great Britain but a population of only four million people, many of whom
C. comparable to the size of Great Britain, but only four million in population, and many of them
D. of about the same size as Great Britain is, but only four million in population, and many of whom
28. The outbreak of Corona virus with the “collusion” of H1N1 and H5N1 ________ people.
A. rubs the fear of God into B. hammers away
C. is at it hammer and tongs with D. pounds away
29. They paid a ____ visit to my house at 23:50 and ruined my dreams.
A. sunset B. nocturnal C. quotidian D. diurnal
30. Some culprits are sentenced to ____ servitude and labour all the day.
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A. disciplinary B. penal C. punitive D.
correctional
Part 2. Supply the correct form of the word in bracket to complete the sentence.
31. They often held a(n) ________ meeting about slaughters and kidnappings. (DAGGER)
32. A stroke affecting the right side of the brain may cause _________ paralysis, affecting the left arm
and leg. (LATERAL)
33. Some states prohibit marriages with ______. This prohibition may reduce the probability of
miscarriage and misshapenness. (SANGUINE)
34/35. The jihadis saw themselves at the _______ of a war that many among them believed had been
___________ in the formative days of Islam. (GUARD/ORDER)
36. Those supercilious _______ would never suffer the hardships we’ve been through. (FOOT)
37. Look at that miserable, _______ old woman. I heard on the grapevine that she gave birth to 4 children
then they all died from car accidents. (CARING)
38. Instead of caring too much about finance, improving and renovate and innovate infrastructures too
ostentatiously, the government should care more about the environment which is being destroyed
gradually, the unemployed people which are living on the _______. (BREAD)
39. Stop being such a _____, Thomas. Everyone’s having fun and you are a wet blanket. (JOYFUL)
40. The scientists want to know how _________ rock forces its way from the core to the surface, where
it explodes as lava. (MELT)
Part 3. There are 10 mistakes in the following passage. Find and correct them. There is ONE
example.
1
5
10
When one online reviewer disinterpreted a key chronicle in “The Revenant”, Alejandro
Iárritu’s harrowing wilderness-survival drama required a nickname: “The Bear Rape Movie”.
It is important to clarify, then, that Leonardo DiCaprio’s character, a shaggy -bearded 19th-
century frontiersman called Hugh Glass, has not raped by a bear, although ursine sexual assault
is just about the only ordeal he is spared.
At the starter of the film, Mr Iárritu’s first since his Oscar-winning Broadway farce,
“Birdman”, Glass is a member of a fur-trading party that is ambushed by Arikara nativities. The
ensuing forest battle has the nerve-shredding immediacy of the D-Day set part in “Saving
Private Ryan” (1998), Steven Spielberg’s second-world-war drama. Short afterwards, Glass is
bitten, clawed, trodden on and flung around (but not raped) by a hulking grizzly, and then left
to dead by a treacherous colleague (Tom Hardy). But he forces himself to trek for hundreds of
miles to his associates’ fort, via freezing landscapes as hostilely and beautifully strange as the
surface of an alien planet.
(The Economist)
Line 1: disinterpreted -> misinterpreted
C. READING
Part 1. Read the passage and choose the correct option that best fits in the numbered blank.
Just a day after at least 40 Central Reserve Police Force (CRPF) personnel lost their lives in a (1)
______ suicide bombing attack in Pulwama, the Indian government has withdrawn "Most Favoured
Nation" or MFN status accorded to Pakistan. Finance Minister Arun Jaitley said the Ministry of External
Affairs will (2) _______ all possible steps to ensure complete isolation from the international community
of Pakistan, which is expected to have a (3) _______ in the attack carried out by terror outfit Jaish-e-
Mohammed. "MEA will inaugurate all possible (4) _______ steps which are to be taken to ensure the
complete isolation from the international community of Pakistan of which incontrovertible is available
of having a direct involvement in this act," said Jaitley.
126
Most Favoured Nation status is given to an international trade partner to ensure non-
discriminatory trade between all partner countries of the WTO. A country which provides MFN status to
another country has to provide concessions, privileges, and immunity in trade agreements. It is the first
(5) _______ in the General Agreement on Tariffs and Trade (GATT).
1. A. deviously B. dastardly C. duplicitously D. spookily
2. A. initiate B. indoctrinate C. break the ice D. inculcate
3. A. foot B. finger C. hand D. tongue
4. A. gracious B. conciliatory C. discreet D. courteous
5. A. stipulation B. section C. clause D. article
WHY DID SHE HAVE TO DIE?
They gathered in the chill of a high desert night, around a bakery on a street corner in the US-
Mexican border city of Ciudad Juárez, to blend (6) _____ with mourning, love with sorrow. Opposite
them: a mural of painted eyes and the words “Te observan” – they’re watching you. And a self-portrait
by the artist, Isabel Cabanillas de la Torre, 25, shedding a tear. It is a (7) _____ touch: at the foot of the
painting is a floral tribute to Cabanillas, who was shot in the head on 18 January while cycling home.
Days of rage (8) _____: marches downtown blocking the Santa Fe border bridge; women wearing
pink balaclavas to commemorate the victims of the rash of murders of women in Juárez during the 1990s
and 2000s – of which this outrage is the latest (9) _____. Tonight is music, conversation and celebration
of Isabel’s metier: art, for sale tonight at (10) _____ prices towards a fund for her now motherless four-
year-old son. “We’re doing what she would have wanted us to do”, said Arón Venegas, the founder of
Pure Borde, the art collective to which Isabel belonged.
6. A. kneeling B. genuflexion C. obeisance D. homage
7. A. myoptic B. prescient C. headlong D. imprudent
8. A. passed B. continued C. followed D. started
9. A. mutation B. vicissitude C. permutation D.
metamorphism
10. A. prohibitive B. optional C. voluntary D. mandatory
Part 2. Read the passage and choose the correct answer A, B, C or D for each question.
AGGRESSION
When one animal attacks another, it engages in the most obvious example of aggressive behavior.
Psychologists have adopted several approaches to understanding aggressive behavior in people.
The Biological Approach: Numerous biological structures and chemicals appear to be involved
in aggression. One is the hypothalamus, a region of the brain. In response to certain stimuli, many animals
show instinctive aggressive reactions. The hypothalamus appears to be involved in this inborn reaction
pattern: electrical stimulation of part of the hypothalamus triggers stereotypical aggressive behaviors in
many animals. In people, however, whose brains are more complex, other brain structures apparently
moderate possible instincts.
An offshoot of the biological approach called sociobiology suggests that aggression is natural and
even desirable for people. Sociobiology views much social behavior, including aggressive behavior, as
genetically determined. Consider Darwin's theory of evolution. Darwin held that many more individuals
are produced than can find food and survive into adulthood. A struggle for survival follows. Those
individuals who possess characteristics that provide them with an advantage in the struggle for existence
are more likely to survive and contribute their genes to the next generation. In many species, such
characteristics include aggressiveness. Because aggressive individuals are more likely to survive and
THE PRACTICE BOOKLET FOR ENGLISH-MAJOR (VER A)
|127
reproduce, whatever genes are linked to aggressive behavior are more likely to be transmitted to
subsequent generations.
The sociobiology view has been attacked on numerous grounds. One is that people's capacity to
outwit other species, not their aggressiveness, appears to be the dominant factor in human survival.
Another is that there is too much variation among people to believe that they are dominated by, or at the
mercy of, aggressive impulses.
The Psychodynamic Approach: Theorists adopting the psychodynamic approach hold that inner
conflicts are crucial for understanding human behavior, including aggression. Sigmund Freud, for
example, believed that aggressive impulses are inevitable reactions to the frustrations of daily life.
Children normally desire to vent aggressive impulses on other people, including their parents, because
even the most attentive parents cannot gratify all of their demands immediately. [A] Yet children, also
fearing their parents' punishment and the loss of parental love, come to repress most aggressive impulses.
[B] The Freudian perspective, in a sense: sees us as "steam engines." [C] By holding in rather than
venting "steam," we set the stage for future explosions. [D] Pent-up aggressive impulses demand outlets.
They may be expressed toward parents in indirect ways such as destroying furniture, or they may be
expressed toward strangers later in life.
According to psychodynamic theory, the best ways to prevent harmful aggression may be to
encourage less harmful aggression. In the steam-engine analogy, verbal aggression may vent some of the
aggressive steam. So might cheering on one's favorite sports team. Psychoanalysts, therapists adopting a
psychodynamic approach, refer to the venting of aggressive impulses as "catharsis." Catharsis is
theorized to be a safety valve. But research findings on the usefulness of catharsis are mixed. Some
studies suggest that catharsis leads to reductions in tension and a lowered likelihood of future aggression.
Other studies, however, suggest that letting some steam escape actually encourages more aggression later
on.
The Cognitive Approach. Cognitive psychologists assert that our behavior is influenced by our
values, by the ways in which we interpret our situations and by choice. For example, people who believe
that aggression is necessary and justified-as during wartime-are likely to act aggressively, whereas
people who believe that a particular war or act of aggression is unjust, or who think that aggression
is never justified, are less likely to behave aggressively.
One cognitive theory suggests that aggravating and painful events trigger unpleasant feelings.
These feelings, in turn, can lead to aggressive action, but not automatically. Cognitive factors intervene.
People decide whether they will act aggressively or not on the basis of factors such as their experiences
with aggression and their interpretation of other people's motives. Supporting evidence comes from
research showing that aggressive people often distort other people's motives. For example, they assume
that other people mean them harm when they do not.
1. According to paragraph 2, what evidence indicates that aggression in animals is related to the
hypothalamus?
A. Some aggressive animal species have a highly developed hypothalamus.
B. Electrical stimulation of the hypothalamus delays animals’ inborn reaction patterns.
C. Animals behaving aggressively show increased activity in the hypothalamus.
D. Animals who lack a hypothalamus display few aggressive tendencies.
2. According to Darwin's theory of evolution, members of a species are forced to struggle for survival
because _______.
A. not all individuals are skilled in finding food
B. individuals try to defend their young against attackers
C. many more individuals are born than can survive until the age of reproduction
128
D. individuals with certain genes are more likely to reach adulthood
3. The word “inevitable” in the passage is closest in meaning to _______.
A. unavoidable B. regrettable C. controllable D. unsuitable
4. The word “gratify” in the passage is closest in meaning to_______.
A. identify B. modify C. satisfy D. simplify
5. The word “they” in the passage refers to _______.
A. future explosions B. pent-up aggressive impulses C. outlets D. indirect
ways
6. According to paragraph 5, Freud believed that children experience conflict between a desire to vent
aggression on their parents and_______.
A. a frustration that their parents do not give them everything they want
B. a fear that their parents will punish them and stop loving them
C. a desire to take care of their parents
D. a desire to vent aggression on other family members
7. Freud describes people as “steam engines” in order to make the point that people _______.
A. deliberately build up their aggression to make themselves stronger
B. usually release aggression in explosive ways
C. must vent their aggression to prevent it from building up
D. typically lose their aggression if they do not express it
8. Which of the sentences below best expresses the essential information in the highlighted sentence in
the passage? Incorrect answer choices change the meaning in important ways or leave out essential
information.
A. People who believe that they are fighting a just war act aggressively while those who believe
that they are fighting an unjust war do not.
B. People who believe that aggression is necessary and justified do not necessarily act
aggressively during wartime.
C. People who normally do not believe that aggression is necessary and justified may act
aggressively during wartime.
D. People who believe that aggression is necessary and justified are more likely to act aggressively
than those who believe differently.
9. Where in paragraph 5 does the following sentence best fit?
“According to Frued, however, impulses that have been repressed to continue to exist and
demand expression.”
A. [A] B. [B] C. [C] D. [D]
10. Complete the table below by matching five of the six answer choices with the approach to
aggression that they exemplify.
Approach
Understanding
Aggression
Biological Apr.
Psychodynamic Apr.
Cognitive Apr.
Associated Claims
A. Aggressive impulses toward people are
sometimes expressed in indirect ways.
B. Aggressiveness is often useful for individuals
in the struggle for survival.
C. Aggressive behavior may involve a
misunderstanding of other people's intentions.
D. The need to express aggressive impulses
declines with age.
E. Acting aggressively is the result of a choice
influenced by a person's values and beliefs.
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F. Repressing aggressive impulses can result in
aggressive behavior.
Part 3. Read the passage and think of ONE word that best fits in the numbered blank.
PLANETARY ARTISTRY
For me, the highlight of this past week's science news was the images (1) _________ back from
the Curiosity rover, providing (2) _________ geologic evidence that water flowed on Mars. Of course,
this wasn't exactly a surprise; for decades, planetary scientists have suggested the channel networks
visible in spacecraft imagery couldn't have been made by anything else. The evidence has been (3)
_________ as well, as various clay minerals and iron oxides have been identified through hyperspectral
imagery.
Nonetheless, I suspect that the image of definitely water-lain (4) _________ made the heart of
more than one geologist (5) _________ a beat. Ground truth. You could argue that the scientific
exploration of the extra-terrestrial is, at least (6)_________ part, a search for meaning: to position us (7)
_________ a larger cosmology. But our fascination with, and connection to, what we see in the night sky
comes not just through science, but also through art. So it should come as no surprise that scientific
images of planetary surfaces have (8) _________ inspiration to a range of artists from Galileo - whose
first sketches of the moon through a telescope are (9) _________ beautiful - to Barbara Hepworth - whose
interpretations of the (10) _________ surface are far less literal.
Part 4. You will be reading an article. 5 paragraphs have been removed from the text. Choose from
the paragraph (A-F) that fits in the numbered blank (1-5). There is ONE paragraph that you won’t
use. And there is ONE exmple.
“IT HAS PROVED A MINEFIELD”
Here’s the problem: in two months’ time I must travel to Malawi in southern Africa to help Gumbi
Education, a small, Guardian-led kids’ education charity that I chair. There’s no Skype option, no
railways or boats, and travelling 3,000 miles across Egypt, Sudan, Kenya and Tanzania by bus is not
recommended.
0.
F
But what I thought would be easy to arrange has proved a minefield. There is no agreement on
how much carbon dioxide a journey may emit, confusion about what actions best reduce emissions, a
huge choice of where to direct your money, and growing cynicism as airlines, airports and giant carbon-
greedy corporations use offsetting to sell more flights or get permission to grow even further.
1.
But as awareness of the climate crisis has grown, corporates in particular have turned to voluntary
offsetting and sent the market mainstream. Small companies have been weeded out, highly regulated
global carbon and renewable energy markets have been set up, and thousands of participating companies
and charities are now theoretically held to international standards by independent verifiers.Here’s the
problem: in two months’ time I must travel to Malawi in southern Africa to help Gumbi Education, a
small, Guardian-led kids’ education charity that I chair. There’s no Skype option, no railways or boats,
and travelling 3,000 miles across Egypt, Sudan, Kenya and Tanzania by bus is not recommended.
2.
But what I thought would be easy to arrange has proved a minefield. There is no agreement on
how much carbon dioxide a journey may emit, confusion about what actions best reduce emissions, a
huge choice of where to direct your money, and growing cynicism as airlines, airports and giant carbon-
greedy corporations use offsetting to sell more flights or get permission to grow even further.
3.
130
But as awareness of the climate crisis has grown, corporates in particular have turned to voluntary
offsetting and sent the market mainstream. Small companies have been weeded out, highly regulated
global carbon and renewable energy markets have been set up, and thousands of participating companies
and charities are now theoretically held to international standards by independent verifiers.
As the climate emergency grows, so too does the money involved – and the need for
accountability.
4.
Even though the International Air Transport Association (IATA) says that just 1% of passengers
offset their carbon emissions through voluntary programmes, there has been a 140-fold growth between
2008 and 2018, with 430 million tonnes of emission reductions generated since 2005.
5.
Sarah Leugers, communications director of the Geneva-based nonprofit Gold Standard, which
was set up by environment group WWF, says that – paradoxically – Donald Trump’s decision to pull the
US out of the Paris agreement transformed the market, with companies and individuals all now wanting
to do the right thing in contrast.
PARAGRAPH
A. Offsetting means calculating emissions and then purchasing equivalent “credits” from projects
that prevent or remove the emissions of an equivalent amount of greenhouse gases elsewhere. One
tonne of carbon is usually the equivalent of one credit and the market for these credits, worth possibly
a few tens of millions of dollars in 2007, is now valued at over $500m a year and growing fast.
B. A decade ago, the voluntary carbon offset market was tiny, unsophisticated and largely
unregulated. The little money raised was aimed at worthwhile projects, but few schemes to cut
emissions or promote development were verified or certified. Exposés, the financial crash and
painfully slow progress in the UN climate talks all helped discourage individuals and companies
from offsetting.
C. According to Airport Carbon Accreditation, 43 European airports (representing 26% of
European air traffic) are now certified Level 3+ neutrality, with a further 232 around the world part
of the same accreditation scheme, meaning they have at least begun their journey towards reducing
emissions.
D. A decade ago, the voluntary carbon offset market was tiny, unsophisticated and largely
unregulated. The little money raised was aimed at worthwhile projects, but few schemes to cut
emissions or promote development were verified or certified. Exposés, the financial crash and
painfully slow progress in the UN climate talks all helped discourage individuals and companies
from offsetting.
E. I’ve cut my annual holiday flights, I’ve reduced my work travel, and my carbon footprint is nothing
to what it was. But realistically, I must fly the 10,200 miles to and from Lilongwe – and I want to
offset my emissions in some way. If done correctly, this should mean that I do less harm overall.
F. I’ve cut my annual holiday flights, I’ve reduced my work travel, and my carbon footprint is nothing
to what it was. But realistically, I must fly the 10,200 miles to and from Lilongwe – and I want to
offset my emissions in some way. If done correctly, this should mean that I do less harm overall.
G. This is equivalent to more than all of Australia’s energy-related emissions in 2016, according to
Forest Trends, a New York-based conservation finance company that tracks carbon offset projects.
The company’s report, Voluntary Carbon Markets Insights, says: “Demand for voluntary carbon
offsets has grown … from just 0.3 million tonnes of CO2 in 2008 to 42.8 million tonnes in 2018.”
D. WRITING
THE PRACTICE BOOKLET FOR ENGLISH-MAJOR (VER A)
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Part 1. SENTENCE TRANSFORMATION
1. It goes without saying that your mom will blow her lid when she saw you had done such things.
(INTO)
It’s a forgone ____________________________________________________________________fury.
2. The teacher said clearly that the project must be done until next Saturday or else she would definitely
tell you off. (CAN)
The teacher said in ____________________________________________________________ you
alive.
3. The girl spent so much that she had to live on a shoestring. (EKED)
Unless the girl hadn’t spared __________________________________________________living.
4. The catastrophe has wiped out the town many times. (CUT)
Many a _________________________________________________.
5. The passengers only leave the bus until having checked all the luggage. (DISEMBARK)
Only after all _________________________________________________.
B. CÁC ĐỀ THI THỬ, ĐỀ THI MẪU (15
ĐỀ)
Lưu ý: Nhiều phần trong các đề thi mẫu giống với các phần bài ở phía đề tự luyện. Khuyến khích các em học sinh làm
lại.
Các đề thi mẫu được lấy y nguyên đề thi nên có sai sót mong gửi lại cho tác giả để được sửa chữa.
ĐỀ THI MẪU 1
ĐỀ THI ĐỀ XUẤT DUYÊN HẢI BẮC BỘ
2018-2019
TỈNH VĨNH PHÚC
132
A. LISTENING (50 points)
Part 1. You are going to hear a talk on the work of a printing department at university. For
questions 1-10, complete the notes below by writing NO MORE THAN THREE WORDS AND/OR A
NUMBER for each answer.
DEPARTMENT OF THE PRINTED WORD
Statistics
- many different full- and part-time courses
- 17 students on the (1) __________ MA courses and 7 full-time research students
- 9 full-time lectures
- about (2) __________ percent of students are from outside the country
Sponsorship
- links with organizations in the publishing world
- sponsorship of students, technicians and (3)__________
- outside speakers
- workshops built to expand facilities for book binding and (4) __________
Teaching
- main work is teaching the (5) __________
- as most printing is now very technological, students have to be (6) __________
- for students without the necessary skills, there are specialist technicians who deliver (7)
__________ in computing
Facilities
- in printing, editing, page design and layout, book-binding
- former students are now workiing as expert book (8) _______ and ________
Research
- growing interest in the history of the printed word from early European etc printing techniques
- a visiting lecturer, Dr Yu, is an expert on early Chinese manuscripts and (9) __________
- department is very popular, with many (10) ________ for each research position.
Part 2. You will hear a piece of news called “Bottled air”. For questions 1-5, write an answer of NO
MORE THAN THREE WORDS to each of the questions below.
1. What kind of news did the man see that made him decide to start his business?
2. What is the name of the industry the man is in?
3. How much air can you buy for $115?
4. Where does the entrepreneur live now?
5. What does the man sometimes have to go to the bottom of to get air?
Part 3. You will hear a representative from British Waterways called John Sampson taling about the
canal network in England. Listen and decide whether each of the following statements is true (T) or
false (F).
1. The canals were built despite the fact that there was no public finance and very little technology.
2. From 1919 to 1929, there were many canals that were competing with each other but were not
uniform in size.
3. The new union of canals provided a continuous link between major industrial cities.
4. There are plenty of natural habitats for a variety of wildlife on and around the canals.
5. Walkers can go to the nearest waterway office to get information on circular walks so they can start
and end at the same place.
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Part 4. You will hear two sports commentators called Heidi Stokes and Rob Aslett taking part in a
discussion on the subject of gyms. For questions 1-5, choose the correct answer (A, B, C or D) which
fits best according to what you hear.
1. What do Rob and Heidi think about government proposals regarding the problem of obesity?
A. They over-emphasize the role of dietary factors.
B. They represent a radical solution that must be worth trying.
C. They over-estimate the extent to which the fitness industry can help.
D. They are attempting to accommodate too many varied perspectives.
2. Heidi agrees with the suggestion that regular gym attendance _______.
A. can discourage people from keeping fit in other ways.
B. may lead to obsessive behaviour in some cases.
C. generally forms the basis of a healthy lifestyle.
D. could be harder to keep up in rural areas.
3. When asked about motivation, Rob suggests that many gym clients lose interest _______.
A. if they don’t get good value for money.
B. if they don’t find it enjoyable on a social level.
C. if they don’t make it part of a wider fitness regime.
D. if they don’t perceive real gains in personal fitness.
4. What does Heidi suggest about memership levels in gyms?
A. The best ones restrict access at peak times.
B. Most recruit more people than they cope with.
C. It is impossible to predict demand with any accuracy.
D. Over-recruitment can be counter-productive in the long run.
5. Rob thinks the key to successful gym markeing lies in _______.
A. remaining true to the core values of fitness and strength.
B. appealing to a wide cross-section of the population.
C. joining forces with providers of the related activities.
D. specialising in the needs of certain key groups.
B. LEXICO-GRAMMAR (40 points)
Part 1: Choose the corect answer (A, B, C, or D) to each of the following questions and write your
answers in the corresponding numbered boxes.
1. They lived in a thatched cottage in a ________ village in the heart of the English countryside.
A. dense B. conventional C. lush D. quaint
2. People suffered many hardships during the years of ________ after the war.
A. severity B. austerity C. sobriety D. integrity
3. She was very fortunate to ______ an excellent private tutor to help her with her study.
A. think through B. seek out C. pick up D. light upon
4. He’s a nice guy, always already to do somebody a good __________.
A. present B. play C. turn D. pleasure
5. The new company had been________ with one problem after another and looked as if it were about
to go under.
A. glorified B. tainted C. fraught D. bewildered
6. Disagreements among party members have led to a major political _______.
A. wrangle B. tussle C. scrap D. squabble
7. _______ police were called to the scene where violent protesters posed a threat to the public.
A. Trouble B. Riot C. Mutiny D. Crowd
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8. Their decision on whether I get the job or not will be based mostly on my academic ________.
A. reputation B. credit C. standing D. credentials
9. Take the doctor’s advice into consideration. He’s in ________ earnest about the epidemic.
A. mortally B. fatally C. gravely D. deadly
10. Most people who win a lot of money __________ usually it on unnecessary things.
A. consume B. give C. squander D. throw
11. When he saw the damage to his car, he ______________ into a rage.
A. rushed B. drove C. jumped D. flew
12. All efforts to calm the situation down only ______________ the situation.
A. exacerbated B. exasperated C. exaggerated D. extrapolated
13. They have a(n) ______________ interest in keeping the club as exclusive as possible.
A. vested B. invested C. shadowed D. implied
14. The manager’s future ______________ whether the team wins or loses this one game.
A. stems from B. rests on C. derives from D. counts on
15. On the way to Cambridge yesterday, the road was blocked by a fallen tree, so we had to make a
___.
A. deviation B. digression C. departure D. detour
16. It was some time before she came to _____ with the fact that she had lost.
A. catches B. holds C. grips D. grabs
17. When the Chairman ran off with his secretary, the Board tried to ______________ the matter.
A. switch off B. hush up C. calm down D. tuck away
18. We are aware that he has tried his best; ________, his work is just not good enough.
A. let alone B. albeit C. be that as it may D. come what may
19. It must be true. I heard it straight from the ______________ mouth.
A. dog's B. horse's C. camel's D. cat's
20. I slept badly last night and am feeling particularly ______________this morning.
A. slow-witted B. far-reaching C. off-hand D. top-heavy
Part 2. Supply the correct form of the words in capital in the following sentences.
1. Henry is now ______ trying to apologize for his behaviour at Louise’s wedding. (LATE)
2. Last night, my parents attended a ______ of a play scheduled to open next Tuesday. (VIEW)
3. My ______ dislike for the book disappeared when I finished reading a few chapters. (CONCEIVE)
4. Tom ______ turned on the hot water instead of the cold and burned his hand badly.(ERROR)
5. He has unwavering belief in something unreal such as ______ forces. (NORMALITY)
6. I don’t have time to read the _______ version of the book, so I’ll just buy the condensed version.
(ABRIDGE)
7. The little boy ran straight into the ______ arms of his father. (STRETCH)
8. The meetig has been _______ arranged for 3.00 p.m next Saturday. (PROVISION)
9. It may be ________ to force them into making a decision and if you upset them they’re quite likely
to overact. (PRODUCE)
10. Those corrupted officials tried to establish a _______ for their shameful transaction with the Mafia.
(COVERAGE)
Part 3. There are ten mistakes in the following passage, find and corrrect them.
Unlike many other species of turtle, the red-ear terrapin is not rare. In fact, four to five million
hatchings are exported annually from American farms. About 200,000 are sold in the United Kingdom.
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It is ranked that as many as 90 per cent of the young terrapins die in their first year because of the
poor conditions in which they are kept. Those which survive may live for 20 years and arrive the size of a
dinner plate. At this staging they require a large tank with heat and specialized lightning.
Terrapins carry salmonella bacteria which can poison people. This is why the sale of terrapins was
banished in the United States in 1975. They are still, however, exported to the United Kingdom.
Modern turtles come from a very antique group of animals that lived over 200 million years ago.
At this time dinosaurs were just beginning to establish them.
Different types of turtles have interesting features: some box turtles are known to have lived for
over 100 years, since other species of turtles can remain underwater for more than 24 hours. And the green
turtle is the most prolific of all reptiles, lying as many as 28,000 eggs each year.
If unwanted pet turtles are unleased into the wild, many will die and those which survive will
threaten the lives of native plants and animal.
C. READING (50 points)
Part 1. From the words listed below, choose the one which best fits the space, A, B, C or D.
LONDON’S BLACK CABS
Black cabs, officially known as Hackney Carriages, are (1) _______ London and are special for a
number of reasons. For a start, they are the only taxis in the city that can be hailed from the kerb with a
raised hand signal to get the driver’s attention. Currently, it is estimated that there are 20,000 black cabs
(2) _______ on the capital’s streets. Their origin, in fact, can be (3) _______ the name ‘Hackney
Carriage’ said to derive from the French word haquenée referring to the type of horse used to pull the
carriages in the days of horse-drawn carriages. The first horse-drawn Hackney coaches appeared on
London’s streets in the 17
th
century during the reign of Queen Elizabeth I. As transport developed and
motor cars were (4) _______, motor cabs replaced the horse-drawn carriages. Since the end of the 19
th
century, various car manufacturers’ vehicles have been used as motor cabs but it was not until the mid -
20
th
century that the cabs we have been (5) _______ over the last decades first appeared.
It is such a(n) (6) _______ of becoming a black cab driver in London and it is (7) _______. If you
want to gain this honour you will need to have passed the infamous test known as ‘the Knowledge’,
which was first introduced in 1851 following (8) _______ of complaints by passengers whose cab drivers
got lost. This incredibly difficult test can take around three or four years to prepare for and you can often
catch a glimpse of those drivers who are doing just this zipping around London on their mopeds, with a
map (9) _______ to a clipboard on their handlebars. These people are essentially trying not only to master
the 25,000 or so streets within a six-mile radius of Charing Cross, but also to work out the most direct
routes from place to place. They must know thousands of ‘points of interest’ such as hotels, hospitals,
places of worship, theatres, stations, sports and leisure facilities, to name but a few. Practically
everywhere and anywhere that a potential passenger would wish to be taken to or from must be known,
so a nodding acquaintance, for a black cab driver, is (10) _______, and perhaps this is the most difficult
part, knowing the quickest way to get from one place to another. Little wonder so few people are
successful.
1.
A. commensurate with
B. equivalent to
C. synonymous with
D. tantamount to
2.
A. hereabouts
B. hither and thither
C. or thereabouts
D. there and then
3.
A. ferreted out from
B. hunted down from
C. mapped out to
D. traced back to
4.
A. all the rage
B. of high standing
C. of repute
D. in vogue
5.
A. clued in on
B. genned up on
C. in the know about
D. no stranger to
6.
A. handiwork
B. procurement
C. realisation
D. undertaking
7.
A. beyond you
B. no brainer
C. no mean feat
D. over your head
8.
A. droves
B. hordes
C. packs
D. swarms
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9.
A. chained
B. fastened
C. linked
D. sealed
10.
A. beyond measure
B. beyond redemption
C. beyond the pale
D. beyond the veil
Part 2: For questions 1-10, fill each of the following numbered blanks with ONE suitable word
and write your answers in the corresponding numbered boxes provided.
THE PSYCHOLOGY OF SELLING
The psychology of retailing has come to rely on highly sophisticated techniques. Over and (1)
_______ the design of the shops and the packaging of the merchandise, clever positioning of goods also
ensures that the natural flow of people takes them to (2) ________ and every section in a shop. Customers
are led gently, but at the same time with deadly accuracy, towards the merchandise in such a way (3)
_______ to maximise sales.
Manufacturers compete for the right to have their products displayed at the most effective level.
In supermarkets, there is a crucial section in the tiers of vertical shelving somewhere between waist
height and eye (4) _______, where we are most likely to take note of a brand. In the old days, when we
went into a shop, we (5) _______our way up to the counter, behind (6) _______ would be the shopkeeper
and virtually all of the merchandise, and were served with what we wanted. Those days are (7) _______
and truly over.
Today, we are used to serving (8) _______ in supermarkets; products are laid before us as
enticingly as (9) _______, and impulse purchases are encouraged as a major part of the exercise. As a result
of this, we, as shoppers, have to keep our wits (10) ______ us to resist the retailers’ ploys.
Part 3. Read the passage and choose the best answer to each of the questions.
RUNNING WATER ON MARS
Photographic evidence suggests that liquid water once existed in great quantity on the surface of
Mars. Two types of flow features are seen: runoff channels and outflow channels. Runoff channels are
found in the southern highlands. These flow features are extensive systems - sometimes hundreds of
kilometers in total length - of interconnecting, twisting channels that seem to merge into larger, wider
channels. They bear a strong resemblance to river systems on Earth, and geologists think that they are
dried-up beds of long-gone rivers that once carried rainfall on Mars from the mountains down into the
valleys. Runoff channels on Mars speak of a time 4 billion years ago (the age of the Martian highlands),
when the atmosphere was thicker, the surface warmer, and liquid water widespread.
Outflow channels are probably relics of catastrophic flooding on Mars long ago. They appear only
in equatorial regions and generally do not form extensive interconnected networks. Instead, they are
probably the paths taken by huge volumes of water draining from the southern highlands into the northern
plains. The onrushing water arising from these flash floods likely also formed the odd teardrop-shaped
“islands” (resembling the miniature versions seen in the wet sand of our beaches at low tide) that have
been found on the plains close to the ends of the outflow channels. Judging from the width and depth of
the channels, the flow rates must have been truly enormous - perhaps as much as a hundred times greater
than the 105 tons per second carried by the great Amazon river. Flooding shaped the outflow channels
approximately 3 billion years ago, about the same time as the northern volcanic plains formed.
Some scientists speculate that Mars may have enjoyed an extended early period during which
rivers, lakes, and perhaps even oceans adorned its surface. A 2003 Mars Global Surveyor image shows
what mission specialists think may be a delta - a fan-shaped network of channels and sediments where a
river once flowed into a larger body of water, in this case a lake filling a crater in the southern highlands.
Other researchers go even further, suggesting that the data provide evidence for large open expanses of
water on the early Martian surface. A computer-generated view of the Martian north polar region shows
the extent of what may have been an ancient ocean covering much of the northern lowlands. The Hellas
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Basin, which measures some 3,000 kilometers across and has a floor that lies nearly 9 kilometers below
the basin’s rim, is another candidate for an ancient Martian sea.
These ideas remain controversial. Proponents point to features such as the terraced “beaches”
shown in one image, which could conceivably have been left behind as a lake or ocean evaporated and
the shoreline receded. But detractors maintain that the terraces could also have been created by
geological activity, perhaps related to the geologic forces that depressed the Northern Hemisphere
far below the level of the south, in which case they have nothing whatever to do with Martian water.
Furthermore, Mars Global Surveyor data released in 2003 seem to indicate that the Martian surface
contains too few carbonate rock layers - layers containing compounds of carbon and oxygen - that should
have been formed in abundance in an ancient ocean. Their absence supports the picture of a cold, dry
Mars that never experienced the extended mild period required to form lakes and oceans. However, more
recent data imply that at least some parts of the planet did in fact experience long periods in the past
during which liquid water existed on the surface.
Aside from some small-scale gullies (channels) found since 2000, which are inconclusive,
astronomers have no direct evidence for liquid water anywhere on the surface of Mars today, and the
amount of water vapor in the Martian atmosphere is tiny. Yet even setting aside the unproven hints of
ancient oceans, the extent of the outflow channels suggests that a huge total volume of water existed on
Mars in the past. Where did all the water go? The answer may be that virtually all the water on Mars is
now locked in the permafrost layer under the surface, with more contained in the planet’s polar caps.
1. The word “merge” in the passage is closest in meaning to ___________.
(A) expand (B) separate (C) straighten out (D) combine
2. What does the discussion in paragraph 1 of runoff channels in the southern highlands suggest about
Mars?
(A) The atmosphere of Mars was once thinner than it is today.
(B) Large amounts of rain once fell on parts of Mars.
(C) The river systems of Mars were once more extensive than Earth’s.
(D) The rivers of Mars began to dry up about 4 billion years ago.
3. The word “relics” in the passage is closest in meaning to _________.
(A) remains (B) sites (C) requirements (D) sources
4. In paragraph 2, why does the author include the information that 105 tons of water flow through the
Amazon River per second?
(A) To emphasize the great size of the volume of water that seems to have flowed through
Mars’outflow channels.
(B) To indicate data used by scientists to estimate how long ago Mars’ outflow channels were
formed.
(C) To argue that flash floods on Mars may have been powerful enough to cause tear-shaped
“islands” to form.
(D) To argue that the force of flood waters on Mars was powerful enough to shape the northern
volcanic plains.
5. According to paragraph 2, all of the following are true of the outflow channels on Mars EXCEPT:
(A) They formed at around the same time that volcanic activity was occurring on the northern
plains.
(B) They are found only on certain parts of the Martian surface.
(C) They sometimes empty onto what appear to have once been the wet sands of tidal beaches.
(D) They are thought to have carried water northward from the equatorial regions.
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6. All of the following questions about geological features on Mars are answered in paragraph 3
EXCEPT:
(A) What are some regions of Mars that may have once been covered with an ocean?
(B) Where do mission scientists believe that the river forming the delta emptied?
(C) Approximately how many craters on Mars do mission scientists believe may once have been
lakes filled with water?
(D) During what period of Mars’ history do some scientists think it may have had large bodies
of water?
7. According to paragraph 3, images of Mars’ surface have been interpreted as support for the idea that
(A) a large part of the northern lowlands may once have been under water.
(B) the polar regions of Mars were once more extensive than they are now.
(C) deltas were once a common feature of the Martian landscape.
(D) the shape of the Hellas Basin has changed considerably over time.
8. What can be inferred from paragraph 3 about liquid water on Mars?
(A) If ancient oceans ever existed on Mars’ surface, it is likely that the water in them has
evaporated by now.
(B) If there is any liquid water at all on Mars’ surface today, its quantity is much smaller than
the amount that likely existed there in the past.
(C) Small-scale gullies on Mars provide convincing evidence that liquid water existed on Mars
in the recent past.
(D) The small amount of water vapor in the Martian atmosphere suggests that there has never
been liquid water on Mars.
9. Which of the sentences below best expresses the essential information in the sentence in bold type in
the passage? Incorrect choices change the meaning in important ways or leave out essential
information.
(A) But detractors argue that geological activity may be responsible for the water associated
with the terraces.
(B) But detractors argue that the terraces may be related to geological forces in the Northern
Hemisphere of Mars, rather than to Martian water in the south.
(C) But detractors argue that geological forces depressed the Northern Hemisphere so far below
the level of the south that the terraces could not have been formed by water.
(D) But detractors argue that the terraces may have been formed by geological activity rather
than by the presence of water.
10. According to paragraph 4, what do the 2003 Global Surveyor data suggest about Mars?
(A) Ancient oceans on Mars contained only small amounts of carbon.
(B) The climate of Mars may not have been suitable for the formation of large bodies of water.
(C) Liquid water may have existed on some parts of Mars’ surface for long periods of time.
(D) The ancient oceans that formed on Mars dried up during periods of cold, dry weather.
Part 4.
The reading passage has seven paragraphs, A–G. Choose the correct heading for paragraphs A–
G from the list below. Write the correct number, i–ix, in boxes 1-13 on your answer sheet.
List of Headings
i
Unusual way of hatching the chicks
ii
Feeding habit of the red-footed booby
iii
Folding wings for purpose
iv
Rearing the young
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v
Classification of boobies
vi
Diving for seafood
vii
Surviving mechanism during the food shortage period
viii
Mating and breeding
ix
Origin of the booby’s name
Paragraph
C
ix
1 Paragraph A
2 Paragraph B
3 Paragraph D
4 Paragraph E
5 Paragraph F
6 Paragraph G
BLUE-FOOTED BOOBIES 2
A Boobies are a small group of seabirds native to tropical and subtropical oceans throughout the world.
Their diet consists mainly of fish. They are specialized fish eaters feeding on small school fish like
sardines, anchovies, mackerel, and flying fish. When their prey is in sight, they fold their long wings
back around their streamlined bodies and plunge into the water from as high as 80 feet, so streamlined
they barely make a splash. They travel in parties of about 12 to areas of water with large schools of small
fish. When the lead bird sees a fish shoal in the water, it will signal the rest of the group and they will all
dive together. Surprisingly, individuals do not eat with the hunting group, preferring to eat on their own,
usually in the early morning or late afternoon.
B There are three varieties on the Galapagos: the blue-footed, red-footed, and masked boobies. They
are all members of the same family, and are not only different in appearance but also in behaviours. The
blue-footed and red-footed boobies mate throughout the year, while the masked boobies have an annual
mating cycle that differs from island to island. All catch fish in a similar manner, but in different areas:
the blue-footed booby does its fishing close to shore, while the masked booby goes slightly farther out,
and the red-footed booby fishes at the farthest distances from shore.
C Although it is unknown where the name “Booby” emanates from, some conjecture it may come from
the Spanish word for clown, “bobo”, meaning “stupid”. Its name was probably inspired by the bird’s
clumsiness on land and apparently unwarranted bravery. The blue footed booby is extremely vulnerable
to human visitors because it does not appear to fear them. Therefore these birds received such name for
their clumsiness on land in which they were easily, captured, killed, and eaten by humans.
D The blue-footed booby’s characteristic feet play a significant part in their famous courtship
ceremony, the ‘booby dance’. The male walks around the female, raising his bright blue feet straight up
in the air, while bringing his ‘shoulders’ towards the ground and crossing the bottom tips of his wings
high above the ground. Plus he’ll raise his bill up towards the sky to try to win his mate over. The female
may also partake in these activities – lifting her feet, sky pointing, and of course squawking at her mate.
After mating, another ritual occurs – the nest-building which ironically is never used because they nest
on the bare ground. When the female is ready to lay her eggs, they scrape the existing nest away so she
can nest on exposed ground. Sun-baked islands form the booby’s breeding grounds. When ready the
female Blue Footed Booby lays one to three eggs.
E After mating, two or three eggs are laid in a shallow depression on flat or gently sloping ground.
Both male and female take turns incubating the eggs. Unlike most birds, booby doesn’t develop brood
patches (areas of bare skin on the breast) to warm the eggs during incubation. Instead, it uses its broad
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webbed feet, which have large numbers of prominent blood vessels, to transmit heat essential for
incubation. The eggs are thick-shelled so they can withstand the full weight of an incubating bird.
F After hatching, the male plays a major role in bringing fish home. He can bring back a constant supply
of small fish for the chicks, which must be fed continuously. The reason is that the male has a longer tail
than the female in relation to his body size, which makes him able to execute shallower dives and to feed
closer to shore. Then the female takes a greater part as time proceeds. Sooner or later, the need to feed
the young becomes greater than the need to protect them and both adults must fish to provide enough.
G When times are good, the parents may successfully fledge all three chicks, but, in harder times, they
may still lay as many eggs yet only obtain enough food to raise one. The problem is usually solved by
the somewhat callous-sounding system of “opportunistic sibling murder.” The first-born chick is larger
and stronger than its nest mate(s) as a result of hatching a few days earlier and also because the parents
feed the larger chick. If food is scarce, the first born will get more food than its nest mate(s) and will
outcompete them, causing them to starve. The above system optimizes the reproductive capacity of the
blue-foot in an unpredictable environment. The system ensures that, if possible, at least one chick will
survive a period of shortage rather than all three dying of starvation under a more ‘humane’ system.
Questions 7-10
Complete the summary below, using NO MORE THAN TWO WORDS from the reading passage for
each answer. Write your answers in boxes 7 –10 on your answer sheet.
The courtship of the Blue-footed Booby consists of the male flaunting his blue feet and dancing to
impress the female. During the dance, the male will spread his wings and stamp his feet on the ground
with his bills
7 …………. After mating, the booby’s unusual demeanor continues with ritual 8 ………… that really
serves no purpose. When the female Booby lays eggs, the parental boobies incubate the eggs beneath
their 9 …....… which contain 10 ………… to transmit the heat, because of the lack of brood patches.
WRITING (60 POINTS)
Part 1: Read the following extract and use your own words to summarize it. Your summary should
be about 140 words.
TECHNOLOGY IN THE CLASSROOM
One aspect integral to students of education is classroom technological aids. The main tool
discussed in this chapter is the video projector. Some instructors feel that such tools are unnecessary and
discourage student involvement. This need not be the case. Indeed, engaging and effective multimedia
lectures are possible if the following suggested framework for presentations is utilized.
The major criticisms of video projectors are that they inhibit student-teacher interaction, reduce
classroom attendance, and distract the students from thinking critically and processing the lecture
material. However, this is primarily due to the misuse of a video projector rather than the tool itself. The
most common problem is that instructors go overboard by adding every detail of their lecture to the
presentation. This reduces interaction because the professor becomes superfluous to the presentation. It
reduces attendance because many students may be able to simply download the presentation instead of
attending class. Finally, this approach tends to make students passive learners.
To avoid all of this, educators must use the technology strategically. One way to do this is to provide
only a broad outline of main points, leaving room for the instructor to expound on the details, take the
students out of the “read-and-copy” mindset, and, incidentally, solve the classroom attendance problem.
As for the other two problems, instructors must design the presentation to be engaging and to encourage
critical thinking and active information processing. The structure of a lecture should be organized around
a beginning, middle, and an end, and it should contain periodic pauses for active learning activities in
order to engage the student.
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The main objective in the beginning of the lecture is to spark the students’ interest, command their
attention, and clearly introduce the objective of the lecture. Video projectors can be particularly effective
here. Instructors should also present in the introduction a very broad enumeration of the main points that
the lecture will cover. The beginning is also a good time for a short brainstorming activity to further
involve the students. Now that the students have been introduced to the topic, its motivation, and the
main points, it is time to move on to the “meat” of the lecture.
The middle of the lecture is basically the content of the lecture. The main idea here is to present all
of the details without losing the students’ interest. Psychologists have determined that the average person
can remain focused on a lecture for approximately 12 to 15 minutes before mind-wandering ensues. The
solution is simple: instructors must break the lecture somehow every 12 to 15 minutes, providing a pause
for the processing of the information, during which instructors can re-engage the students and rekindle
their attention. Instructors can have the students get into pairs and brainstorm or quiz each other on the
information. Alternatively, instructors can have a free question/discussion period between the instructor
and the class. More creative re-engagement tactics, involving the multimedia capabilities of video
projectors and specifically-tailored to the topic, are of course highly effective as well.
The end of the lecture should rehash the information, address the initial motivation for the lecture,
and help the students assimilate the material into their own experiences. Good techniques here are a
closing summary and classroom assessment. The closing summary should reinforce the main points and
overall structure of the lecture. The assessment aims to engage the students one last time and to give the
instructor a means to measure the lecture’s effectiveness. This could involve simply asking the students
about their thoughts on the lecture, whether any points are still unclear or a few assessment questions to
evaluate their grasp of the content.
All in all, these techniques will motivate students to take an active role in class and will make video
projectors a tool that enhances, rather than suffocates, the learning experience.
Part 2. The table below shows the
number of medals won by the top ten
countries in the London 2012 Olympic
Games.
Summarise the information by selecting
and reporting the main features, and
make comparisons where relevant.
Part 3. Essay writing
Write an essay of about 300
words on the following topic.
Tests and examinations are a central
feature of school systems in many
countries. Do you think the educational
benefits of testing outweight any
disadvantages?
Give reasons for your answer, and include any relevant examples from your own knowledge or
experience.
__End Of The Test__
ĐỀ THI MẪU 2
ĐỀ THI ĐỀ XUẤT TRẠI HÈ HÙNG VƯƠNG LẦN THỨ XII
TRƯỜNG PT VÙNG CAO VIỆT BẮC
142
PART I: LISTENING (40 points)
Question 1: You are going to hear a talk on Canada. As you listen to the talk, complete the notes below
by writing no more than three words in the spaces provided. (20 points)
Canada is located in the northern half of the continent of North America northern parts of Canada
are called the land of 1……………………….., because at certain times of the year the sun
2…………………………. This northern part of Canada is cold and mostly
3………………………….with snow all year round. The original people in the northern part of Canada
are called 4“…………………………...” They are also called the “First Nation”. The populations in the
Atlantic provinces of Nova Scotia, Newfoundland, New Brunswick and Prince Edward Island are small.
The land there is not very fertile so their main industries are forestry, 5…………………..and mining.
The province of British Columbia is in the 6…………………………..of Canada and is an attractive
place for 7……………………..because of its mild climate, mountains, seacoast and
8……………………. The original settlers came from Asia. In the 16
th
century, the first Europeans
arrived in 9…………………………Canada. They came from Britain and France. By the end of the
10………………………………., all of Canada was under British rule. In this century, Canada has had
an influence of settlers from all over the world.
Question 2: Listen to the recording and complete the table below with ONE WORD AND/OR A
NUMBER for each answer. (10 points)
MOVING COMPANY SERVICE REPORT
Phone number: (1)……………………………………………
USA Address : 509 Clark House,
1137 (2)………………………………..Drive in Seattle
Packing day: Monday
Date: 11
th
(3)…………………………………..
Clean – up by: 5:00 p.m.
Day: (4)………………………………………..
About the Price: Rather expensive
Storage Time: (5) a ………………………………………..
Question 3: Choose the correct letter A, B, C, or D. (10 points)
GENERAL COURSE DETAILS
1. What is the defining characteristic of a specialized course?
A. Taking a proficiency exam C. Attending the class immediately
B. Attending the class frequently D. Compulsory and regular
2. The Microbiology courses are available for………………..
A. full-time and flexible-time students. C. Microbiology students only.
B. full-time students only. D. students on a flexible schedule.
3. The Biology courses are available for………………
A. all students. C. flexible-time students only.
B. full-time students only. D. freshmen only.
4. A Medical Science course will be opened next year because…………………..
A. the lap equipment is too expensive. C. there are no computers.
B. the building is damaged. D. There are no experimental facilities.
5. Which is the quickest increasing subject in enrolment?
A. Medical Science B. Statistics C. Environmental Science D. Economics
PART II: LEXICO-GRAMMAR (50 points)
Question 1: Choose the most suitable word or phrase (A, B, C, or D) to fill in each blank (20 points)
THE PRACTICE BOOKLET FOR ENGLISH-MAJOR (VER A)
|143
1. The great leader was ……… during a public forum, but no suspect has yet to be caught.
A. murdered B. assassinated C. invaded D. terminated
2. I agree with most of what you said, but I can’t ___ your idea of letting children leave school at 14.
A. catch up with B. keep up with C. go along with D. put up with
3. Congress has decreed that the gasoline tax ____________.
A. should abolished B. is abolished C. be abolished D. should be abolished
4. The judge _______ the criminal to twenty years in prison.
A. penalized B. punished C. sentenced D. inflicted
5. ___________ the eldest of five children and trained as a teacher, Dick never married.
A. Born B. Born as C. Being born D. Being born as
6. Please use the parking spaces _______ for visitors.
A. be designating B. are designating C. were designated D. designated
7. The city _________ at one time prosperous, for it enjoyed a high level of civilization.
A. should have been B. was C. may have been D. must have been
8.“What’s the matter? You don’t look very well.” – “I feel a little _________________.”
A. out of the blue B. under the weather C. out of order D. under the impression
9. Charlotte Bronte died of tuberculosis, ________.
A. as did all her sisters B. and all her sisters did
C. and so were all sisters D. either did all her sisters
10. He carried a(n)_________ driving license.
A. untrue B. unfaithful C. artificial D. false
11. During the festival ______ were hanging from every tree.
A. decorator B. decorations C. decorative D. decorativeness
12. I’ve never really enjoyed going to the ballet or the opera; they’re not really my______.
A. piece of cake B. sweets and candy C. biscuit D. cup of tea
13. The complaints he received were like water off a duck’s ___________.
A. back B. wings C. body D. feather
14. It may be necessary ____ a new car.
A. that she buy B. that she had bought C. for her buy D. for her buying
15. If you want to join that club, you have to ____ a form and send it to your secretary.
A. fill up B. fill out C. fill into D. fill over
16. Down into the cave ____.
A. did the rescue party go B. the rescue party went
C. went the rescue party D. did go the rescue party
17. Many children who get into trouble in their early teens go on to become ____ offenders
A. consistent B. insistent C. persistent D. resistant
18. When facing problems, it is important to keep a sense of ____.
A. comparison B. relativity C. proportion D. introspection
19. The choir stood in four rows according to their ____ heights.
A. respective B. respected C. respectful D. respectable
20. “What have you been ______?” – “Oh, nothing much. The usual things.”
A. about B. down to C. out with D. up to
Question 2: Write the correct FORM of each bracketed word in the number space provided in the
column on the right. (0) has been done as an example (10 points)
Example: 0: willingly
144
We are the only animal that chooses what it will look like. True, the chameleon changes color-
but not (0. WILLING) ________. Unlike us, it doesn’t get up in the morning and ask itself, “What shall
I look like today?”, but we can and do. Indeed, the (1.ANTIQUE) _________ of body decoration points
to the conclusion that it is a key factor in our development as the (2.DOMINATE) _________ life-form
on our planet. No human society has ever been found where some form of body decoration is not the
norm.
By (3.CUSTOM) _________ their physical appearance, our ancestors distanced themselves from
the rest of the animal (4.KING) _________. Within each tribe this helped them to mark out differences
of role, status and (5.KIN) _________. Our ancestors developed (6.ORDINARY) _________
techniques of body decoration for (7.PRACTICE) _________ reasons. How to show where on tribe
ends and another begins? How to memorably underline the (8.SIGNIFY) _________ of that moment
when an individual becomes an adult member of society? (9.ARGUE) _________, without the
expressive capabilities of such “body language” we would have been (10. FINITE) _________ less
successful as a species.
Question 3: Each of the following sentences contains a mistake. Identify the mistake and then correct
it. (10 points)
1. Folding fans arrived in Europe in the sixteenth century from China, where they had been common
used for more than 500 years.
2. Venus approaches the Earth more closely than any other planets are.
3. A basic knowledge of social studies, such as history and geography, are considered a basic part of the
education of every child.
4. The teacher found a great deal of mistakes in his students’ writing.
5. Regardless of your teaching method, the objective of any conversation class should be for the students
to practices peaking words.
6. Visitors may realize that even though they can’t make their homes in Venice city, they can take away
with them memories of their beauty.
7. The news of the negotiations for a peace treaty between the two Presidents were received with mixed
emotions by the citizens of both countries.
8. Almost all the students were confusing because Ms. Kelly’s explanation was unclear.
9. The Girls Scouts, found by Juliette Gordon Low in 1912, has grown to a current membership of more
than three million girls.
10. Americans annually import more than $ 3 billion worthy of Italian clothing, jewelry, and shoes.
Question 4: Complete each sentence with a suitable form of the phrasal verbs in the box. Use each
one once only. (10 points)
start off
cut down on
drop in on
get on with
start up
(not) live up to
take up
live down
wear off
go along with
look up to
come in for
1. The book you lent me _________my expectations.
2. The effects of the painkiller _________and my tooth began to hurt.
3. If it is difficult for you to _________ something you did wrong, it means people won’t forget it.
4. Unfortunately, Susie doesn’t _________ her new neighbors.
5. He _________ by pointing out the dangers involved in rock climbing.
6. Some very important issue was _________ all his attention.
7. I will_________ the idea if you’re sure it will work.
8. You should _________ smoking if you can’t stop completely
9. Most of his parents_________ Dr. Hickman for his kindness.
THE PRACTICE BOOKLET FOR ENGLISH-MAJOR (VER A)
|145
10. They are going to _________ a lot of criticism for increasing bus fares by so much.
PART III: READING (60 points)
Question 1: Choose the best word or phrase among A, B, C or D that best fits the blank space in the
following passage. (15 points)
UNIVERSAL WET WEEKEND
The weather across much of the British Isles (1) ……… settled last week, with a good (2)
……… of sunshine. On Saturday, the lunchtime temperature at Bridlington in the northeast of England
was 28.2oC, which compared favorably with Alicante in southern Spain at 29oC. The rest of the world,
however, was (3) ……… with some extreme conditions. A tropical storm, given the name Helen, hit
Hong Kong on Saturday morning, though her presence had been (4) ……….… in (5) ……… . From
noon on Friday, the showers and (6) ……… of rain became more and more frequent so that by midnight
on Sunday, thirty-six hours later, there had been 333mm of rainfall, not far off the (7) ……… for the
month of August, at 367mm. Even on Sunday there was a (8) ……… in Helen’s tail. The town centre of
Shanwei, near Hong Kong, was flooded when 468mm of rain fell in the sixty hours (9) ……… up to
midday on Sunday, (10) ……… twice the normal August rainfall. On the other (11) ……… of the globe,
tropical storm Gabrielle moved across the Gulf of Mexico and overnight rain (12) ……… the usual
rainfall for the (13) ……… month. Although most of Europe enjoyed sun, the high temperatures were
sufficient to set off some (14) ……… showers. On Tuesday morning, a thunderstorm at Lyons in eastern
France (15) ……… 99mm of rain in just six hours.
1. A. kept
B. remained
C. lasted
D. held
2. A. extent
B. quantity
C. proportion
D. deal
3. A. coping
B. matching
C. colliding
D. queuing
4. A. waited
B. found
C. felt
D. warned
5. A. light
B. advance
C. likelihood
D. day
6. A. outbursts
B. outbreaks
C. outputs
D. outlets
7. A. general
B. standard
C. medium
D. average
8. A. sting
B. prick
C. stab
D. poke
9. A. going
B. leading
C. taking
D. approaching
10. A. only
B. fairly
C. hardly
D. nearly
11. A. section
B. side
C. face
D. part
12. A. overtook
B. exceeded
C. passed
D. beat
13. A. total
B. sole
C. single
D. whole
14. A. huge
B. weighty
C. heavy
D. strong
15. A. deposited
B. placed
C. lay
D. set
Question 2: Read the following passage and choose one of four options A, B, C, or D to answer each
question. (10 points)
Sex–trait stereotypes may be defines as a set of psychological attributes that characterize men
more frequently than women. Thus, males are often described as ambitious, unemotional, and
independent and, on the other hand, like selfish, unrefined, and insensitive. Females are described as
emotional, irrational, high-strung, and tentative. In spite of the egalitarian movement, recent studies have
demonstrated that sex-trait stereotypes remain common among young adults today. In fact, such
stereotyping has proved to be the psychological justification for social beliefs concerning the
appropriateness of various activities for men and women that further perpetuate the different sex roles
traditionally ascribed to men and women.
The awareness of sex – trait stereotypes in the United States develops a linear fashion between
the ages of four and ten. Generally, knowledge of male stereotypical characteristics develops earlier,
146
whereas knowledge of female characteristics increases more rapidly between the ages of four and seven.
While the reasons for this learning are not fully understood, evidence suggests that at the preschool level
children’s literature and television programs provide powerful models and reinforcement for stereotyped
views. Studies designed to compare sex-trait stereotypes cross–nationally show a high degree of
correspondence in the characteristics ascribed to men and women. As finding have been obtained in the
other countries, two hypotheses have been advanced to explain the commonalities in sex trait
stereotyping. One states that pancultural similarities play a role in the psychological characteristics
attributed to men and women, and the second states that the general picture is one of cultural relativism.
1. The passage is probably an excerpt from an article on____.
A. sociology B. demographics C. psychotherapy D. sociobiology
2. Which of the following statements is supported in the passage?
A. The beliefs of young adults are more common among the old.
B. The beliefs of young adults have shown little change.
C. Young adults have participated in many common studied.
D. The egalitarian movement has been a resounding success.
3. In line 3, the word ambitious is closest in meaning to____.
A. anxious B. Ambiguous C. enterprising D. honest
4. In line 4, the word high-strung is closest in meaning to____.
A. nervous B. Hideous C. high-class D. fair-minded
5. In line 7, the word perpetuate is closest in meaning to____.
A. perplex B. maintain C. mount D. personalize
6. According to the passage, characterizations of men and women as having particular sets of
attributed are____.
A. found in several countries B. reflected in modern fashion
C. uniform across all groups D. contingent on a socioeconomic class
7. It can be inferred from the second paragraph that young children learn about sex-trait
stereotypes___.
A. by watching their parents B. when their learning is reinforced
C. by being exposed to various media D. after they start school
8. It can be inferred from paragraph that social beliefs precipitate ____.
A. nontraditional gender roles B. the rationalization for stereotyping
C. the on-going egalitarian change D. concerns for the legitimacy of sex traits
9. The author of the passage would most probably agree with which of the following statements?
A. Social attitudes are not likely to change radically
B. Social attitudes toward women have been updated and made more balanced.
C. Social attitudes toward men are continually nullified and modernized.
D. The women’s liberation movement has borne little fruit.
10. Which of the following is the best title for the passage?
A. A Cross–examination of Stereotypical Behaviors
B. A Relativist Perspective on Stereotyping
C. The Pervasiveness of Sex–Trait Stereotypes
D. A Unilateral Approach to Sex – Trait Stereotyping
Question 3: Read the passage and fill in each blank with ONE suitable word. (15 points)
ACCIDENTAL INVENTORS
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|147
A number of products (1)………..we commonly use today were developed quite by accident. Two of
many possible examples of this concept (2)………..the leotard and the Popsicle, each of which came
(3)…………when an insightful person recognized a potential benefit in a negative situation.
The first of these accidental inventions is the leotard, a close- fitting, one- piece garment worn today
by dancers, gymnasts, and acrobats, (4)……….others. In 1828, a circus (5) …………named Nelson
Hower was faced with the prospect of missing his performance because his costume was (6) ………..the
cleaners. Instead of cancelling his part of the show, he decided to perform in his long underwear. Soon,
other circus performers began performing the (7)……….way. When popular acrobat Jules Leotard
adopted the style, it became (8)………as the Leotard.
Another product (9) ………by chance was the Popsicle. In 1905, eleven – year – old Frank Epperson
stirred up (10) ……….drink of fruit- flavored powder and soda water and then mistakenly left the drink,
(11)……..the spoon in it, out on the back porch overnight. As the temperature (12)………that night, the
soda water froze around the spoon, creating a tasty treat. Years (13)……….remembering how enjoyable
the treat had been. Epperson went (14)………….business (15)…………Popsicles.
Question 4: Match each of the following headings with its suitable paragraph. The first one (0: H)
as an example has been done for you. There are two extra headings which you do not need to use. (5
marks)
A. Research holds the key to success B. New and improved techniques
C. A new kind of athlete D. New equipment has made a difference
E. Athletes are what they eat F. Personalized programs will help
G. The influence of drugs H. Is there a limit to record-breaking?
[0: ___H __]
A world record is every athlete’s dream, but the hard-won records of a few years ago are mostly just
today’s qualifying times. Roger Bannister’s famous four-minute mile of 1956 has been beaten by nearly
15 seconds, while almost an hour and twenty minutes has been taken off the women’s marathon since
1953. ‘Faster, higher, stronger’ is the Olympic motto, and today’s competitors continue to push back the
boundaries of what the body can achieve. But one wonders if this can continue.
[1: ______ ]
The last forty years have seen many important technological advances. For example, since the
introduction of strong, flexible fiberglass poles, over a meter has been added to the pole vault record.
There have also been important developments in the design the running shoe. And while a shoe won’t
actually make someone run faster, modern shoes do mean many more miles of comfortable, injury-free
training.
[2: ______ ]
Pushing back the limits now depends more on science, technology and medicine than anything else.
Athletic technique, training programs and diets are all being studied to find ways of taking a few more
seconds off or adding a few more cm to that elusive world record. It seems that natural ability and hard
work are no longer enough.
[3: ______ ]
The search to find more efficient ways of moving goes on. Analysis of an athlete’s style is particularly
useful for events like jumping and throwing. Studies show that long jumpers need to concentrate not on
the speed of approach, as once thought, but on the angle their bodies make with the ground as they take
off. However, the rules governing each sport limit advances achieved by new styles. For instance only
one-footed takeoffs are allowed in the high jump.
[4: ______ ]
148
In the future, it should be possible to develop a more individual approach to training programs. Athletes
will keep detailed diaries and collect data to help predict the point when training becomes overtraining,
the cause of many injuries. If athletes fee all the information into a database, it may then be possible to
predict patterns and to advise them individually when they should cut down.
[5: ______ ]
Combining the right diet with a training program is vital. Athletes are continually searching for that
special ‘go-faster’ ingredient, but apparently it’s still a battle to get them to drink sufficient liquid and to
follow a balanced healthy diet throughout all phases of training, competition and recovery. Diet in the
period after an event is particularly important and often neglected. An athlete who doesn’t replace all the
liquid lost immediately after a hard run won’t be able to repeat the performance at the same level 24
hours later.
Question 5: . You are going to read a magazine article. Eight sentences have been removed from the
article. Choose from the sentences A-K the one which fits each gap (1-10). There is one extra sentence
which you do not need to use. (10 marks)
ON CAMERA
When I saw the notice “Women film extras wanted” in a local newspaper, I jumped at the chance.
As a child I had dreamt of being a film star. (1). ……….
The casting interview, held in a church hall with many budding actors in attendance, went well, and
two days later I was told that I had been chosen. The production in question was revealed as Scottish
Television’s Dr Finlay drama, which is set in the 1950s.
(2) ……... . Extras are often left in the dark for some time when it comes to being told which role
they will play. Finally, the nature of my role was revealed; I was asked to play a mental hospital patient.
(3). ………. Then, barely a week later, the day of filming dawned. All 13 of us extras, mainly
housewives, were told to change into our costumes in the wardrobe department. Then we were driven to
the location, (4)………. It seems that it is common for old hospitals to be used in this way.
On arriving, we were given coffee and tea, which looked and tasted like cement. Then we were rushed
off to make up.(5) ………... Then we were sent to the minibus for a few hours, as the cameras rolled
elsewhere.
After the second hour had passed I was becoming bored. (6) ………. ... I had expected to be so busy
that I had not come prepared for a long wait. Many of the others had brought a book or knitting.
Three hours had now passed. (7) ………… . A large room in the hospital had been transformed into
a dayroom for that purpose. Although I had expected the room to be warm because of the lighting
equipment present, it was quite chilly.
When the director came in, we were instructed what to do and where to stand. Along with a few
others, I was told to sit at a table and weave baskets. (8) ……….. . The cane we had to use was very
long. On several occasions my basket fell apart in front of my very eyes. On others I only succeeded in
hitting a cameraman in the eye.
(9) …………. . Jean, who was barefoot, had to circle the floor. Poor Alice was asked to pretend
to bang her head against the wall. Meanwhile, Veronica swept the floor.
Thankfully, after just a few attempts, the scenes were done. (10) ………....... Although I found the
experience very interesting, my first screen role will almost certainly be my last.
A. This was not an easy task.
B. Life for the other extras was far from easy.
C. So some things just aren’t meant to happen, I suppose.
D. Despite my disappointment, I agreed to participate.
E. And so my first taste of this ‘glamorous’ career was over.
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|149
F. I was to lose some of my enthusiasm for the idea, however.
G. I bet stars are never treated like this, I thought.
H. Then at last we were called to do our scenes.
I. Now at last I would get my chance.
J. My hair was pinned back and make up was applied that gave me a
pale appearance
K. a hospital on the fringes of Glasgow
PART IV: WRITING (50 points)
Question 1: Rewrite the following sentences beginning with the given word. (7.5 points)
1. There has been a time when the English language was not in a state of change.
At no time ……………………………………………………………………………..
2. The President clearly felt the ministers he sacked had not acted swiftly enough.
The ministers sacked ………………………………………………………………….
3. The climber nearly died when they founder him.
The climber was on ……………………………………………………………………
4. The brochure gives hardly any useful information.
Precious ……………………………………………………………………………….
5. Our son is looking forward to going to Disney world.
Our son is excited ……………………………………………………………………..
Question 2: Rewrite the following sentences, using the word given in brackets. You must not alter the
word in any way. (7.5 points)
1. At first the new computer made me feel a bit afraid. (AWE)
2. If things go wrong, James, whatever you do, do not panic. (HEAD)
3. A government official leaked the story to the world press. (WIND)
4. The police arrived as the thieves were committing the crime. (RED-HANDED)
5. He liked the new job straight away. (DUCK)
Question 3: ( 35 points )
Violence among school students seems to be increasing. Write a passage of about 150 – 170 words
to suggest what should be done to help solve this problem.
THE END
BEST OF LUCK
ĐỀ THI MẪU 3
ĐỀ THI TUYỂN SINH VÀO TRƯỜNG TRUNG HỌC PHỔ THÔNG CHUYÊN NĂM 2019
CHUYÊN SƯ PHẠM HÀ NỘI
I. Choose the word whose underlined part is pronounced differently from that of the others.
Question 1: A. drought B. sought C. bought D. fought
Question 2: A. exhalation B. exuberant C. execution D. exhibition
II. Choose the word whose primary stress is placed differently from that of the others.
Question 3: A. Fabulous B.dominant C. responsive D. Versatile
Question 4: A. Curriculum B. Magnificence C. individual D. Astronomy
Question 5: A. Expire B. Inspire C. desire D. Empire
III. Choose the best answer for each of the following questions.
Question 6: Although she had never used a word – processor before, she soon got the ______ of it.
A. Sense B. Touch C.swing D. Hang
150
Question 7: The board proposes that the majority of this year’s profits _______ in the new product
development.
A. Be invested B.to be invested C.will be invented D. Is invested
Question 8: Never have I met a more ______ person than Gary. He never thinks about the
consequences of his actions; he just acts on the spur of the moment.
A. Impulsive B.intolerant C.obstinate D.inquisitive
Question 9: _______, the diners settled the bill and left the restaurant.
A. Hunger been satisfied C. satisfying their hunger
B. Their hunger satisfied D. Having satisfied hunger
Question 10: The weather is going to change soon – I can feel it in my ______.
A. Bones B. Legs C. teeth D. Skins
Question 11: ______, the balcony chairs will be ruined in this weather.
A. Left uncovering B. Left uncovered C. Leaving uncovered D. Having
uncovered
Question 12: The art thieves _______ inside knowledge of the museum’s security procedures.
A. are thought to be having C. were thought that they had had
B. are thought to have had D. were thought to be having
Question 13: The practical component lasts six months, ______ trainees will be able to demonstrate
what they have learned.
A. at that time B. during that time C. until which time D.by that time
Question 14: Nobody would call me an alcoholic, but I like to have a drink of beer _____ and then.
A. When B.now C.often D.there
Question 15: When will it _______ on you that I am right and you’re wrong?
A. Descend B.come C. dawn D. Strike
Question 16: The footballer never really recovered from the injury ______ at the beginning of the
season.
A. Got B.struck C.endured D.sustained
Question 17: My doctor said that I had _____a stomach bug and that the severe abdominal pain and
nausea would subside after seven days.
A. Gone out of B. got away with C.come down with D. Brought round to
Question 18: I’m afraid we got our _______crossed – I thought my husband would be picking up the
children and he thought I was doing it.
A. Minds B. fingers C. purposes D. Wires
Question 19: ________good reviews, the producers would commission a 10-part series.
A. Were the pilot show to get C. Unless the pilot show got
B. If the pilot show will get D. Should the pilot show get
Question 20: A: Have you told your dad what’s bothering you?
B: I’d ______than my parents.
A. rather to confide in you C. rather confiding in you
B. better confide in you D. sooner confide in you
IV. Read the text below and decide which answer best fits each gap. There is an example at the
beginning (0).
Example: (0): D
EARLY SPEECH DEVELOPMENT
If you're the proud parent of a toddler or preschooler, you are probably _______(0) aware of the
______(21) of speech development. It seems almost as though virtually overnight those heart-warming
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|151
gurgles and coos have ______(22) into words and later, into coherent sentences. According to recent
research, language development begins much sooner than any of us had ever suspected. It is now
______(23) believed that babies can hear while they are in the womb and this explains why babies that
are only hour’s old can distinguish between their own mother's voice and the voices or other women.
Language development is grounded in imitation. Babies ______(24) language by listening to
those around them and then copying the sounds and speech _______(25) that they are exposed to. Most
child psychologists are of the ______(26) that babies respond better to ‘baby talk’ - speech that is
_____(27) pitched and melodious. They stress, however, that baby talk should be spoken in
________(28) and that a combination of baby talk and normal conversation is the ideal way to promote
language development.
Some parents worry that their toddler is _______(29) behind its peers when it comes to speech
development. Experts are quick to advise them, however, that these ______(30) starters will gradually
catch up with their more communicative counterparts.
Example: 0: A. Aquainted B. familiar C.attentive D. aware
Question 21: A.sensation B.miracle C.marvel D.revelation
Question 22: A.converted B.adapted C.turned D.switched
Question 23: A.commonly B.routinely C.mutually D.normally
Question 24: A.obtain B.acquire C.gain D. get
Question 25: A.designs B.schemes C.models D.patterns
Question 26: A.idea B.mind C.concept D.notion
Question 27: A.loud B.strong C.shrill D.high
Question 28: A.moderation B.measure C.restraint D.limitation
Question 29: A.lagging B.lingering C.dallying D.loitering
Question 30: A.slowed B.delayed C.late D.belated
V. Read the following passage and choose the best answer (A,B,C, or D) to the questions that follow.
GENETIC ENGINEERING
THE UNIMAGINABLE FACE OF THE FUTURE?
1. If we now know enough to be able to make changes in the genetic material that we hand on to
our children, why not seize this power? Why not control what has been left to chance in the past?
Social and environmental influences already control many other aspects of our children's lives and
identities. We do not quarrel with the use of orthodontics to straighten teeth, or good nutrition and
education to enhance intelligence. Can we really reject positive genetic influences on the next
generation's minds and bodies when we accept the rights of parents to benefit their children in every
other way?
2. It seems to me inevitable that genetic engineering will eventually be used. It will probably
begin in a way that is most ethically acceptable to the larg est portion of society, to prevent babies
inheriting conditions that have a severe impact on the quality of life, such as heart or lung conditions.
The number of parents needing or desiring this service might, be tiny, but their experience would help
to ease society's fears, and geneticists could then begin to expand their services to prevent the
inheritance of genes leading to other disorders that have a less severe impact, or an impact delayed
until adulthood. At the same time, other genes could be added to improve various health characteristics
and disease resistance in children who would not otherwise have been born with any particular
problem.
3. The final frontier will be the mind and the senses. Here, genetic engineering could have
enormous benefits. Alcohol addiction could be eliminated, along with tendencies toward mental
disease and antisocial behaviour like extreme aggression. People's senses of sight and hearing could be
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improved, allowing for new dimensions in art and music And when our understanding of brain
development has | advanced, geneticists will be able to provide parents with the option of enhancing
various intellectual attributes as well.
4. Is there a limit to what can be accomplished with genetic enhancements? Some experts say
there are boundaries beyond which we cannot go. But humans have a tendency to prove the experts
wrong. One way to identify types of human enhancements that lie in the realm of possibility - no matter
how outlandish they may seem today - is to consider what already exists in the living world. If another
living creature already has a particular attribute, then we can work out its genetic basis and eventually
we should be able to make it available to humans. For example, we could provide humans with a
greatly enhanced sense of smell like that of dogs and other mammals, and the ability to 'see' objects in
complete darkness through a biological sonar system like the one that allows bats to find their way in
the dark.
5. In the longer term, it might be possible to identify the genetic information which allows
creatures to live under extreme conditions here on Earth - like the microscopic bacteria that live in
scalding hot water around volcanic vents on the ocean floor, far removed from light and free oxygen,
and other creatures that use a biological form of antifreeze to thrive in sub-zero temperatures around
Antarctica. One day it may even be possible to incorporate photosynthetic units into human embryos so
that humans could receive energy directly from the sun, just like plants. Such genetic gifts could allow
these genetically modified humans to survive on other planets in the solar system, where they could in
turn use genetic engineering to further enhance the ability of their own children to survive in their
chosen worlds.
6. In the short term, though, most genetic enhancements will surely be much more mundane.
They will provide little fixes to all of the naturally occurring genetic defects that shorten the lives of so
many people. They will enrich physical and cognitive attributes in small ways. But as the years go by
over the next two centuries, the number and variety of possible genetic extensions to the basic human
genome* will rise dramatically - like the additions to computer operating systems that occurred during
the 1980s and 1990s. Extensions that were once unimaginable will become indispensable - to those
parents who are able to afford them.
*The total of all the genes that are found in one living thing.
Question 31: According to the writer, what has been “left to chance in the past”?
A. The genetic compability of potential parents.
B. The social and environmental factors affecting children.
C. The qualities and characteristics that children inherit
D. The ways in which parents may benefit their children
Question 32: Genetic engineering may first be applied to disabilities affecting babies because______.
A. The greatest long-term benefit would be provided C. this would prevent so much suffering
B. This would be the last controversial use D. the social consequences are so severe
Question 33: Once genetic engineering is accepted, it may be used to _______.
A. Improve the mental capabilities of unborn children
B. Extend understanding of how the brain works
C. Bring a new realism to art and music
D. Care prople wit alcohol-related problems
Question 34: Looking further into the future, the writer suggests that human attributes _______.
A. Could be transferred to other live creatures
B. Can only be enhanced with characteristics from other humans
C. Should not be interfered with beyond certain limits.
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D. Could be improved with genetic information from other creatures
Question 35: The writer suggests that genetic engineering may ultimately allow humans to ________.
A. Live under the ocean C. produce energy by using the Sun
B. Reproduce with creatures from other planets D. live and reproduce in inhospitable
conditions
Question 36: In the final paragraph the writier implies that genetic engineering _______.
A. Should only be used to deal with genetic defects
B. Will be affected by computer technology
C. may not be used to benefit everyone equally
D. will one day be taken for granted by everyone
Question 37: What can be inferred about the writer’s attitude?
A. He is concerned about the implications of future developments.
B. He is enthusiastic about future developments in genetic engineering.
C. He is disappointed by the limited advances already achieved.
D. He is hopeful that there will be rapid developments in the near future.
Question 38: Which of the following is CLOSEST in meaning to the word “thrive” in paragraph 5?
A. Survive B.surrender C.flourish
D.perish
V. Read the article which discusses whether machines could ever have human qualities. Seven
paragraphs have been removed from the article. Choose from the paragraphs A-H the one which fits
each gap. Write your answers in the corresponding numbered boxes on the answer sheet. There is
ONE extra paragraph which you do not need to use.
One of the high points in Mary Shelley’s gothic novel Frankenstein is when the tragic creature
cobbled together from cadavers comes face to face with its human creator Victor Frankenstein, the real
monster of the story.
Question 39:
This heart-wrenching declaration exposes a paradox about the hapless creature. Frankenstein
built his creation from spare parts, so in one sense it is just a machine. Yet the creature instinctively
understands himself as human, something more than a machine.
Question 40:
Nearly two centuries later the same question has surfaced again. And today the question is being
asked not of some fictional creature but of machines in various states of creation that promise to have
human-like senses and to be conscious, at least in some form. Theologians and computer scientists are
starting to wonder if any of these machines might ever be said to have a soul. If so, would such a soul
be like a human being’s, or something altogether different?
Question 41:
Between these two poles stretches a continuum of opinion. For example, Jennifer Cobb, a
theologian and author of a forthcoming book on theology and cyberspace, says that today’s computers
are about as alive as viruses – but ‘along with a little bit alive comes a little bit of soul,’ she says. ‘If the
day comes when computation becomes so complex as to express emotions, then they will have quite a
bit more soul. It’s an infinite resource with infinite potential.’
Question 42:
Artificial intelligence researchers are already dabbling with emotional machines, and computers
that could become conscious of their surroundings and of themselves. One of the most ambitious of
these projects is Cog, a talking robot designed in human form that will be capable of exploring the
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world through sight, sound and touch. The project team hopes that Cog will be able to discover the
world the way a human baby does, and will thus come to understand things as a child does.
Question 43:
Yet how would we tell if a computer developed a soul? It might not be enough for a computer to
look, behave and think like a human. It might also involve a more complex definition, such as the
possession of a sense of moral responsibility, or sense of self. Of course, a sense of moral responsibility
could be programmed into a computer. But what if a silicon-based being were to develop a morality of
its own – its own conscience? What would that be like?
Question 44:
Alternatively, a computer could be ‘cloned’ so many examples of the same ‘being’ could exist.
What would that do to the machine’s conception of itself and others? We just don’t know what ethics
would be like for a computer – we barely know hoe to imagine such a thing.
Question 45:
But this is not necessarily so. From Shelley’s nineteenth-century monster to today’s real-life
robots, complex entities have a habit of taking on a life of their own.
MISSING PARAGRAPHS
A. It could be different from the human variety. Take death, for example. A computer with a back-up
tape might not see death as a big deal. Think about how different life would be if we had back-up
tapes.
B. The story raised the issue of whether or not something manufactured would have a soul – that
mysterious entity which is the very essence of humanness, the thing that links us irrevocably to God.
C. For Philip Clayton, a theologian and philosopher, such an idea goes against the grain of much
religious thinking. But he agrees that, in the future, as machines become more like humans, the
distinction between them could become blurred. ‘On what grounds would we withhold souls from
computers when they inhabit humanoid robotic bodies, accept visual input, give output with human
voices and function comfortably in many social contexts?’ he asks.
D. Stories such as Frankenstein suggest that the things we humans create are often much more than
the sum of their parts. Many people imagine that if we built something, we would know all about it.
E. If it lives up to expectations, it will express emotions. Eventually, they argue, it’s surely going to
be able to say, ‘I’m afraid,’ or ‘I’m bored,’ and mean it. And if it does say such things – and mean
them – then is it so far-fetched to wonder if it would have a soul?
F. Constant rejection has finally led it to commit murder. Yet when it first became conscious it was
not evil. ‘Believe me,’ it says in anguish, ‘I was benevolent; my soul glowed with love and
humanity.’
G. It is interesting that we are happy to consider the Frankenstein creation in terms of what its
thoughts are or the fact that it has self-will. But this is fiction. Whether or not a machine is conscious,
and whether we can prove it, is a fascinating philosophical exercise, nothing more, nothing less.
H. Opinions tend to fall between two extremes. Many people want to draw an unbreachable divide
between humans and machines, insisting that however smart a computer might become it could never
have a soul. On the other hand, some artificial intelligence researchers insist that humans are just
complex machines, so why wouldn’t a silicon-based machine also have a soul? For these scientists, a
soul would be simply an emergent property of a very complex system.
VI. Supply the correct form of the words given in brackets. Write your answers in the corresponding
numbered boxes on the answer sheet. There is an example at the beginning (0).
EXAMPLE: 0. Traditional
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For decades—for centuries, in fact—students have been listening to lectures, reading books and
taking exams. But this (0.TRADITION)_________mode of instruction is becoming ever more
(46.ADEQUACY) ________ as a method of educating our young people. In a complex world (47.
RUN) _________ with information, there’s one skill above all that the next generation will need: the
capacity to engage in (48. CRITICISM)_________thinking.
College would seem to be an ideal time to develop this faculty, but higher education’s often-
hidebound ways aren’t doing the job. One widely-cited study found that at least 45 percent of students
in its sample did not demonstrate any (49.STATISTICS)_________significant improvement in their
(50.REASON)_________and communication skills during their first two years of college.
Spurred by such findings, educators have sought to engineer new approaches. One that seems to
be working: asking undergraduates to conduct actual scientific research. It may seem
(51.PLAUSIBLE) _________ or impractical to expect college students to carry out
(52.AUTHENTICITY) ______ experiments—as (53.OPPOSITION) _______to “cookbook” lab
exercises with a (54.ORDAIN)________ result. But that’s exactly what CUREs are all about.
CUREs—course-based undergraduate research experiences—are becoming increasingly popular,
(55.IMPLEMENTATION) _________ at hundreds of colleges and universities across the country
VII. Read the text below and think of ONE word which best fits each gap. Write your answers in the
corresponding numbered boxes on the answer sheet. There is an example at the beginning (0).
Many parents find the fussy eating habits of their children distressing due to the fact that they
feel that their offspring may not be obtaining proper nutritional benefits from the food that they eat. In
(0)__response__ to these concerns, the University of London has conducted extensive research in an
(56)______ to better understand wholesome children are more particular (57)______ what they ingest
than others. Their findings and conclusions have proved quite thought – provoking.
The university initiated the study by collecting questionaires from 244 mothers of children
(58)_____ between seven and nine years old. In one of these surveys, specific questions were asked
regarding: what the child’s food (59)______ were, the length of time required for the child to consume
a normal portion of food, whether there was any avoidance of particular food groups, and finally,
whether the child had any control over the portion sizes being served.
In a (60)_______ survey, the focus was placed primarily on how the care-giver (normally the
mother) reacted to the child’s (61)________ behavior. Again, the results of the study proved to be quite
astounding. Researchers discoverd that the more pressure the mother exerted on the child to encourage
conformance to a certain eating pattern, the (62)______ acquiescent the child was in its acceptance of
the rigid rules of conduct placed on him during (63)________ times. Regarding those mothers whose
primary concern it was to control portion size, for fear of encouraging (64)_________ in their child,
there was strong evidence that these children had a tendency to overeat whenever the opportunity
(65)_______itself.
VIII. Read the text below and look carefully at each line. Some of the lines are correct, and some are
incorrect. If a line is correct, put a tick by the number of the question on the answer sheet. If a line is
incorrect, write the error and provide correction by the number of the question on the answer sheet.
There are three examples at the beginning (0,00 and 000).
0. Correct
00. Feeling →to feel
000. The British →British
0.
We have all heard tales about difficult people at work, usually managers, but the office is
00.
also where many people make friends, and friends inspire us to feeling more enthusiastic
000.
about the job we do.Research has found that more than half of British workers meet their
156
66.
best friends in the office and more than a third say that they go on holiday with their fellow
67.
workers .The changing nature of work – more flexibility, more multi-tasking – means that
68.
people seek stability from their workmates. Friendships bring support in a changing world. A
69.
collaborative working environment paves a way to make job-sharing and expansion
70.
roles more with an option for employers and employees. So fun workplaces, where friendships
71.
flourish, attract workers who can handle with changing job roles. This is not entirely surprising
72.
although it may be when Elton Mayo conducted experiments in human behaviour with workers
73.
at the Western Electric Company in Chicago in the 1920s. By fiddling with the factory lighting
74.
levels, Mayo found that productivity and morale were affected morale were affected ore by
cohesion levels among
75.
staff as by physical conditions. The conclusion he drew from these experiments was that work is
a social affair
IX. Complete the second sentence, using the word given so that it has a similar meaning to the
sentence printed before it. Write between THREE and EIGHT words, including the word given in
brackets,
in the space provided on the answer sheet. Do not change the word given in brackets in any way.
Write your answers in the corresponding numbered boxes on the answer sheet.
76. Mary felt entirely comfortable when her boss was around. (EASE)
→ Mary felt entirely_______________________________ her boss.
77. He said their marriage has been successful as they are tolerant of each other. (PUT)
→ He_________________________________ the fact that they are tolerant of each other.
78. It would be impossible for us to redecorate the house at the moment because we don’t have enough
money. (QUESTION)
→ Redecorating the house is _______________________________________ at the moment because
we don’t have enough money.
79. These days people regard that kind of behavior as normal. (COME)
→ That kind of behavior ___________________________________ as normal.
80. I don’t understand one word of this document. (HEAD)
→ I can’t _________________________________ this document.
X. Finish each of the following sentences in such a way that is exactly the same as the sentence
printed before it. Write your answers in the corresponding numbered boxes on the answer sheet.
81.Ann’s work has hardly got any better at all this term.
→ There has ____________________________________________________.
82. I wasn’t brave enough to enter the burning building again.
→ I didn’t have __________________________________________________.
83. He was so enthusiastic that he apparently ignored any warning signs.
→ Such _________________________________________________________.
84. A couple’s hapiness depends on their frequency of communication.
→ The more ______________________________________________________.
85. As her notes are incomplete, Sharon wasn’t concentrating very hard in the lessons.
→ Sharon can’t ___________________________________________________.
XII. Write a paragraph of about 140 words about the reasons why an increasing number of
cafeterias
and restaurants are replacing single-use plastic items such as plastic straws and utensils with paper
ones.
-----THE END-----
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|157
ĐỀ THI MẪU 4
ĐỀ THI CHÍNH THỨC
KỲ THI CHỌN HỌC SINH GIỎI DUYÊN HẢI BẮC BỘ KHỐI 10
NĂM HỌC: 2017 - 2018
A. LISTENING (5.0 points):
Part 1. Complete the form below using NO MORE THAN TWO WORDS AND/OR A NUMBER for
each answer. (1.0pt)
ASCOT CHILDCARE CENTRE ENROLLMENT FORM
Personal Details:
Family name: Cullen
Child’s first name: (1) ______________
Age: 3
Birthday: (2) ______________
Address: (3) ______________
Emergency contact number: 3467 8890
Relationship to child: grandmother
Development:
• Has difficulty sleeping during the day
• Is able to (4) ______________ herself
Childcare Arrangements
• Days required: (5) ______________ and ______________
• Pick-up time: 4 pm
Part 2: You will hear part of a radio interview with a law student called Mark Stone, talking about
his life at university. For questions 11-15, decide whether the following statements are true (T) or
false (F). (1.0pt)
6. Mark decided to study at Gramwell University because it offers a very good course in his subject.
7. When Mark arrived at Gramwell, he was surprised by the architecture.
8. Mark got a part-time job because he had to cover the cost of his accommodation.
9. According to Mark, students do not mind communicating with their lecturers.
10. In terms of social life, Mark worries about wasting time.
Part 3. You will hear a student talking about the survey conducted among people of different age
groups to find out how architecture may affect people’s lives. Listen carefully and choose the correct
answer A, B or C for each question. (1.0 pt)
11. The purpose of the data collection was to _________.
A. collect detailed information on various buildings.
B. test people's reaction to different buildings.
C. assess the beauty of different public buildings.
12. The initial plan to use a questionnaire was abandoned, because _________.
A. it would take too much time to produce.
B. the questions were difficult to write.
C. it would take too long for people to complete.
13. People indicated their reactions on 1-5 scale, _________.
A. ensuring that the information was easier to collect.
B. giving rise to some interesting answers.
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C. making it quicker to choose the three images.
14. What was done to preserve the images when being used?
A. People were asked to wear gloves when touching them
B. They were covered in plastic with a special machine.
C. The images were handled only by the researcher.
15. What was the reason for appointing a leader for the group?
A. To help hold the team together.
B. To comply with the instructions for the task.
C. To allocate tasks to the various members
Part 4: You will hear part of an interview with an explorer. Complete the sentences by writing NO
MORE THAN THREE WORDS AND/OR A NUMBER for each answer. (2.0pts)
THE EXPLORER
It could be said that his expeditions over the last five years have mostly (16)________ but there
have been (17) ________ on any of them.
He thinks that (18) ________ of his expeditions has been good and that (19) _____ and (20) ____
have been right. One of the aims of his expedition to Antarctica is to raise money for a (21) ______.
The second aim is to find out what the human body can tolerate when working very hard without
having enough food (22) _______.
These days he does not emphasise (23) ________ involved in exploring because people take it for
granted.
He intends to go to (24) _______ this year.
On the next expedition to Antarctica they are taking special (25) _______ and more food than on
the previous expedition there.
B. LEXICO- GRAMMAR (5.0pts)
Part 1. Choose the best option A, B, C, or D to complete the following sentences and write your
answers in the corresponding numbered boxes. (2.0 pts)
1. We decided to celebrate by going out and painting the town ________.
A. red B. purple C. gold D. brown
2. The actors gave a very ________ performance, and the critics expressed their disapproval in
their reports the following day.
A. pie-in-the-sky B. run-of-the-mill C. good-for-nothing D. behind-the-scene
3. He was ________ devastated by the news.
A. utterly B. extremely C. deeply D. immensely
4. Suppose she ________ that outrageous story circulating around the office, she’d be furious.
A. has heard B. would hear C. were heard D. had heard
5. They go to the seaside ________ they should be disturbed by the noise of the city.
A. as B. for C. lest D. so that
6. Could I pick your ________ on the subject before the meeting?
A. brains B. head C. intellect D. mind
7. I ________ with the performances but I got flu the day before.
A. was to help B. helped C. was to have helped D. had helped
8. ________, they slept soundly.
A. Hot though was the night air B. Hot though the night air was
C. Hot as was the night air D. Hot although the night air was
9. You should be ________ ashamed of yourself for what you have done.
A. thoroughly B. hopelessly C. entirely D. earnestly
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|159
10. You’ll be glad to know that Yuki’s work is showing a ________ improvement.
A. mediocre B. minimal C. prominent D. pronounced
11. When she puts her mind to it, she is always capable of ________ sarcasm.
A. sharpening B. biting C. slicing D. striking
12. He was absolutely ________ with anger when he found that I had scratched his car.
A. burned B. carmine C. livid D. fickle
13. Fred has a________ of staying out of trouble at the office - he never gets involved.
A. trait B. ability C. skill D. knack
14. Lindsay’s excuses for being late are beginning to________ rather thin.
A. get B. turn C. wear D. go
15. The train service has been a ________ since they introduced the new schedules.
A. rumpus B. shambles C. chaos D. fracas
16. The zoo attendant opened the cage and tried to________ the animal back in.
A. coax B. induce C. seduce D. convince
17. I have given up trying to make my sister see the sense, and now I am________ to the fact that she
is going to marry Jason
A. adapted B. resigned C. adjusted D. accepted
18. I am rather suspicious of your brother‘s sudden concern for your welfare and fear that he may have
________ motives
A. untold B. concealed C. ulterior D. secondary
19. Mary said she wanted to be Prime Minister when she grew up but Anna, not to be_____, said she
was going to be Queen.
A. overawed B. outdone C. outclassed D. overtaken
20. I’m not surprised people are arguing - they are at the ________ of their tether.
A. termination B. limit C. finish D. end
Part 2: The passage below contains 10 mistakes. Identify the mistakes and write the corrections.
(1.0pt)
1
2
3
4
5
6
7
8
9
10
11
12
13
Tourism is now among the world most important industries, generate jobs and profits
worth billions of pounds. At the same time, therefore, mass tourism can have dire
effects on the people and places they embraces – both tourists and the societies and
human environments they visit. We are increasingly familiar with some of the worst
effect of unthinking, unmanaged, unsustainable tourism: previously developed coastal
villages that have become sprawling, charmless towns, their seas poisoned by
sewage, denuded of wildlife, their beaches stained with litter and empty tubes of sun
cream. Historical towns, their streets now choked with traffic, their temples, churches
and cathedrals seemingly reduced to backdrop for holiday snaps that proclaim, “Been
there, Done that”. Some of the world’s richest environments were bruised by the tourist
onslaught, their most distinctive wildlife driven to nearly-extinction, with wider
environmental impacts caused with the fuel-hungry transport systems used to take
holidaying travelers around the world and back again.
Line 1: world
→
world’s
Part 3: Complete each sentence with one suitable particle or preposition. (1.0pt)
1. Japan continues to forge _________ in the manufacture of new electronic equipment.
2. It took Sarah some years to work _________a market for her products.
3. The company plans to roll _________the scheme across Europe in the coming months.
160
4. I met Harold in the supermarket. He was asking ___ you and I said you were fine and really happy
about this new job you've got.
5. These statistics are too confusing. We need to break them______ into the four different seasons of
the year for a clearer picture.
6. He is not lying. Everything he has told us so far is_________ the level
7. The goods were not sold openly but were available _________ the counter.
8. Mr Deacon next door had a very serious operation. Apparently, it’s a miracle he pulled ____.
9. In some cultures, people wear jewelry to ward _________evil spirits.
10. Everyone was bowled ___ by his decision to quit a well-paid job and move over to the countryside.
Part 4: Read the text below. Use the word given in capitals at the end of some of the lines to form a
word that fits in the space in the same line. (1.0pt)
A recent poll on the use of animals in circuses showed that the majority of people in the UK
now disapproves of it. Circuses which employ animals are no longer seen as a form of (1. HARM)
_____ entertainment; in fact, most people think they should be banned (2. RIGHT) _____. Eighty
percent of those interviewed (3. VOICE) ____ declared that the use of endangered wild animals such
as elephants and tigers should be prohibited, while sixtyfive percent said no animals (4. WHAT) _____
should be used in circuses. A large proportion also claimed they were opposed to the inevitable
(5.BRUTAL) _____ involved in training animals to perform tricks. Animals in the wild do not juggle
balls, ride monocycles, leap through (6.FIRE) _____ hoops or wear clown costumes. Furthermore,
besides being kept in (7.CONFINE) ______, circus animals travel for most of the year, living a life of
(8. DEPRIVE) ______.Unfortunately, there is evidence to indicate that most animals face (9.TREAT)
_____ on a daily basis. The number of people who visit animal free circuses these days is over twice
the number of those who visit traditional circuses. Animal free circuses are growing in number as well
as popularity, and many say that the quality of the acts performed by humans far (10. EXCESS) _____
those acts that use animals.
C. READING (5.0pts)
Part 1. Read the following passage and decide which answer (A, B, C, or D) best fits each gap.
Write your answers in corresponding numbered boxes. (1.0 pt)
There can be no (1) ______ that online shopping is of huge benefit to the consumer. Far from
becoming (2) ______, online shoppers are very demanding. Overpriced merchants with poor services
should beware. Gone are the days when stores could charge what they liked for goods and get away
with it. The same, too, for shady manufacturers: smarter consumers know which products have a good
(3) ______and which do not because online they now read not only the sales (4) ______ but also
reviews from previous purchasers. And if customers are disappointed, a few clicks of the mouse will
take them to places where they can let the world know. Nowadaysthere is nothing more damning than a
(5) ______ of negative comments on the internet.
However, the big boys, as always, are ahead of the game. Some companies are already adjusting
their business models to take account of these trends. The stores run by Sony and Apple, for instance,
are more like brand showrooms than shops. They are there for people to try out (6) ______ and to ask
questions to knowledgeable staff. Whether the products are (7) ______ bought online or offline is of
secondary importance.
Online traders must also adjust. Amazon, for one, is rapidly turning from being primarily a
bookseller to becoming a (8) ______ retailer by letting other companies sell products (9) ______ its
site, rather like a marketplace. During America's Thanksgiving weekend last November, Amazon's
sales of consumer electronics in the United States exceeded its book sales for the first time in its
history. Other transformations in the retail business are (10) ______to follow.
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1. A. query B. question C. examination D. proposal
2. A. competent B. dissatisfied C. complacent D. compassionate
3. A. reputation B. resolution C. opinion D. distinction
4. A. blurb B. message C. blare D. bubble
5. A. prod B. pile C. row D. flood
6. A. emblems B. tools C. devices D. schemes
7. A. intrinsically B. ultimately C. utterly D. intricately
8. A. block B. lump C. mass D. chunk
9. A. by B. through C. at D. on
10. A. bound B. secured C. tied D. forced
Part 2: Read the text below and think of the word which best fits each space. Use only ONE word
in each space. (1.5 pts)
Throughout history people have worn clothing of one description or another. Apart from
protection against the weather, clothes were (1) ______ often used to show the wearer’s status and
wealth. Over the years, numerous fashions in clothing have come and gone. (2) ______ some of these
have been popular for relatively short periods, others have (3) ______ longer. (4) ______ the first half
of the 20th century, the ability to follow fashion was limited to those who had the money to (5) ______
so. But following fashion did not only demand money, it also required large amounts of leisure time.
Wealthy people took fashion very (6) ______and close attention had to be paid to detail. Wearing the
correct clothes for different occasions was very important, despite the fact that this often meant (7)
______ clothes five or six times day. More recently, fashionable clothes have come (8) ______ the
reach of ordinary people. The traditional craft of dressmaking, (9) ______ usually involved sewing by
hand, was both costly and slow. But today, large-scale manufacturing has made it easier for people to
keep up with changes in fashion (10) ______ having to spend a great deal of money.
Part 3. Read the following passage and circle the best answer to each of the following questions.
(1.0pt)
Vincent Van Gogh was born in Groot Zundert, in The Netherlands on March 30th 1853, to parents
Theodorus Van Gogh, a preacher, and Ana Cornelia Carbentus. In 1869 at the age of 16, Van Gogh began
a career, not as a painter, but as an art dealer with the firm Goupil & Cie. He spent 7 years at Goupil &
Cie where daily contacts with works of art kindled his appreciation of paintings and drawings. Gradually
Vincent lost interest in his work and decided to try his hand teaching at a Catholic School for boys. His
growing interest religion and his desire to help the poor eventually drove him to become a clergyman. In
1878, he became a lay preacher in one of the most impoverished regions in Western Europe: the coal-
mining district of the Borinage in Belgium. Vincent sympathized with the poverty-stricken miners and
gave away most of his food and clothing to ease their burdened lives. His extreme commitment to the
miners drew disfavor from the church, which dismissed him of his post. Vincent, however, decided to
remain with the miners and began to paint them and their families, chronicling their harsh conditions.
Soon after, thanks to his brother’s financial help, Vincent decided to go to Brussels in 1880 to
begin studies in art. During the next 10 years, Vincent painted around 872 painting. In 1882, Vincent
began living with Clasina Maria Hoornik, also known as Sien, and her children, in the Hague. Their
volatile personalities and the strain of living in complete poverty created stormy relationship. Vincent
was devoted to Sien and her children, but art always came first. As his drawing and painting skills
advanced, his relationship with Sien deteriorated and they parted ways in September 1883.
In 1886, Vincent moved in with his brother-Theo in Paris where he met Paul Gauguin and various
other artists, who had a tremendous impact on his ongoing evolution as an artist. Never truly happy in
large cities, Vincent decided to move to Aries Province in the south of France, where he rented a studio
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and invited Paul Gauguin to live with him. In December 1888, Vincent experienced a psychotic episode
in which he cut off a piece of his left ear. After his episode, he was in and out of asylums for the next
year. It was thought that Van Gogh was actually epileptic and that is why people thought he had fits of
insanity throughout his life. He painted one of his best-known painting, Starry Night, during one of his
stays in the asylum. In mid-1890, Vincent left the asylum and spent the last few months of his life in
Auvers, France. On July 27th 1890, Vincent Van Gogh shot himself in the chest. Two days later he died
with his younger brother-Theo by his side. He left behind a wonderful array of paintings that make him
one of the most influential painters of our time.
1: The word "chronicling" in paragraph 1 is closest meaning to "_________".
A. recording B. classifying C. suffering D. colouring
2: Van Gogh decided to become a clergyman due to ________.
A. his love of art B. his teachings at the Catholic School for boys
C. the Goupil & Cie art dealer firm D. his developing enthusiasm in Christianity
3: Vincent's extreme commitment to the miners resulted in ________.
A. his painting the miners and their families
B. his sympathizing with the miners
C. the church discharging him of his duty
D. the church giving food and clothing to the miners
4: The word "deteriorated" in paragraph 2 is closest meaning to "_________".
A. detested B. became worse and worse
C. developed D. turned down
5: Vincent and Clasina's relationship was stormy because of ________.
A. his devotion to art B. the stress of living in poor conditions
C. her children D. their tame personalities
6: Vincent first went into an asylum because ________.
A. he painted Starry Night B. he was epileptic
C. he cut off part of his ear D. he was insane throughout his life
7: Vincent went to Aries because ________.
A. he did not get along with his brother, Theo
B. he wanted to live in Gauguin's house in Aries
C. he wanted to live in a bigger city
D. he disliked big cities
8: Vincent moved to Paris ________.
A. in order to evolve as an artist B. to live with his brother
C. to meet other artists D. to live with Paul Gauguin
9: Van Gogh was believed to be ________.
A. insane B. a loner C. epileptic D. an inadequate painter
10: The word "episode" in paragraph 3 refers to "_________".
A. important event in his life B. unbelievable fact
C. unfortunate time D. one of several parts of a story on television
Part 4: Read the following extract and answer questions 1-10. (1.5pts)
FOOD ADVERTISING ON CHILDREN
This review was commissioned by the Food Standards Agency to examine the current
research evidence on:
• the extent and nature of food promotion to children
• the effect, if any, that this promotion has on their food knowledge, preferences and behaviour.
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A. Children’s food promotion is dominated by television advertising, and the great majority of this
promotes the so-called ‘Big Four’ of pre-sugared breakfast cereals, soft drinks, confectionery and
savoury snacks. In the last ten years advertising for fast food, outlets have rapidly increased. There is
some evidence that the dominance of television has recently begun to wane. The importance of strong,
global branding reinforces a need for multi-faceted communications combining television with
merchandising, ‘tie-ins’ and point of sale activity. The advertised diet contrasts sharply with that
recommended by public health advisors, and themes of fun and fantasy or taste, rather than health and
nutrition, are used to promote it to children. Meanwhile, the recommended diet gets little promotional
support.
B. There is plenty of evidence that children notice and enjoy food promotion. However, establishing
whether this actually influences them is a complex problem. The review tackled it by looking at studies
that had examined possible effects on what children know about food, their food preferences, their
actual food behaviour (both buying and eating), and their health outcomes (eg. Obesity or cholesterol
levels). The majority of studies examined food advertising, but a few examined other forms of food
promotion. In terms of nutritional knowledge, food advertising seems to have little influence on
children’s general perceptions of what constitutes a healthy diet, but, in certain contexts, it do es have
an effect on more specific types of nutritional knowledge. For example, seeing soft drink and cereal
adverts reduced primary aged children’s ability to determine correctly whether or not certain products
contained real fruit.
C. The review also found evidence that food promotion influences children’s food preferences and
purchase behaviour. A study of primary school children, for instance, found that exposure to
advertising influenced which foods they claimed to like; and another showed that labelling and signage
on a vending machine had an effect on what was bought by secondary school pupils. A number of
studies have also shown that food advertising can influence what children eat. One, for example,
showed that advertising influenced a primary class’s choice of daily snack at playtime.
D. The next step, of trying to establish whether or not a link exists between food promotion and diet or
obesity, is extremely difficult as it requires research to be done in real-world settings. A number of
studies have attempted this by using the amount of television viewing as a proxy for exposure to
television advertising. They have established a clear link between television viewing and diet, obesity,
and cholesterol levels. It is impossible to say, however, whether this effect is caused by the advertising,
the sedentary nature of television viewing or snacking that might take place whilst viewing. One study
resolved this problem by taking a detailed diary of children’s viewing habits. This showed that the
more food adverts they saw, the more snacks and calories they consumed.
E. Thus the literature does suggest food promotion is influencing children’s diet in a number of ways.
This does not amount to proof; as noted above with this kind of research, incontrovertible proof simply
isn’t attainable. Nor do all studies point to this conclusion; several have no found an effect. In addition,
very few studies have attempted to measure how strong these effects are relative to other factors
influencing children’s food choices. Nonetheless, many studies have found clear effects and they have
used sophisticated methodologies that make it possible to determine that i) these effects are not just due
to chance; ii) they are independent of other factors that influence diets, such as parents’ eating habits or
attitudes; and iii) they occur at a brand and category level.
F. Furthermore, two factors suggest that these findings actually downplay the effect that food
promotion has no children. First, the literature focuses principally on television advertising; the
cumulative effect of this combined with other forms of promotion and marketing is likely to be
significantly greater. Second, the studies have looked at the direct effects of individual children, and
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understate indirect influences. For example, promotion for fast food outlets may not only influence the
child but also encourage parents to take them for meals and reinforce the idea that this is normal and
desirable behaviour.
G. This does not amount to proof of an effect, but in our view does provide sufficient evidence to
conclude that an effect exists. The debate should now shift to what action is needed, and specifically to
how the power of commercial marketing can be used to bring about improvements in young people’s
eating.
Questions 1-6.
Choose the most suitable heading for paragraphs A-G from the list of headings below.
List of Headings
1. Paragraph B 2. Paragraph C 3. Paragraph D
4. Paragraph E 5. Paragraph F 6. Paragraph G
0. Paragraph A ____ vii _____
Questions 7-10
Do the following statements agree with the views of the writer in Reading Passage?
YES if the statement agrees with the views of the writer
NO if the statement contradicts with the views of the writer
NOT GIVEN if it is impossible to say what the writer thinks about this
7. There is little difference between the healthy diet recommended by advisors and diet prompted in
food advertisements.
8. TV advertising has successfully taught children nutritional knowledge about vitamins and others.
9. It is hard to decide which aspect accompanied by TV viewing has caused weight problems or other
detrimental effects on children.
10. The preference of food for children is affected by their age and gender.
D. WRITING (5.0 pts)
Part 1. Finish each of the following sentences in such a way that it means exactly the same as the
sentence printed before it. (1.0pt)
1. The inhabitants were far worse-off twenty years ago than they are now.
The inhabitants are nowhere near___________________________________
2. Nowadays I consider taking up a hobby to be far less important than I used to.
Nowadays I don’t attach nearly _____________________________________
3. Mass tourism has been one of the causes of the environmental problems.
Mass tourism is _________________________________________________
4. That makes me think of something that happened to me.
That brings ____________________________________________________
5. The new deal has introduced many changes in the cooperation
i. General points of agreements and disagreements of researchers
ii. How much children really know about food
iii. Need to take action
iv. Advertising effects of the “Big Four”
v. Connection of advertising and children’s weight problems
vi. Evidence that advertising affects what children buy to eat
vii. How parents influence children’s eating habits
viii. Advertising’s focus on unhealthy options
ix. Children often buy what they want
x. Underestimating the effects advertising has on children
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Many a ________________________________________________________
Part 2. Rewrite each sentence using the word in brackets so that the meaning stays the same. You
must use between THREE and EIGHT words, including the word given. (1.0pt)
6. When they started their trek, they had no idea how bad the weather would become. (OUTSET)
Nobody realized _______________________________ how bad the weather would become.
7. A great many people will congratulate her if she wins. (SHOWERED)
She will ________________________________________________________ if she wins.
8. It's one thing to think there's a demand for your product and another to make a sale. (WORLD)
There is ________________________ there’s a demand for your product and making a sale.
9. In this area, Thailand is much better than all other countries in football. (HEAD)
In this area, Thailand ___________________________________ other countries in football.
10. The train should have left 30 minutes ago. (MEANT)
The train ___________________________________________________ 30 minutes ago.
Part 3: “Cooperation rather than competition should be encouraged among high-school
students.” In about 200- 250 words, write an essay to express your opinion on the proposal. Use
reasons and examples to support your position. (3.0pts)
THE END
ĐỀ THI MẪU 5
ĐỀ THI CHỌN HSG 9 THÀNH PHỐ HCM 2018 2019
PART A. LISTENING (AUTHOR-ADDED SECTION)
Section I. Listen to the recording and answer the questions below. Write NO MORE THAN THREE
WORDS AND/OR A NUMBER for each answer.
1. Which elephants stay together all their life?
2. What are elephant family groups known as?
3. When scientists tracked groups of elephants, which feature of behaviour did they notice?
4. Which sense do elephants probably use to communicate over long distances?
5. What did American scientists do with a recording of elephant calls?
6. What did the elephants in the experiment rush to find?
7. What were scientists unable to do with the recording they had made?
Section II. Listen to the next part of the recording. What does the lecturer say about each type of
elephant call? Choose your answers from the box, and write the letters A–H next to questions 8–10.
A. cannot be heard by humans at all B. is usually accompanied by a leg movement
C. begins and ends at the same pitch D. is usually accompanied by a nod of the head
E. continuously increases in pitch F. is repeated over a long period
G. continually fluctuates in volume
8. Greeting _________ 9. Contact call _________ 10. Summons to move on _________
PART B. PHONOLOGY (AUTHOR-ADDED SECTION)
Part I. Choose the word whose underlined part is pronounced differently from the others. (OLP 30/4
2015)
11. A. bomber B. subtlety C. indebted D. limber
12. A. asthma B. atheism C. athlete D. anthropology
13. A. accredit B. salamander C. majesty D. saliva
14. A. dogged B. advisedly C. markedly D. plugged
15. A. archetype B. chromatic C. ricochet D. chronicle
Part 2. Choose the word which is stressed differently from the other three. (OLP 30/4 2015)
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16. A. argumentative B. theoretical C. contributory D. hypersensitive
17. A. ecotourism B. hierarchy C. acropolis D. neighborhood
18. A. hieroglyphics B. horizontal C. revolutionary D. aristocracy
19. A. ingenuity B. guarantee C. caravansary D. committee
20. A. mausoleum B. testimony C. miniature D. meteorite
PART C. USE OF ENGLISH
Part I. Choose the word or phrase (A, B, C, or D) that best completes the sentence
21. They ran all the way to the shop only to realize that they __________ that.
A. didn’t need to do B. wouldn’t have done C. couldn’t have done D. needn’t have
done
22. __________ he will be ill if he doesn’t have a holiday soon.
A. In all likeness B. It is highly likely that
C. Every probability is that D. The possible chances are
23. The boy will never forget __________ in front of the school for his outstanding performance.
A. being praised B. to be praised C. having praised D. to have praised
24. In different circumstances, I __________ yes.
A. will say B. may have said C. could be said D. would have said
25. My bike __________, so I have to take the bus to school now.
A. didn’t start B. won’t start C. doesn’t start D. is not starting
26. The coach and not the players __________ for the loss of the last match.
A. was to blame B. were blamed C. was to be blamed D. were to blame
27. The teacher encourages __________ speaking English in and outside the classroom.
A. regular practicing B. to regularly practice C. practicing regularly D. regularly
practicing
28. Down on the seabed __________.
A. the wreck of the ship is lying B. is the wreck of the ship still lying
C. is still lying the wreck of the ship D. still is the wreck of the ship lying
29. Many students do __________ jobs during holidays to earn extra money.
A. inferior B. low C. poor D. casual
30. Wild geese always fly in a definite __________.
A. figure B. formation C. shape D. formula
31. A report about a book, a play, or a film is called a __________.
A. review B. revision C. relay D. summary
32. There are very few artists who have __________ much material success in their own lifetime.
A. fulfilled B. enjoyed C. possessed D. realized
33. It is usually impossible to tell the difference between two __________ twin.
A. same B. identical C. alike D. similar
34. The country has __________ supplies of oil.
A. abundant B. plenty C. full D. much
35. He __________ me to a game of tennis.
A. won B. beat C. challenged D. invited
Part II. Choose the word or phrase (A, B, C, or D) that is incorrect.
36. Some dentists advocate that the use of salt for brushing teeth rather than buying commercial
teeth
A B C D
powder or paste.
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37. One of the greatest engineering feats of the 20th century was the building of Panama Canal.
A B C D
38. Oil paintings are most commonly done by a canvas surface supported by a frame.
A B C D
39. Psychologists suggest that there is often a connection of the color red with victory in people’s
mind.
A B C D
40. The scientific method comprises forming hypotheses, collect data, and testing results.
A B C D
Part III. Fill in the blank with the appropriate form of the word given in brackets.
41. Our plastic bottle are 100% ____________ and use 50% less plastic. (CYCLE)
42. The ____________ has been reported to the police, and is now under investigation. (BREAK)
43. Parents should keep their children’s ____________ to the Internet in check. (EXPOSE)
44. Her ____________ acclaimed novel has won many literary prizes worldwide. (NATION)
45. He looked at his son with a slightly ____________ frown. (WORRY)
46. Smoking is fatally ____________ to people’s health. (INJURE)
47. Your last essay was full of grammatical ____________. Reduce them in the next one.
(ACCURATE)
48. Rubber bullets are designed to ____________ people rather than kill them. (CAPABLE)
49. All he ever eats are oranges, guavas, etc. We can call him a(n) ____________. (FRUIT)
50. They have devoted all their time to ____________ into a possible cure for AIDS. (SEARCH)
51. All children can make progress, ____________. (EDUCATE)
52. They have produced some rather ____________ explanations for the system failure.
(CONVINCE)
53. Look at that girl performing on the stage. She’s a Toc Tien ____________. (LOOK)
54. We sent her a copy of the physics book in ____________ of her part in its creation.
(KNOWLEDGE)
55. I ____________ for Jane on Tuesday evening while she was at her friend’s wedding. (BABY)
PART D. READING
Part I. Read the passage and choose the best option (A, B, C or D) for each blank space.
Consulates (56)______ to help citizens abroad to help themselves. Every year millions of people
go abroad for (57)______ or profit. There are consular officers ready to do what they can to help if
people get into difficulties, but for all sorts of reasons there are (58)______ to what they can do. Most
of the (59)______ things go well for travelers abroad but occasionally things go wrong.
So, whether you are an experienced traveler or a first (60)______, going by yourself, with the
family or a group there are things you should do before you go. Think about money and tickets well
(61)_____. Take enough money including enough to pay your return (62)______, and hold on to it.
Better (63)______, buy return tickets in the first place. In a(n) (64)______ a consul will (65)______
relatives or friends and ask them to help you with money or tickets. But there’s no (66)______ that says
a consul has to lend you money and if he (67)_____does (and it will have to be repaid) he will want to
be (68)_____ first that you really do have no money and there is no one else you know who can help.
It is also important to take out proper insurance for everything from car breakdowns to
(69)______ of life. A consul cannot pay your medical or any other (70)______, nor can he do the work
of local travel representatives or motoring organizations.
56. A. maintain B. live C. exist D. support
57. A. joy B. pleasure C. play D. attraction
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58. A. hints B. limits C. problems D. weaknesses
59. A. time B. moment C. condition D. situation
60. A. person B. mover C. doer D. timer
61. A. in advance B. before C. prior hand D. beyond time
62. A. price B. transport C. account D. fare
63. A. much B. than C. yet D. still
64. A. danger B. emergency C. disaster D. problem
65. A. contact B. talk C. face D. communicate
66. A. law B. regulation C. authority D. power
67. A. initially B. after that C. eventually D. consequently
68. A. insured B. confirmed C. satisfied D. certified
69. A. loss B. death C. ending D. lack
70. A. taxes B. properties C. documents D. bills
Part II. Choose the item (A, B, C or D) that best completes the unfinished statement about the
passage.
There are desert plants which survive the dry season in the form of inactive seeds. There are also
desert insects which survive as inactive larvae or pupae. In addition, difficult as it is to believe, there
are desert fish which can survive through years of drought in the form of inactive eggs. These are
shrimps that live in the Mojave Desert, an intensely dry region in the southwest of the United States
where shade temperatures of over 50 degrees Centigrade are often recorded.
The eggs are the size and have the appearance of grains of sand. When sufficient spring rain
falls to form a lake, once every two to five years, these eggs hatch. Then the water soon swarms with
millions of tiny shrimps about a millimeter long which feed on microscopic plant and animal organisms
which grow in the temporary desert lake. Within a week, the shrimps grow from their original 1
millimeter to a length of about 1.5 centimeters. Throughout the time that shrimps are rapidly maturing,
the water in the lake equally rapidly evaporates. Therefore, it is a race against time. By the twelfth
day, when they are about three centimeters long, hundreds of tiny eggs form on the underbodies of the
females. Usually, by this time, all that remains of the lake is a large, muddy patch of wet soil. On the
13th day and the next, during the final hours of their brief lives, the females lay their eggs in the mud.
Then, having ensured that their species will survive, the shrimps die as the last of the water evaporates.
If sufficient rain falls the following year to form another lake, the eggs hatch, and once again the
cycle of growth, adulthood, egg-laying, a death is rapidly passed through. If there is insufficient rain
falls to form a lake, the eggs lie dormant for a year, or even longer if necessary. Occasionally, perhaps
twice in a hundred year, sufficient rain falls to form a deep lake that lasts a month or more. In this case,
the species passes through two cycles of growth, egg-laying and death. Thus the species multiplies
considerably, which further ensures its survival.
71. What does the passage mainly discuss?
A. The effects of drought in the desert B. The lifespan of fish eggs in desert condition
C. The survival of insects in a desert climate D. The importance of deep lakes in the desert.
72. The word ‘form’ is closest in meaning to _______.
A. style B. shape C. nature D. design
73. From the passage, it can be inferred that the Mojave Desert is unusual because _______.
A. it is hot even in the shade. B. rain rarely falls there.
C. it shelters inactive life. D. very little survives there.
74. The author compares inactive eggs to _______.
A. shrimps B. sand C. larvae D. seeds
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75. The word ‘These’ refers to _______.
A. plants B. eggs C. insects D. fish
76. According to the passage, the eggs originate _______.
A. in the sand B. on the female C. in the mud D. in the lake
77. The word ‘swarms’ could be best replaced by _______.
A. abounds B. grows C. crowds D. supports
78. According to the passage, approximately how long does a shrimp live?
A. a week B. 12 days C. 13 days D. 14 days plus
79. The word ‘dormant’ is closest in meaning to _______.
A. dead B. asleep C. passive D. empty
80. What does the author mean by the phrase ‘a race against time’?
A. The shrimps are in intense competition to reproduce.
B.The shrimps must reproduce before the water recedes.
C. The shrimps do not have enough time to reproduce.
D. Death occurs before the shrimps can reproduce
Part III. Fill in each blank with ONE suitable word to make a meaningful passage.
Bullying does not always happen in (81)______. Cyberbullying is a type of bullying that
happens online or through text (82)______ or emailing. There are things you can do to protect yourself.
- Always think about what you post. You will never know what someone will (83) ______.
Being kind to others online will help to keep you safe. Do not (84)______ anything that could hurt or
embarrass anyone.
- Keep your password a (85)______ from other kids. Even kids that seem like friends could give
your password away or use it in (86)______ you don’t want. Let your parents have your password.
- Think about who sees what you post online. (87) ______ strangers? Friends? Friends of
friends? (88) ___ settings let you control who see what.
- Keep your parents in the (89)______. Tell them what you’re doing online and who you’re
doing it with. Let them friend or (90)______ you. Listen to what they have to say about what is and
what isn’t okay to do.
PART E. WRITING
Part I. Rewrite each sentence in such a way that it means almost the same as the one printed
before it. Use the word in brackets without making any change to it.
1. “What? Mike passed the test; it’s great” said the man. (MIKE’S)
The man expressed _____________________________________________.
2. I’d rather go to the cinema than watch TV tonight. (INSTEAD)
His _________________________________________________________________.
3. We appreciate whatever you contribute to the success of the school. (MATTER)
We are ________________________________________________________________.
4. How did you persuade Mark to participate in the contest? (PART)
How did you talk ________________________________________________________.
5. I was upset that they didn’t help us with that task. (HAND)
They could _________________________________________________________.
6. Welcome you all and please feel relaxed! (MAKE)
Please feel _____________________________________________________________.
7. By being absent so often, Jim failed his examination. (COST)
Jim’s frequent ________________________________________________________.
8. I don’t feel like going to the party now. (ATTENDING)
170
I’m not in _______________________________________________________.
9. You may have no money left, so take this ATM card with you. (ALONG)
In case you run _____________________________________________________.
10. He was able to study overseas because his parents had been very economical. (COULD)
The police __________________________________________________________.
Part II. Choose one of the following essay choices to write:
Choice #1: In some cultures old people are valued more, while in other cultures youth is considered
more valuable. Discuss both view and give your opinion in an essay of at least 200 words.
Choice #2: Some people believe that allowing children to make their own choices on everyday
matters (such as food, clothes and entertainment) is likely to result in a society of individual who
only think about their own wishes. Other epople believe that it is important for children to make
decisions about matters that affect them. Discuss both views and give your own opinion.
THE END
BEST OF LUCK
ĐỀ THI MẪU 6
KỲ THI CHỌN HỌC SINH GIỎI THPT CẤP QUỐC GIA 2018
I. LISTENING
Part 1. For questions 1-5, listen to a telephone conversation between a passenger and an official
at the land transport information service at Toronto Airport and decide whether the statements
are True (T) or False (F). Write your answers in the corresponding numbered boxes provided.
1. Milton is about 150 miles southwest of the airport.
2. The woman can afford to get to Milton by taxi.
3. The Greyhound bus departs only once a day at 11:30 AM.
4. A return ticket for the Shuttle bus costs $69.
5. The Shuttle bus can be reserved through the official.
Part 2. For questions 5-13, listen to a report on the Industrial Revolution 4.0 and supply the
blanks with the missing information. Write NO MORE THAN THREE WORDS taken from the
recording for each answer in the space provided.
REVOLUTION 4.0
The advancement of Industry 4.0 will be driven by a smart interconnected (6) _______.
The opportunities for disruption are huge and those left behind will feel it (7) ________.
KPMG has conducted research on what the (8) ______ were doing in their
factories and their offices and it revealed some thought-provoking findings:
- The major players are moving away from isolated (9) _______ to large-scale
and (10) ______ across their enterprise and among customers.
- It’s important for the players to:
• think big, (11) ______ and nurture innovation.
• develop disruptive thought processes aimed at devastating the (12) _________.
• look for opportunities in every element of their (13) _______ during the production process.
Part 3. For questions 14-18, listen to a discussion on the subject of attitudes to work and choose
the correct answer A, B, C, or D which fits best according to what you hear. Write your answers
in the corresponding numbered boxes provided.
14. Lois agrees with John's point that _______.
A. the psychological effects of unemployment can be overstated
B. some people are better equipped to deal with unemployment than others
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C. problems arise when unemployment coincides with other traumatic events
D. most people dread the prospect of unemployment
15. Lois agrees with the listener who suggested that _______.
A. people should prepare for redundancy as they would for retirement
B. voluntary work may be more rewarding than paid work
C. not everybody can expect a high level of job satisfaction
D. work is only one aspect of a fulfilling life
16. What Is John’s attitude towards people who see work as a "means to an end"?
A. He accepts that they have made a valid choice.
B. He feels they may be missing out on something important
C. He doubts their level of commitment to the job.
D. He fears it will lead to difficulties for them later.
17. When asked about so-called "slackers" at work, John points out that _______.
A. their views are unacceptable in a free labour market
B. such an attitude has become increasingly unacceptable
C. people often jump to unfair conclusions about them
D. they accept the notion that work is a necessary evil
18. Lois quotes the psychologist Freud in order to _______.
A. provide a contrast to the ideas of Bertrand Russell
B. question the idea that a desire to work is a natural thing
C. show how intellectual ideas have shifted over time
D. lend weight to John's ideas about increased social mobility
Part 4. For questions 18-25. listen to a radio news report on "Google". a popular search engine
and fill in the missing information. Write NO MORE THAN THREE WORDS taken from the
recording for each answer in the space provided.
Influential as Bill Gates might be, he was unable to turn a product into a common word. It was
Google that earned (19) ________.
For its success, Google relied on (20) _______ which is a particularly old-fashioned way to
market a product.
Google has been the default tool for people looking for anything they want to find online,
from (21) ____ to brass lambs.
Google is now the official search engine for top global (22) _______ America Online.
The professor mentioned by the reporter was searching the (23) ______ in a relaxed manner
looking for things to interest him.
The verb "to google" literally means searching for what is of use to you through a vast
quantity of information, which is another kind of (24) ________.
Little did the mathematician know that in the early 21st century, the use of the term “Google"
would become ubiquitous among professionals and (25) _______ alike.
II. LEXICO-GRAMMAR
Part 1. For questions 26-40, choose the correct answer A, B, C, or D to each of the following
questions.
26. In this day and age, it is almost impossible to keep _______ of the latest developments in
computing.
A. afloat B. afresh C. abreast D. afield
27. We do expect to meet your new manager - you've been _______ his praises ever since he arrived.
A. calling B. shouting C. singing D. crying
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28. Hands _______, the dancers were circling to the right and left In an impressive manner.
A. held high B. were held highly C. high holding D. having highly
held
29. When a show is popular, everyone is content but if its popularity _______ . It is likely to be
scrapped.
A. subsides B. dims C. fades D. weakens
30. At _______ last, the disabled girl won an Oscar for her performance against all odds.
A. dim B. long C. distant D. far
31. Few people can do creative work unless they are in the right _______ of mind.
A. trend B. frame C. attitude D. tendency
32. Stuart went to great _______ to complete a high quality presentation on the company's new
products.
A. torment B. pains C. efforts D. difficulty
33. His room was _______ decorated in gold and silver, whereas his brother's was extremely plain and
dowdy.
A. ostentatiously B. tantalisingly C. Simplistically D. benevolently
34. His application was _______ because he didn’t have necessary qualifications for the job.
A. turned off B. turned down C. sent off D. thrown down
35. I hadn't seen Stephen for years, then one day our paths crossed while I was on a _______ to New
York.
A. road B. trip C. track D. way
36. The mayor failed to deliver key promises in his manifesto, but to give him his _______ he tried his
best to improve the city's infrastructure.
A. account B. view C. owing D.due
37. The voyage has been _______ with danger, waves swamped the ship and the navigation system
broke.
A. imminent B. packed C. thick D. fraught
38. I feel it must be too late to apologize to my piano teacher, but at least I've got it off my _______.
A. chest B. heart C. stomach D.soul
39. Every time the government meets their demands, the union leaders move the _______.
A. lamp posts B. bus stops C. goalposts D. roadblocks
40. Soaring prices mean that many prospective buyers will reach the end of their _______ as they can
no
longer afford to buy their wanted properties.
A. wit B. rope C. line D. road
Part 2. For questions 41-45, write the correct form of each bracketed word in the numbered
space provided in the column on the right. 0 has been done as an example.
Levels of (0. LITERATE) _______ and innumeracy remain startlingly high in the
developing world, and will continue to be so until the West provides or sponsors
new education initiatives, (41. PREFER) _______ also getting directly involved.
A better education is a prerequisite should the impoverished masses of Africa ever
wish to hold any genuine hope of gaining their emancipation from the
metaphorical shackles of poverty. Education initiatives for young people as well
as lifelong learning programs will also help to breach the gulf that separates the
working classes from their ruling elite, a privileged few who enjoy the (42.
TRAP) _______ of Western wealth and the lifestyle that goes with it while those
0. illiteracy
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in their midst are completely (43. OCCUPY) _______ with the daily struggle for
survival. Furthermore, we must promote a culture of intolerance of corruption, and
help to create a new generation for whom education rather than a(n)
(44.SCRUPLE) _______ nature will reap the true rewards. Education will also
help to bridge another gap; that of the cultural one which separates the West from
its brethren in the developing world. The impoverished slums and shanty towns
are a hotbed of religious and political (45. EXTREME) _______, but hopefully
education will serve to create a better sense of understanding between the peoples
of the world, irrespective of background
III. READING
Part 1. For questions 46-55, fill each of the following numbered blanks with ONE suitable word.
DIAGNOSING DYSLEXIA
Approximately five percent of the population suffer from dyslexia. The cause of the disorder is
unknown and it is commonly found in people of (46) _______ normal intellectual ability. The
condition is characterized by severe reading difficulties, (47) _______ dyslexics confusing letters or
words. They may, for example, read or write letters, words or sentences in the wrong order. Although
the problem can be overcome with intensive instruction, sufferers usually continue to read and write
(48) _______ throughout their lives.
Traditionally, diagnosis has been made by reading experts, which means that many cases are not
formally (49) _______ up until a child is around ten years of age. Now, however, a group of
psychologists in the United States believe that they have found a way of identifying in their first days
of life children who will develop dyslexia. This is exciting news as early identification and intervention
(50) _______ early instruction possible, perhaps avoiding (61) _______ problems altogether. The
research team has identified distinct differences between the brain wave patterns of dyslexics and
(52)_______ of better readers. Attaching electrodes to the heads of babies just 36 hours old, they
measured the size and speed of their brain responses to selected (53) _______. The children were
monitored and given IQ and comprehension tests every two years. At eight, reading tests were
administered to identify those who were dyslexic. More than 90 percent diagnosed as dyslexic could
have been singled out at (54)_______.
This research is still in its (55) _______ but may result in a future in which dyslexia no longer
causes lifelong distress.
Part 2. For questions 56-66, read the following passage and do the tasks that follow.
ACQUIRING THE PRINCIPLES OF
MATHEMATICS AND SCIENCE
A. It has been pointed out that learning mathematics and science is not so much learning facts as
learning ways of thinking. It has also been emphasised that in order to learn science, people often have
to change the way they think in ordinary situations. For example, in order to understand even simple
concepts such as heat and temperature, ways of thinking of temperature as a measure of heat must be
abandoned and a distinction between ‘temperature’ and ‘heat’ must be learned. These changes in ways
of thinking are often referred to as conceptual changes. But how do conceptual changes happen? How
do young people change their ways of thinking as they develop and as they learn in school?
B. Traditional instruction based on telling students how modern scientists think does not seem to be
very successful. Students may learn the definitions, the formulae, the terminology, and yet still
maintain their previous conceptions. This difficulty has been illustrated many times, for example, when
instructed students are interviewed about heat and temperature. It is often identified by teachers as a
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difficulty in applying the concepts learned in the classroom; students may be able to repeat a formula
but fail to use the concept represented by the formula when they explain observed events.
C. The psychologist Piaget suggested an interesting hypothesis relating to the process of cognitive
change in children. Cognitive change was expected to result from the pupils’ own intellectual activity.
When confronted with a result that challenges their thinking - that is, when faced with conflict - pupils
realise that they need to think again about their own ways of solving problems, regardless of whether
the problem is one in mathematics or in science. He hypothesised that conflict brings about
disequilibrium, and then triggers equilibration processes that ultimately produce cognitive change. For
this reason, according to Piaget and his colleagues, in order for pupils to progress in their thinking they
need to be actively engaged in solving problems that will challenge their current mode of reasoning.
However, Piaget also pointed out that young children do not always discard their ideas in the face of
contradictory evidence. They may actually discard the evidence and keep their theory.
D. Piaget’s hypothesis about how cognitive change occurs was later translated into an educational
approach which is now termed ‘discovery learning’. Discovery learning initially took what is now
considered the Tone learner’ route. The role of the teacher was to select situations that challenged the
pupils’ reasoning; and the pupils’ peers had no real role in this process. However, it was subsequently
proposed that interpersonal conflict, especially with peers, might play an important role in promoting
cognitive change. This hypothesis, originally advanced by Perret-Clermont (1980) and Doise and
Mugny (1984), has been investigated in many recent studies of science teaching and learning.
E. Christine Howe and her colleagues, for example, have compared children’s progress in
understanding several types of science concepts when they are given the opportunity to observe
relevant events. In one study, Howe compared the progress of 8 to 12-year-old children in
understanding what influences motion down a slope. In order to ascertain the role of conflict in group
work, they created two kinds of groups according to a pre-test: one in which the children had dissimilar
views, and a second in which the children had similar views.
They found support for the idea that children in the groups with dissimilar views progressed
more after their training sessions than those who had been placed in groups with similar views.
However, they found no evidence to support the idea that the children worked out their new
conceptions during their group discussions, because progress was not actually observed in a post-test
immediately after the sessions of group work, but rather in a second test given around four weeks after
the group work.
F. In another study, Howe set out to investigate whether the progress obtained through pair work
could be a function of the exchange of ideas. They investigated the progress made by 12-15-year-old
pupils in understanding the path of falling objects, a topic that usually involves conceptual difficulties.
In order to create pairs of pupils with varying levels of dissimilarity in their initial conceptions, the
pupils’ predictions and explanations of the path of falling objects were assessed before they were
engaged in pair work. The work sessions involved solving computer-presented problems, again about
predicting and explaining the paths of falling objects. A post-test, given to individuals, assessed the
progress made by pupils in their conceptions of what influenced the path of falling objects.
Questions 56-60: There are six paragraphs marked A-F in the passage. In which paragraph is the
following mentioned? Write your answers in the corresponding numbered boxes provided.
56. a claim that a perceived contradiction can assist mental development
57. the problem of superficial understanding
58. evidence of delayed benefits of disagreement between pupils
59. an experiment to assess the merits of exchanging views with a partner
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60. a rejection of a widely held theory
Questions 61-66: Complete the following summary. Choose NO MORE THAN THREE WORDS
from the passage for each answer.
HOW CHILDREN LEARN
The instructional approach presently referred to as "discovery learning" was based on Piaget’s
hypothesis
that changes in a child's mind were brought about by his/her own (61) ______. As hypothesised by
Piaget, disequilibrium occurs when a child is confronted with an idea that conflicts his/her current
belief. This initiates the processes of equilibration which result in cognitive change. Progress in
learning, therefore, requires pupils' active engagement in solving problems that contradict their existing
(62) ______. However, Piaget also drew attention to the possibility that a child might (63) __________
the conflicting evidence and maintain his/her preconceived idea.
While Piaget's hypothesis played down the roles of peers in the "lone learner" route, later studies put
forward the importance of (64) ___________ among friends in developing cognitive change. In an
effort to (65) ___________ the significance of conflict in group work, Christina Howe and her
colleagues collected findings In support of the claim that children In the group with (66) ___________
made betterprogress.
Part 3. In the passage below, seven paragraphs have been removed. For questions 67-73, read the
passage and choose from the paragraphs A-H the one which fits each gap. There is ONE extra
paragraph which you do not need to use.
BLOOMS WITH A VIEW
You don't have to spot the Big Five on a safari in South Africa. Visitors to the Western Cape can search
for wild flowers on the fynbos, home to more floral species than the Amazon jungle
For five days and nights in February 2006, the fire blazed a 50-mile trail from the outskirts of
Cape Town down towards Africa's southernmost point. Then, unexpectedly, the wind changed
direction – meaning workers and fire staff at the Grootbos Private Nature Reserve stood no chance
against the flames. Conference guests had to be hurriedly evacuated before the lodge complex was
completely engulfed. Three apartments were destroyed, and the five-star restaurant's collection of
Western Cape wines was reduced to a mountain of twisted glass. So how come Grootbos's chief
botanist, Sean Privett, is smiling as he recalls that dramatic night?
"Hey, they were just buildings, they could be rebuilt," he says with a grin. "But that fire was also
a whole new opportunity for rare plant species to germinate and flourish. We found something like 70
new species here in the months after the blaze."
67
Sean, we discover, is not the only person around here who is fanatical about flowers. This
beautiful stretch of South Africa's Western Cape, known as the Overberg, may be a prime spot for
watching whales and great white sharks, but for many of its landowners the priority is protecting the
proteas, orchids, ericas and carniverous sundew plants (to name but four of the region's floral families)
which make up the fynbos, shrubland with as rich an array of plant species as you'll find anywhere on
the planet. Grootbos's conservation efforts began 20 years ago, when Heiner Lutzeyer and his son
Michael bought the original 123-hectare farm, and Heiner started photographing and documenting its
indigenous flora.
68
These days, the reserve stretches to some 1,750 hectares. And while guests are treated to the
height of five-star luxury – including what may be the world's finest view direct from a bathtub – it is
clear that conservation, including a strong commitment to educating and employing workers from the
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poorest local communities, remains the primary concern in what the Grootbos website calls this
"botanic wonderland".
69
Fortunately, in addition to beach horse riding and whale watching (best between June and
December), Grootbos also lays on a trademark "flower safari" to introduce guests to the most striking
flora on the reserve. And today we're lucky enough to have Sean and his battered old Jeep guiding us.
First question, then: what's the floral equivalent of seeing a lion?
70
As we try to follow Sean's identifying yells, bright flashes of colour and scent assault us from all
directions. Among them delicate pinks and yellows of little erica plants, heather-like flowers that at the
right times of year bathe whole valleys in a pink, yellow or white wash. No two neighbouring plants, it
seems, are ever allowed to hail from the same species. It's as if the fynbos has been designed by a mad
botanist who's been overdoing it on the organic fertiliser.
71
By the end of the safari, I've lost count of how many weird and wonderful species we have
encountered – from spectacular crimson candelabra flowers that detach and roll along with the wind, to
the orange-flowered and not-at-all-potent wild marijuana plants. In danger of joining the ranks of the
florally obsessed myself, I ponder out loud why there should be quite so many different species of plant
here.
72
These conditions are also proving increasingly attractive to winemakers, who reckon tricky soils
produce more interesting wines because the grapes have to work harder. But rather than proving an
irritant to local conservationists, the neighbouring Lomond wine estate belongs to the region's
pioneering "biodiversity and wine initiative", which pledges to protect rare and endangered plant
species by only using sustainable farming methods.
73
Almost everyone, it seems, understands the fragility of the ecosystem here – and with good
reason. One recent report counted the Cape Floristic Region as among the 10 places in the world most
threatened by climate change: a predicted temperature rise of 1.8C over the next 40 years would spark
a dramatic increase in the number of wildfires like the one that did so much damage in 2006. The eco
equation says the fynbos needs fire to flourish – but not too often, or it will be wiped out entirely.
THE MISSING PARAGRAPHS:
A. All very admirable too, but there's just one thing ... I daren't mention this to Sean but, following our hour-
anda-half's drive down from Cape Town through dustbowl-dry arable fields, I'm feeling a little confused. We
have been greeted by a stunning mountainous coastline, certainly – but not quite the explosion of floral colour
I'd been expecting. Rather, it's a plainish green moorland. Can we really be in the heart of the smallest but most
precious of the world's six designated floral kingdoms, with – according to my guidebook – species far
outnumbering those found in the entire Amazon rainforest?
B. Likewise, the nearby Flower Valley Farm, which grows indigenous fynbos plants for the cut-flower trade, is
run by a public conservation trust which ensures that neither the fynbos nor local workers are exploited for
profit.
C. Graciously, Sean offers no hint that this inquiry might be unworthy of one of South Africa's foremost
botanical experts. Instead, at the highest point of the Grootbos reserve, he yanks on the handbrake and
bounds off into the middle of the knee-high shrubland. I have to admit, though, that what appears uniformly
green from a distance is anything but when you are in the thick of it.
D. Of the six completely new species that have since been discovered here, two - Lachenalia lutzeyeri and
Capnophyllum - have been named after him ... not bad for a man with purely amateur interest in botany.
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E. "It’s hard to put your finger on it," Sean says, disarmingly. "There are so many factors … the lack of any ice
ages; all the different types of nutrient-poor soil; the weather systems rolling up from Antarctica; and the fact
this region has never been farmed intensively. It's just a really unusual mix."
F. Then, like a proud parent, he opens his arms to the dense shrubland around him: "With the exception of our
ancient milkwood forest, you can say that all the plants here were born on the same day."
G. But it isn’t always the case. One such species, the Moraea lurida iris, only ever appears here immediately
after fire has cleared the landscape of all the other, more bullish, plant species. Sean delights in showing us
these beautiful, deep purple flowers emerging across the hillside - and describing the scent of rotting meat they
give off to attract flies for pollination.
H. Suddenly there’s a yell from deep in the underground which sends birds scattering into the sky. "Over here!"
Sean shouts, pointing at a large and slightly sun-withered white flower guarded by tall, bright pink spikes.
"King Protea, the biggest of all the Protea family and the national flower of South Africa … here's that defining
moment you were after."
Part 4. For questions 74-83, read an extract from an article on language and choose the answer
A, B, C or D which you think fits best according to the text.
YOU ARE WHAT YOU SPEAK
Does the language you speak influence the way you think? Does it help define your world view?
Anyone who has tried to master a foreign tongue has at least considered the possibility. As have those
who have ever had a close foreign friend.
At first glance, the idea that language influences thought seems perfectly plausible. [A]
Conveying even simple messages requires that you make completely different observations depending
on your language. Imagine being asked to count some pens on a table. [B] Let’s say there are eleven.
[C] But a Russian also has to consider what gender the pens are (neuter) and then use the neuter form
of the word for eleven. [D] And a Japanese speaker has to take into account their shape (long and
cylindrical) as well, and use the word for eleven designated for items of that form.
On the other hand, surely pens are just pens, no matter what your language compels you to
specify about them. Little linguistic peculiarities, though amusing, don't change the objective
world we are describing. So how can they alter the way we think?
Scientists and philosophers have been grappling with this thorny question for centuries. There
have always been those who argue that our picture of the universe depends on our native tongue. Since
the 1960s, however, with the ascent of thinkers like Noam Chomsky and a host of cognitive scientists,
the consensus has been that linguistic differences don't really matter, that language is a universal
human trait and that our ability to talk to one another owes more to our shared genetics than to our
varying cultures. But now the pendulum is beginning to swing the other way as psychologists re-
examine the question.
The new generation of scientists is not convinced that language is innate and hard-wired into our brain.
“Language is not just notation.” says Dan Slobin of the University of California. “The brain is shaped
by
experience." Slobin and others say that small, even apparently insignificant differences between
languages do effect the way speakers perceive the world. “Some people argue that language just
changes what you attend to,” says Lera Boroditsky of the Massachusetts Institute of Technology. “But
what you attend to changes what you encode and remember.”
This is what Slobin calls ‘thinking for speaking' and he argues that it can have a huge impact on
what we deem important. For instance, about a third of the world's languages describe location in
'absolute' terms: speakers of many Pacific Island languages would say 'north of the tree' or ‘seaward
from the tree' rather than ‘beside the tree', as we might in English. In these languages, you always need
to know where you are in relation to fixed external reference points, says Slobin. “Even when you are
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in a dark windowless room, or travelling on a bus in the dark.” he says, "you must know your location
relative to the fixed points in order to talk about events and locations.” So, even if you didn’t use the
word 'north' in conversation, you would always know where it was.
Whether your language emphasises an object's shape, substance or function also seems to effect
your relationship with the world, according to John Lucy, a researcher at the Max Planck Institute for
Psycholinguistics. He has compared American English with Yucatec Maya, spoken in Mexico’s
Yucatan
Peninsula. Among the many differences between the two languages is the way objects are classified. In
English, shape is implicit in many nouns. We think in terms of discrete objects; and it is only when we
want to quantify amorphous things like sugar that we employ units such as ’cube’ or 'cup'. But in
Yucatec, objects tend to be defined by separate words that describe shape. So, for example, a 'short flat
leather’ is a wallet. Likewise, 'long banana' describes the fruit, while 'flat banana' means banana leaf
and a 'seated banana' is a banana tree.
Boroditsky also argues that even artificial classification systems, such as gender, can be
important. The word ‘sun’ is neuter in Russian, feminine in German and masculine in Spanish. Some
psychologists claim that these inconsistencies suggest gender is just a meaningless tag, but Boroditsky
disagrees. “To construct sentences in these languages,” she says. “involves thinking about gender -
even if it’s arbitrary - thousands of times every day.”
To test how this affects the way people think, she presented Spanish and German-Speaking
volunteers with nouns that happened to have opposite genders in their native tongues. 'Key', for
instance, is feminine in Spanish and masculine in German and 'bridge' is masculine in Spanish and
feminine in German. Boroditsky asked the volunteers to come up with adjectives - in English - to
describe these items. German speakers described keys as ‘awkward’, 'worn', ‘jagged’ and ‘serrated’,
while Spanish speakers saw them as 'little’, 'lovely', 'magic' and 'intricate'. To Germans, bridges were
'awesome', 'fragile', ‘beautiful’ and 'elegant’, whereas Spanish speakers considered them 'big', 'solid',
‘dangerous’, 'strong' and ‘sturdy’.
74. A positive answer to the questions in the first paragraph would most probably be given by _______.
A. a student at an advanced stage of foreign language learning
B. a person who has worked abroad but has not learned a second language
C. a person who has been involved in an intimate relationship with a foreigner
D. a foreigner who has many close friends
75. Which of the following square brackets [A], [B], [C], or [D] best indicates where in the paragraph
the sentence “As an English speaker, you only have to count them and give the number.”can be
inserted?
A. [A] B. [B] C. [C] D. [D]
76. Which of the following sentences best expresses the meaning of the sentence in bold in paragraph
3?
A. Objective as it may seem, the world we are depicting is almost susceptible to intriguing
linguistic subtleties.
B. No matter how intriguing they are, minor peculiar linguistic features have no impacts on the
objective world depicted.
C. The objective world being described is too amusing to be altered by any peculiar linguistic
features.
D. However amusing it is, the world being depicted is not subject to any impacts of little
linguistic
peculiarities.
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77. The question in paragraph 4 is described as thorny because _______.
A. nobody knows the answer B. the answer varies according to the language analysed
C. it is difficult to answer D. it has only recently been considered
important
78. What is the purpose of the reference to the pendulum? (paragraph 4)
A. to show that genetic differences among races are insignificant
B. to suggest that Chomsky’s theory is no longer accepted as correct
C. to suggest that human speech patterns are hereditary
D. to state that cultural differences account for linguistic differences
79. According to Lera Boroditsky, what a person pays closest attention to reflects their_______.
A. linguistic prowess B. thought processes
C. powers of observation D. intellectual abilities
80. In a typical Pacific Island language _______.
A. orientation is vitally important B. recognition of every type of vegetation is
essential
C. descriptions of journeys are relatively brief D. north is always the point of reference
81. According to John Lucy, English speakers think of objects as_______.
A. needing units of measurement B. not having a dear shape
C. separate and distinct D. masculine or feminine
82. An amorphous object in paragraph 7 is one which has _______.
A. an indefinite shape B. an indistinct smell
C. a strong flavor D. a dense texture
83. The presence of gender in a language _______.
A. leads to confusion for native English speakers
B. determines the way complex sentences are constructed
C. affects the way objects are perceived
D. determines the order in which adjectives appear
Part 5: The passage below consists of four paragraphs marked A, B, C, and D. For questions 84-
95, read the passage and do the task that follows.
THE PORTFOLIO CAREER
A new generation of workers is discovering that maintaining a "portfolio” of different careers can pay
off in terms of time, money and quality of life
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Which paragraph mentions someone who ________
84. admits to seeking self-fulfilment in a mounting workload?
85. can be considered farsighted in projecting advances of this kind?
86. has diversified without straying far from an original career path?
87. identifies necessary personality traits to overcome demerits of this working style?
88. has studied the impetus for the phenomenon?
89. feels no remorse for abandoning a single career in preference for new challenges?
90. pinpoints the employment sector most likely to benefit from maintaining a portfolio of varied
careers?
91. anticipates fluctuations in demands for certain skills offered in a portfolio?
THE PRACTICE BOOKLET FOR ENGLISH-MAJOR (VER A)
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92. has coined an alternative term for someone with a portfolio of different careers?
93. is aware that that pursuing certain types of career strand is potentially counterproductive?
94. mentions a sense of personal satisfaction as the main motive for maintaining a portfolio of different
careers?
95. units a portfolio career to the optimal aspects across the jobs?
IV. WRITING
Part 1. Read the following extract and use your own words to summarise it. Your summary
should be between 100 and 120 words long.
Stress is the term used to describe the physical and emotional rigours our bodies undergo when
we adapt to changes in our lives. Contrary to popular belief, stress can produce positive responses as
well as the well-documented adverse symptoms. Positive stress, as it is known, can spur us on to
greater heights by increasing awareness which, in turn, helps us to lead a fuller, more satisfying life.
Unfortunately, though, any benefits that stress may bring very often give way to the darker effects of
negative stress.
Far from producing a feeling of well-being, negative stress induces a range of unpleasant
mental, behavioral and physiological reactions: Basically, its victims suffer from tow self-esteem due
to an inability to achieve set goals. This results primarily in a fear of further failure. Outwardly, people
exposed to extremely stressful situations display distinct patterns of behavior. They become
increasingly impulsive, more heavily dependent on nicotine, drugs or alcohol and excessively prone to
overeating. The upshot of all this is that unrelieved stress causes sweating, an increased heartbeat rate,
sleeping problems and inexplicable tiredness.
This list alone is enough to heighten anxiety even if you are not stressed out, but advice is not in
short supply for those who are. Although what they advise is not equally applicable to every person
negatively affected by stress, there are some useful standard recommendations. Any strategy for
tackling stress should begin with actually recognizing there is a problem rather than denying it. When
the root of the problem has been identified, it is time to react. This involves pinpointing ways of
modifying or changing the factors responsible for it. Finally, action needs to be taken to reduce the
intensity of the stressors. There is a host of tactics available at this stage, each of which is designed to
alleviate stress to differing degrees. These include shortening exposure to stressors, moderating
physical reactions to them and building physical reserves which can provide protectio against them
through regular exercise.
Part 2. The table below gives information on sales of five car brands in part of world market
from 2012 to 2016. Describe the information in the table and make comparisons where relevant.
You should write about 150 words.
Brands
Years
Toyota
Mercedes
Kia
Ford
Rolls-Royce
2012
14800
15800
18500
19100
15100
2013
14000
11700
23700
17600
10500
2014
14500
15300
27300
15600
7600
2015
14500
17400
29600
22400
6700
2016
14,500
18.500
32.500
26.100
5.400
Part 3. Write an essay of 350 words on the following topic:
More and more children are performing their talents on reality shows. Some people welcome this
as a way to nurture young talents; others are worried that rising to fame at such an early age
may disrupt children’s personal development.
182
Present argumentation to highlight your opinion on this matter. Give reasons and specific
examples to support your opinion(s).
THE END
BEST OF LUCK
ĐỀ THI MẪU 7
ĐỀ THI DUYÊN HẢI BẮC BỘ ĐỀ XUẤT
TRƯỞNG THPT QUỐC HỌC HUẾ
2017-2018
A. LISTENING (50 points):
Part 1: Complete the table below. Write NO MORE THAN THREE WORDS for each answer. Write
your answers in the corresponding numbered boxes. (10 points)
Date
Event
Importance for art
3000 BC
rice farmers from 1. ________
built temples with wood and stone carvings
settled in Bali
14
th
century
introduction of Hinduism
artists employed by 2. ________ and
focused on epic narratives
1906
Dutch East Indies Company
established
art became expression of opposition to 3.
________
1920s
beginning of 4. ________
encouraged use of new materials,
techniques and subjects
1945
independence
new art with scene of 5. _________ (e.g.
harvests) reflecting national identity
Part 2: You will hear a radio discussion about children who invent imaginary friends. Choose the
answer (A, B, C or D) which fits best according to what you hear. Write your answers in the
corresponding numbered boxes. (10 points)
1. In the incident that Liz describes,
A. her daughter asked her to stop the car. B. she had to interrupt the journey twice.
C. she got angry with her daughter. D. her daughter wanted to get out of the
car.
2. What does the presenter say about the latest research into imaginary friends?
A. It contradicts other research on the subject.
B. It shows that the number of children who have them is increasing.
C. It indicates that negative attitudes towards them are wrong.
D. It focuses on the effect they have on parents.
3. How did Liz feel when her daughter had an imaginary friend?
A. always confident that it was only a temporary situation
B. occasionally worried about the friend’s importance to her daughter
C. slightly confused as to how she should respond sometimes
D. highly impressed by her daughter’s inventiveness
4. Karen says that one reason why children have imaginary friends is that
A. they are having serious problems with their real friends.
B. they can tell imaginary friends what to do.
C. they want something that they cannot be given.
THE PRACTICE BOOKLET FOR ENGLISH-MAJOR (VER A)
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D. they want something that other children haven’t got.
5. Karen says that the teenager who had invented a superhero is an example of
A. a very untypical teenager. B. a problem that imaginary friends can cause.
C. something she had not expected to discover. D. how children change as they get older.
Part 3: You will hear an interview which takes place on a show between the interviewer, Michaela
Robinson, a leading psychologist, Duncan Stone, and a former patient, Ian Smith. Write T (for True) or
F (for False). Write your answers in the corresponding numbered boxes. (10 points)
1. Mr. Stone thinks that psychiatrists don’t need any medical training.
2. Psychiatrists need to know how to make patients open up.
3. Ian Smith didn’t know what caused his nervousness.
4. Boys at school were friendly to Ian.
5. Mr. Stone found it difficult to get Ian’s life story.
Part 4: You will hear part of an interview with an explorer. Complete the sentences and write your
answers in the corresponding numbered boxes. (20 points)
The Explorer
It could be said that his expeditions over the last five years have mostly (1) _________ but there have
been (2) _________ on any of them.
He thinks that (3) _________ of his expeditions has been good and that (4) _________ and (5) _________
have been right. One of the aims of his expedition to Antarctica is to raise money for a (6) _________.
The second aim is to find out what the human body can tolerate when working very hard and (7)
_________ in extreme temperatures.
These days he does not emphasise (8) _________ involved in exploring because people don’t take it
seriously.
He intends to go to (9) _________ this year.
On the next expedition to Antarctica they are taking special sledges and (10) _________ than on the
previous expedition there.
B. LEXICO-GRAMMAR (50 points)
Part 1: Choose the best option A, B, C, or D to complete the following sentences and write your
answers in the corresponding numbered boxes. (20 points)
1. I’m afraid that the herring we had for dinner has given me _______.
A. sickness B. indisposition C. infection D. indigestion
2. This lime juice needs _______ before you can drink it.
A. diluting B. dissolving C. softening D. watering
3. It must be true. I heard it straight from the _______ mouth.
A. dog’s B. horse’s C. camel’s D. cat’s
4. The facilities at many schools today are still _______ inadequate.
A. sadly B. woefully C. regrettably D. grimly
5. His laziness at work made him _______ with his workmate.
A. improper B. disliked C. unpopular D. unappealing
6. Although he’s shy, it certainly hasn’t _______ his career in any way.
A. restricted B. obstructed C. cramped D. impeded
7. She used the map to discover where she was in _______ to her surroundings.
A. connection B. affinity C. relation D. reference
8. You can’t always depend on _______ on time.
A. the trains’ arriving B. the trains to arrive
C. the arriving of trains D. the train that arriving
184
9. You’d _______ that clock fixed; it hasn’t worked for over a week now.
A. rather have B. better have C. rather had D. have
10. The picking of the fruit, _______, takes about a week.
A. whose work they receive no money. B. as they receive no money for that work
C. for which work they receive no money D. they receive no money for it
11. If I don’t write you a note to say you have a doctor’s appointment, the teacher will think you are
playing ________.
A. the fool B. truant C. for time D. hard to get
12. Exercise tends to _______ the effects of old age.
A. waylay B. run down C. set back D. offset
13. There’s an old saying, “It’s the double gins that cause the _______.”
A. crossed eyes B. double chins C. flat feet D. knock knees
14. It’s a good area for shopping. All the shops are within easy _______.
A. approach B. arrival C. neighbourhood D. reach
15. The big new supermarket on the outskirts of town does a _______ trade.
A. crying B. roaring C. screaming D. shouting
16. Sport provides an _______ for a teenager’s feeling of aggression or frustration.
A. overflow B. outlet C. exit D. exhaust
17. She was caught cheating in the race. _______, she was disqualified.
A. Explicitly B. Accordingly C. Equally D. Fundamentally
18. Alice was not sure which profession to enter, but finally _______ for medicine.
A. opted B. chose C. accepted D. selected
19. Jane handed in the test and awaited the results _______.
A. with bated breath B. out of breath C. under her breath D. in the same breath
20. Burglar alarms on cars and houses may act as a _______ to the casual thief.
A. prevention B. precaution C. stopper D. deterrent
Part 2: Read the passage below which contains 10 mistakes. Identify the mistakes and write the
corrections. (10 points)
THE NEW BRITISH LIBRARY
Original commissioned 14 years ago, the new British Library was supposed to open in 1990. Thus,
the project has been delayed by political infighting, poor planning and financial problems. The most
recent setback came in June when inspectors discover that 60 miles of new metal shelving had started to
rust and needed to be replaced. That would postpone the opening of the project’s first phase for yet other
two years. “Things have gone from bad to worse’, said Brian Lake, secretary of the Regular Readers, an
association of writers and scholars who are not happy with plans to the new library. “It is a grand nation
project that has become a great scandal”.
It sounded like a splendid idea which the government unveiled its 164- million project in 1978.
Sophisticated electronic equipment would help keep the library’s irreplaceable stock at an optimal
temperature and humid. A computer-controlled delivery system would provide books to readers within
minutes of a request better than days. And to serve other needs of the reading public, the library would
also include exhibition gallery, a restaurant and a conference hall.
That was the plan, anyway. The start of construction delayed until 1982 by arguments about
planning and by a change of government. Four years later, members of the cabinet ordered a progress
report and discovered that the committee responsible for supervision the project hadn’t met in four years.
Line 1: original -> originally
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Part 3: Complete each sentence with one suitable particle or preposition. Write your answer in the
box provided. (10 points)
1. My mum told me ________ for coming home late from school.
2. The surgeon is going to operate ________ my father tomorrow.
3. Even though the police went ________ the evidence many times, they didn’t find anything.
4. As the shop didn’t accept credit cards, I had to pay ________ cash.
5. Frank is a very mean person. He finds it very difficult to part ________ his money.
6. Let’s make ________ that island and wait for the storm to pass.
7. Could you please refrain ________ smoking - this is a hospital!
8. The company pulled ________ despite the economic crisis.
9. We were very sorry to hear that your grandfather passed ________ last week.
10. When Mr. Spendthrift ran out of money, he fell ________ on his mother for help.
Part 4: Write the correct form of the words given in the brackets. Write your answers in the spaces
provided below. (10 points)
REBUILDING CONVENTRY
In the late 30s, (1) __________ knew that the centre of the historic town of Conventry
in the West Midlands needed to be redeveloped. Plans had to be (2) __________
when the Second World War started in 1939. However, the architects’ opportunity
(3) __________ when the city centre was practically destroyed during the war. Many
buildings were (4) __________ damaged and demolition work began. Aiming to
create a much more (5) __________ area for (6) __________ to work and shop in,
town planners came up with a radical idea. They would make the city more (7)
__________ by pedestrianising the centre, preventing cars entering. There were (8)
__________ from local shopkeepers, who thought that it would have an impact on
trade, but the planners went ahead. What was once a (9) __________ populated area
became a pleasant, attractive place to visit. It was a real (10) __________
achievement, one that many British towns have emulated since.
1. ANALYSE
2. SHELF
3. MATERIAL
4. REPAIR
5. SPACE
6. RESIDE
7. INHABIT
8. OBJECT
9. DENSE
10. ARCHITECT
C. READING (50 points)
Part 1: Read the following passage and decide which answer (A, B, C, or D) best fits each gap.
Write your answers in corresponding numbered boxes. (10 points)
ALL IN THE STARS
First-time visitors to India are likely to be impressed by how profoundly astrology influences
almost every (1) ______ of life on the subcontinent. In fact, the belief that the motions of remote heavenly
bodies can affect events on Earth is so (2) ______ that several Indian universities (3) ______ courses in
the subject. It is not, therefore, surprising that many people will (4) ______ an astrologer before they
take any important step. For example, Indian marriages are arranged with the aid of an astrologer, who
will cast the horoscopes of the bride and groom, and also work out the best date for the wedding to take
place. A few years ago in Delhi, thousands of couples rushed to get married on a particularly auspicious
day, with the (5) ______ that priests, brass bands and wedding photographers were in short supply.
The role of astrology is not (6) ______ only to the social aspects of Indian life. Few people (7)
______ business without resorting to their astrologer. Major films are only released on suspicious dates.
Even (8) ______ of state are not exempt from its influence: when India (9) ______ her independence
from Britain in 1947, the (10) ______ of power was carefully timed to take place after a particularly
inauspicious period had passed.
186
1. A. division B. facet C. angle D. sector
2. A. widespread B. overwhelming C. intensive D. capacious
3. A. offer B. afford C. supply D. serve
4. A. interrogate B. confer C. interview D. consult
5. A. effect B. outcome C. upshot D. result
6. A. demarcated B. bound C. confined D. restrained
7. A. engage B. perform C. carry D. conduct
8. A. affairs B. cases C. issues D. topics
9. A. grabbed B. procured C. gained D. captured
10. A. delivery B. inheritance C. succession D. transfer
Part 2: Read the following text and fill in the blank with ONE suitable word. Write your answers
in corresponding numbered boxes. (15 points)
A STING IN THE TALE
A scorpion stung Peter Marks on the back of his right leg, (1) ________ below the knee, then
continued up that leg and down the (2) ________, he believes, before getting him again in the shin. It
wasn’t (3) ________ he was expecting on a flight from Chicago to Vermont. Marks, a 46-year-old
builder, was abroad the United Airlines flight on the second leg of his trip home from San Francisco
where he and his wife Helena had been visiting their sons. He awoke (4) ________ a nap shortly before
landing and noticed something strange.
“My leg felt like it was asleep, but that was isolated to one spot, and it felt as (5) ________ it was
being jabbed with a sharp piece of plastic (6) ________ something. The second sting came after the plane
had landed and the Marks were waiting for their bags at the luggage carousel. Peter rolled up his cuff to
investigate, and the scorpion fell out.
“It felt like a shock, a tingly thing. Someone screamed, ‘It’s a scorpion’,” Peter recalled. Another
passenger stepped on the 5-centimetre arachnid, and (7) ________ else suggested Marks seek medical
help. “The airlines tell you that you can’t bring water on a plane”, Helena Marks said, “but the scorpion
did make it abroad”. A United spokesperson said the incident “is something that we will look (8)
________. We’re very sorry for what happened. Our customers’ safety and security is our number one
priority.” (9) ________ incidents are not unheard of. An American Airlines flight was delayed for an
hour in Toronto on Sunday after a passenger was stung by a scorpion that had (10) ________ its way on
board. Paramedics treated the man when the flight landed.
Part 3: Read the following passage and circle the best answer to each of the following questions.
Write your answers in corresponding numbered boxes. (10 points)
The medieval artists didn’t know about perspective; they didn’t want to make their people look
like real, individual people in a real, individual scene. They wanted to show the truth, the eternal quality
of their religious stories. So these artists didn’t need to know about perspective.
In the European Renaissance period, artists wanted to show the importance of the individual
person and his or her possessions and surroundings. A flat medieval style couldn’t show this level of
reality and the artists needed a new technique. It was the Italian artist Brunelleschi who discovered the
technique of perspective drawing. At first the artists of the Renaissance only had single-point perspective.
Later they realized that they could have two-pointed perspectives and still later multi-point perspective.
With two-point perspective they could turn an object like a building at an angle to the picture and
draw two sides of it. The technique of perspective which seems so natural to us now is an invented
technique, a part of the “grammar of painting”. Like all bits of grammar there are exceptions about
perspective. For example, only vertical and horizontal surfaces seem to meet on eye level. Sloping roof
tops don’t meet on eye level.
THE PRACTICE BOOKLET FOR ENGLISH-MAJOR (VER A)
|187
For 500 years, artists in Europe made use of perspective drawing in their pictures. Nevertheless,
there are a range of priorities that artists take in displaying individual styles. Crivelli wanted to show
depth in his picture and he used a simple single-point perspective. Cezanne always talked about space
and volume. Van Gogh, like some of the other painters of the Impressionist period, was interested in
Japanese prints. And Japanese artists until this century were always very strong designers of “flat”
pictures. Picasso certainly made pictures which have volume and depth. However, he wanted to keep our
eyes on the surface and to remind us that his paintings are paintings and not illusions.
It is technically easy to give an illusion of depth. However, a strong two dimensional design is
just as a feeling of depth, and perhaps more important.
1. The passage mainly discusses
A. the difference between medieval and Renaissance art.
B. how the technique of perspective influenced the modern art.
C. the discovery of the technique of perspective.
D. the contribution of Renaissance artists.
2. The word “eternal” in line 3 is closest in meaning to
A. timeless B. infinite C. frequent D. constant
3. According to the passage, which is the main concern for medieval artists?
A. The individual person and his/ her possessions and surroundings.
B. Real people, real scenes.
C. Eternal timeless truth of the earth.
D. Themes of religious stories.
4. The discovery of perspective was the result of
A. Renaissance artists’ to prove that the medieval artists could show level of reality.
B. the need to turn an object at an angle and draw more than one side of it.
C. the subject being shifted from religious stories to individual person and surroundings.
D. natural evolution of human senses.
5. The word “it” in bold in paragraph 3 refers to
A. the picture B. perspective C. angle D. the object
6. The word “grammar” in bold in paragraph 3 is closest in meaning to
A. construction B. grammatical rules
C. rules and regulations D. tones and volume
7. The author’s purpose to give the example in the last two sentences of paragraph 3 is to
A. explain how perspective work in painting.
B. support two-pointed perspective.
C. illustrate that there are exceptions about perspective.
D. point out that the technique of perspective though seems so natural is an invented technique.
8. The following artists’ priorities in style shift away from perspective EXCEPT
A. Crivelli B. Cezanne
C. Japanese artists D. Brunelleschi
9. The word “illusion” in bold in the last paragraph is closest in meaning to
A. deception B. photograph C. decoration D. illustration
10. It can be inferred from the passage that Renaissance artists
A. embraced the medieval style of eternal truth.
B. needed to develop a new approach towards painting to show a new level of reality.
C. were inspired by vertical and horizontal surfaces in inventing the technique of perspective.
D. saw two dimensional design more important than a feeling of depth.
188
Part 4: Read the following text and do the tasks that follow. Write your answers in corresponding
numbered boxes. (15 points)
JARGON
A Jargon is a loaded word. One dictionary defines it, neatly and neutrally, as ‘the technical
vocabulary or idiom of a special activity or group’, but this sense is almost completely
overshadowed by another: ‘obscure and often pretentious language marked by a roundabout way
of expression and use of long words’. For most people, it is this second sense which is at the front
of their minds when they think about jargon. Jargon is said to be a bad use of language, something
to be avoided at all costs. No one ever describes it in positive terms (‘that was a delightful piece
of rousing jargon’). Nor does one usually admit to using it oneself: the myth is that jargon is
something only other people employ.
B The reality, however, is that everyone uses jargon. It is an essential part of the network of
occupations and pursuits that make up society. All jobs present an element of jargon, which
workers learn as they develop their expertise. All hobbies require mastery of a jargon. Each society
grouping has its jargon. The phenomenon turns out to be universal – and valuable. It is the jargon
element which, in a job, can promote economy and precision of expression, and thus help make
life easier for the workers. It is also the chief linguistic element which shows professional
awareness (‘know-how’) and social togetherness (‘shop-talk’).
C When we have learned to command it, jargon is something we readily take pleasure in, whether
the subject area is motorcycles, knitting, cricket, baseball or computers. It can add pace, variety
and humour to speech – as when, with an important event approaching, we might slip into NASA-
speak, and talk about countdown, all systems go, and lift-off. We enjoy the mutual showing-off
which stems from a fluent use of terminology, and we enjoy the in-jokes which shared linguistic
experience permits. Moreover, we are jealous of this knowledge. We are quick to demean anyone
who tries to be part of our group without being prepared to take on its jargon.
D If jargon is so essential a part of our lives, why then has it had such a bad press? The most
important reason stems from the way jargon can exclude as well as include. We may not be too
concerned if we find ourselves faced with an impenetrable wall of jargon when the subject matter
has little perceived relevance to our everyday lives, as in the case of hydrology, say, or linguistics.
But when the subject matter is one where we feel implicated, and think we have a right to know,
and the speaker uses words which make it hard for us to understand, then we start to complain;
and if we suspect that the obfuscation is deliberate policy, we unreservedly condemn, labelling it
gobbledegook and calling down public derision upon it.
E No area is exempt, but the fields of advertising, politics and defence have been especially criticised
in recent years by the various campaigns for Plain English. In these domains, the extent to which
people are prepared to use jargon to hide realities is a ready source of amusement, disbelief and
horror. A lie is a lie, which can be only temporarily hidden by calling it an ‘inoperative statement’
or ‘an instance of plausible deniability’. Nor can a nuclear plant explosion be suppressed for long
behind such phrases as ‘energetic disassembly’, ‘abnormal evolution’ or ‘plant transient’.
F While condemning unnecessary or obscuring jargon in others, we should not forget to look out
for it in ourselves. It is so easy to ‘slip into’ jargon, without realizing that our own listeners/readers
do not understand. It is also temptingly easy to slip some jargon into our expression, to ensure
that others do not understand. And it is just as easy to begin using jargon which we ourselves do
not understand. The motivation to do such apparently perverse things is not difficult to grasp.
People like to be ‘in’, to be part of an intellectual or technical elite; and the use of jargon, whether
understood or not, is a badge of membership. Jargon, also, can provide a lazy way into a group or
THE PRACTICE BOOKLET FOR ENGLISH-MAJOR (VER A)
|189
an easy way of hiding uncertainties and inadequacies: when terminology slips plausibly from the
tongue, it is not essential for the brain to keep up. Indeed some people have developed this skill
to professional levels. And certainly, faced with a telling or awkward question, and the need to
say something acceptable in public, slipping into jargon becomes a simple way out, and can soon
become a bad habit.
Task 1: The Reading Passage above has six paragraphs A-F. From the list of headings below, choose
the most suitable heading for each paragraph. Write the appropriate numbers (i-x) in boxes 1-6.
Paragraph F has been done for you.
List of Headings
i The benefits of simple language
ii A necessary tool
iii A lasting way of concealing disasters
iv The worst offenders
v A deceptively attractive option
vi Differing interpretations
vii Publicising new words
viii Feeling shut out
ix Playing with words
Example: 0. Paragraph F ______vi_______
1. Paragraph A ______________
2. Paragraph B ______________
3. Paragraph C ______________
4. Paragraph D ______________
5. Paragraph E ______________
Task 2: Complete the summary using the list of words A – J below.
THE UP SIDE OF JARGON
Jargon plays a useful part in many aspects of life including leisure. For example, when people take up
pastimes they need to develop a good command of the relevant jargon. During discussion of these or
other areas of interest, conversation can become more exciting and an element of 6. ________ can be
introduced by the use of shared jargon.
Jargon is particularly helpful in the workplace. It leads to more 7. ________ in the way colleagues
communicate during work hours. Taking part in 8. ________ during moments of relaxation can also help
them bond better.
It is interesting that members of a group, whether social or professional, often demonstrate a certain 9.
________ towards the particular linguistic characteristics of their subject area and tend to regard new
people who do not wish to learn the jargon with 10. ________.
A judgement
B jokes
C shop-talk
D efficiency
E know-how
F contempt
G feeling
H possessiveness
I pleasure
J humour
D. WRITING (50 points)
Part 1: Rewrite each sentence using the word in brackets so that the meaning stays the same. You
must use between TWO and SIX words, including the word given. (10 points)
1. Spending two weeks in hospital was very different from lying on the beach! (CRY)
Spending two weeks in hospital was …………………………………lying on the beach!
190
2. The parents of that girl are furious about her expulsion. (ARMS)
That’s the girl ……………………………………………………. about her expulsion.
3. I’m finding it difficult to cope with all the work I have to do.
(TOP)
All the work I have to do ………………………………………………. me.
4. I wouldn’t confront the manager if I were you.
(HORNS)
I wouldn’t ………………………………………. the manager if I were you.
5. He was arrested when they caught him driving a stolen vehicle.
(ACT)
Being ……………………………………………….. a stolen vehicle, he was arrested.
Part 2: Finish each of the following sentences in such a way that it means exactly the same as the
sentence printed before it, beginning as shown. (10 points)
1. I left without saying goodbye as I didn’t want to disturb the meeting.
Rather ………………………………………………………………………………..
2. You can eat as much as you like for £5 at the new lunch-bar.
There is no ..........................................................................................................................................
3. We regret to inform you that your application has not been successful.
Much to .................................................................................................................................................
4. “I think the whole idea’s ridiculous,” he said.
He dismissed .......................................................................................................................................
5. The managing director refuses to resign.
The managing director has no............................................................................................................
Part 3: Write an essay of about 250 words on the following topic. (30 points)
With the development of online communication, people will never be alone and will always be able to
make new friends. To what extent do you agree or disagree with this statement?
ĐỀ THI MẪU 8
ĐỀ THI THỬ DUYÊN HẢI BẮC BỘ ĐH NGOẠI NGỮ 2018
I. LISTENING (50 points)
Part 1: Listen to a talk about “The Strongest predictor of how long you’ll live”. For questions 1-5, give short answers
to the questions. Write NO MORE THAN THREE WORDS taken from the recording for each answer in the space
provided.
THE STRONGEST PREDICTOR OF HOW LONG YOU’LL LIVE
1. How long have Julianne Holt- Lunstad and her colleagues waited to get the answer to the question “what reduced
the chances of dying the most?
____________________________________________________________
2. Which factor ranks right above doing exercise mentioned in the recording?
____________________________________________________________
What are the names of the two factors getting towards the top predictors?
3. ____________________________________________________________
4. ____________________________________________________________
5. In the last predictor, how many kinds of people do you talk to?
____________________________________________________________
Part 2: Listen to a TED Talks speech entitled ‘The Danger of Silence’. For questions 6-10, choose the correct answer
(A, B or C) for each of the following questions. Write your answers in the corresponding numbered boxes.
6. The speaker refers to Dr Martin Luther King in order to _______.
A. condemn ignorance and silence
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B. elucidate his pedagogies and principles of teaching poetry
C. vindicate the Civil Rights Movement by his internalisation
7. The speaker feels that he has spent his life _______.
A. compromising the truth to please others
B. doing whatever is needed to expose the truth
C. making no sacrifices to reveal the truth
8. The speaker looks back, with hindsight, on various instances of injustice with _______.
A. dignity of the right thing he did
B. remorse for his indifference
C. revulsion against the world he lives in
9. The speaker feels we should be focusing more on _______.
A. being all ears
B. silence and contemplation rather than nonsense talk
C. what is usually taken as read
10. At the end of his speech, the speaker undertakes to be more _______.
A. accommodating
B. outspoken
C. self-sacrificing in the interests of others
Part 3: Listen to part of a National Geographic documentary. For questions 11–15, decide which statements are
TRUE or FALSE according to what you hear. Write NOT GIVEN if there is no information about the statement. Write
your answers in the corresponding numbered boxes.
11. Steve McCurry studied journalism at college.
12. He once wanted to be a travel photographer.
13. He’s retiring after 30 years with National Geographic.
14. He’s looking for 36 shots to take on the roll of film.
15. He’s decided to shoot all the frames at Grand Central Station.
Part 4: Listen to some pieces of VOA news. For question 16-25, write NO MORE THAN THREE WORDS taken from
the recording for each answer in the space provided. Write your answers in the corresponding numbered boxes.
In just two weeks, China has announced and has now voted with near unanimous approval to amend (16)___________and
give the party state's powerful leader Xi Jinping a mandate to stay in office indefinitely.
On Sunday, an amendment to cancel a two-term limit on the office of the president was approved along with
(17)___________. The amendments passed smoothly in the rubber-stamp National People's Congress.
Hong Kong saw low turnout numbers for an election Sunday to replace four lawmakers disqualified over o aths last year that
the Chinese (18)___________
Fifteen candidates are running to fill the four seats that were vacated when the oaths by pro-democracy lawmakers were
declared invalid, a move that critics say was (19)___________. China on Sunday said it do es not intend to ignite a trade
war with the U.S. because that would be disastrous for the entire world.
The Minister of Commerce Zhong Shan said at China's annual parliamentary session, "China does not wish to fight a trade
war, nor will China initiate a trade war, but we can handle any challenge and will resolutely defend the interests of our
country and our people.”
All 11 people aboard a private Turkish jet died Sunday after the jet crashed into a mountainside and (20)___________during
heavy rain in southern Iran.
Mattis said on Sunday that "right now" the United States is "getting reports" that Syrian President Bashar al-Assad's forces
are (21)___________in their three-week-long advance against the rebels outside the capital, Damascus. In that advance,
nearly 1,000 people have died, 200 of them children.
People in Cameroon have freed 40 of the more than 100 women arrested while trying to ask President Paul Biya to negotiate
a peaceful political transition. Biya has been in power (22)___________. They are also calling [him] on him to solve the
crisis caused by separatist groups demanding the independence of the English-speaking from the French-speaking regions
of the central African state.
Last October, secessionist groups declared the independence of the English-speaking southwest and northwest regions of
Cameroon they call Ambazonia, declaring Ayuk Tabe Julius, who was in exile in Nigeria, as their president. Armed conflicts
erupted prompting a crackdown of the military. Biya has ruled Cameroon since November 1982. His party supporters have
been calling on him to (23)___________again in elections expected by September this year.
Thousands stood in silent respect in the southern Macedonian city of Bitola Sunday to (24)___________of the Nazi
Holocaust of Jews during World War II. All but a handful of Macedonian Jews were slaughtered by the Nazis.
Sunday was the (25)___________of the deportation of more than 7,000 Macedonian Jews to Nazi death camps in Poland.
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II. LEXICO-GRAMMAR (30 points)
Part 1. For questions 1–10, choose the correct answer A, B, C or D to each of the following questions and write
your answers in the corresponding numbered boxes provided.
1. The ceiling fans were on, but unfortunately they only _____ the hot, humid air.
A. stirred up B. poured through C. turned into D. cut back
2. He set one alarm-clock f or five o’clock and the other for five past so as to _____ that he did not oversleep.
A. assure B. ensure C. insure D. reassure
3. When Tim was eating a cherry, he accidentally swallowed the _____.
A. nut B. stone C. seed D. core
4. He was ________ with bribery after she offered to pay the policeman a sum of money to overlook the offence.
A. charged B. accused C. sued D. suspected
5. Some endurance events may be rescheduled if such high pollution levels ________ a health risk to most athletes.
A. create B. present C. run D. face
6. Improving the overall environmental quality is a long-term battle in which we do want the participation of everyone in
society in order to ________ results.
A. realize B. reap C. bear D. generate
7. Hundreds of people in the hardest-hit zone are at ________ from disease unless a tsunami-like aid effort is mobilized.
A. threat B. menace C. risk D. danger
8. The result is impossible to predict with any degree of ________.
A. certainty B. assurance C. insurance D. probability
9. With three days to ________ before the high school graduation examination, he had to digest such a lot of facts.
A. go B. come C. remain D. spare
10. Television came into _________ and became a competitor with the motion pictures.
A. practice B. enforcement C. use D. life
Part 2. For questions 11-15, fill in the blank with a suitable preposition and write your answers in the corresponding
numbered boxes provided.
11. When Kathy finishes her studies, she’ll probably go_________teaching. I think she would be a very good teacher.
12. Jane plays the piano beautifully. She takes ________________ her father who used to be a concert pianist.
13. Jeff is over f orty and still a bachelor. I don’t think he will ever settle ________________.
14. I’m hot and tired. I could do________________ a cold shower.
15. I can’t put________________ the hammering f rom the flat above much longer. It’s giving me a headache.
Part 3. For questions 16-20, find the mistakes in the following sentences and correct them and write your answers
in the corresponding numbered boxes provided.
Question 16: You should know by now that I cannot stand it when my steak is not cooked properly as I always have mine
well-made.
Question 17: An important factor should be considered is Mr. Lopez's ability to keep the new restaurant going for several
months with limited revenue.
Question 18: When one opens an account at Dominion Savings and Loan, you can get the first set of checks for free.
Question 19: Mobility is one of the characteristics often demanded of executives, and they must accustom themselves to
move quite regularly.
Question 20: Not until recent has interest in synthetic fuels been revived.
Part 4. For questions 21–30, write the correct form of each bracketed word in the numbered space provided below.
(0) has been done as an example.
PERFORMANCE ART
Performance Art began in the 1960s in the US and was (0) originally (origin) a term used to describe a live
event that often included poets, (21) (music)________, film makers and so on, in (22) (add)________to visual artists.
There were earlier (23) (precede)________for this art form, including the Dadaists in France, who combined
poetry and visual arts, and the Bauhaus in Germany, whose members used live theatre (24) (work)________to explore
the (25) (relation)________between space, sound and light. By 1970, Performance Art was a (26)
(globe)________term and its definition had become more specific. Performances had to be live and they had to be art,
not theatre.
Performance Art could not be bought, sold or traded. Performance artists saw their movement as a means of
taking art directly to the public, thus completely eliminating the need for galleries, agents, (27) (account)________and
any other aspect of (28) (capital)________. In effect, it became a social commentary on the need to maintain the
absolute (29)(pure)________of art.
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One relatively recent f orm of Perf ormance Art is ‘mobbing’, an email-driven experiment in organizing groups of
people who suddenly (30) (material)________in public places, interact with others according to a very loosely planned
scenario, and they disappear just as suddenly as they appeared.
III. READING (60 points)
Part 1. For questions 31–40, fill each of the following numbered spaces with ONE suitable word and write your
answers in the corresponding boxes provided below the passage. (0) has been done as an example.
A DNA fingerprint __of___ (0) every active criminal in Britain will be taken _________ (31) part of government plans
___________ (32) a wide-ranging overhaul of the criminal justice system, the Prime Minister said yesterday.
In his first public announcement ____________ (33) returning from holiday, Tony Blair promised to deliver a courts system fit
for the 21st century. Addressing police officers in Kent, in southern England, he accused the courts of being __________ (34)
for their own convenience and promised to ensure that victims, witnesses and police giving evidence would receive more
respect.
Mr Blair declared the justice system archaic, saying it hindered police efforts to keep up with organised crime, and announced
a 107 million package to expand the DNA database. According to a government spokesman, the ____________ (35) should
hold more than three million samples _________ (36) to almost the whole criminal class of the UK.
'I think we _______ (37) effectively got a 19th century justice system in a 21st century world,' the Prime Minister said.
'We have totally ____________ (38) to keep up to date with the fact that we have got major organised crime operating in a
completely different way to 50 or 60 years ago,' he said.
Mr Blair stressed that he was ________ (39) favour of so-called zero tolerance and wanted a law-abiding society based on
courtesy _________ (40) others.
The Independent
Part 2: Read the following passage. For questions 41–50, choose the best answer (A, B, C or D) according
to the text. Write your answers (A, B, C or D) in the corresponding numbered boxes.
Ancient Angkor
In the regions of Southeast Asia dwell the remains of an era that far exceeded its time in developments and
industrialization. This ancient city, which was mysteriously deserted in the 15
th
century, is known as Angkor. Located in
Cambodia, Angkor was established in 802 CE as the seat of the Khmer Empire. Khmer was the largest continuous empire in
Southeast Asia. Its main city of Angkor grew and developed until it was abandoned in the year 1431. Many historians theorize
as to why it was abandoned, but the mystery remains.
Angkor was a city of power, industry, architecture, and cultural unity, which is why speculation surrounds its decline.
The ancient Khmer city stretched over an area of nearly 120 square miles, comparable to present-day Los Angeles. Each
successive ruler to the throne brought significant additions that diversified the territory. One ruler is known for construct ing a
baray, a massive water reservoir. Another built the imposing Angkor Wat, a temple of great proportions that survived the city’s
demise and exists today as a Buddhist temple. Along with over seventy other temples in the region, Angkor was home to an
expansive waterworks of marked ingenuity when nothing of its kind existed in the world. The civilization was structured around
the Mekong River. Intricate and sophisticated irrigation systems were fashioned to transport water to people and fields in all
parts of the city, including those removed from the central water source. For this, the city became known as the “Hydraulic
City.” The people of Angkor were led by an extensive court system, made up of religious and secular nobles as well as artisan s,
fishermen, rice farmers, soldiers, and elephant keepers. The civilization was guarded by an army transported by elephants and
ruled by shrewd and powerful kings. Yet after 600 years of existence, an abandoned shell was all that remained.
The land, buildings, and architecture were reclaimed by the surrounding forest regions until the 19
th
century, when
French archaeologists discovered the remains and began restoring sites in the great city of Angkor. Since then, theories have
evolved over time relating to the death of Angkor’s civilization. The f irst theory states that the city fell because of war. The last
two centuries of Angkor’s existence showed a decline in the Khmer Empire’s population and power. Ongoing wars with
neighboring Thailand had devastated the nation. In 1431, attackers from Thai nations invaded and looted Angkor, leaving it
desolate and vacant. Continuous war with Thailand culminating in a final attack on the city could have weakened the empire
and led to the city’s demise.
Another theory states that a change in religion led to the country’s downfall. The Khmer E mpire had predominately
been a Hindu nation, and the people were unified in their religion. Jayavarman VII, acclaimed as the greatest of Angkor’s kin gs,
took the throne in 1181 CE. He instituted a change in religion from Hinduism to Mahayana Buddhism. This action subsequently
could have destroyed the unity of the people and the overall foundation of the empire.
◼ A) Natural disaster in another feasible possibility for the scattering of people from the Angkor region. ◼B) Historians say
earthquakes, floods, and drastic climate changes would have been capable of stripping Angkor of its people. ◼C) One
researcher hypothesized that the city suffered from a lack of water due to the transition from the medieval warm period to the
little ice age. Others dismiss this idea. ◼D)
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However, a recently developed theory built on the work of French archaeologist Bernard-Philippe Groslier may have shed
the most light on Angkor’s demise. The theory suggests that the Angkorian civilization was “defined, sustained, and ultimately
overwhelmed by over-exploitation and the environmental impacts of a complex water-management network.” Its vast
waterworks proved too great for the city to manage. Also, supplying such a massive empire with water had adverse effects on
the environment. Ecological problems included deforestation, topsoil degradation, and erosion due in part to clearing vegetation
for cropland. Thus, the city inadvertently brought about its own environmental collapse.
With the use of aerial photography and high-resolution, ground-sensing radar, researchers were able to support Groslier’s
theory with images that complete existing topographical maps. The radar detected surface structures as well as subtle
variances in surface vegetation and soil moisture. This proved that environmental erosion had occurred. The combined images
and ground-based investigations further revealed that Angkor was a victim of its own industrial ingenuity, a city ahead of its
time and vulnerable to its own power.
41. The author mentions the Khmer Empire in paragraph 1 in order to ________.
A. establish the size and importance of the civilization
B. explain the downfall of the main city in the empire
C. compare the nation’s size to a present-day location
D. demonstrate why people were not loyal to the city
42. The word speculation in the passage is closest meaning to________.
A. evidence B. mystery C. question D. growth
43. According to paragraph 2, which of the following is true about the waterworks built within Angkor?
A. They transported drinking water to Angkor Wat.
B. They were a money-making venture for the city.
C. They were built to extend the water supply.
D. They irrigated fields along the sides of the river.
44. All of the following are true about the city of Angkor EXCEPT_______.
A. It was built around a water source.
B. It had an advanced road system.
C. It surpassed other cities of its time.
D. It is home to a Buddhist shrine.
45. The word its in the passage refers to_______.
A. Angkor’s B. baray’s C. waterworks’ D. home’s
46. Which of the sentences below best expresses the essential information in the highlighted sentence? Incorrect choices
may change the meaning in important ways or leave out essential information.
A. Archaeologists built a replica of what Angkor looked like.
B. Archaeologists uncovered the overgrown city and rebuilt its sites.
C. Finding the city, workers cleared the forest and studied the architecture.
D. The city’s architecture was inspired by the f orest regions nearby.
47. What can be inferred from paragraph 4 about the people who inhabited Angkor?
A. They worshipped ruler Jayavarman VII.
B. Hinduism was central to their way of life.
C. Religion led to more violence among them.
D. They were unified regardless of national religion.
48. Look at the four squares [◼] that indicate where the following sentence could be added to the passage
These natural catastrophes would have likely resulted in destroyed buildings, ruined cops, and a decreased water
supply that would have forced citizens to leave.
Where would the sentence best fit?
A. first square B. second square C. third square D. fourth square.
49. The word inadvertently in the passage is closest in meaning to ________.
A. purposely B. freely C. sadly D. accidentally
50. According to paragraph 7, which of the following did researchers prove about Groslier’s theory with the use of aerial
photography and advanced radar?
A. The surface soil showed evidence of dirt washing away.
B. The waterworks were filled with topsoil.
C. Vegetation was thriving where soil was deeper.
D. Soil damage was stable throughout the changes.
Part 3. For questions 51–60, read the text below and decide which answer (A, B, C or D) best fits each gap. Write your
answers in the corresponding numbered boxes provided.
IS THE SENSE OF BEAUTY INNATE OR LEARNED?
Beauty is the (51) ______of a thing or person that gives you pleasure. Inner beauty refers to psychological factors, such as
intelligence, kindness, compassion, and honesty. Outer beauty, or physical attractiveness, refers to factors such as looks,
health, youthfulness, and symmetry.
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Is the ability to (52) ______ physical or psychological attractiveness innate or learned? Is beauty objective or subjective? There
is some (53) ______ that the sense of beauty is subjective and culturally relative. The popular saying “beauty is in the eye of
the beholder” tells us that different people have different opinions about what is beautiful. For example, most Westerners (54)
______ a woman with a wide mouth attractive, while many Chinese regard a woman with a small mouth as beautiful. During
part of China’s history, women with big feet were considered to be ugly. Traditional Chinese foot-binding was (55) ______ to
keep a woman’s f eet tiny and thus “beautiful”. To people in the modern world, the foot -binding of women was painful, horrible,
and ugly. These two examples suggest that some ideas about beauty are learned and (56) ______ to change.
On the other hand, research indicates that a (57) ______ for beautiful f aces occurs early in a child’s development. A small child
plays with facially attractive dolls longer than with facially unattractive dolls. Children innately pay attention to the beauty of
nature.
People from various cultures and periods of time may have slightly different ideas about beauty. (58)______, they usually share
many standards of beauty. A kind, honest, and intelligent individual is attractive. So is a healthy, youthful person with a
mathematically average face and a (59) ______body. The appreciation of many aspects of both inner beauty and outer beauty
is innate.
Many aspects of beauty have been valued throughout human history. Our (60) ______ of beauty is innate, though that innate
sense may be influenced by the environment.
51. A. quality B. sense C. idea D. thought
52. A. comment B. define C. share D. denounce
53. A. option B. format C. evidence D. science
54. A. consider B. discover C. conclude D. doubt
55. A. intended B. viewed C. decided D. accused
56. A. resistant B. aimed C. meant D. subject
57. A. preference B. prefer C. preferment D. preferring
58. A. In addition B. Nonetheless C. For example D. Accordingly
59. A. well-done B. well-made C. well-proportioned D. well-formed
60. A. notion B. criticism C. concern D. Imagination
Part 4. Read the following passage and answer questions 61-70.
Weakness of the school system
A. By attempting to fit in as much as possible, the school day is continually being added to. In many ways,
this would appear to be a good idea, as our knowledge and understanding of the world is always growing
and it would seem logical to incorporate this into schools. The reality, however, has some decided
drawbacks. There is a growing feeling amongst many that the modern school curriculum, in an effort to
teach as many varied subjects as possible, is actually teaching students less. It seems that by constantly
adding to what should be taught in the classroom, the classes are less focused, not offering the deeper
learning that institutions perhaps should.
B. With classes sometimes only 30 minutes long, the overwhelming amount of information teachers are required to present
often only gives students time to learn facts, not to think in any great detail about what they are being presented with. The
problem is that students are not getting the opportunity to absorb what they are being taught as the curriculum expands in order
to keep what has already been taught and supplement it with everything new that comes along. The weaknesses of such a
system are clear – well informed though such students may be, there is the risk of an increasing number of graduates who
have no real creative or intellectual ability. By denying students the opportunity to sit and think their way through problems, or
even consider their own opinion, some schools are not always providing a truly educational atmosphere. There are, of course,
certain aspects of education which need to be taught by simply inputting the information. Basic mathematics, for example. But
there are many other subjects which could be best learned by having an opportunity to think and discuss what is being taught.
Literature, writing and the social sciences are good examples of subjects which cannot be considered as ‘covered’ by a mass
of information without the opportunity to discuss, debate or consider meaning or implications. There are also important social
skills to be learned during such periods of open discussion, skills which are not addressed by an endless flow of teacher-
centred information.
C. Teachers themselves have also voiced concerns about the amount of information they are required to impress upon their
students. There is a feeling in many educational establishments that students are no longer being educated, but taught how to
196
pass tests. In a world where academic success is too often measured by examination results, this is a serious concern. If there
is too much information to simply be memorised and not enough time to truly assimilate it, what happens to students who fail
to meet the grade? By current standards, they are failures, yet they may have great potential in areas not covered by the test
and there are many students who, despite clear intellectual ability, simply do not perform well in tests. Again, the problem is
one of focus, as education authorities are looking at the outcome of schooling rather than the content presented in the class.
D. It is here that many teachers feel the situation could be addressed at a local level. By giving more discretion to teachers,
school courses could be tailored to suit the students rather than tailoring students to meet ever-expanding course requirements.
In addition, by running a curriculum that gives options rather than defines an entire course, considerably more freedom would
be possible. As it is, progression through most primary and secondary schools is regimented, and there is little room for students
to identify and develop their own skills and strengths. If material could be chosen on the basis of its merits rather than simply
because it has been put in the curriculum, then what is selected may be taught to a depth that would serve some purpose.
There is, of course, a counter-argument, which claims that such open guidelines could lead to vast differences in standards
between schools. What one teacher may see as essential for a student’s education, another may see as irrelevant, and this
will result in students with widely different educational strengths.
E. With such a high-pressure learning environment, there are also a number of social aspects to schooling which need to be
considered. The increased student workload cannot be covered in the classroom alone for the simple reason that there is not
enough time in the average school week, and much of this extra workload has been pushed into the realm of homework. At its
best, homework should be the opportunity to look in greater detail at what has been studied. In other words, to actually think
about it and its relevance. The reality, however, is often very different. Concerned parents and overextended students are
finding that homework is taking an increasingly large part of a student’s evening, cutting into time many feel should be spent
as part of a child’s social education. Other social pressures have compounded the situation, as many of the areas of educating
a young child which should be the responsibility of the parents have ill-advisedly become the school’s responsibility. Drug
awareness and health issues, for example, are occupying an increasingly large part of the school day.
F. Many people believe that we should be teaching less, but teaching it better, and it is here that they think a solution can be
found. Yet the process of rewriting a curriculum to incorporate only that which is essential but can be well learned would take
far longer than most educational authorities have, and would be considered by many to be a ‘regressive’ step. Changes in the
curriculum have largely been motivated by changes in the nature of employment, as job mobility demands that people know
something about considerably more areas than were traditionally necessary. A little about a lot allows for the job mobility which
has become so common. No matter what the final verdict may be, one thing is for sure – change will be slow, and not always
for the best.
For questions 61-66, choose the most suitable headings for sections A–F from the list below. Use each heading
once only. Write your answers in the corresponding numbered boxes provided.
i. A question of time
ii. Lack of teacher training
iii. Student success
iv. The argument for flexibility
v. Importance of teaching experience
vi. Extra-curricular pressures
vii. The benefits of a varied curriculum
viii. Imbalanced focus
ix. Over-reliance on examinations
x. Quality of quantity?
61. Section A
62. Section B
63. Section C
64. Section D
65. Section E
66. Section F
For questions 67-70, do the following statements agree with the views of the writer?
Write YES if the statement agrees with the writer
NO if the statement does not agree with the writer
NOT GIVEN if there is no information about this in the passage
67. No subjects can be comprehensively learned without time to discuss and debate the facts.
68. Tests are a fair measure of ability.
69. Schools are trying to be responsible for too many aspects of a child’s education.
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| 197
70. Future changes in the curriculum will improve the situation.
Part 5. For questions 71–80, identify which section A–F each of the following is mentioned. Write ONE letter A–F in the
corresponding numbered space provided. Each letter may be used more than once.
A HISTORY OF HUMAN RIGHTS
A. In 539 BC, the armies of Cyrus the Great, the first King of ancient Persia, conquered the city of Babylon. But it was his next
actions that marked a major advance for the human race. He freed the slaves, declared that all people had a right to choose
their own religion, and established racial equality. These and other decrees were recorded on a baked-clay cylinder in the
Akkadian language with cuneiform script. Known today as the Cyrus Cylinder, this ancient record has now been recognised
as the world’s f irst charter of human rights. It is translated into all six of ficial languages of the United Nations and its
provisions parallel the first four Articles of the Universal Declaration of Human Rights.
B. The Magna Carta, or ‘Great Charter’, was arguably the most significant early influence on the extensive historical process
that led to the rule of constitutional law in the English-speaking world. In 1215, after King John violated a number of ancient
laws and customs by which England had been governed, his subjects forced him to sign the Magna Carta, which
enumerates what later came to be thought of as human rights. Among them was the right of the church to be free from
governmental interference, the rights of all free citizens to own and inherit property and to be protected from excessive
taxes. It established the rights of widows who owned property to choose not to remarry, and established principles of due
process and equality before the law. It also contained provisions for forbidding bribery and official misconduct.
C. On 4 July 1776, the United States Congress approved the Declaration of Independence. Its primary author, Thomas
Jefferson, wrote the Declaration as a formal explanation of why Congress had voted on 2 July to declare independence
from Great Britain, more than a year after the outbreak of the American Revolutionary War, as a statement announcing
that the thirteen American Colonies were no longer a part of the British Empire. Congress issued the Declaration in several
forms. It was initially published as a printed broadsheet that was widely distributed and read to the public. Philosophically,
it stressed two themes: individual rights and the rights of revolution. These ideas spread internationally as well, influencing
in particular the French Revolution.
D. In 1789, the people of France brought about the abolition of the absolute monarchy and set the stage for the establishment
of the first French Republic. Just six weeks after the storming of the Bastille, and barely three weeks after the abolition of
feudalism, the Declaration of the Rights of Man and of the Citizen was adopted by the National Constituent Assembly as
the first step towards writing a constitution for the Republic of France. The Declaration proclaims that all citizens are to be
guaranteed the rights of liberty and equality. Liberty was defined as ‘being able to do anything that does not harm others’.
Equality, on the other hand, was defined as judicial equality, which ‘must be the same for all, whether it protects or punish es.
All citizens, being equal in its eyes, shall be equally eligible to all high offices, public positions and employments, according
to their ability, and without other distinction than that of their virtues and talents.’
E. In 1864, sixteen European countries and several American states attended a conference in Geneva on the initiative of the
Geneva Committee. The diplomatic conference was held for the purpose of adopting a convention for the treatment of
wounded soldiers in combat. The main principles laid down and adopted by the later Geneva Conventions provided for the
obligation to extend care without discrimination to wounded and sick military personnel and respect for the marking of
medical personnel transports and equipment with the distinctive sign of the red cross on a white background.
F. World War II had raged from 1939 to 1945, and as the end drew near, cities throughout Europe and Asia lay in smouldering
ruins. Millions of people were dead, millions more were homeless or starving. In April 1945, delegates from fifty countries
met in San Francisco full of optimism and hope. The goal of the United Nations Conference was to fashion an international
body to promote peace and prevent future war. Its ideals were stated in the preamble to the proposed charter: ‘We the
peoples of the United Nations are determined to save succeeding generations from the scourge of war, which twice in our
lif etime has brought untold sorrow to mankind.’ The Charter of the New United Nations organisation went into effect on 24
October 1945, a date that is celebrated each year as United Nations Day.
the view that a situation which had wreaked widespread havoc could not be repeated
71. _______
a recent consensus that an event had far-reaching global repercussions
72. _______
treating all sides equally during military conflicts
73. _______
the view that a protest against the flagrant injustice of a despotic monarch had far-reaching
consequences
74. _______
surprise that widespread change came about in a relatively short space of time
75. _______
the suggestion that the unusual actions of a monarch were far ahead of their time
76. _______
an acknowledgement that a leader was prepared to justify his actions
77. _______
an expression of regret for mistakes made in the past
78. _______
the importance of something which officially tried to prevent a certain type of gender discrimination
79. _______
the idea that everyone should have the same opportunities for advancement
80. _______
IV. WRITING (60 points)
198
Part 1. Read the newspaper extract and use your own words to summarise it. Your summary should be between 140
and 160 words long.
More teens than ever aren't getting enough sleep
A new study finds young people are likely sacrificing sleep to spend more time on their
phones and tablets
Date:
October 19, 2017
Source:
San Diego State University
If you're a young person who can't seem to get enough sleep, you're not alone: A new study led by San
Diego State University Professor of Psychology Jean Twenge finds that adolescents today are sleeping fewer
hours per night than older generations. One possible reason? Young people are trading their sleep for
smartphone time.
Most sleep experts agree that adolescents need 9 hours of sleep each night to be engaged and productive
students; less than 7 hours is considered to be insufficient sleep. A peek into any bleary-eyed classroom in
the country will tell you that many youths are sleep-deprived, but it's unclear whether young people today
are in fact sleeping less.
To find out, Twenge, along with psychologist Zlatan Krizan and graduate student Garrett Hisler -- both at
Iowa State University in Ames -- examined data from two long-running, nationally representative,
government-funded surveys of more than 360,000 teenagers. The Monitoring the Future survey asked U.S.
students in the 8th, 10th and 12th grades how frequently they got at least 7 hours of sleep, while the Youth
Risk Behavior Surveillance System survey asked 9th-12th-grade students how many hours of sleep they got
on an average school night.
Combining and analyzing data from both surveys, the researchers found that about 40% of adolescents in
2015 slept less than 7 hours a night, which is 58% more than in 1991 and 17% more than in 2009.
Delving further into the data, the researchers learned that the more time young people reported spending
online, the less sleep they got. Teens who spent 5 hours a day online were 50% more likely to not sleep
enough than their peers who only spent an hour online each day.
Beginning around 2009, smartphone use skyrocketed, which Twenge believes might be responsible for the
17% bump between 2009 and 2015 in the number of students sleeping 7 hours or less. Not only might teens
be using their phones when they would otherwise be sleeping, the authors note, but previous research
suggests the light wavelengths emitted by smartphones and tablets can interfere with the body's natural
sleep-wake rhythm. The researchers reported their findings in the journal Sleep Medicine.
"Teens' sleep began to shorten just as the majority started using smartphones," said Twenge, author of iGen:
Why Today's Super-Connected Kids Are Growing Up Less Rebellious, More Tolerant, Less Happy -- And
Completely Unprepared for Adulthood. "It's a very suspicious pattern."
Students might compensate for that lack of sleep by dozing off during daytime hours, adds Krizan.
"Our body is going to try to meet its sleep needs, which means sleep is going to interfere or shove its nose in
other spheres of our lives," he said. "Teens may catch up with naps on the weekend or they may start falling
asleep at school."
For many, smartphones and tablets are an indispensable part of everyday life, so they key is moderation,
Twenge stresses. Limiting usage to 2 hours a day should leave enough time for proper sleep, she says. And
that's valuable advice for young and old alike.
"Given the importance of sleep for both physical and mental health, both teens and adults should consider
whether their smartphone use is interfering with their sleep," she says. "It's particularly important not to use
screen devices right before bed, as they might interfere with falling asleep."
Journal Reference:
THE PRACTICE BOOKLET FOR ENGLISH-MAJOR (VER A)
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1. Jean M. Twenge, Zlatan Krizan, Garrett Hisler. Decreases in self-reported sleep duration among U.S.
adolescents 2009-2015 and links to new media screen time. Sleep Medicine, 2017;
DOI: 10.1016/j.sleep.2017.08.013
ĐỀ THI MẪU 9
KỲ THI CHỌN ĐỘI TUYỂN HSG THPT CẤP QUỐC GIA QUẢNG BÌNH 2016
SECTION ONE: LISTENING (40/200 points)
Part 1. Questions 1-6. You will hear three different extracts. For questions 1-6, choose the answer
(A, B or C) which fits best according to what you hear. There are two questions for each extract.
EXTRACT ONE
You hear two friends talking about an experience one of them had as a volunteer.
1. Nigel joined the Blue Ventures project because ________.
A. a friend of his encouraged him to do volunteer work.
B. he had always dreamed of going to Madagascar.
C. he thought the experience would be useful to him.
2. Which word best describes Jenny’s reaction to Nigel’s account?
A. enthusiasm B. disinterest C. envy
EXTRACT TWO
You hear two people talking on a radio programme about how to deal with a compulsive disorder.
3. When did Alice realize she had a problem?
A. when she had a strong urge to go shopping all the time
B. after she had got into serious financial difficulty
C. once she had talked to a professional about how she felt
4. Alice now goes to a gym in order to________.
A. stop herself spending money. B. get fit and lose a bit of weight. C. get to know new people.
EXTRACT THREE
You hear two friends talking about a football match they have just watched.
5. The woman thinks that England ________.
A. deserved to lose. B. were not confident enough. C. were unfortunate.
6. According to the man, ________.
A. Gerrard was unfairly treated. B. England played badly. C. Russia didn’t play well.
Part 2. You will hear part of a talk by a writer who has written a book about bread. For questions
7-14, complete the sentences.
Supermarket (7) _______ believe that baking bread on the premises attracts customers. About (8) ______
of bread in Britain is no longer baked in the old-fashioned way. In the past, it took (9) _____ for the yeast
to ferment. Nowadays, the fermentation process is faster, and less (10) _______ is used. Unless salt is
added, bread baked in the modern way is (11) ___________. Calcium propionate can be sprayed on the
bread to prevent it from going (12) ___________. The speaker believes certain (13) ___________ may be
caused by modern bread-making methods. Supermarkets (14) ___________ on the sale of bread.
Part 3. You will hear an interview with the television presenter Dan Heckmond. For questions 15-
20, choose the answer (A, B, C or D) which fits best according to what you hear.
15. Dan was particularly attracted to the idea of working on the programme because ________.
A. it was a way of continuing his academic studies.
B. he agreed with the approach adopted by the team.
C. it involved working with experts in their subjects.
D. he welcomed the chance to visit interesting places.
16. How does Dan feel about the way topics are selected for the programme?
200
A. keen to ensure that his opinions are taken into account
B. worried that he hasn’t time to focus on the issues
C. sorry to play rather a minor role in the process
D. content to leave the main decisions to others
17. Dan says that any topic accepted for the programme must ________.
A. involve filming in a place with many picturesque views.
B. have at its heart a well-known mystery from the past.
C. give him the chance to engage in exciting activities.
D. require only a small amount of additional research.
18. When asked about those who criticise the series, Dan says that ________.
A. they may misunderstand its aims. B. they are unfair to judge it by its style.
C. they underestimate how much it can achieve. D. they might learn something from its methods.
19. What does Dan suggest about the first programme in the new series?
A. It was lucky to reach a conclusion.
B. It will fulfil the viewer’s limited expectations.
C. It should have addressed a much wider question.
D. It could make a valuable contribution to ongoing research.
20. How does Dan feel about including scenes where things go wrong?
A. certain that it will become a popular regular feature
B. unsure whether it’s the best use of programme time
C. worried that it might show his colleagues in a bad light
D. hopeful that it will provide insights into everyday archaeology
SECTION TWO: LEXICO - GRAMMAR (50/ 200 points)
Part 1. For questions 21- 35, choose the most suitable word to complete each sentence.
21. As he turned to chase the ball, the centre forward ___________ his knee and collapsed in agony.
A. twisted B. tortured C. contorted D. crumpled
22. The work is beyond the shadow of a ___________ one of the best she has written.
A. contradiction B. doubt C. criticism D. suspicion
23. Tina took her four-year-old daughter to the children’s hospital for an appointment with a _____.
A. philologist B. pedestrian C. paediatrician D. philatelist
24. Sally had to stay behind in ___________. for being rude to the teacher.
A. detention B. punishment C. college D. delay
25. I really must ___________ these trousers because I want to wear them in the morning.
A. press B. smooth C. crease D. flatten
26. The sea between Dover and Calais was so___________ that most of the passengers were seasick.
A. choppy B. heavy C. bumpy D. gusty
27. I’d like to have a bath, but there doesn’t seem to be a ___________ or anything to stop the water
running away.
A. lid B. cork C. plug D. cap
28. The frightened horse began to ___________ away from the snake.
A. shy B. fear C. throw D. tip
29. The safe deposit box ___________ a high-pitched sound when it was moved.
A. ejected B. expelled C. emitted D. exuded
30. It’s hard to do ___________ to such a masterpiece.
A. judgement B. justice C. fair play D. fairness
31. This jacket would be ideal in winter: it has a fur ___________ .
A. coating B. backing C. filling D. lining
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32. The runner with the injured foot___________across the finishing line.
A. limped B. trundled C. scrambled D. flashed
33. In the days before the widespread use
of ___________ , having an operation must have been a
gruelling experience.
A. aesthetes B. aesthetics C. anaesthetics D. anaesthetists
34. It had been a trying afternoon, ___________. at about 6 o’clock in the TV breaking down.
A. culminating B. leading C. arriving D. finalising
35. She gave up nursing training when she found she had no ___________ for looking after the sick.
A. vocation B. mission C. service D. ambition
Part 2. For questions 36-45, read the text below, use the words given in capitals at the end of some
of the lines to form a word that fits in the gap in the same line.
The twentieth-century study of Vermeer's works was gravely
hampered by the activities of Hans Van Meegeren, whose (36) ___________ NOTORIOUS
stems from a series of stunning (37) ___________ painted in the 1930’s FORGE
and 40’s. Van Meegeren exploited the art world’s (38) ___________ of IGNORE
Vermeer’s early life by painting a number of fakes that went on to be
(39) ___________ as genuine works of Vermeer by the leading authorities AUTHENTIC
of the day. His (40) ___________ were only exposed in the aftermath of DECEIVE
World War II, when a (41) ___________ Vermeer was found amongst the SUPPOSE
numerous illicit (42) ___________ of Hermann Goering. It was soon ACQUIRE
established that he had been sold the painting by Van Meegeren, who
was arrested as a collaborator. In order to escape possible (43) ___________ EXECUTE
Van Meegeren confessed to having forged the picture only to find
that his story was met with total (44) ___________ . To test his claim, he BELIEVE
was locked in a studio with a panel of experts and ordered to produce
another “Vermeer”: stunned by the (45) ___________ of his technique, the MASTER
judges released him before he had even completed the painting.
Part 3. For questions 46-50, fill each blank with a suitable preposition or particle.
46. He showed great ingenuity ___________ solving the problem.
47. Don’t let him lure you ___________ agreeing.
48. You’re silly not to avail yourself ___________ this good opportunity.
49. The speaker made many allusions ___________ the new scheme.
50. Stop wasting time! Get to my office ___________ the double.
Part 4. For questions 51 -55, fill the following sentences with suitable words in the box.
on the shelf at all costs cows tall stomach donkey
51. We must ___________ catch the 7.30 train. Otherwise, we won’t get to the meeting in time.
52. She loved tennis and could watch it until the ___________ came home.
53. When I was growing up in Wales, a girl was considered to be ___________ if she wasn’t married by
the time she was twenty - five.
54. You need to have a strong ___________ to work in a slaughterhouse.
55. Don’t believe a word he says; it’s just another of his ___________ stories.
Part 5. For questions 56-70, complete the following article by writing each missing word in the
correct blank. Use only ONE word for each space.
(56) ___________ civilization and culture are fairly modern words, having (57) ___________ into
prominent use during the 19th century by anthropologists, historians, and literary figures. There has (58)
___________ a strong tendency to use them interchangeably as (59) ___________ they mean the same
thing, (60) ___________ they are not the same.
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Although modern in (61) ___________ usage, the two words are derived from ancient Latin. The
word “civilization” is (62) ___________ on the Latin civis, “inhabitant of a city.” Thus civilization, in its
most essential meaning, is the ability of people to live (63) ___________ harmoniously in cities, in social
groupings. From this definition it would seem that certain (64) ___________, such as ants or bees, are
also civilized. They live and work together in social groups. So (65) ___________ some microorganisms.
But there is more to civilization, and that is (66) ___________ culture brings to it. So, civilization is (67)
___________ from culture.
The word culture is (68) ___________ from the Latin verb colere, “to till the soil” (its past
participle is cultus, associated with cultivate). But colere also has a wider range of meanings. It may, like
civis, (69) ___________ inhabiting a town or village. But (70) ___________ of its definitions suggest a
process of starting and promoting growth and development.
SECTION THREE: READING COMPREHENSION (75/ 200 points)
Part 1. For questions 71 - 83, read the text below and decide which answer (A, B,C or D) best fits
each space.
Modern barging
There has been a (71) ___________ change in the way the canals of Britain are used. The (72)
___________ network of canals that covers much of the country (73)___________ back to the industrial
revolution, when goods were transported along these routes. The canals themselves, the (74)
___________ waterways of the country, were dug by teams of men. This was no (75)___________feat in
the days before mechanised diggers. It
.
was also necessary to construct a system of locks, which raise and
lower boats so they can (76)___________ with the varying height of the canals themselves. Barges-simple
boats without engines - were used to carry the freight, and horses would (77) ___________ along the side
of the canal pulling these vessels. Many of the people working on the boats would themselves live on the
water, in a long boat with cramped living quarters: a narrowboat.
As the railways and roads (78) ___________ in popularity as ways of transporting freight, the canals fell
into (79) ___________; many of them became (80) ___________ with weeds and rubbish. But over the
last few decades Britain appears to have rediscovered these (81) ___________ of engineering. A growing
number of people each year sample the delights of canal holidays. Narrowboats can be (82) ___________
up to be very comfortable, and these days they are (83) ___________ by an engine and not pulled by a
horse.
71. A. prime B. fundamental C. downright D. deep-rooted
72. A. extensive B. far-flung C. ample D. widespread
73. A. comes B. looks C. throws D. dates
74. A. inbuilt B. inland C. internal D. interior
75. A. modest B. mean C. minor D.tiny
76. A. balance B. compensate C. cope D. handle
77. A. trudge B. canter C. stroll D. meander
78. A. increased B. obtained C. gained D. assumed
79. A. disuse B. obsolescence C. redundancy D. negligence
80. A. impeded B. choked C. hindered D. congested
81. A. records B. testimonies C. constructions D. monuments
82. A. done B. worked C. customised D. converted
83. A. equipped B. supplied C. drawn D. powered
Part 2. Reading the following passage and answer questions 84 -107.
The Reading Passage has seven paragraphs A-G. From the list of headings below, choose the most
suitable heading for each paragraph.
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LIST OF HEADINGS
i. Some success has resulted from observing how the brain functions.
ii. Are we expecting too much from one robot?
iii. Scientists are examining the humanistic possibilities.
iv. There are judgements that robots cannot make.
v. Has the power of robots become too great?
vi. Human skills have been heightened with the help of robotics.
vii. There are some things we prefer the brain to control.
viii. Robots have quietly infiltrated our lives.
ix. Original predictions have been revised.
x. Another approach meets the same result.
84. Paragraph A __
85. Paragraph B __
86. Paragraph C __
87. Paragraph D __
88. Paragraph E __
89. Paragraph F __
90. Paragraph G __
ROBOTS
Since the dawn of human ingenuity, people have devised ever more cunning tools to cope with work that
is dangerous, boring, onerous, or just plain nasty. That compulsion has culminated in robotics - the
science of conferring various human capabilities on machines.
A. The modern world is increasingly populated by quasi-intelligent gizmos whose presence we barely
notice but whose creeping ubiquity has removed much human drudgery. Our factories hum to the rhythm
of robot assembly arms. Our banking is done at automated teller terminals that thank us with rote
politeness for the transaction. Our subway trains are controlled by tireless robo-drivers. Our mine shafts
are dug by automated moles, and our nuclear accidents - such as those at Three Mile Island and Chernobyl
- are cleaned up by robotic muckers fit to withstand radiation.
Such is the scope of uses envisioned by Karel Capek, the Czech playwright who coined the term
‘robot’ in 1920 (the word ‘robota’ means ‘forced labor’ in Czech). As progress accelerates, the
experimental becomes the exploitable at record pace.
B. Other innovations promise to extend the abilities of human operators. Thanks to the incessant
miniaturisation of electronics and micro-mechanics, there are already robot systems that can perform
some kinds of brain and bone surgery with submillimeter accuracy - far greater precision than highly
skilled physicians can achieve with their hands alone. At the same time, techniques of long-distance
control will keep people even farther from hazard. In 1994, a ten-foot-tall NASA robotic explorer called
Dante, with video-camera eyes and with spiderlike legs, scrambled over the menacing rim of an Alaskan
volcano while technicians 2,000 miles away in California watched the scene by satellite and controlied
Dante’s descent.
C. But if robots are to reach the next stage of labour-saving utility, they will have to operate with less
human supervision and be able to make at least a few decisions for themselves - goals that pose a
formidable challenge. ‘While we know how to tell a robot to handle a specific error,’ says one expert, ‘we
can’t yet give a robot enough common sense to reliably interact with a dynamic world.’ Indeed the quest
for true artificial intelligence (AI) has produced very mixed results. Despite a spasm of initial optimism in
the 1960s and 1970s, when it appeared that transistor circuits and microprocessors might be able to
perform in the same way as the human brain by the 21st century, researchers lately have extended their
forecasts by decades if not centuries.
204
D. What they found, in attempting to model thought, is that the human brain’s roughly one hundred
billion neurons are much more talented-and human perception far more complicated-than previously
imagined. They have built robots that can recognise the misalignment of a machine panel by a fraction of
a millimeter in a controlled factory environment. But the human mind can glimpse a rapidly changing
scene and immediately disregard the 98 per cent that is irrelevant, instantaneously focusing on the
woodchuck at the side of a winding forest road or the single suspicious face in a tumultuous crowd. The
most advanced computer systems on Earth can’t approach that kind of ability, and neuroscientists still
don’t know quite how we do it.
E. Nonetheless, as information theorists, neuroscientists, and computer experts pool their talents, they
are finding ways to get some lifelike intelligence from robots. One method renounces the linear, logical
structure of conventional electronic circuits in favour of the messy, ad hoc arrangement of a real brain’s
neurons. These ‘neural networks’ do not have to be programmed. They can ‘teach’ themselves by a
system of feedback signals that reinforce electrical pathways that produced correct responses and,
conversely, wipe out connections that produced errors. Eventually the net wires itself into a system that
can pronounce certain words or distinguish certain shapes.
F. In other areas, researchers are struggling to fashion a more natural relationship between people and
robots in the expectation that some day machines will take on some tasks now done by humans in, say,
nursing homes. This is particularly important in Japan, when the percentage of elderly citizens is rapidly
increasing. So experiments at the Science University of Tokyo have created a ‘face robot’ - a life-size,
soft plastic model of a female heat with a video camera imbedded in the left eye - as a prototype. The
researchers’goal is to create robots that people feel comfortable around. They are concen trating on the
face because they believe facial expressions are the most important way to transfer emotional messages.
We read those messages by interpreting expressions to decide whether a person is happy, frightened,
angry, or nervous. Thus, the Japanese robot is designed to detect emotions in the person it is ‘looking at’
by sensing changes in the spatial arrangement of the person’s eyes, nose, eyebrows, and mouth. It
compares those configurations with a database of standard facial expressions and guesses the emotion.
The robot then uses an ensemble of tiny pressure pads to adjust its plastic face into an appropriate
emotional response.
G. Other labs are taking a different approach, one that doesn’t try to mimic human intelligence or
emotions. Just as computer design has moved away from one central mainframe in favour of myriad
individual workstations - and single processors have been replaced by arrays of smaller units that break a
big problem into parts that are solved simultaneously - many experts are now investigating whether
swarms of semi-smart robots can generate a collective intelligence that is greater than the sum of its parts.
That’s what beehives and ant colony do, and several teams are betting that legions of mini-critters
working together like an ant colony could be sent to explore the climate of planets or to inspect pipes in
dangerous industrial situations.
Questions 91-95. Do the following statements agree with the information given in the Reading Passage ?
In boxes 91-95 on your answer sheet write
YES if the statement agrees with the information
NO if the statement contradicts the information
NOT GIVEN if there is no information on this in the passage
91. Karel Capek successfully predicted our current uses for robots. __
92. Lives were saved by the NASA robot, Dante. __
93. Robots are able to make fine visual judgements. __
94. The internal workings of the brain can be replicated by robots. __
95. The Japanese have the most advanced robot systems. __
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Questions 96-98 Complete the summary below with words taken from paragraph F. Use NO MORE
THAN THREE WORDS for each answer.
The prototype of the Japanese ‘face robot’ observes humans through a (96) ___________ which is
planted in its head. It then refers to a (97) ___________ of typical ‘looks’ that the human face can have,
to decide what emotion the person is feeling. To respond to this expression, the robot alters its own
expression using a number of (98) ___________ .
Part 3. You are going to read an extract from a magazine article. Six paragraphs have been moved
from the extract. Choose from the paragraphs A-G the one which fits each gap(99-104).There is one
extra paragraph you do not need to use.
NATURAL TALENTS
In the mere seven million years since we humans separated from chimpanzees, we haven’t had time to
develop any differences: genetically we’re still more than 98 per cent identical to chimps.
99
That’s a large burden to place on a relative handful of genes. It should come as no surprise, then, that
modern studies of animal behaviour have been shrinking the list of attributes once considered uniquely
human, so that most differences between us and animals now appear to be only matters of degree.
100
The earliest art forms may well have been wood carvings or body painting. But if they were, we wouldn’t
know it, because those materials don’t get preserved. Not until the Cro-Magnons, beginning around
35,000 years ago, do we have unequivocal evidence for a distinctly human art, in the form of the famous
cave paintings, statues, necklaces and musical instruments.
101
First, as Oscar Wilde said, “All art is quite useless”. The implicit meaning a biologist sees behind this
quip is that human art doesn't help us survive or pass on our genes - the evident functions of most animal
behaviours. Of course, much human art is utilitarian in the sense that the artist communicates something
to fellow humans, but transmitting one’s thoughts or feelings isn’t the same as passing on one’s genes. In
contrast, birdsong serves the obvious functions of defending a territory or wooing a mate, and thereby
transmitting genes. By this criterion human art does seem different.
102
As for human art’s third distinction - that it’s a learned rather than an instinctive activity - each human
group does have distinctive art styles that surely are learned. For example, it’s easy to distinguish typical
songs being sung today in Tokyo and in Paris. But those stylistic differences aren’t wired into the singer’s
genes. The French and Japanese often visit each other’s cities and can learn each other’s songs. In
contrast, some species of birds inherit the ability to produce the particular song of their species. Each of
those birds would sing the right song even if it had never heard the tune. It’s as if a French baby adopted
by Japanese parents, flown in infancy to Tokyo and educated there, began to sing the French national
anthem spontaneously.
103
Yet even connoisseurs would mistake the identity of two mid-twentieth century artists named Congo and
Betsy. If judged only by their works, they would probably be identified as lesser-known abstract
expressionists. In fact the painters were chimpanzees. Congo did up to 33 paintings and drawings in one
day, apparently for his own satisfaction, and threw a tantrum when his pencil was taken away.
104
These paintings by our closest relatives, then, do start to blur some distinctions between human art and
animal activities. Like human paintings, the ape paintings served no narrow utilitarian functions; they
were produced not for material regard but only for the painter’s satisfaction. You might object that human
art is still different because most human artists intend their art as a means of communication. The apes, on
206
the other hand, were so indifferent to communicating with other apes that they just discarded their
paintings. But that objection doesn’t strike me as fatal, since even some human art that later became
famous was created by artists for their private satisfaction.
A. Perhaps we can now explain why art as we usually define it - the dazzling explosion of human art
since Cro-Magnon times - burst out spontaneously among only one species, even though other species may
be capable of producing it. Since chimps do, in fact, paint in captivity, why don’t they do so in the wild? I
suggest that wild chimps still have their days filled with problems of finding food, surviving, and fending
off rivals. If the ancestors of wild chimps had more leisure time, chimps today would be painting. Indeed,
some slightly modified chimps - we humans - are.
B. The role of learning in human art is also clear in how quickly our art styles change. Roman authors
described geese honking 2,000 years ago, as geese still do today. But humans innovate so rapidly that even
a casual museum-goer would recognise almost any twentieth century painting as having been made later
than, say, the Mona Lisa. Connoisseurs can do better, of course. When shown a work with which they are
not familiar, they can often identify not only when it was painted but who painted it.
C. Congo and Betsy were honoured by a two-chinip show of their paintings in 1957 at London’s
Institute of Contemporary Art. What's more, most of the paintings available at that show sold; plenty of
human artists can’t make that boast.
D. On this grand evolutionary scale, whatever it is that separates humans from animals is a very recent
development. Our biological history implies that our physical capacity for making art (whatever changes
were needed in the human physique, brain, and sense organs) and anything else we consider uniquely
human must be due to just a tiny fraction of our genes.
E. If we’re going to insist that our recent creative burst finally does set us apart, then in what ways do
we claim that our art differs from the superficially similar works of animals? Three supposed distinctions
are often put forward: human art is non-utilitarian, it’s made for aesthetic pleasure and it’s transmitted by
learning rather than by genes. Let’s scrutinise these claims.
F. For example, tools are used not only by humans but also by wild chimpanzees (which use sticks as
eating utensils and weapons), and sea otters (which crack open clams with rocks). As for language,
monkeys have a simple one, with separate warning sounds for ‘leopard’, ‘eagle’ and ‘snake’. These
discoveries leave us with few absolute differences, other than art, between ourselves and animals. But if
human art sprang from a unique genetic endowment, isn’t it strange that our ancestors dispensed with it for
at least the first 6.9 million of the 7 million years since they diverged from chimps?
G. The second claim - that only human art is motivated by aesthetic pleasure - also seems plausible.
While we can’t ask robins whether they enjoy the form or beauty of their songs, it’s suspicious that they
sing mainly during the breeding season. Hence they’re probably not singing just for aesthetic pleasure.
Again, by this criterion human art seems unique.
Part 4. You are going to read a newspaper article which discusses alternative systems for vehicles.
For questions 105-120, choose from the section (A-F).
In which section of the article are the following mentioned?
105. __ the advantages of conventional cars
106. __ a more compact version of existing technology
107. __ a willingness to invest in new technologies
108. __ limitations concerning where a vehicle can be used
109. __ a power source associated with a space programme
110. __ recycling waste products
111. __ a negative aesthetic impression
112. __ laws that encourage the development of new technologies
113. __ the inability to transport many people
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114. __ devices that function best when conditions are constant
115. __ the rate of acceleration of a vehicle
116. __ the possibility of returning to a source of power used in the past
117. __ the existence of a market for a certain type of vehicle
118. __ the ability to switch from one power source to another
119. __ a car that is expensive to buy, and that has relatively low running costs
120. __ a car can change position itself.
Vehicles of the Future
A. The motor industry is finally showing some serious interest in developing cost-effective and
environmentally-friendly technologies to power vehicles, as can be seen by the amount of money they are
spending on research and development. There are some sound reasons for this: nowadays a significant
number of people would prefer to buy a vehicle that did not emit greenhouse gases into the atmosphere or
pollute the environment in other ways. But there are other forces at work in the industry as well.
Governments throughout the world are demanding restrictions on gas emissions, and the goals they have
set can only be met in the long run if conventional cars with internal combustion engines are phased out
and replaced by vehicles that run on alternative power sources. Naturally, public opinion is ultimately
behind legislation like this, which is aimed at protecting the environment. Governments, after all, need to
respond to the wishes of their voters.
B. For the last few decades innovators have been coming up with ideas for alternative power sources
for automobiles, though so far none has had a significant appeal for consumers. The alternative
technologies we have at present are lagging far behind the petrol-guzzling internal combustion engine in
terms of speed and the distance that can be travelled before refuelling. But what does the future hold? At
present a hybrid car propelled by a combination of an electric motor and petrol engine may be the best
compromise for those who want to help save the planet and still have the convenience of a car. When you
start the hybrid car and when you are driving normally, power is provided by the electric motor, which
works with a battery. However, when the battery starts to go flat, the petrol engine starts automatically
and drives a generator to recharge the battery. Similarly, when the car needs extra power - in order to
accelerate, for instance - the petrol engine provides that power. This vehicle performs respectably, though
not spectacularly: it can go from 0 to about 100 kph in around 10 seconds, has a top speed of 165 kph,
and below average fuel consumption.
C. And what of cars powered solely by electricity? Here the main stumbling block has always been
storing the electricity: batteries may have come a long way, but they are still bulky and have to be
charged for long periods. The latest completely electric car, for example, has a top speed of 60 kph and a
range of 60 kilometres. It takes 6 hours to charge the battery fully. But the makers claim this is perfectly
acceptable for city driving, when people are unable to go much faster or further in any case. Many cities
provide benefits such as free parking for drivers of electric cars. But these vehicles are virtually confined
to urban settings, which is off-putting, and most people find electric cars have a toy-like appearance
which is definitely not appealing. Moreover, environmentalists point out that while the car itself may not
emit poisonous fumes, as is the case with petrol-driven vehicles, this is of little real benefit to the
environment if the electricity used to drive the car has been generated by coal or oil power stations, as is
generally the case.
D. First developed for use in missions to the moon, fuel cells appear to be the most serious challenger
to the internal combustion engine as an alternative source of energy for both mobile and stationary
applications. A fuel cell uses relatively straightforward technology that converts chemical energy into
electrical energy with benign by-products. In fact, the only by-products are water, which is harmless, and
heat. The other advantage is that fuel cells have no complex moving parts that need to be cooled or
lubricated. But rather than replacing the internal combustion engine as the source of power for the vehicle
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itself, the fuel cell - in the view of some manufacturers - will only replace the battery and alternator,
supplying electricity to vehicle systems, operating independently of the engine. The actual drive power for
the vehicle itself would still be provided by the combustion engine. However, while fuel cells certainly
hold a great deal of promise, there are some drawbacks. They need a steady supply of hydrogen, which
needs to be extracted from some source, such as methanol gas, and this process can be cumbersome. In
one model that uses fuel cells, the reformer required to extract the hydrogen from methanol takes up so
much space that the vehicle can only seat the driver and one passenger,
E. Another possibility is represented by turbines. Gas turbines have long been considered a possible
mobile and smaller stationary power source, but their use has been limited for a variety of reasons,
including cost, complexity and size. These large turbines shine when in steady-state applications but are
not as efficient when speed and load are continually changing. However, a new generation of turbines -
microturbines - has been developed in large measure for use in vehicles. They are small, high-speed
engine systems that typically include the turbine, compressor and generator in a single unit with all the
other vital components and control electronics. A different possibility in terms of energy supply for cars is
household gas. A special device installed in a garage can compress the gas, which is then fed into the car.
A gas car is cheaper to run, as well as being cleaner than a conventional car. On the other hand, the
vehicle itself is expensive because the technology is new, and environmentalists argue that a gas car will
produce only a little less carbon dioxide than petrol-driven vehicles.
F. In the meantime, various compromises are being employed as temporary measures. For example,
most diesel cars can now be converted to run on biodiesel fuel, which is made from used vegetable oils
and animal fats. However, the environment lobby is not convinced that biodiesel helps cut local air
pollution by any significant amount. Many experts believe that the ultimate solution to the problem of
reducing dangerous emissions ultimately lies with electric vehicles once the battery technology has
improved. Some experts even believe that the future may lie with steam cars, and since the first genuine
‘automobile’ - a vehicle capable of moving itself - was powered by steam more than two centuries ago, it
could be that the wheel is coming full circle.
SECTION FOUR: WRITING (35/ 200 points)
Part 1. For each of the sentences below, write a new sentence as similar as possible in meaning to
the original sentence, using the word given. This word must not be altered in any way.
121. That guy was a secret enemy. (SNAKE)
122. This car is far superior to the other models. (CUT)
123. Assembling the furniture is extremely easy. (PLAY)
124. I think his theory is clear and logical. (stands)
125. He is a generous person. (NAME)
Part 2. Write a report describing the information in the graph below.
You should write at least 150 words.
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Part 3. (ADDITIONAL SECTION) In today Vietnamese’s English curricular books, there has seen to
be a wider range of “Project” section. Many students are assigned to do those projects. Many parents
complain them to be time-consuming and unnecessary for their children as they need to focus more on
studying compulsory subjects and examinations.
What extent do you agree or disagree to this statement? Write an essay of at least 180 words.
THE END
BEST OF LUCK
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ĐỀ THI MẪU 10
ĐỀ THI TRẠI HÈ PHƯƠNG NAM 2019
(Do đề thi được scan lại nên hơi khó nhìn. Xin thông cảm và có ý kiến gì xin gửi về tác giả)
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II. LEXICO AND GRAMMAR (30 POINTS)
Part I. For question 21 to 40, choose the correct answer (A, B, C or D) to each of the question and
fill in the given blanked box below.
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ĐỀ THI MẪU 11
ĐỀ THI LUYỆN TẬP ÔN THI HSG 10,11 BẮC GIANG 2013 – 2014
Link test: https://www.scribd.com/document/305731722/Private-Tutorial
PART I: LISTENING (AUTHOR-ADDED SECTION)
For questions 1-10, listen to a recording about awkwardness and fill in the missing information using
NO MORE THAN THREE WORDS. You will hear the recording TWICE.
- Some people have difficulty adapting to the ____________________ (1) of society due to the different
way in which their brains function. But why do we feel awkwardness?
- According to Ty Tashiro, author of the book “Awkward”, the feeling of awkwardness is actually
evolutionary. In ____________________ (2), behaving in socially acceptable ways was a means of
maintaining ____________________ (3) and keep out potential threats.
- In the present day, humans are still sensitive to social customs such as signifying ____________________
(4) by responding to “How are you?” with “Fine”, and deviating from these customs can create
awkwardness. However, these ____________________ (5) are not something that comes naturally for some
people.
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- For instance, awkward people don’t instinctively make eye contact, which can make people feel
socially ____________________ (6). Instead, they focus more on other facial features, possibly alienating
the person they’re talking to.
- Luckily, awkward people’s brains may excel in aspects other than ____________________ (7). Just like
how people with autism are brilliant at ____________________ (8), problem solving and memory,
awkward people often have obsessive interests and talents.
- In his book, Tashiro also mentions that one of the factors that makes people consider robots to
be ____________________ (9) is the fact that they are quite incapable of complying
with ____________________ (10). Therefore, in a manner of speaking, these robots are similar to awkward
people themselves.
PART II: LEXICO AND GRAMMAR
Section I. For questions 1–20, choose the word or phrase (A, B, C or D) which best completes each
sentence. Circle the correct answer.
1. The newspaper’s ___________ has been falling for a number of years.
A. audience B. readership C. reputation D. status
2. I prefer __________ newspapers to tabloids.
A. broadsheet B. widespread C. expansive D. extensive
3. He was one of the BBC’s best-known war _________.
A. reporters B. journalists C. followers D.
correspondents
4. The advertising space that is divided into sections is generally known as the _________ ads.
A. small B. confdential C. classifed D. small print
5. The Prime Minister is considering a cabinet __________.
A. reorganisation B. rearrangement C. reshufe D.
reconstruction
6. I subscribe to a __________ literary journal.
A. three-monthly B. quarterly C. quartered D. seasonal
7. They want to erect a huge satellite _________ right opposite my house.
A. plate B. record C. platter D. dish
8. I can’t give you that information, you will have to speak with the press __________.
A. oficer B. oficial C. executive D. administrator
9. We’ll take a short _________ break and we’ll be right back.
A. commercial B. advertising C. promotional D. publicity
10. To fnd out what’s on TV, just look in the TV & radio __________.
A. programmes B. schedules C. listings D. records
11. The match will be screened on ITV, with commentary __________ by Andy Gray.
A. lively B. live C. alive D. living
12. There will be __________ coverage of the games on most channels.
A. complete B. general C. widespread D. extensive
13. His supporters did everything they could to __________ him on in the race.
A. push B. spur C. drive D. prod
14. One of the guests stood up to _________ the virtues of the fine food.
A. worship B. admire C. appreciate D. extol
15. He didn’t mean to be offensive; it was quite an __________ remark.
A. innocuous B. inaugural C. integral D. insidious
16. The job creation scheme is still in its __________.
A. childhood B. babyhood C. opening D. infancy
17. The Prime Minister gave an _________ response to the question.
A. evading B. invasive C. evasive D. invading
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18. She had a(n) __________ interest in holding a separate bank account.
A. vested B. invested C. shadowed D. implied
19 I assure you that I __________ no hostile feelings towards you.
A. shelter B. harbour C. embrace D. cover
20. I am sick of hearing the same old __________ in meetings.
A. plenum B. plentifulness C. placard D. platitudes
Section II. For questions 21–35, use the word in capitals at the end of the sentence to form one word
that fits in the space. There is an example at the beginning (0).
0. We really must look for staff who have good ___qualifcations___. QUALIFY
21. All this talk of changes in the company is rather ________________. SETTLE
22. The professor warned that writing ________________ could cost marks. LEGIBLE
23. After all I did for her, I was rather taken aback by her ________________ attitude. APPRECIATE
24. Many minor _________________ can be easily treated with herbs. AIL
25. “Is there any _________________ in your abdomen?” asked the doctor. TENDER
26. I’ve been told that I will have to _________________ an operation. GO
27. The chemical substance _________________ on contact with water. SOLID
28. When the lab fndings and the research results were _______, an amazing discovery came to light.
RELATE
29. _________________ is a serious problem at this particular inner-city school. TRUANT
30. There was a _________________ smell coming from inside the old disused well. REPEL
31. The student was given ______ for consistently forgetting to do her homework. DETAIN
32. The man was known for his quick temper and _______ style of leadership. TYRANT
33. It would be _____ to believe that girls are born weaker, more sensitive or with a greater natural
inclination to cry. ERR
34. What boys really need is more encouragement in their ______ years in order not to succumb to
feelings of depression later on. FORM
35. You do not have to be an expert to grow cacti, and the ____ needn’t be concerned about cultivating
them because they are among the easiest of plants to care for. INITIATE
Section III: For questions 36–55, complete the sentences by flling each blank with appropriate
particles. There is an example at the beginning (0).
0. Don’t hang _____up____! I haven’t fnished explaining yet!
36. Good hygiene helps keep _____________ the levels of infection.
37. Finalising the details of the plan is holding ____________ its implementation.
38. I don’t hold ____________ the theory that punishment alters behaviour for the better.
39. You failed to keep ____________ your side of the bargain.
40. The unions are holding ____________ for more money, but the government are unlikely to agree.
41. Why do I have to keep ____________ at you to keep your room tidy?
42. We were making ____________ London but we turned off at Banbury by mistake.
43. What do you make ____________ the plan to do away with the taxation system?
44. I can’t make ____________ what the sign says from this far out.
45. All living matter is made ____________ individual cells.
46. I’m sorry I forgot your birthday; I’ll make it ____________ to you next week.
47. The designer transformed our old house ____________ a palace ft for a king.
48. The TV station has been inundated ____________ offers of cash for the appeal.
49. Personally, I would put no faith ____________ him – he is the most unreliable person I know.
50. The management have put their declining popularity ____________ poor results.
51. To arrest the onset of boredom, Pam decided to take ____________ a hobby.
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52. Ryan threatened to tell ____________ his sister if she didn’t give him some money.
53. “I can see you’re angry, but that’s no reason to take it ____________ the dog!”
54. You will feel a little woozy after taking the medication, but the side-effects will wear _____ fast –
you’ll be fne after a few minutes.
55. As the day wore _____________, John grew more and more impatient.
Section IV. For questions 56–63, read the text below in which there are 8 errors (punctuation,
grammar, unnecessary word, word form). Underline the errors and write the corrections in the
spaces provided. There are four examples (0, 00, 000, 0000) at the beginning.
SOLAR ECLIPSE
Most astronomic events that influence the Earth, which apart from the occasional asteroid impact,
does so in a regular fashion, such as day and night the tides and the seasons. There is, however, one event
that has a tremendous impact on the Earth that of the total eclipse. For a few minutes, broad daylight
changes to complete darkness as the Moon totally hides out the Sun. This darkness is accompanied by
many spectacular effects, and it also provides a rare opportunity for physicists to make observations that
are impossible at any other time. However, as a total solar eclipse is a sudden interruption of the day, it
can also have the effect on plants and animals that are used to the regular cycle of day and night. As total
eclipses occur on average once every 360 year at any particular location, there is a little chance of any
living thing becoming accustomed to them. In fact, there are some amazing stories of the unusual
behaviour of animals as a total eclipse approaches. In Australia, for example, one more observer said ‘I
found myself having to calm a distressed parrot, which fell to the ground a moment or so before the total
eclipse’. Joanna Kale, another observer, found her head surrounded by a cloud of insect that dispersed
when the Sun fnally emerged from the eclipse. So that, as these examples show, the Sun’s presence has an
astonishing influence on life on earth.
0. __astronomical___ 00. ____which_____ 000. _____do_____ 0000. __night, the___
56. _______________ 57. _______________ 58. _______________ 59. _______________
60. _______________ 61. _______________ 62. _______________ 63. _______________
PART III. READING
Section I: For questions 64–75, read the text below and then decide which word, (A, B, C or D), best
fits each space. Circle the correct answer.
Since it first (64)________ the public imagination in the 1950s, television has placed the dominant
segment of our population – white heterosexual males – at center (65)________. Ethnic minorities were
all (66)________ absent from television until the early 1970s; (67)________ in the last decade have
programmes featured women in prominent roles. Even when there are scenes where both sexes appear
(68)________ camera, men generally play the brilliant detectives, fearless explorers and skilled surgeons.
Women, by contrast, continue to be (69)________ as the less capable characters.
Change has come most slowly to advertising, which sells products by conforming (70)________
widely-established cultural norms. Advertising (71)________ frequently presents the two sexes in
stereotypical ways. Historically, commercials have shown women in the home, happily using cleaning
products, and trying out new appliances.
Men, on the other hand, predominate in commercials for cars, services and industrial companies.
The authoritative ‘voiceover’ – the faceless voice that promotes products on television and radio – is
almost always male.
There are also other, more subtle biases. Men are often photographed to appear taller than women,
implying male superiority. Women are more frequently presented lying, or, like children, sitting on the
floor. The expressions and gestures of men (72)________ competence and authority, where women are
more likely to appear (73)________ childlike poses. While men focus on the product being advertised,
women direct their interest to men, conveying their supportive and submissive role. Advertising
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(74)________ actively promotes the myth that by embracing traditional notions of femininity and
masculinity, we (75)________ our prospects for personal and professional success.
64. A. took B. captured C. had D. enhanced
65. A. stage B. point C. position D. line
66. A. except B. apart C. but D. yet
67. A. only B. but C. neither D. nor
68. A. in B. on C. at D. before
69. A. put B. set C. shot D. cast
70. A. by B. to C. in D. with
71. A. however B. yet C. thus D. besides
72. A. exude B. extrude C. expunge D. exhume
73. A. for B. on C. at D. in
74. A. so B. however C. nevertheless D. therefore
75. A. let B. rise C. lift D. raise
Section II. For questions 76-88, read the text below and think of the word which best fts each space.
Use only one word in each space. There is an example at the beginning (0).
ANIMALS OF THE FUTURE
The idea of trying to imagine (0)___what____ sort of animals will be living on our planet in
thousands (76)_____________ not millions of years time seems at (77)____________ sight to be futile.
Can we possibly imagine what’s in store so (78)____________ in the future? The team of scientists
(79)_____________ work on this question is to be published soon have, all (80)____________ same,
applied a great (81)____________ more than guesswork (82)____________ the task.
Each of them, specialising in a different discipline, has used understanding of the past to fgure out
all the environments that may be available to future life forms. By studying past ice ages and climates,
they have deduced the (83)____________ in which weather patterns will, in all probability, affect
different areas of the globe. From their study of past evolution, they claim they can predict
(84)____________ life will adapt to ft the new ecological conditions (85)____________ about by these
changes. Because there is a series of rules governing evolution in the past, it requires no great leap of faith
to look in the other direction. The result is a collection of very weird-looking creatures.
(86)____________ the scientists admit they may be wrong, they say it is the (87)____________ they can
come up with, based on what they know, with just a little imagination thrown in for really
(88)____________ measure.
Section III. For questions 89-95, read the following text and then choose from the list A-J the best
phrase given below to fill each of the spaces. Write one letter (A-J) in the correct space. Each
correct phrase may be used only once. Some of the suggested answers do not ft at all.
THE LOVERS’ SAINT
He is one of the best known saints in Europe and his Day is widely celebrated, yet few of the lovers who
send greetings to each other on February 14th could tell you who Saint Valentine was or where
he came from. If he had been an American, there would be an enormous theme park in his honour,
decorated with hearts and flowers, (89)____________ and his home town of Terni is quiet and off the
beaten track.
Saint Valentine was the bishop in Roman times when there was a large Christian community there
(90)____________. They were persecuted and in the year 273, soldiers seized Valentine and cut off his
head. It is not clear how he became the patron saint of love (91)____________, believing that love
overcame such discrepancies.
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Nowadays, the person who has most to do with the saint in Terni is the parish priest, whose work involves
answering the thousands of letters addressed to him. He says that many of them are from young people
seeking a relationship (92)____________. They hope the saint will help them to resolve their problems.
Other towns in the area have put forward claims for the saint (93)____________. Industry in the town is
in decline and Valentine is one of its few attractions. The local council is trying to exploit his name
(94)____________. So far, there has not been very
much activity outside the church. The hotel has a fne restaurant (95)____________. Her own contribution
is to draw their attention to a traditional cake, hardly known outside Terni, that is supposed to excite the
passion of young lovers.
A. but before Christianity was tolerated in the
Empire
B. but he has no time to answer them all
C. but he may have celebrated marriages between
Christians and pagans
D. but he was Italian
E. but most are from already attached couples
F. but seems unsure of how to go about it
G. but the authorities distrusted him
H. but the owner says the town should have more
to offer visitors
I. but their validity is discounted in Terni
J. but work on the car park has not been
completed
Section III. Read the following passage answer questions 96-107.
HOW AN ADVERT IS CREATED
You may love them or loathe them, but a lot of work goes into creating the advertisements that we
see, hear or read. Although they may only be 30 seconds long, or a few lines of text and a photo, there has
probably been weeks if not months of work behind the production of the advertisement. But what is the
process which leads to the production of an advertisement? There is no one path that all advertising
agencies take, but there are some general ideas which are common to the vast majority of advertising
projects.
First steps
The first stage is when the client contacts the advertising company and submits a brief, which, by
definition, is not that long. It could be that a company wants to launch a new product. Thousands of new
products are launched every year, but very few of them become successful and are still around ten ye ars
after their launch. The company may want to improve its market share. How many different companies
are there selling cars, chocolate bars or computer services? There are only a limited number of customers,
so companies are willing to spend a lot of money on increasing their share of the pie through advertising.
The company may simply want to remain the market leader and realize that advertising may be the key to
their success. The company could be a regular client who was satisfed with an earlier campaign or it could
be a new company who has been impressed with other campaigns you have handled.
Research begins
Once the brief is in the hands of the advertising company, the research can begin which will
include an analysis of the client’s current products and their position in the market place. The company
itself is likely to be able to provide that data, but the advertising agency may need to do further research to
measure the perception of the product compared to the client’s competitors and also the kind of
advertising the competition is using.
Then the company will discuss a wide range of factors about the product itself: what are the
demographics (age, sex, education, income levels, etc.) and location of the people who are likely to use
the product? It is well known that some products sell very well in some areas but not in others. Mushy
peas, for example, are very popular in the north of England, but are rarely seen on dinner plates in the
south. Seasonality is another factor which can influence an advertising campaign. You don’t see many
adverts for lawn mowers in November, or adverts for snow clearers in June for obvious reasons. Such
factors need to be considered before planning begins.
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Now to the plan
Once the basic research is over, it is up to the planning team to decide how the target audience can
best be reached in the most cost-effective way. They may decide on the best pricing structure for the
company, perhaps offering the product at a lower price initially so that people try the products. They need
to decide on which media channels will be used. Is the product something visual, so television is the best
medium? Or can the product be advertised using radio advertising, which is generally much cheaper?
Companies will also look at targeting the advertising: if the product is suitable for travellers, then they
may haveadvertisements in trains and at airports. If the product is likely to sell well to sportspeople, then a
poster campaign in and around sports centres might be the best way. Another important role for the
planning team is to start creating the content that will woo the potential customers and help the company’s
sales skyrocket. The goal of advertisers is to produce a slogan that people remember and use on a regular
basis promoting brand awareness well outside the original advertisement.
Executing the plan
The creative team will then decide exactly how the message will be presented. Will the visual
material used feature a serious person in a white coat? Will it be a happy, successful looking couple?
Maybe an animated character? They also need to decide whether the message will tell you how good the
product is or how good you will feel when you use the product. Once the advert has been created on
paper, it is usually ‘farmed out’ to outside production companies who will do the actual recording or
filming with some people within the agency tracking the whole process so that the advertisement is
produced within a certain timeframe and, very importantly, as fnancial penalties could otherwise be
involved, within budget.
Following up
Once the advertisements have appeared on TV or in a magazine, the advertising agency follows up
to make sure that the ads were shown when they were supposed to be shown and also to see how effective
the campaign was. Of course, the best measure of success is when your clients return again and again,
perhaps with happy tales of boosting sales volumes, as they are clearly satisfed with your work.
So next time you hear, read or listen to an advertisement, spend a moment or two considering all
the work which went into producing it.
Questions 96–100
Do the following statements agree with the information given in the passage? Write
TRUE if the statement agrees with the information
FALSE if the statement contradicts the information
NOT GIVEN if there is no information on this
96. __________ Many products enter the market, but few of them survive longer than a decade.
97. __________ There are more companies selling computer services than cars.
98. __________ Location of likely customers is one factor that can affect how an advertising
campaign is organised.
99. __________ Radio advertising is much cheaper than advertising through magazines and
newspapers.
100. __________ Advertising agencies usually carry out all the work themselves, from research,
planning and creating the fnal flm, rather than using the expertise of other companies.
Questions 101–107
Complete the following sentences with NO MORE THAN THREE WORDS from the text.
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PART V. WRITING
For questions 108–120, write a new sentence as similar as possible in meaning to the original
sentence, using the word given. You must use between three and eight words, including the word
given. Do not change the word given. There is an example at the beginning (0).
0. There is a strong possibility that this species of rhino will become extinct. DANGER
This species of rhino is …………in danger of becoming…… extinct.
108. Above all, you must remember to hand over the keys to Maria before you leave. NO
Under ……………………………………………………………. first giving the keys to Maria.
109. We thought that painting the house would be an easy job.
DECEPTIVELY
It looked ……………………………………………………………. the house.
110. One injury after another ended her tennis career. SUCCESSION
She could not ……………………………………………………………….. injuries.
111. He wanted to challenge the world champion. INTENT
He ………………………………………………………… the world champion.
112. The final was to take place last Saturday, but was cancelled because of heavy rain. HELD
The final was ………………………………………………… o
ff
because of heavy rain.
113. When his doctor advised him to give up football, he started playing golf. TOOK
He ………………………………………………. his doctor’s advice to give up football.
114. She was 14 when she started playing football. INVOLVED
She ……………………………………………………………….. when she was 14.
115. There is a rumour that he’s going to play for Manchester United. SAY
Manchester United …………………………………………….. he’s going to play for.
116. I really feel sad when I see you so upset. WHAT
Seeing …………………………………………………………….. sad.
117. No matter what you do, I intend to marry Tia. WHATEVER
I have ……………………………………………………………………. you do.
118. Apart from weight-lifting, he likes every form of exercise. EXCEPTION
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He likes ……………………………………………………………. weight-lifting.
119. Tanya promised me she would pay the money back the following day. WORD
Tanya …………………………………………… that she would pay the money back the following day.
120. I’ve been thinking about it all week bull still haven’t made a decision. MIND
It’s ……………………………….…………………….. all week but I still haven’t made a decision.
Part II. (AUTHOR-ADDED SECTION)
Write an essay of at least 200 words about how marine environment is affected by human being?
THE END
BEST OF LUCK
ĐỀ THI MẪU 12
KỲ THI CHỌN HỌC SINH GIỎI
KHU VỰC DUYÊN HẢI VÀ ĐỒNG BẰNG BẮC BỘ
NĂM HỌC 2014 – 2015
QUỐC HỌC HUẾ
I. LISTENING (40 points)
HƯỚNG DẪN PHẦN THI NGHE HIỂU
• Bài nghe gồm 3 phần, mỗi phần được nghe 2 lần, mỗi lần cách nhau 15 giây, mở đầu và kết thúc mỗi phần
nghe có tín hiệu.
• Mở đầu và kết thúc bài nghe có tín hiệu nhạc. Thí sinh có 3 phút để hoàn chỉnh bài trước tín hiệu nhạc kết
thúc bài nghe.
• Mọi hướng dẫn cho thí sinh (bằng tiếng Anh) đã có trong bài nghe.
Part 1: You will hear an extract from a radio programme in which a film critic, Dan Sheldon, is
interviewed about Hollywood and the part it has played in the film industry. Choose the answer (A, B, C
or D) which fits best according to what you hear. (10 points)
1 After the early French documentaries, film-markers became interested in
A illusion and reality. B the effect of movement.
C adapting stories for film. D manipulating plot.
2 The use of mass production techniques in films led to
A further technological developments. B the establishment of Hollywood.
C the rise of the studio system. D the development of specialized genres.
3 The speaker says colour was different from sound because
A its impact on film-making was more gradual.
B it was not accepted by some film enthusiasts.
C its arrival was associated with a particular film.
D it was more technologically complex.
4 According to the speaker, what stopped the decline in Hollywood films?
A the development of cheaper mean of production
B the introduction of new genres
C the identification of younger audience
D the rise of video
5 The speaker suggests that in the future
A film stars will be less remote.
B the viewer will be more directly involved.
C there will be more film ‘packages’.
D new film genres will develop.
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Part 2: You will hear the minister talking about crime. Are these statements true or false? Write T (true)
or F (false). (10 points)
1. Peter Miles appointed a new head of the police service. _______
2. The government has spent a lot of money on CCTV. _______
3. The government copied the Make Amends scheme from another country._______
4. More people get mugged now than ten years ago. _______
5. The figures in the report are completely accurate. _______
Part 3: You will hear part of a radio programme about toys, in which the development of a famous toy
called Meccano is described. Complete the sentences with a word or short phrase. (20 points)
Frank Hornby worked for a ___________________________ (1).
He was inspired by a book called ___________________________ (2).
The __________________________ (3) he invented did not work properly.
He started to consider the idea of ___________________________ (4) parts.
He dicided that the parts would need to have a _______________________ (5) in them.
The first parts he made were from a big ___________________________ (6).
The first object that was built with the new system was a _____________________ (7).
The first name given to the new toy was ___________________________ (8).
Each Meccano set could be made bigger with the use of an ____________________ (9).
Hornby _____________________(10) arrived in 1925, followed by speedboats, and other toys in 1933.
Il. LEXICO-GRAMMAR (60 points)
Part 1: Choose the best answer (A, B, C, or D) to each of the following questions and write your
answers in the corresponding numbered boxes. (10 points)
1. The flying display attracted about 50,000 __________ despite the rain.
A public B assistants C spectators D audience
2. As the police officer, I get a lot of questions from members of the __________ asking how to get to one
place or another.
A people B public C audience D spectators
3. If you’re interested in a career in __________, you must be prepared to work hard for little money.
A acting B playing C performance D stage
4. There’s no __________ in my suitcase for your clothes as well!
A place B room C area D. seat
5. Can you __________ to it that no one uses this entrance?
A ensure B guarantee C assure D see
6. The minister __________ to say whether all the coal mines would be closed.
A refused B avoided C denied D bothered
7. One __________ adults takes physical exercise at least once a week.
A from four B in four C at four D with four
8. Our local youth club tries to __________ for all interests.
A equip B apply C organise D cater
9. Next year I hope to __________ my ambition of climbing Mont Blanc.
A complete B follow C realise D impose
10. After its engine failed, the small boat __________ with the current.
A waved B tossed C hastened D drifted
11. The whereabouts of the exiled president remains a __________ guarded secret.
A. highly B. closely C. deeply D. entirely
12. We should all ___________ when advertisers attempt to use unfair practices.
A. make a stand B. make a deal C. make amends D. make a comeback
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13. That company is trapped in a downward __________ of debt.
A. circle B. spiral C. trend D. path
14. All the members of the board were __________ themselves to please the Chairperson.
A. falling over B. jumping over C. carrying off D. coming about
15. The men’s efforts to help only served to __________ the problem and they were finally forced to call
in the emergency services.
A. extricate B. enervate C. extirpate D. exacerbate
16. We were not _________ convinced by his arguments.
A. closely B. extremely C. entirely D. widely
17. He opened the account with a(n) ………. to running up a healthy overdraft.
A. aim B. view C. purpose D. plan
18. The clowns in the parade _______ the onlookers with confetti.
A. sprayed B. splashed C. drizzled D. showered
19. Police had told everyone not to _______ anything in case evidence was destroyed.
A. annoy B. disturb C. bother D. confuse
20. I used to be able to solve the Rubik cube very quickly but I seem to have lost the ______ .
A. hang B. knack C. habit D. use
Part 2: The passage below contains 10 mistakes in spelling, grammar and word form. UNDERLINE
the mistakes and WRITE THEIR CORRECT FORMS in the space provided in the column on the right.
(0) has been done as an example. (10 points)
Barbara left university armed with a good degree of advertising and a desire
to fulfill her dream of working in PR. But three months after sending score
of letters in response to adverts, she was still looking for that elussive job.
Nowadays it’s not just the traditionally popular profesions like the media
and law that are difficult to enter. To make sure you get notice, you have to
be prepared to pull out all stops. And here’s how you can do it.
You should identify your skills and what you want out of your job. The core
skills employees are looking for are communication, teamwork and IT
skills; seek help with this from careers advisors and consultants. Send out
speculative letters, but make sure your letter stands out – you want the
reader to stop and taking notice. Once you reach the interview stage, beware
of pitfalls that can trip you up. Your performance here is crucial. Blunders
can cost you the job; make sure you’re well-versed in as many of the
company’s products and services as possible. Dress smartly but
comfortably, as you will be judged in some respects by how you wear.
When in doubt, dress conservatively. Appear confidently, relaxed and in
control at all times – this is of primary importance – and remember to listen
as well as say. Communication is a two-way street – talk too much and you
may miss clues concerning what the interviewer feels is important.
(0) in
1.____________
2.____________
3.____________
4.____________
5.____________
6.____________
7.____________
8.____________
9.____________
10.___________
Part 3: Complete each of the following sentences with a suitable preposition(s) or particle(s). (10
points)
1. This soup is too hot to eat. I’ll wait for it to cool ____________ .
2. Tim is seventeen and at the moment he doesn’t care very much ______________ anything except clothes.
3. Last year Ross was charged _______________ a variety of crimes, including assault and car theft.
4. Tom is falling ________________ his work at school.
5. It’s a long journey so remember to fill _____________ the petrol tank before you go.
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6. Luckily, the bomb which went ________________ near the bank last Friday didn’t kill anyone.
7. One of them was injured so the team had to drop ________________ the competition.
8. A car suddenly pulled ________________ in front of me and I couldn’t stop in time.
9. Don’t worry. The pain should wear ________________ fairly soon.
10. Luckily, the rain held ________________ so we were able to play the match.
Part 4: Fill in the spaces with an appropriate form of the verbs in brackets. (0) has been done as an
example. (15 points)
Frogs in my car
I (0) had been waiting (wait) for over an hour when Barry finally turned up on the tractor. He
(1)_______________ (explain) he (2)_______________ (hold up) by a fallen tree on the road. I didn’t find
his hard to believe as a gale force wind (3)_______________ (blow) for the past 5 hours accompanied by
torrential rain. The reason why I called Barry was that my car (4)_______________ (lie) on its side in a
ditch. I (5)_______________ (drive) along very slowly in the terrible weather when suddenly a large dog
appeared in front of me. I braked to avoid hitting it and the car skidded out of control on the water and mud
on the road and into the ditch. I managed to get out through the window. The problem now was that the car
was filling up with water and mud! Within seconds Barry, who (6)_______________ (wear) enormous
rubber boots, (7)_______________ (tie) a rope to the front bumper of the car and (8)_______________
(pull) it out with the tractor. After a few minutes the car was the right way up and back on the road again.
We opened the door and out (9)_______________ (jump) two big frogs who (10)_______________ (swim)
in through the open window!
Part 5: Write the correct FORM of each bracketed word in the numbered space provided in the column
on the right. (0) has been done as an example. (15 points)
Dealing with phobias
Do you feel hysterical at the thought of spiders? Do you start to shake if you think that you might have
to touch cotton wool? It is estimated that between three to five million Britons suffers from such phobias,
and the (0) majority (MAJOR) of these people do not (1) ________________ (GO) any form of
treatment. Most (2)________________ (RATION) fears begin in the first instance as mild forms of (3)
________________ (ANXIOUS), and only develop gradually into (4)________________ (BLOWN)
phobias. They seem to be becoming increasingly frequent in all expansion of technology, people who
are (5)________________ (CUSTOM) to controlling their (6) ________________ (STYLE) with the
push of a button panic when things go wrong. Men are less likely to suffer from such fears than women,
but attempts by either men or women simply to (7)________________ (REGARD) them can exacerbate
the problem.
Nowadays, however, phobias can be treated. The easiest option is prescription drugs, which effectively
control the physical symptoms, but may have (8)________________ (DESIRE) side-effects. The other
option is behavioural therapy, in which you gradually learn to (9)________________ (COME) your fear
through facing up to it. This is a safe and lasting (10)________________ (ALTERNATIVE) to drug
treatment.
lll. READING (60 points)
Part 1: Read the text and choose the word that best fits each of the spaces. (0) has been done as an
example. (15 points)
THE SKYDIVER WHO FELL 1,000 METRES AND LIVED
Astonishingly, a skydiver whose parachute failed to open properly has (0) a 1,000 metre fall to
the ground, suffering only (1) bruising but no broken bones at all. This amazing story began when
Martin Ford, who has over twenty years (2) of parachuting, took off in a Cessna aircraft with five
(3) skydivers. Their plan was to practise (4) hands in a mid-air formation but when they left
the aircraft Martin was involved in a (5) with another skydiver and their parachutes became tangled.
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The (6) did not panic but, after falling together for 500 metres, managed to (7) . The other
skydiver released his main parachute, opened the reserve and landed safely. Martin kept (8) and
tried to do the same. But he was unable to do so because as he turned in the air the parachutes began to (9)
themselves round him and he eventually (10) consciousness. He landed in a field that had recently
been ploughed, so the earth was quite (11) and cushioned his landing to some extent. He was (12)
to hospital where a doctor commented, ‘His survival is miraculous. Often is such cases there are serious
internal (13) because when the body decelerates on hitting the ground, the internal organs continue
moving. For example, the brain can strike the inside of the full sky with some (14) . But Mr Ford
only has (15) physical injuries.’
0. A. survived B. overcome C. endured D. resisted
1. A. hard B. severe C. rough D. grave
2. A. practice B. knowledge C. experience D. training
3. A. associate B. colleague C. partner D. fellow
4. A. connecting B. keeping C. touching D. linking
5. A. collision B. crash C. impact D. bump
6. A. team B. combination C. pair D. couple
7. A. divide B. separate C. part D. split
8. A. attentive B. aware C. quiet D. cool
9. A. envelop B. wrap C. enclose D. cover
10. A. surrendered B. left C. lost D. missed
11. A. gentle B. smooth C. fine D. soft
12. A. rushed B. hurried C. dashed D. sped
13. A. breaks B. damages C. injuries D. wounds
14. A. strength B. force C. energy D. power
15. A. outside B. superficial C. light D. surface
Part 2: Read the following text and think of the word which best fits each gap. Use only ONE word in
each gap. (0) has been done as an example. (15 points)
The Fight for the Summit
At 1.30 on May 12 1988, at the British mountaineer Stephen Venables was confronted (0) with an
agonizing dilemma. (1)_____________ an epic, month-long ascent of the Kangshung face of Everest, he
had reached the final staging point before the summit itself. He was hours (2)_____________ schedule,
close to exhaustion and utterly alone, his companions (3)_____________ fallen far behind. He knew that if
he did decide to push (4)_____________, he would have to spend a night on the mountainside in plunging
temperatures, (5)_____________ frostbite almost inevitable and his very survival (6)_____________ stake.
As he wondered whether to continue or turn back, Venables saw the final section of the summit
ridge, recognizing it (7)_____________ the photograph taken by the (8)_____________ climbers ever to
reach the summit during the British ascent in 1953. Venables later said that it was the mythology of the
place and a chance to become part of it that willed him on. He arrived on the summit two hours later, waiting
just ten minutes (9)_____________ starting his descent. He (10)_____________ indeed suffer frostbite,
and almost died as he struggled back to base camp. Later he had three toes amputated – but resolved to
carry on climbing.
Part 3: Read the following passage and choose the correct answer to each of the questions. (15 points)
THE DOMESTICATION OF ANIMALS
The domestication of wild species led directly to denser human population by yielding more food than the
hunter-gatherer lifestyle could provide. In societies that possessed domestic animals, livestock helped to
feed more people by providing meat, milk, and fertilizer, and by pulling plows. Large domestic animals
became the societies' main source of animal protein, replacing wild game, and they also furnished wool,
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leather, and land transport. Humans have domesticated only a few species of large animals, with "large"
defined as those weighing over 100 pounds (45 kilograms). Fourteen such species were domesticated before
the twentieth century; all of them terrestrial mammals and herbivores. The five most important of these are
sheep, goats, pigs, horses, and cattle or oxen.
Small animals such as ducks, geese, rabbits, dogs, cats, mink, bees, and silkworms have also been
domesticated. Many of these small animals provided food, clothing, or warmth. However, none of them
pulled plows or wagons, none carried riders, and none except dogs pulled sleds. Furthermore, no small
domestic animals have been as important for food as have large domestic animals.
Early herding societies quickly domesticated all large mammal species that were suitable for domestication.
There is archeological evidence that these species were domesticated between 10,000 and 4,500 years ago,
within the first few thousand years of the origins of farming herding societies after the last Ice Age. The
continent of Eurasia has been the primary size of large mammal domestication. Eurasia is a huge,
ecologically diverse landmass, and therefore has a great many large mammal species. Having the most
species of wild mammals to begin with, and losing the fewest to extinction in the last 40,000 years, Eurasia
has generated the most candidates for domestication.
Domestication involves transforming wild animals into something more useful to humans. Truly
domesticated animals differ in many ways from their wild ancestors. These differences result from two
processes: human selection of individual animals that are more useful to humans that other individuals of
the same species, and evolutionary responses of animals to the forces of natural selection operating in human
environments rather than in wild environments.
To be domesticated, a wild species must possess several characteristics. A candidate for domestication must
be primarily a herbivore because it takes less plant biomass to feed a plant eater than it does to feed a
carnivore that consumes plant eaters. No carnivorous mammal has ever been domesticated for food simply
because it would be too costly. A candidate must not only weigh an average of over 100 pounds but also
grow quickly. That eliminates gorillas and elephants, even though they are herbivores. Moreover,
candidates for domestication must be able to breed successfully in captivity.
Since almost any sufficiently large mammal species is capable of killing a human, certain qualities
disqualify a wild animal for domestication. The animal cannot have a disposition that is nasty, dangerous,
or unpredictable characteristics that eliminate bears,, African buffaloes, and some species of wild horses.
The animal cannot be so nervous that it panics around humans. Large herbivorous mammal species react
to danger from predators or humans in different ways. Some species are nervous, fast, and programmed for
instant flight when they perceive danger. Others are less nervous, seek protection in herds, and do not run
until necessary. Most species of deer and antelope are of the former type, while sheep and goats are of the
latter.
Almost all domesticated large mammals are species whose wild ancestors share three social characteristics:
living in a herd, maintaining a dominance hierarchy in the herd, and having herds that occupy overlapping
home ranges instead of mutually exclusive territories. Humans have taken advantage of those characteristics
in keeping domestic animals together with others of their species and in close proximity to other species of
domestic animals.
1. The word furnished in par.1 is closest in meaning to
A. demanded B. invented C. provided D. changed
2. According to the passage, what benefit of large domestic animals is not also provided by small animals?
A. A source of food B. A source of clothing
C. The ability to pull a plow D. The ability to be ridden
3. Which of the following can be inferred about large mammal species?
A. Relatively few species have the necessary characteristics for domestication.
B. More species of large mammals are domesticated as pets than for food.
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C. Only a few large terrestrial mammal species are primarily herbivores.
D. All large mammals can be classified into one of five important groups.
4. According to the passage, when did early humans domesticate all suitable large mammal species?
A. After humans had populated every continent
B. Before the Ice Age caused many animals to become extinct
C. At the same time they domesticated small animals
D. Within a few thousand years after farming and herding began
5. According to the passage, what is one reason that domesticated animals differ from their wild ancestors?
A. Wild animals find food easily, but domesticated animals must work for food.
B. Domesticated animals live near humans, so they forget their wild ancestors.
C. Animals' evolutionary responses in captivity differ from those in the wild.
D. More animals survive in human environments than in wild environments.
6. Why does the author mention gorillas and elephants in par. 5?
A. To suggest that some overlooked animals could be domesticated
B. To illustrate the wide variety among large herbivores
C. To identify animals intelligent enough to avoid domestication
D. To give examples of animals that grow too slowly for domestication
7. The word disqualify in par.6 is closest in meaning to
A. identify B. display C. reject D. punish
8. The word panic in par.6 is closest in meaning to
A. feels terror B. refuses to eat C. attacks othersD. becomes ill
9. What can be inferred from par.6 about deer and antelope?
A. They run away from humans only if threatened.
B. They do not supply meat of a consistent quality.
C. They are as dangerous as certain wild horses.
D. They have not successfully been domesticated.
10. All of the following are characteristics favorable to domestication EXCEPT
A. weighing over 100 pounds B. unpredictable behavior
C. ability to breed in captivity D. living in a herd with hierarchy
Part 4: Read the following passage and answer the questions. (15 points)
London’s Cycle Hire Scheme
A London is a ‘world city’: one of the most important economic and financial hubs of the world. It has a
population of around eight million people and contains hundreds of iconic buildings which are
recognized the world over. London receives around 20 million visitors each year, a large proportion
from overseas, who mingle with further millions of people who travel into the city from a wide area to
work in the central area. It is frequently rated as providing the most satisfying ‘cultural experience’ for
visitors to any city.
B One of the challenges involved in managing (and living in) such a city is the ability to move people
efficiently around it, for the purposes of work and leisure, and at reasonable cost. The London black cab
is one response to this problem, but it also contributes to the number of vehicles that are on the roads.
The much quoted result of millions of daily vehicle movements is a very low average speed for traffic
on London’s roads and frequent congestion problems.
C Many cities have taken steps to reduce the amount of traffic on the roads by adopting a range of measures
which can broadly be described as either ‘carrots’ or ‘sticks’: those which either promote, or discourage
certain activity. London has already been forced into trying a number of measures to reduce traffic
congestion. These have included:
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• Traffic management systems which included the world’s first traffic light. It was installed outside the
Houses of Parliament in 1868 to reduce congestion in this area.
• An underground system which was the first in the world. The first section opened in 1863, and the
network is still developing. Since 2003, it has been managed by Transport for London. The classic
London Tube map forms part of the city’s cultural heritage, and has been much copied and adapted
elsewhere.
• The Cross Rail development: due to provide high frequency rail services through two new tunnels
under Central London from 2017.
• The congestion charging system – introduced in 2003, and extended in 2007 – charges many motorists
(there are some exemptions) £10 to enter the central charging zone between 7 a.m. – 6 p.m. Monday
to Friday.
• The Oyster card – an automated charging system which speeds up the use of public transport using a
specially chipped card, which can be pre-charged with ‘credit’.
D The latest solution is the Barclays London Cycle Hire Scheme. In 2010, London joined a growing list
of cities that had turned to the bicycle for a possible solution to traffic congestion. Cities like Amsterdam
have long since been associated with bicycles. Other cities that already have cycle hire schemes include
Copenhagen and Barcelona. In Paris, the system is known as the Velib scheme, a word which merges
the word for bicycle with freedom. It is funded by advertising. The London scheme was launched on the
30
th
July 2010 with an initial total of 5,000 bikes spread around 315 locations, with plans for further
extensions. The bikes are fairly robust so that they can withstand the knocks of daily use. They are fitted
with dynamo-powered LED lights, have three gears, a chain guard and a bell. Each bike is also fitted
with a Radio Frequency Identification (RFID) chip, so that its location can be tracked. The bikes have
puncture-proof tyres and are regularly checked over for mechanical faults.
E It is hoped that people will experience London in a more direct way. instead of descending into the earth,
they will cycle the streets and thus gain ‘a different view’ of London and improve thei r own mental
maps of the city. They will also be getting exercise, which in an age of soaring obesity rates can only be
a good thing, can’t it?
Enough reading, time for you to get out there and start pedalling!
Choose the most suitable headings for sections A – E from the list of headings below. Write the
appropriate numbers (i – ix) next to the sections. There are more headings than sections, so you will
not use them all.
List of headings
i Current and past actions
ii Congestion and pollution
iii Problems on the roads
iv The best city in the world
v A centre of activity
vi The many benefits of cycling
vii Cycling in European cities
viii A new initiative
ix Rail systems
1. Section A ________
2. Section B ________
3. Section C ________
4. Section D ________
5. Section E ________
Complete the summary below. Use ONE WORD from the reading for each gap.
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The Barclays London Cycle Hire Scheme was started in 2010 in the hope of providing a
(6)_____________ for the existing transport issues. The money that was necessary to have a scheme like
this was sourced from (7)_____________ and allowed London to have (8)_____________ bikes initially,
but there are likely to be (9)_____________ to the scheme. The bikes have a tracking (10)_____________,
are properly equipped and regularly maintained.
lV. WRITING (40 points)
Part 1: Complete the second sentence so that it means the same as the sentence given, beginning as
shown. (7.5 points)
0. I'm having a lot of trouble now because I lost my passport last week.
If I hadn’t lost my passport last week, I wouldn’t be having so much trouble now .
1. When the police caught him, he was climbing over the garden wall.
The police caught __________________________________________________ .
2. It's sad, but unemployment is unlikely to go down this year.
Sad __________________________________________________ .
3. It is believed that the man escaped in a stolen car.
The man is __________________________________________________ .
4. Since we had nothing else to do, we decided to go for a walk
Having __________________________________________________ .
5. 'Nothing will persuade me to sleep in that haunted house,' she said.
She flatly __________________________________________________ .
Part 2: Rewrite the sentence in such a way that it has the same meaning to the original sentence. Do
NOT change the word given. You must use between three and eight words, including the word given. (0)
has been done as an example. (7.5 points)
0. The two situations are completely different. common
The two situations don’t have anything in common with each other.
1. Some people accept that life is full of problems. resigned
Some people __________________________________________ full of problems.
2. The company tried unsuccessfully to secure a bank loan. avail
The company’s ____________________________________________ a bank loan.
3. If they catch anyone dropping litter in Singapore, they immediately make them pay
a fine. fined
In Singapore anyone caught ________________________________________ spot.
4. Far stricter measures have been introduced to combat drug dealing. clamping
The authorities are ___________________________________ drug dealing.
5. If you don’t wear a seatbelt in the car, you may risk your life. jeopardy
Not wearing a seatbelt in the car can ___________________________ .
Part 2: Write a paragraph of about 150 words to express your opinion on the following topic: (25
points)
Mobile phones have changed the way many people communicate. Nowadays people cannot live
without them if they want to be a part of society.
-- THE END –
ĐỀ THI MẪU 13
ĐỀ THI ĐỀ XUẤT DHBB 2018 – 2019
QUẢNG NAM
SESSION I: LISTENING ( 50 pts)
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Part 1: You will hear part of an interview with Norman Cowley, a well-known novelist and
biographer. For questions 1-5, decide whether these following statements are True (T) or False (F).(10
pts)
1. Norman Cowley feels proud of the directness of the writing about his first novel
2 Norman Cowley thought the review was written in a clever and amusing style in his second novel.
3. Norman Cowley thinks that if a writer uses people he knows well in a book, the writer will have to alter
them in some way.
4. Norman Cowley believes that some modern novels don't describe the setting adequately
5. Norman Cowley likes basing a narrative on actual events about writing a biography
PART 2: You win hear part of a discussion between Velm a Andrews, a lawyer, and Sergeant William
Bailey, a police officer. Choose the answer (A, B, C or D) which fits best according to what you
hear.(10 pts)
6. How did William feel the first time he gave evidence in court?
A. humiliated B.
nervous C. furious D. indifferent
7. Velm a suggests that police officers giving evidence should ……….
A. study the evidence more carefully. B. ignore the lawyer for the defence.
C. not take comments personally. D. demonstrate that they are honest and reliable.
8. Velma compares a police officer's evidence to a piece in a jigsaw puzzle because ……….
A. it is unimportant unless it is part of a bigger picture.
B. it may not fit in with the rest of the evidence.
C. the defence lawyer w ill try to destroy it.
D the police officer should only talk about his or her evidence.
9. William suggests that lawyers ………….
A adopt a special manner in the courtroom . B. can be detached about a case.
C. might actually be close friends. D. do not take their work seriously.
10. William 's main concern is that………….
A. a criminal could get away with his or her crime. B. a court case could be confusing,
C. young police officers find courts terrifying. D. police officers might argue with the lawy
PART 3: You will hear an interview with a man called Jon Simmons and a woman called Clare
Harries, who both work as life coaches. Choose the answer (A, B, C or D) which fits best according
to what you hear, using NO MORE THAN FIVE WORDS for each answer. (10 pts)
11. What made the sea water shake?
12. What threw the pebbles into the air?
13. What was mixed with silt to form a layer of rock?
14. What shaped the ripples on top of the rock?
15. How was the meteorite's impact after an hour?
PART 4: You will hear part of an interview with a sculptor who is talking about his life and work.
For questions 1-10, complete the sentences. Write NO MORE THAN THREE WORDS AND/OR A
NUMBER taken from the recording for each answer in the spaces provided. (20 pts)
Alan's father originally wanted him to work as an (16) …………………….. in the family firm.
Alan describes his father as feeling (17) …………………when the sculpture teacher thought little of his
work.
The subject that Alan eventually decided to study at university was (18) …………………….
Alan disagreed with his father's belief that art was not really a (19) ………………….. activity.
Alan describes his father's attitude once he had taken up sculpture as (20) ……………………
Alan describes the approach at the art college as very (21) ………………. Harold Morton disagreed with
the way
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Alan managed to combine that with the final years of college, which made (22)……………….
Alan was taught (23) ………………………. by the college staff.
Alan learnt how (24)……………………, because he was being taught by painters, who are looking at things
in a different way.
Alan accepts that the term (25) ………………….. describes the type of work he does these days.
SECTION II. LEXICO-GRAMMAR (30 points)
Part 1. Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of
the following questions.(10 points)
1. Money was short and people survived by ____ and saving.
A.scrimping
B.scavenging
C.scouring
D.scrounging
2. You can try reformatting your computer, but once you open that ____, you’ll probably be working on
it for days.
A.apple of discord
B.can of worms
C.load of cobblers
D.spot of brother
3. The luxurious office accentuated the manager’s position ____ in everything. Every detail is matched
on each side.
A.on the pecking pole
B.at the nipping post
C.at the nipping post
D.in the pecking order
4. The first ____ of the ladder is important in your career.
A.step
B.grade
C.push
D.rung
5. Anyone who lies under oath will be charged with ____ the course of justice.
A.perverting
B.inverting
C.converting
D.diverting
6. I’m realy glad that pompous oaf lost his court case, maybe that will bring him down a ____ or two.
A.step
B.notch
C.peg
D.rung
7. The designer refuses to glid the ____, preferring clean,simple lines for his creations.
A.lily
B.flower
C.rose
D.daisy
8. She ____ agreed to go with him to the football match although she had no interest in the game at all.
A. apologetically
B. grudingly
C. shamefacedly
D. discreetly
9. The number of people traveling by air has been growing ____ .
A. by leaps and bounds
B. from time to time
C. slow but true
D. by hook and crook
10. The Red Cross is ____ an international aid organization.
A.intriguingly
B.intrusively
C. intrinsically
D.intrepidly
Part 2: The passage below contains 5 mistakes. Underline the mistakes and write the corrections in the
corresponding numbered boxes. There is an example at the beginning (0).
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Have you ever tried a strawberry pizza? If you went to Oxnard, the “Strawberry Capital of California,” in
May, you could!
Onard is in Southern California and this part of the state takes its strawberries very seriously. At the two-
day California Strawberrry Festival you can sample strawberries prepared in all kinds of ways. In addition
to traditional treatments such as strawberry shortcake, straw berries shortcake, straw berry jam, strawberry
tarts and strawberries dipped into chocolate there is strawberry pizza! This dessert pizza is topped with
strawberries, sour cream, cream cheese and whipped cream on a sweetened bread baked like a pizza.
Strawberry kabobs dipped in powdered sugar are another delicacy. And drinks like a strawberry smoothie
can wash it all away.
Strawberries are big business in Oxnard. Twenty-four companies harvest and cool nearly 16 million trays
of berries, which are shipped throughout North America as long as to Germany and Japan. The festival,
which attracts more than 85,000 visitors, features three
Mistake
Correction
0.
Serious
Seriously
Part 3: Fill each gap in the following sentences with one of the propositions or particles. Write your
answers in the corresponding numbered boxes (5 points)
1. ……….. your request, we can provide further details.
2. He’s about to be demoted, but that’s strictly ……….. the record.
3. As the day wore ……….., John grew more and more impatient.
4. I can’t remember the name of the hotel we stayed at……….. the top of my head.
5. I thought he was mad and backed ……….. nervously.
Part 4: Complete each space in the text with a word formed from the word in capitals (10 points)
In January 2001,the (1)…………………(govern) Panel Climate Change (1PCC) issued its latest
report on climate change. Climate models worked out by giant super-computers had become far more
reliable since the previous report in 1995 and allowed them to (2) ………………… (praise) the earlier
projections for global warming. Their conclusions were that something very serious is happening and that
it cannot be a natural process. The 1990s was the hottest decade for 1,000 years and the Earth is warming
faster than at any time in the last 10,000 years. According to the report, human activities are (3) .
………………… (equivocate) to blame for the temperature rise. The burning of fossil fuels releases carbon
dioxide and, due to deforestation, there are fever trees to absorb this gas and recycle back into oxygen.
Methane (4)…………………(concentrate) have also gone up dramatically because of increases in rice
culture and (5)………………… (cattle), both of which generate methane from (6)…………………
(compose) vegetation. These greenhouses gases trap heat in the Earth's atmosphere and cause the
temperature to rise. In the worst case, the resulting melting of ice-caps and glaciers would cause sea levels
to rise by up to 88 cm, endangering the homes and (7)………………… (lively) of tens of millions of people
who live in low-lying regions.
Unfortunately, there is far greater (8)………………… (unanimous) among the world’s scientists
over the issue than among politicians. As long as 1990, the IPCC recommended a 60 % reduction in carbon
dioxide (9)………………… (emit), as the basic level required to return the planet’s climate to a healthy
level. Governments globally failed to (10)………………… (act) these proposals. Now that the dangers
have been reaffirmed by the latest report, it is high time that governments took an active interest in exploring
alternative, renewable energy sources.
SECTION III. READING COMPREHENSION (60 points)
Part 1: Read the text below and decide which answer (A,B,C or D) best fits each gap ( 10pts).
There’s extensive historical evidence that our ancestors may have witnessed a massive invasion of
Unidentified Flying Objects (1) … on their territories. These extraterrestrials are (2) … to have come into
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(3) … with the ancient earthly populations and helped them (4) … numerous magnificient structures or even
establish glamorous empires.
However, the present-day fascination with UFO was only (5) … by the first widely (6) … American sighting
in Idaho in 1947. Since that time, countless other close encounters have been reported both by highly
credible witnesses such as top-class pilots and less credible ones such as ordinary civilians. Thousands of
people around the world maintain having come (7) … to the visiors from outer space or to have been (8)
… for a scientific study inside their flying saucers. Although most of these accounts have been (9) … as
fantasy or hallucinations, there’s (10) … criticism from the public and media for ignoring the subject for
too long.
1. A. surpassing B. approximating C. transgressing D. encroaching
2. A. reasoned B. alleged C. denoted D. inferred
3. A. touch B. grip C. face D. sight
4. A. fabricate B. plant C. erect D. install
5. A. discharged B. instigated C. constituted D. devised
6. A. proclaimed B. notified C. communicated D. conveyed
7. A. direct B. adjacent C. close D. nearby
8. A. abolished B. abducted C. absconded D. abbreviated
9. A. speculated B. disposed C. repelled D. dismissed
10.A. multiplying B. piling C. storing D. mounting
Part 2: Read the text below and think of the word which best fits each gap. Use only one word in each gap.
There is an example at the beginning (0) ( 15pts).
THE GREATEST ICE-SKATING COMEDIAN EVER
Werner Groebli was undoubtedly (0)
one
of the most famous ice-skating comedians of all time.
But even to his many fans the name will mean nothing. They knew him as Frick – from the ice-skating
partnership Frick and Frack – a skater with an outstanding ability to (1)….. complex skills with zany
and contorted body positions that often had audiences (2) stitches. Good (3) to be Swiss junior
skating champion, Groebli nevertheless got more (4) of fooling around, ridiculing, as he put (5)
, ‘the pomposity of professional skaters’.
Frick and Frack were praised for their grace, comic timing and daring acrobatics (6) than
depending on falls or costumes to get laughs, the duo were celebrated for taking the traditional
(7)……of figure skating and distorting them into amazing feats that left audiences enthralled. One
crowd favorite involved Frack throwing Frick an invisible rope, (8)….. which point he would slowly
glide forward as though (9) pulled. (10) was ‘the farmer’, in which the duo would skate as if
sitting on a bouncing tractor seat.
Part 3. Read the passage and choose the right answer for each question. (10 points)
READING WATS
In many developed countries literacy skirts are under siege. This is true even in societies where
access to primary education is universal and governments invest heavily in education. New Zealand, for
example, was leading the world in literacy rates in 1970, but tumbled to thirteenth place in 2001 and then
again to twenty-fourth just a few years later. Test scores in the USA also stumped ten percent during the
1990s despite the country riding an economic boom for much of the decade. In some cases these statistics
reverse trends that were in motion for over a century and a haft. The steady, graduate expansion of
literacy across social groups and classes was one of the greatest successes of the period of
industrialization that began in the mid-1850s.
This reversal of fortunes has lead to widespread contention over the pedagogy of teaching Literacy.
What was once a dry and technical affair—the esoteric business of linguists and policy analysts—
rapidity escalated into a series of skirmishes that were prayed out in high-visibility forums: Newspapers
THE PRACTICE BOOKLET FOR ENGLISH-MAJOR (VER A)
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ran special features, columns and letters-to-the-editor on the literacy crisis; politicians successfully ran
their national campaigns on improving reading test scores; and parents had their say by joining Parent
Teacher Associations (PTAs) and obi groups.
The arguments around reading pouted into two different classroom methodologies: constructivism
and behaviorism. The constructivist methodology grew from a holistic conception of knowledge creation
that understood reading and writing to be innate, humanistic and interpretative practices that suffered
when they were spliced and formalized within rigid doctrines, strict ruts and universal skill-sets.
Constructivists associate words with meanings; each word might be thought of as a Chinese ideogram.
Students are encouraged to learn individual words and skip over and guess words they do not understand,
or learn to interpret those words by situating them within the lexical infrastructure of the sentence and the
story's wider narrative. These practices materialize as learning processes centered on guided group
reading and independent reading of high-quantity, culturally diverse literature or textual composition that
emphasizes pup[is conveying their own thoughts and feelings for rear purposes such as letters to pen pats
or journal entries. Behaviorism sees the pedagogy cat process in a tests dialectical fashion—words are
initially taught not toxically, as vehicles to convey meaning, but rather sub-rexicatty, as a combination of
features that can be separated and learn in a schematic process. The behaviorist approach does not focus
on words at all in the early stages of learning. Rather, it is centered on a universally applicable method of
teaching students to isolate graphemes and phonemes with the intention that students will eventually
learn to synthesize these individual parts and make sense of spoken words textually. In this way,
individual components are not equated with the strokes of a brush on a Chinese ideogram, but rather as
the focal pieces of interpretation—as in, for example, learning to read musical notations or Morse code.
Because of its emphasis on universal rules, behaviorism is much more conducive to format examination
and the consolidation of results across regions and countries. The ability to master language is considered
to rest in the acquisition of a set of skills that exist independently of individuals. Classroom learning is
therefore based upon the transmission of knowledge from tutor to student, rather than seen as an
internalized process that erupts within the students themselves.
So who comes out on top? It is not easy to say. Champions of behaviorism have claimed victory
because constructivist learning took over in the late 1980s, just before test scores on literacy began
sinking across the West. Constructivists, however, can make the valid claim that the behaviorist approach
has a heavy methodological bias towards testing and examination, and that test results do not represent the
ability of individuals to use and interpret language freely and creatively. Furthermore, different socio-
economic groups respond in different ways to each method. Those from wealthier families tend to do well
regardless of the method, but thrive on the constructivist approach imp emended in the 1990s. Children
from poorer families, however, are better served by behaviorism. These outcomes have ramped up levels
of socio-economic based educational disparities in educational systems that have pushed the constructivist
method.
It is unlikely that either constructivism or behaviorism will be permanently sidelined from curricula in
the near future. Most teachers find it easier to incorporate aspects of each approach. Constructivism may
ultimately hold the trump card because of its proven success with pupils who come from families where
they are introduced to reading and writing in various forms from a young age—this process of 'living and
(earning' and immersing oneself in language is a sound principle. In a world rife with social inequities,
households with illiterate parents and a scarcity of funding for education, however, the behaviorist
approach may have the upper hand in teaching children to access the basic skills of literacy quickly and
efficiently, even if some linguistic creativity is crushed in the process.
1. Which of the following topics is the passage primarily concerned with?
A. The rise and fall of literacy in countries around the world
B. Reasons why language teaching has been on firm ground
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C. Main features of two languages teaching approaches
D. Best classroom methodologies in literacy approaches
2. Which describes one attitude towards a teaching method mentioned in the text?
A. Too many rules and regulations can hinder natural knowledge mastery
B. Dependence on learning assistants is no longer praiseworthy now
C. Understanding deserves much more emphasis that putting knowledge to use
D. Universal rules must be must be appreciated if individual interpretation of ideas is to be achieved
3. By ‘was a dry and technical affair’, the writer means that:
A. Literacy education was less flexible and cultural than it is
B. There was one time when language teaching was very technological
C. Nobody but linguistics and politicians found literacy was a matter of interest
D. Literacy teaching methods used to be entitled to specialists only
4. Which is one feature of constructivism?
A. People are naturally inclined to develop language abilities
B. Students learn best by working on their own
C. It is vital that a disciplined and regulated approach is used
D. Everyone learns to read and write in a similar manner
5. Which is one feature of behaviorism?
A. There is hardly a common set of conventions
B. Meaning is created by connecting word fragments
C. Linguistic capacities are built into people
D. Self-study is crucial in acquiring language knowledge
6. Which is NOT one feature of constructivism?
A. Context can provide helpful cues to understand words
B. Language is best learned as a single, organic process
C. Practical means are used to encourage individual and self-expression
D. It is crucial that students understand every words they encounter
7. The phrase ‘hold the trump card’ mostly means:
A. Achieve dominance
B. Be described in documents
C. Maintain its originality
D. Overcome challenges
8. Which is NOT one feature of behaviorism?
A. Students often learn by receiving information from teachers
B. The whole word is less important than its parts
C. It is difficult to judge how well students are doing collectively
D. Test results, rather than real abilities, are more likely to be achieved
9. What is one disadvantage of behaviorism teaching and learning?
A. It is only suitable to children with a good financial background
B. It may discourage learners’ creative abilities in language acquisition
C. It seems to overemphasize the needs for tests and examinations
D. It lessens the possibility of equality in education between social classes
10. Which best summarizes the writer’s general conclusion?
A. Constructivism is better, while behaviorism leads to negative social effects
B. Ideally, constructivism would be used, but behaviorism is more pragmatic
C. Neither is particular useful, and there needs to be new alternative
D. Each method complements the other, and their application should be integrated
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Part 4: You are going to read an article. Read the passage and answer the questions (10pts).
HELIUM’S FUTURE UP IN THE AIR
A In recent years we have all been exposed to dire media reports concerning the
impending demise of global coal and oil reserves, but the depletion of another key non renewable resource
continues without receiving much press at all. Helium – an inert,
odourless, monatomic element known to lay people as the substance that makes
balloons float and voices squeak when inhaled – could be gone from this planet within a
generation.
B Helium itself is not rare; there is actually a plentiful supply of it in the cosmos. In
fact, 24 per cent of our galaxy’s elemental mass consists of helium, which makes it the
second most abundant element in our universe. Because of its lightness, however, most
helium vanished from our own planet many years ago. Consequently, only a miniscule
proportion – 0.00052%, to be exact – remains in earth’s atmosphere. Helium is the byproduct of millennia
of radioactive decay from the elements thorium and uranium. The
helium is mostly trapped in subterranean natural gas bunkers and commercially
extracted through a method known as fractional distillation.
C The loss of helium on Earth would affect society greatly. Defying the perception
of it as a novelty substance for parties and gimmicks, the element actually has many
vital applications in society. Probably the most well known commercial usage is in
airships and blimps (non-flammable helium replaced hydrogen as the lifting gas du jour
after the Hindenburg catastrophe in 1932, during which an airship burst into flames and
crashed to the ground killing some passengers and crew). But helium is also
instrumental in deep-sea diving, where it is blended with nitrogen to mitigate the dangers
of inhaling ordinary air under high pressure; as a cleaning agent for rocket engines; and,
in its most prevalent use, as a coolant for superconducting magnets in hospital MRI
(magnetic resonance imaging) scanners.
D The possibility of losing helium forever poses the threat of a real crisis because
its unique qualities are extraordinarily difficult, if not impossible to duplicate (certainly, no
biosynthetic ersatz product is close to approaching the point of feasibility for helium,
even as similar developments continue apace for oil and coal). Helium is even cheerfully
derided as a “loner” element since it does not adhere to other molecules like its cousin,
hydrogen. According to Dr. Lee Sobotka, helium is the “most noble of gases, meaning
it’s very stable and non-reactive for the most part … it has a closed electronic configuration, a very tightly
bound atom. It is this coveting of its own electrons that
prevents combination with other elements’. Another important attribute is helium’s
unique boiling point, which is lower than that for any other element. The worsening
global shortage could render millions of dollars of high-value, life-saving equipment
totally useless. The dwindling supplies have already resulted in the postponement of
research and development projects in physics laboratories and manufacturing plants
around the world. There is an enormous supply and demand imbalance partly brought
about by the expansion of high-tech manufacturing in Asia.
E The source of the problem is the Helium Privatisation Act (HPA), an American
law passed in 1996 that requires the U.S. National Helium Reserve to liquidate its helium
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assets by 2015 regardless of the market price. Although intended to settle the original
cost of the reserve by a U.S. Congress ignorant of its ramifications, the result of this fire
sale is that global helium prices are so artificially deflated that few can be bothered
recycling the substance or using it judiciously. Deflated values also mean that natural
gas extractors see no reason to capture helium. Much is lost in the process of extraction.
As Sobotka notes: "[t]he government had the good vision to store helium, and the
question now is: Will the corporations have the vision to capture it when extracting
natural gas, and consumers the wisdom to recycle? This takes long-term vision because
present market forces are not sufficient to compel prudent practice”. For Nobel-prize
laureate Robert Richardson, the U.S. government must be prevailed upon to repeal its
privatisation policy as the country supplies over 80 per cent of global helium, mostly from
the National Helium Reserve. For Richardson, a twenty- to fifty-fold increase in prices
would provide incentives to recycle.
F A number of steps need to be taken in order to avert a costly predicament in the
coming decades. Firstly, all existing supplies of helium ought to be conserved and
released only by permit, with medical uses receiving precedence over other commercial
or recreational demands. Secondly, conservation should be obligatory and enforced by a
regulatory agency. At the moment some users, such as hospitals, tend to recycle
diligently while others, such as NASA, squander massive amounts of helium. Lastly,
research into alternatives to helium must begin in earnest.
Passage 4 has six paragraphs, A–F. Which paragraph contains the following information? Write
the correct letter, A–F
1. A use for helium which makes an activity safer
2. The possibility of creating an alternative to helium
3. A term which describes the process of how helium is taken out of the ground
4. A reason why users of helium do not make efforts to conserve it
5. A contrast between helium’s chemical properties and how non-scientists think about it
Complete the summary below.
Choose NO MORE THAN TWO WORDS from the passage for each answer.
Sobotka argues that big business and users of helium need to help look after helium
stocks because 6……………….. will not be encouraged through buying and selling
alone. Richardson believes that the 7……………….. needs to be withdrawn, as the
U.S. provides most of the world’s helium. He argues that higher costs would mean
people have 8……………….. to use the resource many times over.
People should need a 9……………….. to access helium that we still have.
Furthermore, a 10 ……………….. should ensure that helium is used carefully.
Part 5. You are going to read an article about electronic books and reading. Choose from the
sections (A - D). The sections may be chosen more than once (15 pts) . In which section does the
writer mention
1. An example of superseded technology that still has a certain appeal? ____
2. An analogy used to emphasise how seriously an idea is taken? ____
3. An anxiety she shares with other like-minded people? ____
4. A development that questions our assumptions about what reading actually entails? ____
5. The willingness of writers to experiment with new ideas? ____
6. The idea that books have always been part of an ongoing interactive process? ____
7. A seeming contradiction in her own attitudes? ____
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| 243
8. A belief that the fundamental nature of reading will change? ____
9. Finding pleasure in another readers' reactions to a book? ____
10. A view that a prediction is somewhat exaggerated? ____
THE BOOK IS DEAD - LONG LIVE THE BOOK
(A) A lot of ink has been spilled on the supposed demise of the printed word. Ebooks are outselling
paper books. Newspapers are dying. To quote one expert: 'The days of the codex as the primary carrier
of information are almost over.' This has inspired a lot of hand-wringing from publishers, librarians,
archivists - and me, a writer and lifelong bibliophile who grew up surrounded by paper books. I've
been blogging since high school, I'm addicted to my smartphone and, in theory, I should be on board
with the digital revolution - but when people mourn the loss of paper books, I sympathise. Are printed
books really going the way of the dodo? And what would we lose if they did? Some commentators
think the rumours of the printed world's imminent demise have been rather overstated. Printed books
will live on as art objects and collector's items, they argue, rather in the way of vinyl records. People
may start buying all their beach novels and periodicals in ebook formats and curating their physical
bookshelves more carefully. It is not about the medium, they say, it is about people. As long as there
are those who care about books and don't know why, there will be books. It's that simple.
(B) Meanwhile artists are blending print with technology. Between Page and Screen by Amaranth Borsuk
and Brad Bouse is a paper book that can be read only on a computer. Instead of words, every page has
a geometric pattern. If you hold so a printed page up to a webcam, while visiting the book's related
website, your screen displays the text of the story streaming, spinning and leaping off the page. Printed
books may need to become more multi-faceted. incorporating video, music and interactivity. A group
at the MIT Media Lab already builds electronic pop-up books with glowing LEDs that brighten and
dim as you pull paper tabs. and authors have been pushing the boundaries with 'augmented reality'
books for years. The lines between print and digital books are blurring,and interesting things are
happening at the interface.
(C) Beyond the page, ebooks may someday transform how we read. We are used to being alone with
our thoughts inside a book but what if we could invite friends or favourite authors to join in? A web
tool called SocialBookBook offers a way to make the experience of reading more collaborative.
Readers highlight and comment on text, and can see and respond to comments that others have left in
the same book. 'When you put text into a dynamic network, a book becomes a place where readers and
sometimes authors can congregate in the margin,' said Bob Stein, founder of the Institute for the
Future of the Book. a think tank in New York. Stein showed how a high-school class is using
SocialBook to read and discuss Don Quixote, how an author could use it to connect with readers. and
how he and his collaborators have started using it instead of email. Readers can 100 open their books
to anyone they want, from close friends to intellectual heroes. 'For us, SocialBook is not a pizza
topping. It's not an add-on,' Stein says. 'It's the foundational cornerstone of reading and writing going
forth into the future.
(D) The tools might be new, but the goal of SocialBook is hardly radical. Books have found ways to be
nodes of human connection ever since their inception. That's why reading a dog-eared volume
painstakingly annotated with thoughts and impressions is unfailingly delightful - akin to making a new
like-minded acquaintance. The MIT Rare i20 Books collection has kept a copy of John Stuart Mill's
1848 book Principles of Political Economy, not for its content but for the lines and lines of tiny
comments a passionate but unknown user scrawled in the margins. Maybe ebooks are taking us where
print was trying to go all along.
SESSION IV: WRITING (60 pts)
Part 1:Read the following extract and use your own words to summarise it. You MUST NOT copy
or rewrite the original. Your summary should be about 140 words ( 15 pts)
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CORPORATE SOCIAL RESPONSIBILITY
An excellent definition was developed in the 1980s by Norwegian Prime Minister Gro Harlen
Brundtland and used by the World Business Council for Sustainable Development: “Meeting the needs of
the present without compromising the ability of future generations to meet their own needs.” Nowadays,
governments and companies need to account for the social consequences of their actions. As a result,
corporate social responsibility (CSR) has become a priority for business leaders around the world. When a
well-run business applies its vast resources and expertise to social problems that it understands and in
which it has a stake, it can have a greater impact than any other organization. The notion of license to
operate derives from the fact that every company needs tacit or explicit permission from governments,
communities, and numerous other stakeholders to justify CSR initiatives to improve a company’s image,
strengthen its brand, enliven morale and even raise the value of its stock.
To advance CSR, we must root it in a broad understanding of the interrelationship between a
corporation and society. Successful corporations need a healthy society. Education, health care, and equal
opportunity are essential to a productive workforce. Safe products and working conditions not only attract
customers but lower the internal costs of accidents. Efficient utilization of land, water, energy, and other
natural resources makes business more productive. Good government, the rule of law, and property rights
are essential for efficiency and innovation. Strong regulatory standards protect both consumers and
competitive companies from exploitation. Ultimately, a healthy society creates expanding demand for
business, as more human needs are met and aspirations grow. Any business that pursues its ends at the
expense of the society in which it operates will find its success to be illusory and ultimately temporary. At
the same time, a healthy society needs successful companies. No social program can rival the business
sector when it comes to creating the jobs, wealth, and innovation that improve standards of living and
social conditions over time.
Part 2: The table below gives information about population in Australia and Malaysia in 1980 and
2002. Summarise the information by selecting and reporting the main features, and make
comparison where relevant. You should write at least 150 words ( 15pts).
Australia
Malaysia
1980
2002
1980
2002
Total population (millions)
14.7
19.6
13.7
24.3
Male population (%)
49.9
49.9
50.3
50.6
Female population (%)
50.1
50.1
49.7
49.4
Birth rate (%)
1.5
1.3
3.2
2.2
Average annual population
growth (%)
1.2
1.3
2.4
2.1
Population aged over 65 (%)
9.6
12.4
3.7
4.3
Part 3:Write an essay of 350 words on the following topic ( 30 pts):
Recently a woman killed her own two-year-old grandchild due to blind belief in fortune-telling. While
many people maintain that fortune-telling and other superstitious rituals are culturally indispensable,
others claim that these activities should be banned by the government.
Discuss both views and give your opinion.
THE END
BEST OF LUCK
ĐỀ THI MẪU 14
ĐỀ THI ĐỀ XUẤT THHV TRƯỜNG THPT CHUYÊN LÊ HỒNG PHONG, NAM ĐỊNH
THE PRACTICE BOOKLET FOR ENGLISH-MAJOR (VER A)
| 245
I. LISTENING (40/200 points)
Part 1: Listen to a conversation between two training college students and their liaison officer who is
enrolling them in a volunteer programme which provides English support in a local secondary school
and answer the questions by writing NO MORE THAN TWO WORDS in the space provided. (10pts)
1. According to liaison officer, what do volunteers help provide?
_________________________________________________
2. What can volunteers help students check and correct?
_________________________________________________
3. What aspect of students’ self- management can volunteers assist greatly with improving?
_________________________________________________
4. What will volunteers try to develop in the students so that they exert themselves more?
_________________________________________________
5. What is it that teachers have that allows them to respond to individual student requirements?
_________________________________________________
Part 2: You will hear part of a radio discussion with Ellen Harrington of the Meadow Lane Residents
Group, and Tim Barlow from CartonTown Planning Department. Choose the correct answer (A, B,
C or D) which fits best according to what you hear. Write your answers in the corresponding
numbered boxes. (10pts)
6. What was Ellen's first reaction when the town centre was closed to traffic?
A. She was delighted B. She was terrified.
C. She was miserable D. She was suspicious.
7. How does Tim feel about the changes in the town centre?
A. He regrets they were made so quickly.
B. He is proud the town council went forward with them.
C. He believes they were inevitable.
D. He thinks the town council should have foreseen the problem.
8. What does Tim think about the protest Ellen's group is planning?
A. He doesn't think it will accomplish anything. B. He doesn't think drivers will be affected.
C. He thinks it will be dangerous. D. He thinks it is not aimed at the right people.
9. How does Ellen react to Tim's comments?
A. She accepts his main point. B. She thinks he is being evasive.
C. She thinks he doesn't understand human nature. D. She considers his comments unrealistic.
10. What does Ellen think will make the protest effective?
A. the inconvenience it will cause to drivers B. the number of demonstrators who will take part
C. the amount of publicity it will generate D. the forthcoming election
Part 3: For questions 11-20: Listen to a piece of news from BBC about Advent. Write NO MORE
THAN THREE WORDS taken from the recording for each answer. (20pts)
The biggest festival is celebrated on 25th December in Britain is Christmas. The four weeks before
Christmas are called Advent, and are traditionally celebrated in churches by (11)______ each Sunday during
Advent. These days, a large number of Britons who are not very (12) ______still celebrate Christmas. The
signs of Christmas are as early as (13) ______long before Advent. The shops are the first places to think
about Christmas. The British spend on average(14) ______ (around $1000) per person on Christmas every
year.Shops attract shoppers’ attention by putting up Christmas decorations and playing (15) ______or (16)
______ and some shop workers wear Christmas hats. To make preparations for Christmas, people buy (17)
______ Christmas cards to send to your friends and relatives; presents for loved ones, food such as turkey
or goose for the special Christmas dinner, and lots of chocolates, (18) ______for everyone to enjoy. The
excited children about the coming Christmas list presents they would like, and give them to their parents,
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or send them to Santa Claus. Advent calendars are a way of (19) ______to Christmas. They have a window
to open for every day from 1st - 24th December (Christmas Eve). A basic Advent calendar has a (20)
______behind each window, but a chocolate Advent calendar is more favorable to children
II.LEXICO- GRAMMAR (50/200 pts)
Part 1: Choose the best answer A, B, C or D to each of the following sentences and write your answers
in the corresponding numbered boxes. (20pts)
1. He’s a tough politician- he knows how to _________the storm.
A. run down B. keep up C. push back D. ride out
2. You must _________ work. Otherwise you’ll end up with an unimaginable backlog of tasks.
A. portion B. assign C. delegate D. entrust
3. I’m so _________ under with work at the moment – it’s awful!
A. snowed B. iced C. rained D. fogged
4. His public announcement of the secret plans was dealt a sheer_________ of confidence and was heavily
criticized by other members of the council.
A. damage B. breach C. crash D. fracture
5. Don’t call Pam just now. Something has gone wrong with the computer; she’s _________ because she
can’t get the data she needs.
A. in a stew B. out of a rut C. in the swim D. under the sink
6. The needs of gifted children in schools have long been _________neglected.
A. dolefully B. woefully C. idly D. Pathetically
7. A sharp frost _________ the beginning of winter.
A. advertised B. predicted C. heralded D. showed
8. The old man led a _________ existence after she left and refused even to see his children.
A. reclusive B. deserted C. remote D. vacant
9. Having planned our weekends to watch football, we found the news of the home team’s players’ strike
most _________.
A. disconcerting B. refreshing C. activating D. debilitating
10. Dominant individuals may use _________ gestures to underline their power.
A. submissive B. expansive C. flirtatious D. nervous
11. The elderly are particularly _________ to this form of illness.
A. wimpy B. weak C. vulnerable D. trivial
12. It was Alice’s year: a new home, a better job – everything just clicked into _________.
A. spot B. position C. space D. place
13. Serena is still _______ ignorant of the fact that she is about to be made redundant.
A. blissfully B. delightedly C. jubilantly D. ecstatically
14. The UN has called for an immediate _______ of hostilities.
A. cessation B. deletion C. cancellation D. ceasefire
15. Although the twins look identical, they have widely _______ opinions on almost every topic under the
sun.
A. dissimilar B. divergent C. distinct D. distinguished
16. We'd all been at school together for 12 years and at our leaving celebrations we _______ eternal
friendship.
A. pledged B. undertook C. confided D. assured
17. It was a close _______ but we just made it to the airport on time for our flight.
A. run B. drive C. call D. go
18. Not many people are good at assessing their own abilities and Mark must be _______ for recognising
that he would never become a great musician.
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A.merited B. advocated C. commended D. talented
19. The recently discovered documents _______ credence to Professor Vaughan's interpretation of events.
A. lend B. provide C. afford D. supply
20. The princess's nanny's autobiography really gives the _______ on life among the royals.
A. know-how B. low-down C. look-out D. show-down
Part 2: Write the correct form of each bracketed word in the corresponding numbered boxes. (10pts)
NON-VERBAL COMMUNICATION
Sociological research points to the theory that certain ways of positioning or moving the body have
a direct (1-CORRELATE) ___________ with how one is perceived. People emit an aura of strength or
power dependent on posture, gestures and eye movement. Quick, enthusiastic, (2- MEAN) ___________
movements and gestures suggest a dynamic, alert person. People who look at, and maintain eye contact with
their audience while conversing with them exude confidence and (3- FEAR) ___________
Somebody who is relaxed enough to stand before his audience without any(4- VISION)
___________ signs of stress exudes self- assuredness and honesty. Even though these people are
comfortable in their stance, they hold themselves erect and avoid looking round-shouldered or hunched
over. Being lazy with one’s posture could be (5- INDICATE) ___________of defeat, while standing tall
and proud paints a picture of one who is in charge.
Being conscious of one’s posture and gestures when sitting is also (6- CONDUCT) ___________
to creating the right impression on the (7- HOLD) ___________. When one wishes to appear self-assured
and knowledgeable in an important (8- PERSON) ___________ situation where sitting is required, a high,
straight-backed chair should be chosen when possible. Placing and clasping the hands behind the head, with
elbows stretched to the sides, adds to the impression of comfortable (9- ASSERT) ___________. It also
keeps the hands under control and out of danger of (10- WANT) ___________ fidgeting
Part 3: The passage below contains 10 errors. Underline the errors and write the corrections in the
corresponding numbered boxes. (10pts)
The shift from silent to sound film in the end of the 1920 marks, so far, the most important transformation
in motion picture history. Despite all the highly visible technological developments in theatrical and home
delivery of the moved image that have occurred over the decades since then, no single innovation has come
closely to being regarded as a similar kind of watershed. In nearly every language, however the words are
phrased, the most basic division in cinema history lies in films that are mute and films that speak.
Yet this most fundamental standard of historic periodization conceals a host of paradoxes. Nearly every
movie theater, although modest, had a piano or organ to provide musical accompaniment to silent pictures.
In many instances, spectators in the era before recording sound experienced elaborate aural presentations
alongside movies' visual images, from the Japanese benshi (narrators) crafting multivoiced dialogue
narrative to originally musical compositions performed by symphony-size orchestras in Europe and the
United States. Beyond that, the triumph of recorded sound has overshadowed the rich diversity of
technological and aesthetic experiments with the visual image that were going forward simultaneously in
the 1920s. New color processes, larger or differently shaped screen sizes, multiple-screen projections, even
television, were among the developments invented or tried out during the period, sometimes with startle
success.
Example: 0. in->at (line 1)
Part 4: Fill in the gaps in the following sentences with suitable prepositions or particles. Write your
answers in the corresponding numbered boxes. (10pts)
1. I'm tired and stressed and the kids have been acting________ all day. They don't seem to know how to
behave properly.
2. I met Harold in the supermarket. He was asking________ you and I said you were fine and really happy
about this new job you've got.
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3. If someone phones me while I am in the meeting, I will have to break________ for a few minutes as I
am expecting a really important call.
4. Sales are up 10% on this period last year. We need to build ________ that if we are to save this company.
5. Don’t take ________ your bad friends any more or you’ll regret it!
6. Even old Henry Spalding, who has returned to Wellington in the spring, added his signature
________good measure.
7. It was my first day on patrol and they threw me ________the deep end.
8. He’s not feeling well at the moment, but he should be up and ________again in a few days.
9. I only get _________________watching TV when the children are in bed.
10. He says he knows nothing about the missing documents but I’m sure he is holding
_________________me.
III.READING (50/200 points)
Part 1: Read the following passages and decide which answer A, B, C or D best fits each gap. Write
your answers in the corresponding numbered boxes. (10pts)
Peoples' personalities vary considerably from one another as there are no two alike. Our ingrained
characteristics which determine the patterns of our behaviour, our reactions and temperaments are
unparalleled on (1) ________of the diversified processes that mould our personality in the earliest (2)
________of human development.
Some (3) ________ of character may to some extent be hereditary simulating the attributes that (4)
________ our parents. Others may(5) ________ from the conditions experienced during pregnancy and
infancy in this way reflecting the parents' approach towards (6) ________ their offspring.
Consequently, the environmental factor (7) ________a crucial role in strengthening or eliminating certain
behavioural systems making an individual more prone to (8) ________ to the patterns that deserve a prize.
Undoubtedly, human personality(9) ________ the most profound and irreversible formation during the
first period of its development, yet, certain characteristics may still be (10) ________ to considerable
changes conditioned by different circumstances and situations.
1. A. account B. means C. token D. event
2. A. states B. instants C. terms D. stages
3. A .factors B. traits C. items D. breeds
4. A. identify B. recognize C. associate D. pertain
5. A. rise B. relate C. stem D. formulate
6. A. breeding B. rearing C. growing D. yielding
7. A. makes B. does C. finds D. plays
8. A. comfort B. pledge C. aquiesce D. obey
9. A .undergoes B. undertakes C. underacts D. underlies
10. A. practicable B. feasible C. subject D. potential
Part 2: Fill each of the following numbered blanks with ONE suitable word and write your answers
in the corresponding numbered boxes (10pts)
Aggression has long been a natural feature of human behavior, perhaps ever since the emergence of
the earliest hominids. However, there is no (1) ________for organized group conflict before about 12,000
years ago. The development of (2) ________conflict was closely linked to changes in economy and society,
(3) ________ probably became more serious after the adoption of agriculture. Larger population put greater
pressure on land and resources, and thus increased tension between neighbors. Settled farmers also had food
stores, herd animals and standing crops to steal. The stresses associated with the emergence of more
hierarchical societies (4) ________ over by chiefs and kings may (5) ________ have played an important
part in the growth of inter-group conflict.
As human communities became organized into larger units (6) ________ warfare they waged became even
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more lethal. States had greater resources (7) ________ for aggression, defence and the development of new
weapons. The (8) ________ records of ancient societies tell of full time specialists employed by the state to
produce armor and weaponry, and expensively-equipped elite forces (9)________ into being. Sometimes
the (10) ________social and economic order was molded around the Demands of warfare. The feudal
system of medieval Europe, for example, had as one of its principal objectives, the maintenance of a force
of armored knights.
Part 3: Part 5: Read the following passage and choose the best answer (A, B, C or D). Write your
answers (A, B, C or D) in the corresponding numbered boxes.
TYPES OF SOCIAL GROUPS
Life places us in a complex web of relationships with other people. Our humanness arises out of
these relationships in the course of social interaction. Moreover, our humanness must be sustained through
social interaction—and fairly constantly so. When an association continues long enough for two people to
become linked together by a relatively stable set of expectations, it is called a relationship.
People are bound within relationships by two types of bonds: expressive ties and instrumental ties.
Expressive ties are social links formed when we emotionally invest ourselves in and commit ourselves to
other people. Through association with people who are meaningful to us, we achieve a sense of security,
love, acceptance, companionship, and personal worth. Instrumental ties are social links formed when we
cooperate with other people to achieve some goal. Occasionally, this may mean working with instead of
against competitors. More often, we simply cooperate with others to reach some end without endowing the
relationship with any larger significance.
Sociologists have built on the distinction between expressive and instrumental ties to distinguish
between two types of groups: primary and secondary. A primary group involves two or more people who
enjoy a direct, intimate, cohesive relationship with one another. Expressive ties predominate in primary
groups; we view the people as ends in themselves and valuable in their own right. A secondary group entails
two or more people who are involved in an impersonal relationship and have come together for a specific,
practical purpose. Instrumental ties predominate in secondary groups; we perceive people as means to ends
rather than as ends in their own right. Sometimes primary group relationships evolve out of secondary group
relationships. This happens in many work settings. People on the job often develop close relationships with
coworkers as they come to share gripes, jokes, gossip, and satisfactions.
A number of conditions enhance the likelihood that primary groups will arise. First, group size is
important. We find it difficult to get to know people personally when they are milling about and dispersed
in large groups. In small groups we have a better chance to initiate contact and establish rapport with them.
Second, face-to-face contact allows us to size up others. Seeing and talking with one another in close
physical proximity makes possible a subtle exchange of ideas and feelings. And third, the probability that
we will develop primary group bonds increases as we have frequent and continuous contact. Our ties with
people often deepen as we interact with them across time and gradually evolve interlocking habits and
interests.
Primary groups are fundamental to us and to society. First, primary groups are critical to the
socialization process. Within them, infants and children are introduced to the ways of their society. Such
groups are the breeding grounds in which we acquire the norms and values that equip us for social life.
Sociologists view primary groups as bridges between individuals and the larger society because they
transmit, mediate, and interpret a society's cultural patterns and provide the sense of oneness so
critical for social solidarity.
Second, primary groups are fundamental because they provide the settings in which we meet most
of our personal needs. Within them, we experience companionship, love, security, and an overall sense of
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well-being. Not surprisingly, sociologists find that the strength of a group's primary ties has implications
for the group's functioning. For example, the stronger the primary group ties of a sports team playing
together, the better their record is.
Third, primary groups are fundamental because they serve as powerful instruments for social control.
Their members command and dispense many of the rewards that are so vital to us and that make our lives
seem worthwhile. Should the use of rewards fail, members can frequently win by rejecting or threatening
to ostracize those who deviate from the primary group's norms. For instance, some social groups employ
shunning (a person can remain in the community, but others are forbidden to interact with the person) as a
device to bring into line individuals whose behavior goes beyond that allowed by the particular group. Even
more important, primary groups define social reality for us by structuring our experiences. By providing us
with definitions of situations, they elicit from our behavior that conforms to group-devised meanings.
Primary groups, then, serve both as carriers of social norms and as enforcers of them.
1. The word complex in the passage is closest in meaning to
1.A. delicate B. elaborate C. private D. common
2. According to paragraph 1, which of the following is true of a relationship?
A. It is a structure of associations with many people.
B. It should be studied in the course of a social interaction.
C. It places great demands on people.
D. It develops gradually overtime.
3. The word endowing in the passage is closest in meaning to
A. leaving B. exposing C. providing D. understanding
4. Which of the following can be inferred about instrumental ties from the author's mention of working
with competitors in paragraph 2?
A. Instrumental ties can develop even in situations in which people would normally not cooperate.
B. Instrumental ties require as much emotional investment as expressive ties.
C. Instrumental ties involve security, love, and acceptance.
D. Instrumental ties should be expected to be significant.
5. According to paragraph 3, what do sociologists see as the main difference between primary and
secondary groups?
A. Primary groups consist of people working together, while secondary groups exist outside of work
settings.
B. In primary groups people are seen as means, while in secondary groups people are seen as ends.
C. Primary groups involve personal relationships, while secondary groups are mainly practical in purpose.
D. Primary groups are generally small, while secondary groups often contain more than two people.
6. Which of the following can be inferred from the author's claim in paragraph 3 that primary group
relationships sometimes evolve out of secondary group relationships?
A. Secondary group relationships begin by being primary group relationships.
B. A secondary group relationship that is highly visible quickly becomes a primary group relationship.
C. Sociologists believe that only primary group relationships are important to society.
D. Even in secondary groups, frequent communication serves to bring people into close relationships.
7. The phrase size up in the passage is closest in meaning to
A. enlarge B. evaluate C. impress D. accept
8. Which of the sentences below best expresses the essential information in the highlighted sentence in the
passage? Incorrect choices change the meaning in important ways or leave out essential information.
A. Sociologists think that cultural patterns establish connections between the individual and the larger
society.
B. Sociologists believe that individuals with a sense of oneness bridge the gap between society and
THE PRACTICE BOOKLET FOR ENGLISH-MAJOR (VER A)
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primary groups.
C. Sociologists think primary groups contribute to social solidarity because they help maintain a society's
cultural patterns.
D. Sociologists believe that the cultural patterns that provide social solidarity arise as bridges from
primary groups.
9. This passage is developed primarily by
A. drawing comparisons between theory and practice
B. presenting two opposing theories
C. defining important concepts and providing examples of them
D. discussing causes and their effects
10. According to paragraph 7, why would a social group use shunning?
A. To enforce practice of the kinds of behavior acceptable to the group
B. To discourage offending individuals from remaining in the group
C. To commend and reward the behavior of the other members of the group
D. To decide which behavioral norms should be passed on to the next generation?
Part 4: Read the passage and do the task that follow (20pts)
MOLES HAPPY AS HOMES GO UNDERGROUND
A. The first anybody knew about Dutchman Frank Siegmund and his family was when workmen
tramping through a field found a narrow steel chimney protruding through the grass. Closer inspection
revealed a chink of sky-light window among the thistles, and when amazed investigators moved down the
side of the hill they came across a pine door complete with leaded diamond glass and a brass knocker set
into an underground building. The Siegmunds had managed to live undetected for six years outside the
border town of Breda, in Holland. They are the latest in a clutch of individualistic homemakers who have
burrowed underground in search of tranquillity.
B. Most, falling foul of strict building regulations, have been forced to dismantle their individualistic
homes and return to more conventional lifestyles. But subterranean suburbia, Dutch-style, is about to
become respectable and chic. Seven luxury homes cosseted away inside a high earth-covered noise
embankment next to the main Tilburg city road recently went on the market for $296,500 each. The
foundations had yet to be dug, but customers queued up to buy the unusual part-submerged houses, whose
back wall consists of a grassy mound and whose front is a long glass gallery.
C. The Dutch are not the only would-be moles. Growing numbers of Europeans are burrowing below
ground to create houses, offices, discos and shopping malls. It is already proving a way of life in extreme
climates; in winter months in Montreal, Canada, for instance, citizens can escape the cold in an
underground complex complete with shops and even health clinics. In Tokyo builders are planning a
massive underground city to be begun in the next decade, and underground shopping malls are already
common in Japan, where 90 percent of the population is squeezed into 20 percent of the landspace.
D. Building big commercial buildings underground can be a way to avoid disfiguring or threatening a
beautiful or 'environmentally sensitive' landscape. Indeed many of the buildings which consume most land
-such as cinemas, supermarkets, theatres, warehouses or libraries -have no need to be on the surface since
they do not need windows.
E. There are big advantages, too, when it comes to private homes. A development of 194 houses which
would take up 14 hectares of land above ground would occupy 2.7 hectares below it, while the number of
roads would be halved. Under several metres of earth, noise is minimal and insulation is excellent. "We
get 40 to 50 enquiries a week," says Peter Carpenter, secretary of the British Earth Sheltering Association,
which builds similar homes in Britain. "People see this as a way of building for the future." An
underground dweller himself, Carpenter has never paid a heating bill, thanks to solar panels and natural
insulation.
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F. In Europe the obstacle has been conservative local authorities and developers who prefer to ensure
quick sales with conventional mass produced housing. But the Dutch development was greeted with
undisguised relief by South Limburg planners because of Holland's chronic shortage of land. It was the
Tilburg architect Jo Hurkmans who hit on the idea of making use of noise embankments on main roads.
His twofloored, four-bedroomed, twobathroomed detached homes are now taking shape. "They are not so
much below the earth as in it," he says. "All the light will come through the glass front, which runs from
the second floor ceiling to the ground. Areas which do not need much natural lighting are at the back. The
living accommodation is to the front so nobody notices that the back is dark."
G. In the US, where energy-efficient homes became popular after the oil crisis of 1973, 10,000
underground houses have been built. A terrace of five homes, Britain's first subterranean development, is
under way in Nottinghamshire. Italy's outstanding example of subterranean architecture is the Olivetti
residential centre in Ivrea. Commissioned by Roberto Olivetti in 1969, it comprises 82 one-bedroomed
apartments and 12 maisonettes and forms a house/ hotel for Olivetti employees. It is built into a hill and
little can be seen from outside except a glass facade. Patnzia Vallecchi, a resident since 1992, says it is
little different from living in a conventional apartment.
H. Not everyone adapts so well, and in Japan scientists at the Shimizu Corporation have developed "space
creation" systems which mix light, sounds, breezes and scents to stimulate people who spend long periods
below ground. Underground offices in Japan are being equipped with "virtual" windows and mirrors,
while underground departments in the University of Minnesota have periscopes to reflect views and light.
I. But Frank Siegmund and his family love their hobbit lifestyle. Their home evolved when he dug a cool
room for his bakery business in a hill he had created. During a heatwave they took to sleeping there. "We
felt at peace and so close to nature," he says. "Gradually I began adding to the rooms. It sounds strange
but we are so close to the earth we draw strength from its vibrations. Our children love it; not every child
can boast of being watched through their playroom windows by rabbits.
Questions 1-15
Reading Passage has nine paragraphs (A-I). Choose the most suitable heading for each paragraph from
the list of headings below.
NB There are more headings than paragraphs so you will not use all of them.
List of Headings
i A designer describes his houses ii Most people prefer conventional housing
iii Simulating a natural environment iv How an underground family home developed
v Demands on space and energy are reduced vi The plans for future homes
vii Worldwide examples of underground living accommodation
viii Some buildings do not require natural light
ix Developing underground services around the world
x Underground living improves health xi Homes sold before completion
xii An underground home is discovered
1 Paragraph A 2. Paragraph B 3. Paragraph C 4. Paragraph D
5. Paragraph E 6. Paragraph F 7. Paragraph G 8. Paragraph H
9. Paragraph I
Questions 10-15
complete the sentences below with words taken from the reading passage. Use NO MORE THAN
THREE WORDS for each answer. Write your answers in boxes 10-15 10. Many developers prefer mass-
produced houses because they ..............
11. The Dutch development was welcomed by ............
12. Hurkmans’ houses are built into ............
13. The Ivrea centre was developed for .............
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14. Japanese scientists are helping people ............. underground life.
15. Frank Siegmund’s first underground room was used for ...........
IV. WRITING (5.0 points)
Part 1: Read the following text on advertising and children and use your own words to summarize
it. Your summary should be about 120 words long. You MUST NOT copy the original.
As nearly all consumer-goods manufacturers are now targeting children in their advertising
campaigns, market research teams, who advise the larger firms, are developing increasingly sophisticated
psychological techniques to entice children into wanting products. No qualms about the ethics of a product's
suitability for youngsters. Their objective is to sell, and sell at any price. In other words, 'theirs not to reason
why, theirs but to sell or cry'. Or something like that. The 'in' phrase in marketing these days is the 'nag
factor'. According to experts, advertisers exploit two kinds of nagging: persistent nagging of the tantrum
kind, and importance nagging, where a (usually older) child convinces his worn-out parent that he 'really
needs' the product in question. Insidious messages that prey upon a child's insecurities pervade
advertisements, implying that if the child doesn't buy a particular product, he is an idiot or he'll be an outcast
and won't fit in. Corporations use these messages to lure young consumers who, they hope, will remain with
them for the rest of their purchasing lives. They see children's minds not just as economic resources to tap
into today, but ones with a potentially bright spending future that need to be held onto. So advertisements
don't just sell products but an image of the world in which buying becomes the main purpose in life. The
effects of this are far-reaching, and for many, a cause for alarm.
Part 2: The graph below shows predictions about the numer of people who will study three major
world languages between 2020 and 2030.
Summarize the information by selecting and reporting the main features, and make comparisons where
relevant.Write a report of about 150 words.
.
Part 3: Essay writing
Some people say that online learning is the most effective and convenient way to learn. Others say that
online learning will never be as effective as learning at a real school, in person.
Discuss both these views and give your own opinion.
Give reasons for your answer and include any relevant examples from your own knowledge or
experience.
You should write about 250 words.
0
100
200
300
400
500
600
700
800
2020 2022 2024 2026 2028 2030
estimated number of students
(millions)
year
Students of three world languages, 2020 - 2030
English
Spanish
Mandarin
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-The end-
ĐỀ THI MẪU 15
ĐỀ THI ĐỀ XUẤT DHBB
THPT CHUYÊN TRẦN PHÚ HẢI PHÒNG
2018 – 2019
I. LISTENING
Part 1: For questions 1-5, you will hear a radio interview with the gardening experts Jed and Helena
Stone. First, you have 30 seconds to look at Part 1. Then, listen and decide whether the following
sentences are True (T), False (F) or Not Given (NG) according to what you hear. Write your answers
in the box provided.
1. Helena feels amused that she and Jed have a name people tend to remember.
2. Jed would appreciate it were he in public places without being recognised.
3. When Helena started her work on The Travel Show, she felt obliged to do it.
4. Jed was inspired to make a jewel garden by the illustrations at a talk he attended.
5. Helena agrees with Jed that the name “jewel garden” represents a way to positively combine both past
and present.
Part 2: For questions 6-12, you will hear an archeologist talking about an experience he had in South
America. First, you have 1 minute to look at Part 2. Then, complete the notes below by writing NO
MORE THAN THREE WORDS for each question in the box provided.
- The archeologist’s original task was to (6) ______ the ruined city and the area around it.
- It appears that the (7) ______ air exhaled by visitors is damaging the walls.
- The archeologist wanted to survey a tomb near the site of a proposed (8) ______.
- Unfortunately, the tomb had been damaged by flood water from (9) ______.
- The archeologist lost his footing on some (10) ______.
- As he fell, he broke his (11) ______.
- He was found when a (12) ______ heard his shouts for help.
Part 3: For questions 13-17, you will hear an interview with Sue Millins, who has recently introduced
a new teaching approach into her school. First, you have 1 minute to look at Part 3. Then, choose the
answer (A, B, C or D) which fits best according to what you hear. Write your answers in the box
provided.
13. The original cause of the school’s decline was ______.
A. the old-fashioned character of the school B. the transformation of the neighbourhood
C. the number of families living in the area D. the low number of children in the area
14. The school was not closed down thanks to ______.
A. the parent’s refusal to allow it
B. the decision to follow the national curriculum
C. the fact that the children were behaving better
D. the bad conditions the children live in
15. The traditional methods of teaching were abandoned because ______.
A. the children were not able to read B. tests would be easier to mark
C. they would have made things worse D. not enough research had been done
16. The aim of the lesson involving the bear is to ______.
A. teach the children drama B. make the children feel more at ease
C. teach the children about animals D. help the children to read and write
17. The method is considered successful because ______.
A. the Department of Education wants to use it B. children are interested in the arts
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C. it allows teachers to use their intuition D. there is better achievement in all subjects
Part 4: For questions 18-25, you will hear part of a lecture on soap and its role in society. First, you have
1 minute to look at Part 4. Then, complete the notes below by writing NO MORE THAN THREE
WORDS for each question in the box provided.
- Until recently, Morrison’s soap was produced in rectangular bars of (18) ______ and detergent.
- Manufacturers of soap were among the earliest to make up (19) ______ for their products.
- In the days before mass production, the same kind of device was used by shopkeepers to cut blocks of
soap and (20) ______.
- According to the speaker, any claims linking soap with longer (21) ______ are unfounded.
- In the past, the same piece of soap was used to clean items of (22) ______ and clothing, as well as for
personal use.
- Manufacturers of household cleaning products are eager to use the word (23) ______ when talking about
the fragrance of their goods.
- The speaker thinks that (24) ______ smells may soon become fashionable.
- Soap marketing campaigns increasingly focus on the benefits of soap for both (25) ______ and ______.
II. LEXICO-GRAMMAR
Part 1: For questions 26-45, choose the correct answer A, B, C or D to each of the following
questions. Write your answers in the corresponding numbered boxes provided.
26. Egypt is a fantastic country for tourists. It’s absolutely ______ in history.
A. soaked B. drenched C. steeped D. saturated
27. I wanted to talk, but she was determined to sweep the matter under the ______.
A. cupboard B. table C. carpet D. bed
28. The newspaper story was based on an interview which had been done off the ______.
A. script B. record C. key D. tape
29. Before you make a decision you should ______ all the issues involved.
A. weigh through B. weigh out C. weigh up D. weigh down
30. I’m afraid that cycling is off the ______ until the weather improves.
A. record B. card C. track D. menu
31. I read some pretty ______ news about the economy today.
A. challenging B. jumpy C. disconcerting D. cutting
32. He spent too much on his credit card, and now he can’t ______ the minimum payments.
A. keep on B. keep in C. keep to D. keep up
33. Her condition is improving, but she's not out of the ______.
A. dark B. cupboard C. woods D. fire
34. Some electric cars have a ______ of 150 kilometres.
A. run B. distance C. range D. scope
35. ______, I’d like to say how much I’ve enjoyed our meeting.
A. Finally B. At last C. Eventually D. After all
36. I’d give up my job ______ if only I could find a better one.
A. at one swoop B. at the drop of a hat
C. on the dot D. on the spur of the moment
37. The hotel, though obviously grand in its day, appeared rather neglected and ______ when we checked
in.
A. tumble-down B. downcast C. down-and-out D. run-down
38. If you’d like to take a seat in the waiting room till the doctor can see you, you’ll find plenty of magazines
to ______.
A. refer to B. browse through C. look over D. stare at
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39. I’d say let’s meet on Saturday, but I’m none ______ sure what’s happening at the weekend.
A. so B. very C. that D. too
40. Since we had only one day left, we decided to make an ______ effort to finish the run in record time.
A. all-in B. all-out C. overall D. all-round
41. As he was caught ______ an offensive weapon, he was immediately a suspect.
A. in possession of B. on ownership of C. with handling with D. out of control with
42. We might just as well have stayed at home ______ the enjoyment we had.
A. on account of B. as far as C. for all D. concerning
43. You should only make serious accusations like that if they have a sound ______ in fact.
A. basis B. foothold C. framework D. principle
44. He hadn’t prepared a speech; he just made a few remarks ______.
A. off the cuff B. at first sight
C. up his sleeve D. out of the back of his neck
45. Martin needs to get a ______ on his finances if he’s not to face serious difficulties with the bank.
A. grasp B. clutch C. grip D. clasp
Part 2: For questions 46-50, write the correct form of each bracketed word in the numbered space
provided in the column on the right.
Sultan Abdul Hamid II was the last of the great rulers of the Ottoman house of Osman. As the immediate
(46. SUCCEED) to two sultans who had been deposed, he came to the throne a very nervous man. He
considered security at his palaces to be far too lax, and set about building a new (47. PENETRATE) palace
from scratch. To this end, he secured the services of a dozen architects and (48. MISSION) each to build
just one twelfth of the palace, working in complete ignorance of the progress of the other eleven. In effect,
the Sultan built himself the world's most elaborate and extensive prison. Every room was connected to a
secret underground passage and many of the rooms were booby-trapped: at the flick of a switch, cupboards
would fly open and mechanically controlled revolvers would fire. The Sultan employed thousands of spies
and secret agents; the ones he considered most trustworthy being the hundreds of caged parrots which were
hung on street corners and trained to squawk if they saw a stranger. Another of his many (49. PECULIAR)
was that he always carried a pearl-handled revolver. No-one dared put their hands in their pockets in his
presence - to do so would have been an invitation for him to take a pot shot. When one of his daughters
once (50. PLAY) gave him a shove from behind, he spun round and shot her before realizing who it was.
III. READING
Part 1: For questions 51-60, fill each of the following numbered blanks with ONE suitable word.
Write your answers in the corresponding numbered boxes provided.
ON THE OTHER HAND?
We left-handed people lack collective pride. We just try to get by, in our clumsy way. We make (51) ______
demands and we avoid a fuss. I used to say whenever someone watched me sign my name and remarked
that he or she was also left-handed: "You and me and Leonardo da Vinci!" That was a weak joke, but it
contained my often unconscious desire to (52) ______ to Left Pride, a social movement that doesn't (53)
______ exist but I hope may one day come. There are many false stories about the left-handed in circulation:
for example, a few decades ago someone wrote that Picasso was left-handed, and others kept (54) ______
it, but the proof is all to the contrary.
The great genius Einstein is often still claimed as one of (55) ______, also without proof. And sadly, there
is also no truth in the myth that the left-handed (56) ______ to be smarter and more creative. Despite the
amount of research that has been carried out, researchers in the field are still in two (57) ______ about what
we mean by left-handed. Apparently a third of those who write with their left hand throw a ball with their
right. However, those using their right hand for (58) ______ rarely throw with their left. A difficult skill
that becomes crucial at a (59) ______ impressionable age, writing defines what you will call yourself. I
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have never used scissors, baseball bat, hockey stick or computer mouse with anything but my right; even
so, I think I'm left-handed as (60) ______ everyone else.
Part 2: For questions 61-70, read the following passage and do the tasks that follow.
THE ROBOTS ARE COMING
What is the current state of play in Artificial Intelligence?
Paragraph A
Can robots advance so far that they become the ultimate threat to our existence? Some scientists say no,
and dismiss the very idea of Artificial Intelligence. The human brain, they argue, is the most complicated
system ever created, and any machine designed to reproduce human thought is bound to fail. Physicist
Roger Penrose of Oxford University and others believe that machines are physically incapable of human
thought. Colin McGinn of Rutgers University backs this up when he says that Artificial Intelligence ‘is like
sheep trying to do complicated psychoanalysis. They just don’t have the conceptual equipment they need
in their limited brains’.
Paragraph B
Artificial Intelligence, or Al, is different from most technologies in that scientists still understand very little
about how intelligence works. Physicists have a good understanding of Newtonian mechanics and the
quantum theory of atoms and molecules, whereas the basic laws of intelligence remain a mystery. But a
sizable number of mathematicians and computer scientists, who are specialists in the area, are optimistic
about the possibilities. To them it is only a matter of time before a thinking machine walks out of the
laboratory. Over the years, various problems have impeded all efforts to create robots. To attack these
difficulties, researchers tried to use the ‘top- down approach’, using a computer in an attempt to program
all the essential rules onto a single disc. By inserting this into a machine, it would then become self-aware
and attain human-like intelligence.
Paragraph C
In the 1950s and 1960s great progress was made, but the shortcomings of these prototype robots soon
became clear. They were huge and took hours to navigate across a room. Meanwhile, a fruit fly, with a brain
containing only a fraction of the computing power, can effortlessly navigate in three dimensions. Our brains,
like the fruit fly’s, unconsciously recognize what we see by performing countless calculations. This
unconscious awareness of patterns is exactly what computers are missing. The second problem is robots’
lack of common sense. Humans know that water is wet and that mothers are older than their daughters. But
there is no mathematics that can express these truths. Children learn the intuitive laws of biology and physics
by interacting with the real world. Robots know only what has been programmed into them.
Paragraph D
Because of the limitations of the top-down approach to Artificial Intelligence, attempts have been made to
use a ‘bottom-up’ approach instead – that is, to try to imitate evolution and the way a baby learns. Rodney
Brooks was the director of MIT’s Artificial Intelligence laboratory, famous for its lumbering ‘top - down’
walking robots. He changed the course of research when he explored the unorthodox idea of tiny ‘insectoid’
robots that learned to walk by bumping into things instead of computing mathematically the precise position
of their feet. Today many of the descendants of Brooks’ insectoid robots are on Mars gathering data for
NASA (The National Aeronautics and Space Administration), running across the dusty landscape of the
planet. For all their successes in mimicking the behavior of insects, however, robots using neural networks
have performed miserably when their programmers have tried to duplicate in them the behavior of higher
organisms such as mammals. MIT’s Marvin Minsky summarises the problems of Al: ‘The history of Al is
sort of funny because the first real accomplishments were beautiful things, like a machine that could do well
in a maths course. But then we started to try to make machines that could answer questions about simple
children’s stories. There’s no machine today that can do that.’
Paragraph E
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There are people who believe that eventually there will be a combination between the top- down and bottom-
up, which may provide the key to Artificial Intelligence. As adults, we blend the two approaches. It has
been suggested that our emotions represent the quality that most distinguishes us as human, that it is
impossible for machines ever to have emotions. Computer expert Hans Moravec thinks that in the future
robots will be programmed with emotions such as fear to protect themselves so that they can signal to
humans when their batteries are running low, for example. Emotions are vital in decision-making. People
who have suffered a certain kind of brain injury lose the ability to experience emotions and become unable
to make decisions. Without emotions to guide them, they debate endlessly over their options. Moravec
points out that as robots become more intelligent and are able to make choices, they could likewise become
paralysed with indecision. To aid them, robots of the future might need to have emotions hardwired into
their brains.
Paragraph F
There is no universal consensus as to whether machines can be conscious, or even, in human terms, what
consciousness means. Minsky suggests the thinking process in our brain is not localised but spread out, with
different centres competing with one another at any given time. Consciousness may then be viewed as a
sequence of thoughts and images issuing from these different, smaller ‘minds’, each one competing for our
attention. Robots might eventually attain a ‘silicon consciousness’. Robots, in fact, might one day embody
an architecture for thinking and processing information that is different from ours – but also
indistinguishable. If that happens, the question of whether they really ‘understand’ becomes largely
irrelevant. A robot that has perfect mastery of syntax, for all practical purposes, understands what is being
said.
The reading passage has six paragraphs, A-F. Which paragraph contains the following information?
Write the correct letter, A-F, in boxes 61-67. You may use any letter more than once.
61. An insect that proves the superiority of natural intelligence over Artificial Intelligence
62. Robots being able to benefit from their mistakes
63. Many researchers not being put off believing that Artificial Intelligence will eventually be developed
64. An innovative approach that is having limited success
65. The possibility of creating Artificial Intelligence being doubted by some academics
66. No generally accepted agreement of what our brains do
67. Robots not being able to extend the intelligence in the same way as humans
Look at the following people (Questions 68-70) and the list of statements below. Match each person
with the correct statement A-E. Write the correct letter, A-E.
68. Colin McGinn
69. Marvin Minsky
70. Hans Moravec
A. Artificial Intelligence may require something equivalent to feelings in order to succeed.
B. Different kinds of people use different parts of the brain.
C. Tests involving fiction have defeated Artificial Intelligence so far.
D. People have intellectual capacities which do not exist in computers.
E. People have no reason to be frightened of robots.
Part 3: For questions 71-75, you are going to read an extract from an article. Five paragraphs have
been removed from the extract. Choose from the paragraphs A-F the one which fits each gap (71-75).
There is one extra paragraph which you do not need to use.
A REALISTIC VIEW
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One of the most memorable scenes from Francis Ford Coppola’s Apocalypse Now shows a beach landing by
US troops under heavy fire. As the camera pans around, we catch a glimpse of Coppola himself, directing
another film crew, shouting ‘Don’t look at the camera!’ as the actors stream past.
71
The image, and especially the moving image, has a power that text and spoken word has not; the power of
immediate impact. Whereas before Vietnam, casualties of war would be reported in dry figures, now the
viewer could see the corpses strewn on the battlefield. The images of the Vietnam War undoubtedly played
a part in creating the anti-war movement back in the States, and the eventual ceasefire.
72
And because the camera is ever-present, the other mass media, especially newspapers, are being forced to
take steps to compete. No longer is it enough to collect various stories and patch together an article; the
modern-day journalist is expected to provide an eyewitness account of the front lines of a battle, must live
among the combatants and duck under the live bullets and avoid the explosions along with them.
73
It has also led to an extremely alarming rise in the numbers of casualties, including fatalities, among
members of the press. This reached such a level during the Bosnian War that staff from different media
networks banded together, refusing to send more than one camera crew into the field at a time and pooling
all the footage obtained.
74
This means good pictures, certainly, and the gritty scenes that keep the viewer hooked. However, if every
news show has the same pictures, why should the viewers watch one show over another? What a news show
wants are the exclusive pictures; to be the only channel that shows this shot, that angle, these exciting
sequences.
75
Journalists are often deeply ambitious, driven people, insatiable in their chase for the big story that will
make their name, their career. They know very well that news does not get any bigger than war news, and
so when a conflict breaks out, they flock to the scene, itching to get into the heat of the action. So when the
US invaded Afghanistan, it was not just troops that went over the border. Journalists, cameramen,
photographers, all went along for the ride, penetrating areas of the country shunned even by the US military,
all in search of that elusive goal, the exclusive, whether in the form of an article, a photograph or a video
clip.
The missing paragraphs
A. It leads to rather incongruous scenes. Enemies exchanging gunfire along a city street, hugging the
walls of buildings. Behind them, similarly crouched, is a cameraman aiming lens instead of gun; a reporter
clutching a microphone in a white-knuckled fist is hiding behind him, babbling commentary to a live
audience.
B. However, sensible measures such as these are not good enough for the networks. The images thus
obtained may be real, may show the situation as it is happening on the ground, but what a news show wants
above all else is not the truth, especially. It wants good TV.
C. They come with their notebooks open and pens poised, their cameras loaded, ready to snap or roll.
They are the war correspondents, veterans of Bosnia, Somalia and Kosovo, battle-scarred and hardened,
more ready for combat than most of the soldiers they stop to interview.
D. Why was the mistake not taken out of the final cut? Because it fitted perfectly. The Vietnam War
was the first war to be properly televised, and scenes from it were part and parcel of the average American’s
experience of the war. So the scene in the film looks authentic precisely because it has a film crew on the
sidelines, shooting the soldiers going into action.
260
E. At every opportunity, the networks will be putting pressure on their staff to capture the fresh, the
new, to venture deeper and deeper into the battlefield in search of that award-winning scoop. And, if the
truth be known, they rarely find themselves running particularly short of volunteers.
F. So it has become expected that every war be accompanied by a visual commentary, and this has
necessitated the sending of camera crews into war zones to capture the moments on celluloid (or now,
video). A war is no longer a real war unless it is televised.
Your answers:
71.
72.
73.
74.
75.
Part 4: For questions 76-85, read an extract from an article on language and choose the answer A, B,
C or D which you think fits best according to the text. Write your answers in the corresponding
numbered boxes provided.
AN UNLIKELY MUSE
A new wave of music and arts projects has emerged, focusing on someone who may seem for some
a dubious source of inspiration. Imelda Marcos, former first lady of the Philippines, is currently becoming
the subject of musicals, song cycles and shows on a worldwide arena.
When the Marcos regime collapsed in 1986, and Imelda and her husband Ferdinand were exiled in
Hawaii, they carried with them allegations of embezzlement, corruption and human rights abuses. Imelda
had spent the last twenty years living off a seemingly endless supply of funds, living an exotic and
glamorous lifestyle and rubbing shoulders with powerful figures worldwide. In 1972, when the superstar
couple’s popularity was fading and they were at risk of losing their power, Ferdinand Marcos instated
martial, leading to an era of chaos and plunder, and what is described by some as the second most corrupt
regime of the twentieth century. Ferdinand and Imelda fled in 1986 to escape the People’s Power
Revolution, Imelda leaving behind some 2000 pairs of shoes.
After her husband died in Hawaii due to ill health, Imelda stood trial in the United States on behalf
of her husband. Following that, she returned to the Philippines to face seventy more counts of corruption
and tax evasion. She has now returned to congress in the Philippines, her make-up and gowns as flawless
as ever.
So what makes Imelda Marcos such an appealing muse? Undoubtedly, Imelda Marcos’s resolute
character which has withstood exile, legal battles and the wrath of her enemies makes her an appealing
heroine, but film-maker Fenton Bailey attributes her iconicity to her sense of glamour and style, and her
role as a cultural trend-setter. And like so many women who let nothing come between them and their goals,
she has gained a certain iconic status, particularly among homosexuals, not unlike that of Judy Garland and
Lady Gaga.
And now the story of Imelda Marcos can be seen in the format of a musical, an artistic genre which
is quite befitting for this flamboyant, entertaining figure of beauty and glamour. ‘Imelda – A new musical’
has played in Los Angeles and New York. The artistic director of the musical, Tim Dang, realises that the
musical glosses over the darker aspects of the Marcos regime, but wanted to portray Imelda as a person with
all her faults on display, leaving the audience to come to a verdict. However, despite the glitz of the show,
reviews were mixed, stating the ‘the serio-comic spoof... had a vacuum at its centre’.
The story of Imelda Marcos has also been immortalised as a song cycle, ‘Here Lies Love’ written by
David Byrne and Norman Cook, in which Imelda comes across as both a hero and villain. Their reasoning
was to try to understand the story of how people can attain positions of such power and greed. They were
also inspired by Imelda’s love of dancing and clubbing, and how her own style of music could be
incorporated into their own. Byrne adds that their story is not black and white – the couple were very
popular at first, and Imelda headed a lot of public works in the Philippines and added much to the nation’s
sense of culture and identity.
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At the Cultural Centre of the Philippines, a tour named ‘La Vida Imelda’ led by Carlos Sedran
describes the life of Imelda Marcos, the cold war and martial law, while also portraying the glamour of the
Imelda lifestyle. He describes it as an eternal story, in which her extravagance can be seen as either
distasteful or in some ways estimable.
There is a danger that these new art forms airbrush out the atrocity which accompanied the
ostentation and glamour. It was a time when democracy was suppressed, political enemies disappeared, and
billions of dollars which could have helped the poverty-stricken country were spent on the Marcos’s
extravagant lifestyle. However, the artists involved are keen to make clear that the regime also resulted in
great leaps forward in the country’s culture, architecture and infrastructure. The Marcos legacy remains in
the form of hospitals, Heart and Lung Centres, Folk Art theatres and homes for children and the elderly,
notwithstanding that the Marcos couple set their war-ravaged, poverty-stricken land onto the world stage.
76. Why are Imelda’s shoes mentioned in the second paragraph?
A. To illustrate how little she cared for her personal possessions
B. To illustrate her love of fashion and beauty
C. To indicate how quickly she had to flee the country
D. To illustrate the extravagance of her lifestyle
77. What aspect of Imelda’s character is emphasised in paragraph 3?
A. her flamboyance B. her beauty C. her doggedness D. her forbearance
78. Why is Imelda compared with Judy Garland and Lady Gaga?
A. Due to her status as a gay icon B. Due to her ambition and drive
C. Because she has created new fashions D. Because she has triumphed over legal battles
79. The phrase “rubbing shoulders” in the second paragraph mostly means ______.
A. hobnobbing B. abetting C. fostering D. conferring
80. Why was the musical of Imelda’s life criticised?
A. Because it did not portray Imelda’s faults B. Because the show was too shallow
C. Because it was too glamorous and showy D. Because it was both serious and comedic
81. What was it about Imelda’s story that interested David Byrne and Norman Cooke?
A. The ongoing themes of power, greed and music
B. The fact that the story had both a clear hero and villain
C. The reasoning why people such as Imelda become who they are
D. The fact that her musical taste was similar to theirs
82. The word ‘incorporated in the sixth paragraph is closest in meaning to _____.
A. inverted B. infused C. integrated D. interbred
83. According to Carlos Sedran, how do people respond to Imelda’s expensive lifestyle?
A. Most people are shocked by it. B. It evokes both positive and negative feelings.
C. People want to be like her. D. People realise why she did it.
84. The word ‘atrocity in the last paragraph is closest in meaning to _____.
A. complexity B. indignity C. mendacity D. barbarity
85. Which of the following is not mentioned in the text as something Imelda Marcos did for the Philippines?
A. She made health services available to the people.
B. She gave the country a cultural identity.
C. She reduced the levels of poverty for Filipino people.
D. She drew the world’s attention to the country.
Part 5: For questions 86-95, you are going to read an article about the effects of tourism on local
people. Choose from the people (A–E). The people may be chosen more than once.
LIVING WITH TOURISM
262
Five people describe how tourism has affected their home town.
A. Leonor Sousa
It can’t be denied that tourism has attracted investment, which has certainly raised living standards here,
but the cost in other respects has been extremely high. Take the effect on the environment, for instance.
When my parents were young this used to be an area of fields and woods, but now everything is covered in
concrete. The tourists themselves aren’t responsible for this; it’s the construction companies, property
developers and estate agents who are to blame because they’re the ones making all the money. They’re all
based in the big cities and bring in their own people, so they hardly create any employment at all for local
residents.
B. Yusuf Demir
When I was growing up in my home town there was a path I used to walk along to go to school, and last
summer I went to see if it was still there. It was, but the view from it had changed completely. Now there is
a vast shopping mall, with a cinema and cafés alongside. I don’t actually mind that, because it means there
are lots more things to do, and I also like the fact that it has a really international atmosphere. It’s good for
local people to meet visitors from other parts of the world, try new kinds of food and hear about different
ways of living.
C. Matt Walker
Tourism has changed this town so much, even in the years since I was at junior school. In those days, there
was a football pitch near the harbour where we would kick a ball around, but it’s gone now, which is a pity.
In the harbour itself luxury yachts owned by people from richer parts of the country have replaced the
fishing boats, to the extent that there is now no sign of what used to be the main source of income and
employment locally. In the evenings, the town is certainly a lot livelier, but sometimes people start doing
things they would never think of doing back in their own home towns, and then the police have to be called.
D. Trisha Chandra
I was just a child when tourism first took off here, and those incredibly ugly houses were built for summer
visitors. The residents really should have protested about that. It was all the fault of the town council, who
only ever thought in the short term and seemed to give planning permission to anyone who applied to build
anything. Nowadays, there’s talk of ecological tourism, but that’s just a way of making people feel less
guilty about the harm they are doing by making a few insignificant changes, such as re-using towels in their
hotel rooms.
E. Daniela Navarro
I know some of the new hotels and holiday apartment blocks are unattractive, and that the bars, restaurants
and nightclubs that cater for tourists have changed the nature of the town, but without them, unemployment
– particularly among the young – would be far worse than it currently is. That, though, is as far as the
economic benefits to the town go, as the only ones making any real money out of all this are the big tour
operators and the owners of hotel chains, none of whom are actually based in this country. Also, very few
tourists learn our language. I know it must be difficult for them because most of them are quite old, but it
means there’s little communication between us and them.
Which person ______
Your Answers
misses a place they used to go to as a child?
86.
states that tourism provides a considerable number of jobs for local people?
87.
wishes local people had opposed the construction of certain holiday homes?
88.
claims that tourism has destroyed a traditional industry?
89.
blames the tourist industry for spoiling the local countryside?
90.
feels that the presence of people from other cultures benefits the local community?
91.
criticises the behaviour of tourists in their town?
92.
says the town is wealthier than it was before it became a tourist resort?
93.
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believes that most of the profits from the local tourist industry go abroad?
94.
is not convinced that so-called green tourism actually benefits the environment?
95.
IV. WRITING
Part 1: Read the following extract and use your own words to summerise it. Your summary should
be between 100 and 120 words long.
The temperature of the Sun is over 5,000 degrees Fahrenheit at the surface, but it rises to perhaps
more than 16 million degrees at the center. The Sun is so much hotter than the Earth that matter can exist
only as a gas, except at the core. In the core of the Sun, the pressures are so great against the gases that,
despite the high temperature, there may be a small solid core. However, no one really knows, since the
center of the Sun can never be directly observed.
Solar astronomers do know that the Sun is divided into five layers or zones. Starting at the outside
and going down into the Sun, the zones are the corona, chromosphere, photosphere, convection zone, and
finally the core. The first three zones are regarded as the Sun's atmosphere. But since the Sun has no solid
surface, it is hard to tell where the atmosphere ends and the main body of the Sun begins. The Sun's
outermost layer begins about 10,000 miles above the visible surface and can be seen during an eclipse such
as the one in February 1979. At any goes outward for millions of miles. This is the only part of the Sun that
other time, the corona can be seen only when special instruments are used on cameras and telescopes to
shut out the glare of the Sun's rays.
The corona is a brilliant, pearly white, filmy light about as bright as the full Moon. Its beautiful rays
are a sensational sight during an eclipse. The corona's rays flash out in a brilliant fan that has wispy spike-
like rays near the Sun’s north and south poles. The corona is thickest at the sun's equator.
The corona rays are made up of gases streaming outward at tremendous speeds and reaching a
temperature of more than 2 million degrees Fahrenheit. The rays of gas thin out as they reach the space
around the planets. By the time the Sun's corona rays reach the Earth, they are weak and invisible.
Part 2: The table below gives information on consumer spending on different items in five different
countries in 2002. Describe the information in the table and make comparisons where relevant. You
should write about 150 words.
PERCENTAGE OF NATIONAL CONSUMER EXPENDITURE BY CATEGORY – 2002
*****
Country
Food/Drink/Tobacco
(%)
Clothing/Footwear
(%)
Leisure/Education
(%)
Ireland
28.91
6.43
2.21
Italy
16.36
9.00
3.20
Spain
18.80
6.51
1.98
Sweden
15.77
5.40
3.22
Turkey
32.14
6.63
4.35
Part 3: Write an essay of about 350 words on the following topic:
Some people think that schools should reward students who show the best academic results, while
others believe that it is more important to reward students who show improvements. Discuss both
views and give your own opinion.
Present argumentation to highlight your opinion on this matter. Give reasons and specific examples to
support your opinions.
ĐỀ THI MẪU 16
ĐỀ THI OLYMPIC 30/4 LỚP 10
2018 – 2019
A. MULTIPLE CHOICE (40 PTS)
264
I. GRAMMAR AND STRUCTURES (5PTS): Choose the best options to complete the following
sentences.
1. ______ happy in the new school, he missed his old friends.
A. Usually B. Although C. Being D. Even
2. ______ we leave at 3:00, we should get there by 5:30.
A. Assuming B. Having assumed C. To assume D. Assumed
3. I am sorry to keep you waiting. I hope you ______ long.
A. are not waiting B. don’t wait C. haven’t waited
D. haven’t been waiting
4. It's about time you ______ the balcony. It's covered in leaves and dust.
A. cleaned B. had cleaned C. to be cleaned
D. to have cleaned
5. Don't be silly! That ______ possibly be David Beckham!
A. mustn't B. shouldn't C. won't D. can't
6. –“I locked myself out of my apartment. I didn't know what to do.”
–“You ______ your roommate.”
A. could have called B. may have called C. would have called D
. must have called
7. –“Did the principal of the school answer you yet?”
–“No, but ______ I hear from him by 5pm, I’ll let you know.”
A. might B. could C. would D. should
8. ______ help me make this decision. I’m just so unsure of which direction to take for my future.
A. I’d sooner you will B. I wish you will C. If only you could D. I’d rather you
9. ______ we have enough money, where would you like to travel this summer?
A. So that B. Provided that C. Despite the fact that D. Unless
10. Twenty people were arrested during the demonstration, of ______ four were charged with obstruction.
A. who B. whom C. which D. them
II. PHRASAL VERBS AND PREPOSITIONS (5 PTS) Choose the best options to complete the
following sentences.
11. She was very appreciative ______ all the support she got from her friends.
A. of B. for C. on D. with
12. Her latest novel is coming ______ in paperback soon.
A. across B. off C. out D. about
13. As you’ve arrived late, you’ll have to ______ the time you have lost.
A. make up to B. do up to C. do up for D. make up for
14. Mary is jealous ______ her sister because she is much more popular.
A. on B. of C. for D. with
15. Your skirt needs taking ______; it's too large.
A. up B. on C. over D. in
16. Can you make ______ the meaning of this passage?
A. out B. for C. up D. into
17. He’s such a hard man to ______ as he’s always flitting from one site to another.
A. pin in B. lock in C. narrow down D. nail down
18. Don't be put ______ by his manner. He always acts that way.
A. on B. away C. off D. down
19. His proposal met ______ total opposition from the committee.
A. about B. by C. for D. with
20. You ought to stand ______ your little brother when the others tease him.
A. over with B. by for C. about with D. up for
III. VOCABULARY (10 PTS): Choose the best options to complete the following sentences.
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21. It is possible to ______ out of the pension scheme if you do not wish to participate.
A. back B. charge C. opt D. break
22. She always gets what she wants because she knows how to ______ the rules.
A. circumvent B. desert C. slack D. elicit
23. Anthropologists have spent years studying the social system of this ______.
A. breed B. caste C. tribe D. sect
24. I tried to catch the mouse, but it was too ______.
A. intentional B. obsolete C. uncommon D. elusive
25. I have no appetite and I am lethargic. I've been feeling under ______ for ages.
A. pair B. stress C. par D. threat
26. Peter does everything himself because he doesn’t like to ______ control.
A. extinguish B. relinquish C. vanish D. elicit
27. I don't know how I can ______ up the courage to tell him the awful news.
A. pick B. pluck C. store D. set
28. I need to study more for the test. I don’t have a very good ______ of the material.
A. abstract B. grasp C. hint D. gist
29. The weekend is over, so tomorrow morning it's back to the ______.
A. grind B. labour C. drudgery D. toil
30. We could hear the monkey ______ long before we reached their cage.
A. chatting B. chattering C. prattling D. babbling
31. Bob is so short-tempered; he should try to ______ his anger.
A. monitor B. curb C. temper D. stunt
32. The police ______ the woods looking for the lost child.
A. scoured B. integrated C. traced D. encountered
33. Don't mention work to Ray, as it's a sore ______ with him at the moment.
A. finger B. point C. place D. nail
34. The couple ______ under the umbrella to keep dry.
A. enclosed B. muffled C. huddled D. augmented
35. A long, green snake ______ through the grass and disappeared.
A. strutted B. slunk C. slithered D. scampered
36. This schedule isn’t final. It’s only ______.
A. tentative B. sporadic C. contemporary D. subsequent
37. My new pullover______ to half its previous size when I washed it.
A. shrank B. reduced C. diminished D. dwindled
38. The new accounting system ______ all my work useless.
A. transformed B. rendered C. transposed D. converted
39. Martin just loves to ______ his teeth into a really challenging crossword.
A. grind B. get C. put D. sink
40. The doctor said that sweets should be eaten in ______.
A. compulsion B. restriction C. moderation D. qualification
IV. GUIDED CLOZE (10 PTS): Read the texts below and decide which answer best fits each space.
Passage A:
The case of food storage in tin cans illustrates how an invention can be successful even when it (41)
______ a new problem for the one it solves. In 1810, Peter Durand (42) ______ tremendous progress in
food preservation with his invention of the tin can. The cans were ideal for transporting food and for (43 )
______ spoilage for extended periods. But consumers of canned food had to (44) ______ their own
ingenuity to open the solidly constructed cans, which sometimes outweighed the foodstuffs inside. Durand’s
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solution had created a new problem, (45) ______ opening the cans. In the early days, the (46) ______ most
favored was the brute force of a hammer and chisel. In 1858, Ezra Warner designed a crude and somewhat
(47) ______ can opener. Finally (48) ______ 1930, the safe design that underlies today’s common kitchen
utensils ha been invented. From the (49) ______ of their introduction, however, the problem of opening the
cans (50)______ not detract from their wide acceptance as a solution to the problem of food preservation.
41. A. substitutes B. becomes C. causes D. is
42. A. provided B. invented C. made D. discovered
43. A. storing B. preserving C. keeping D. preventing
44. A. create B. know C. use D. make
45. A. easily B. especially C. hardly D. namely
46. A. consumer’s B. method C. can D. food
47. A. called B. dangerous C. safer D. sophisticated
48. A. in B. beyond C. prior D. by
49. A. latest B. way C. time D. first
50. A. did B. does C. could D. will
Passage B:
Two eyes help us to see in three dimensions; and two ears allow us to hear in stereo. If recent research
findings are (51) ______, two nostrils function in (52) ______ the same way. In the olfactory system, each
nostril conveys to the brain a slightly different olfactory (53) ______ upon smelling an odor. What is
perceived in combination is (54) ______ used by the brain to get a precise (55) ______ of what the odor is.
The slight difference (56) ______ the olfactory images seems to occur (57) ______ the air flows at a
different rate through each nostril, one of (58) ______ has a low flow-rate and the other a high one. Odors
that dissolve slowly have their maximum effect in the (59) ______ that has a slow movement of air.
Conversely, those that dissolve quickly have their (60) ______ effect when the air stream is moving
rapidly. Thus, air drawn into the nose will give different responses in each nostril. Not yet well understood
is how the brain processes the disparate olfactory images as a single recognizable aroma. Future studies will
be needed to completely explain this phenomenon.
51. A. incorrect B. reported C. accurate D. similar
52. A. so B. as C. much D. such
53. A. process B. image C. where D. once
54. A. which B. earlier C. strongly D. then
55. A. meaning B. measurement C. location D. sense
56. A. in B. about C. to D. when
57. A. before B. then C. however D. because
58. A. those B. which C. each D. such
59. A. nostril B. chemical C. flow D. other
60. A. personal B. strongest C. negative D. slowest
V. READING COMPREHENSION (10 PTS): Read the texts below and choose the best answer to
each question.
Passage A
Recently, researchers conducted a survey to investigate what motivates young adults to exercise. The
study might shed light on why so few college students exercise and why many stop their exercise workouts
after they graduate. Researchers analyzed responses from 937 randomly selected college students at a
leading U.S. university. What the research team found was that 39% of the male students and 26% of the
female
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students exercised at least three days a week for 20 minutes at a time. These exercise patterns were fairly
similar to those in surveys at other universities. The survey also revealed some critical factors which
motivate college students to exercise.
Men who exercised regularly reported that their friends provided considerable support for them to
do so. Those who exercised only occasionally had moderate support from their friends, while those who did
not exercise at all had little or no support from friends. For women, however, the crucial motivating factor
seemed to come from family members rather than from friends. Women who exercised regularly had a great
deal of positive support to do so from their families. However, women who exercised only occasionally
received moderate levels of encouragement from their families, while those who did not work out at all
received little or no support from their families. Since college students often live far from home, women
students are likely to have a weaker support system than do their male counterparts.
A medical professor, upon seeing the results of the study, remarked that generally there is not so
much emphasis on body performance among girls and young women. “It’s a macho thing to be able to run
faster or lift weights,” he said. “However,” he continued, “for the younger generation, this gender gap
appears to be getting smaller.”
61. What is the main purpose of the study presented in this passage?
A. to investigate college students’ attitudes towards good health and exercise
B. to find out why young women don’t like to exercise
C. to learn what makes college students exercise
D. to find the best type of exercise workout for college students
62. What research method was used in this study?
A. College students reported on their friends’ exercise workouts.
B. College students reported on their families’ exercise patterns.
C. College professors answered questions about their students.
D. College students answered questions about themselves.
63. What similarity between men and women did the study find?
A. The more friends they have, the more they exercise.
B. The more support they have to exercise, the more they exercise.
C. The closer they live to their families, the more they exercise.
D. The more health-conscious they are, the more they exercise.
64. In comparison to the general college population, students at this university exercise ______.
A. less often than average
B. about the same amount as average
C. more often than average
D. for longer at a time than average
65. Why does the passage mention that some college students live far from home?
A. to emphasize that they do not see their families every day
B. to criticize their life styles
C. to show how independent they are
D. to explain why they depend on their friends so much
Passage B
It has long been known that underweight, premature babies develop into children who perform worse
at school than children who had normal birth weight and were full-term. A recent study examining the
effects of birth weight on intelligence suggests that even among full-term babies the heavier ones have an
advantage. The study has been following 3,900 British men and women since their birth in 1946. Birth
weight was correlated with scores on tests of reading and arithmetic skills, non-verbal reasoning, memory,
speed, and concentration. These tests were conducted when the participants were 8, 11, 15, 26, and 43 years
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old. Generally speaking, the heavier children performed better on the tests. The relationship was strongest
at age 8 and then weakened over time. By age 43, the relationship was negligible. The results were not
affected by birth order, gender, father’s social class, or mother’s education and age. These findings must be
interpreted with caution. First, the results were based on averages. Second, birth weight is only one of
numerous factors influencing cognitive function. Parental interest in education – such as volunteering at
school or helping with homework - may offset the effect of birth weight. Furthermore, poor environmental
conditions, such as living in an overcrowded home, breathing polluted air, or being caught in a bitter divorce
can diminish the early advantages enjoyed by heavier babies.
Although no one knows exactly what makes a newborn baby heavy, it is known that healthy, well-
nourished mothers tend to have heavier babies, while those who eat poorly, smoke, and are heavy drinkers
tend to produce smaller ones. There are probably several other variables that affect birth weight, but if and
how those are connected to intelligence is not known.
66. In this study, the researchers examined the relationship between _______.
A. maternal nutrition and birth weight B. home environment and intelligence
C. age and intelligence D. intelligence and birth weight
67. What did the researchers find out about the relationship they were studying?
A. It increased up to age 26, then decreased. B. It remained steady until age 26, then decreased.
C. It decreased as the subjects grew older. D. It remained steady throughout the study.
68. Which children have an advantage at school?
A. Those who were full-term, lighter weight babies.
B. Those who were premature but normal weight babies.
C. Those who were full-term, heavier babies.
D. Those who were premature babies who gained weight quickly.
69. According to the passage, what is one possible reason to question the conclusions of the study?
A. The study did not consider some environmental factors.
B. The study was done too long ago.
C. The study was done on premature babies, not full term ones.
D. The study tested different children at different ages.
70. What is the main idea of the passage?
A. Premature babies are disadvantaged throughout their lives.
B. Parents’ educational level affects intelligence.
C. No one knows the exact relationship between test scores and intelligence.
D. Bigger babies may be more intelligent than smaller ones.
Passage C
Diving deep into the ocean is difficult for humans, although whales do it easily. The deepest a human
has dived into the ocean without scuba gear is to 450 feet below the surface, which required him to hold his
breath for about two minutes. Humans are unable to go much deeper because at a certain point the external
pressure becomes so great it crushes the ribcage and lungs. Furthermore, lack of oxygen also prevents
humans from staying under water for long periods. It is amazing, then, that whales can dive to depths of up
to 10,000 feet and remain there for as long as two hours. Several adaptations enable the whale to do this,
among them the construction of its ribcage. Unlike humans, whales have fewer “true” ribs, ribs joined
directly to the breastbone, and more “floating” ribs, which are attached only to the preceding rib by cartilage.
This flexible design allows the whale’s ribcage to fold under pressure instead of breaking, and for its lungs
to collapse without rupturing capillaries. Also, during a dive, the whale’s heart slows to as low as 3 to 5
beats a minute. Arteries constrict, reducing blood flow to many of the whale’s less vital organs, thus
conserving oxygen and maintaining blood pressure in the brain and heart. Humans emerging too suddenly
from dives can suffer from “the bends,” when small bubbles of nitrogen gas form in body fluids and obstruct
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blood flow, leading to death. Because whales collapse their lungs, air is pushed from the lungs into the
windpipe, which is lined with thick membranes, making it difficult for nitrogen bubbles to pass into the
bloodstream or other tissues. Together, these and other adaptations enable whales to dive to such depths.
71. What are “floating” ribs?
A. Ribs that are not attached to other ribs. B. Ribs that are not attached to the breastbone.
C. Ribs that are made of cartilage. D. Ribs that are not able to fold under pressure.
72. What is the main purpose of this passage?
A. to explain why whales can do something that humans cannot
B. to explain how humans and whales adapted
C. to explain what happens at great depths
D. to explain how the human respiratory system works
73. When a whale dives, what contributes to the conservation of oxygen?
A. Blood pressure increases. B. Blood flow decreases.
C. The lungs collapse. D. The ribcage folds.
74. Compared to whales, humans have ______.
A. weaker capillaries B. thicker membranes in the windpipe
C. fewer floating ribs D. slower heartbeats
75. How does the whale’s ribcage differ from that of a human?
A. The whale’s ribcage contains fewer vital organs.
B. The whale’s ribcage can bend without breaking.
C. Whales have fewer ribs than humans.
D. The whale’s ribs are not attached to the breastbone.
Passage D
Scientists have not been able to determine the exact age of the Earth directly from its rocks.
Geologists have yet to find any of Earth’s original rocks that have not been recycled and destroyed through
the process of plate tectonics. However, scientists have been able to determine the probable age of our solar
system and to calculate an age for the Earth by looking elsewhere - to outer space. In doing so, they had to
assume that the Earth and the rest of the solid bodies in our solar system formed at the same time and are
the same age.
Asteroids in outer space have not been subjected to the crushing forces of plate tectonics. Meteorites,
which are fragments of asteroids that fall to Earth, contain clues about planetary formation. Being primordial
rocks still in their original state, they can be dated fairly accurately by measuring the radioactive elements
remaining in them since the formation of the solar system. One group of scientists from Germany
andanother from France analyzed meteorites and reached the same conclusion: The final phase of Earth’s
formation, the separation of its metallic core from its silicate-based mantle, occurred about 30 million years
earlier than previously thought.
The ages of more than seventy meteorites have been measured using radiometric dating techniques.
The results show that meteorites, and therefore presumably Earth, formed about 4.5 billion years ago. These
findings also push back the origin of Earth’s moon because most scientists believe that the Moon formed
from material ejected when a Mars-sized planet collided with Earth. The fact that these conclusions about
the age of the Earth were reached by two independent groups of scientists increases the weight of the
findings.
76. What strengthens the claim made in this passage about Earth’s age?
A. Earth and meteorites are the same age. B.
Two separate research studies had the same results.
C. Geologists have found Earth’s original rocks.D. The moon is older than previously thought.
77. What conclusion did the French and German scientists reach?
A. Meteorites have radioactive elements.
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B. Plate tectonics does not occur on asteroids.
C. The Earth is older than was believed in the past.
D. The Moon is older than the Earth.
78. According to the passage, what is involved in “radiometric dating techniques”?
A. using radioactivity to restore an object to its original state
B. measuring the radioactive elements in an object
C. calculating how many times Earth’s rocks were recycled
D. subjecting an object to crushing forces
79. How did scientists date the Earth?
A. directly, by analyzing plate tectonics B. directly, by measuring Earth’s metallic core
C. indirectly, by dating the Earth’s Moon D. indirectly, by dating meteorites
80. What indicated the last stage in the Earth’s formation?
A. a reduction in the crushing force of plate tectonics B. the separation of Earth’s core from its mantle
C. a shower of seventy meteorites falling to Earth D. the collision of a Mars-sized planet with Earth
B. WRITTEN TEST
I. CLOZE TEST (20 PTS): Read the texts below and complete each space with ONE suitable word.
Passage A
Fallingwater is recognized as one of the most unique and innovative (1) ______ of American
architecture of the 20th century. Designed in 1935 by architect Frank Lloyd Wright, this beautiful house in
western Pennsylvania is actually built over a waterfall. Wright placed the house above the waterfall by
anchoring it to the (2) ______ next to the falls with concrete “trays,” (3) ______ mimic the natural shape of
rock ledges. As a(n) (4) ______, the house appears to be suspended above the waterfall, which cascades
underneath it. Wright took much care in (5) ______ Fallingwater as harmonious with nature as possible by
linking the house to its natural surroundings. He placed large windows on opposite sides of the main rooms
so that the breeze and (6) ______ of the water could flow through the house (7) ______ hindrance. Wright
also proposed covering the building in gold leaf in (8) ______ to imitate the color of dying plants, and
thereby connect the house to the (9) ______ of seasons and the passage of time. Furthermore, he added a
(10)______ of outdoor terraces where people could enjoy the cool air of the wooded valley.
Today, Fallingwater is open to the public with its original setting, furnishings, and artwork intact.
Passage B
Global warming may be threatening one of the world’s most important crops: rice. Increased
nighttime temperatures are associated with significant declines in crop (11) ______, according to a study
conducted by researchers at the International Rice Institute. The researchers analyzed twelve years of rice
production along with twenty-five years of temperature data. This study, a direct measurement of yields
produced under normal field conditions, using (12) ______ that good farmers normally employ, has
confirmed previous simulations and suggests that (13) ______ increases due to global warming will make
it increasingly difficult to feed the Earth’s growing population. Average (14) ______ temperatures, which
increased 0.35 degrees Celsius over the (15) ______ of the study, have little effect on rice production.
However, a strong correlation exists between warmer nighttime temperatures, which have risen an
average of 1.1 degrees, (16) ______ decreasing rice yields. Although the underlying (17) ______ of this
relationship is unknown, researchers speculate that plants work harder to maintain themselves in (18)
______ to the warmer nights and consequently divert energy from growth. Thus, an average (19) ______
of just one degree Celsius can (20) ______ in a ten percent reduction in yields. Similar findings have been
reported for corn and soybean yields in the United States.
II. WORD FORMATION: (20PTS)
PART 1: Complete each sentence, using the correct form of the word in parentheses.
1. They were in search of ______ archaeological remains. (DATE)
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2. He always gets ______ aggressive when he’s drunk. (RESTRAIN)
3. The drop in share prices in March was a ______ of the financial crash that followed in June. (RUN)
4. She sang the first three verses with a piano and the last verse ______. (COMPANY)
5. I really didn't mean to offend her - I just said it ______. (THINK)
6. They were accused of ______ in their treatment of the hostages. (HUMAN)
7. Alcohol is a ______ factor in 10% of all road accidents. (CONTRIBUTE)
8. He had to face up to his own ______ as a father. (ADEQUATE)
9. It was ______ a step in the right direction. (QUESTION)
10. Hospital beds were scarce and medicines were practically ______. (EXIST)
PART 2: Complete the passage with the appropriate forms from the words given in the box.
COMPLICATE STAND DINE WELCOME DEPEND
OCCUR DEFEND TERROR DELICATE EXPOSE
POISONOUS SEALIFE
One of the most lethal poisons on Earth, ten thousand times more deadly than cyanide, is tetrodotoxin, more
concisely known as TTX. Its potency is well known in East Asia, where it regularly kills (11)______ who
have braved the capricious (12) ______ known as puffer fish. This toxin has a (13) ______ method of
operation: twenty-five minutes after (14) ______, it begins to paralyse its victims, leaving the victim fully
aware of what is happening. Death usually results, within hours, from suffocation or heart failure. There is
no known antidote. If lucky patients can (15) ______ the symptoms for twenty-four hours, they usually
recover without further (16)______. It is no ordinary poison. What is strange about its (17) ______ is that
it is found in such a wide range of creatures, from algae to angelfish spanning entire kingdoms of life. It is
rather unlikely that such an unusual toxin evolved (18) ______ in so many unrelated animals. Marine
biologists have discovered that the poison is produced by bacteria living in the gut of its host. The best
explanation is that a symbiotic relationship exists between host and the not (19) ______ guest, where
microbes exchange poison for nutrients, providing a valuable (20) ______ weapon for its host.
III. ERROR CORRECTION: (10PTS) The following passage contains 10 errors. Identify and correct
them.
BEWARE OF VITAMINS!
Vitamins are good for our health, aren't they? Perhaps not. New research suggests that rather than ward off
could even put you in an early grave. Some recent studies suggest that far from improving health, these
vitamins, when taken at very high doses, may actually increase the risks of cancer and a range of debilitating
diseases, a discovery that has sent the medicinal world into a spin. Scientists are unsure as to when vitamins,
so essential to health, can be toxic in high doses. The most likely explanation is that the body is only
equipped to deal with the levels found naturally in the environment. If the intake is too far for the normal
range, then the body's internal chemistry must be shunted out of alignment. What this means is that the
commercially sold vitamins and those provided by nature is not always compatible. The commercial forms
may interfere with the body's internal chemistry by “crowding out” the most natural and beneficial forms
of the nutrients. The vitamins obtained in food are also allied with a host of other substances which may
moderate or augment its activity in the body. The latest advice is to eat a balance diet to ensure you get all
the nutrients you need, and if you must take supplements make sure you take the lowest recommended dose
and follow the instructions on the bottle.
IV. SENTENCE TRANSFORMATION: (20 PTS) Rewrite the following sentences using the words
given.
1. People know more about my novels than the plays I write. (BETTER)
I'm ___________________________________________.
2. The staff hated his new policies intensely and so went on strike. (HATRED)
So intense ______________________________________________.
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3. Your attitude to life would be greatly improved by regular exercise. (WONDERS)
Regular exercise would __________________________________.
4. There is someone in the office twenty-four hours a day. (STAFFED)
The office ____________________________________.
5. Do you think her grandmother was offended by what I said? (EXCEPTION)
Do you think ________________________________________?
6. His behavior at the conference gave him the bad reputation he now has. (CONDUCTED)
The way _________________________________________________.
7. Unless we can obtain more information, we can't process your claim. (FORTHCOMING)
Unless further ___________________________________________.
8. Our teacher thinks it would be better to get on as quickly as possible. (MUCH)
Our teacher would prefer us ________________________________.
9. I had to wait for the manager for almost an hour before he would see me. (BEST)
The manager kept ___________________________________________.
10. They remain close friends despite having had many arguments. (FALL)
Frequently as ________________________________________.
ĐỀ THI MẪU 17
ĐỀ THI OLYMPIC 30/4 LỚP 11
2018 – 2019
A. MULTIPLE CHOICE (40 PTS)
I. GRAMMAR AND STRUCTURES (5PTS): Choose the best options to complete the following
sentences.
1. He has done things he ought not to have done and ______ undone things he ought to have done.
A. leaving B. will leave C. left D. leave
2. The team ______ be the same without him.
A. mustn’t B. wouldn’t C. shouldn’t D. needn’t
3. Suppose she ______ that outrageous story circulating around the office, she'd be furious!
A. has heard B. heard C. would hear D. had heard
4. I'd rather you ______ a noise last night; I couldn't get to sleep.
A. wouldn't make B. didn't make C. hadn't made D. haven't made
5. The teacher has gone home, so you ______ her at the library.
A. can’t have seen B. mustn't have seen C. weren't able to see D. couldn’t see
6. I didn’t get home until well after midnight last night. Otherwise, I ______ your call.
A. returned B. had returned C. would return
D. would have returned
7. –“Did the kids enjoy the circus?” –“Absolutely! The clown got them ______ all the time.”
A. laugh B. to be laughing C. to laugh D. laughing
8. –“Have you heard, Samuel has just been awarded his PhD?"
–“Yes, but intelligent ______ he is, he has no basic common sense."
A. although B. though C. however D. while
9. My sister is left-handed, ______ no one else in our family is.
A. which B. who C. that D. for which
10. ______ they couldn’t have told us all that we were likely to lose our jobs because the business was
failing is beyond me.
A. When B. Why C. How D. Whether
II. PHRASAL VERBS AND PREPOSITIONS (5 PTS) Choose the best options to complete the
following sentences.
11. I was prepared to back ______ her story because I knew it was the truth.
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A. up B. down C. on D. for
12. My brother has a flair ______ languages and can speak more than six.
A. about B. with C. on D. for
13. A local hotel has been found guilty of ______ incidents of food poisoning.
A. holing up B. shutting off C. covering up D. tucking away
14. How would you set ______ teaching a dog to perform tricks?
A. about B. on C. for D. up
15. He was led ______ by her flattery but soon discovered how insincere she was.
A. away B. on C. out D. up
16. We had to queue ______ before we could get into the cinema last night.
A. up B. on C. along D. in
17. The meeting didn’t ______ until late.
A. end up B. break up C. come about D. fall through
18. Would you like to try ______ this new electric cooker?
A. out B. by C. with D. for
19. Although they tried, they couldn't hold ______ their laughter.
A. up B. in C. off D. over
20. The student was eligible ______ a full grant to study at university.
A. for B. to C. with D. on
III. VOCABULARY (10 PTS): Choose the best options to complete the following sentences.
21. Having a broken ankle ______ her movements considerably.
A. barred B. hindered C. intervened D. blocked
22. When I came in, I found a great surprise ______ me.
A. expecting B. celebrating C. awaiting D. disregarding
23. You were really ______ when you paid $100 for those shoes. They're not even leather!
A. swiped B. pinched C. ripped off D. pilfered
24. To be well-prepared for studies at a university, you should take ______ courses in school.
A. rigorous B. feeble C. porous D. extravagant
25. The government is making little ______ in its fight to beat inflation.
A. headway B. advance C. improvement D. forward
26. We don’t know him very well. He’s just a casual ______ of ours.
A. relative B. fraternity C. acquaintance D. occupant
27. Greg has, to all intents and ______, finished his degree course, with the exception of his final
dissertation.
A. reasons B. aims C. purposes D. proposals
28. They disagreed at first, but after some discussion, they reached ______.
A. a consensus B. a majority C. an acquiescence D. a persuasion
29. We were all on a ______-edge until the very end of the Hitchcock film.
A. razor B. cliff C. knife D. chair
30. The ______ thought of going to the dentist gives me nightmares.
A. worthy B. ripe C. frank D. mere
31. We giggled at the sight of Mrs. Brown ______ down the road in her six-inch stiletto heels.
A. staggering B. tottering C. reeling D. stumbling
32. Peter had a difficult time ______ his car into the small parking spot.
A. mobilizing B. maneuvering C. manipulating D. motoring
33. Jane ______ about the surprise party for Sheila and now the whole idea is ruined.
A. blabbed B. prattled C. gossiped D. chatted
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34. He ______ the papers in a neat pile.
A. stacked B. clustered C. bunched D. heaped
35. Thousands of refugees are camping at the ______ between the two countries, hoping to find asylum.
A. boundary B. brim C. border D. rim
36. Joe’s health has gotten ______ worse over the last few months.
A. chronologically B. consecutively C. serially D. progressively
37. Jenny was so unhappy as she was under the ______ of her husband.
A. finger B. skin C. nose D. thumb
38. The team had to ______ of the competition because of injuries.
A. pull out B. extract C. renounce D. retract
39. We had a ______ of a time at Jason's party yesterday.
A. whale B. whole C. period D. week
40. Investors were caught ______ by the sharp drop in sharp drop in share prices.
A. undecided B. unawares C. unsuspecting D. unconscious
IV. GUIDED CLOZE (10 PTS): Read the texts below and decide which answer best fits each space.
Passage A:
The BBC, in the form of the language-teaching arm of the World Service, and Harper Collins have
(41) ______ forces to publish the BBC English Dictionary, "A Dictionary for the World". It is (42) ______
at the 120 million listeners to the World Service who cannot find the expressions in (43) ______
dictionaries. (44) ______ on 70 million words broadcast at least ten times a year on the World Service, the
compilers, (45) ______ by Prof. John Sinclair, have included (46) ______ expressions and word usage,
without judging
whether they are being used (47) ______. Elizabeth Smith, the BBC's Controller of English Services, said:
“Our language is (48) ______ on statements by real people, like politicians and (49) ______ which the BBC
has accurately recorded. As broadcasters, we try to use a few idioms and metaphors but only to show that
we (50) ______ in the real world.”
41. A. connected B. joined C. attached D. fixed
42. A. pointed B. directed C. trained D. aimed
43. A. functional B. traditional C. conventional D. partial
44. A. Counting B. Trying C. Drawing D. Bearing
45. A. headed B. chaired C. dictated D. treated
46. A. recent B. current C. nowadays D. late
47. A. correctly B. truly C. sincerely D. finely
48. A. designed B. made C. formed D. based
49. A. so many B. thus far C. as to D. so on
50. A. inhabit B. live C. stay D. exist
Passage B:
Researchers have been perplexed by the increasing prevalence of allergies in children. While many
(51) ______ appear to contribute to the (52) ______ of allergies, sensitization to common allergens has
been shown to reduce the risk of allergies persisting from childhood into adulthood. For example, one recent
study shows that exposure early in life to cats and dogs may protect children against allergies (53) ______
pets, dust mites, ragweed, and grass, among other things. Some allergists had (54) ______ thought that
repeated exposure to pets in infancy would (55) ______ the likelihood of developing pet allergies.
(56)______, it is now believed that endotoxins, substances (57) ______ in the mouths of cats and
dogs, may (58) ______ help to prevent allergies. When a pet licks a child during play, endotoxins are
transferred from the animal’s tongue to the child. Endotoxins are (59) ______ to help the human immune
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system (60) ______ resistance towards some allergens in the environment. The bottom line is that living
too clean a life may contribute to the increasing number of children with allergies.
51. A. ideas B. factors C. issues D. concerns
52. A. development B. sickness C. resistance D. evolution
53. A. of B. by C. with D. towards
54. A. previously B. already C. usually D. later
55. A. improve B. increase C. enrich D. assist
56. A. However B. Furthermore C. Moreover D. Nevertheless
57. A. placed B. developed C. introduced D. found
58. A. also B. actually C. not D. finally
59. A. determined B. analyzed C. assumed D. thought
60. A. destroy B. maintain C. produce D. contribute
V. READING COMPREHENSION (10 PTS): Read the texts below and choose the best answer to
each question.
Passage A
It is well known that adequate sleep is important in the formation of memories. Two recent studies
indicate that performance of motor skills tasks was greatly enhanced if subjects were allowed to sleep
immediately following training. In one study students were taught a series of finger-tapping sequences and
then tested for their memory of the tasks. Performances were 34% faster for the first group of students, who
slept for eight hours immediately after learning the sequences, as compared to the second group, who were
kept awake during that time. Furthermore, error rates were 30% lower for the group that slept after learning.
Performance on the tasks was shown to be unaffected by sleep deprivation prior to the training. Differences
in performance persisted two days later, after the second group of students had also had a full night’s sleep.
This indicates that a window of opportunity exists for sleep to be effective in aiding the memory of motor
skills.In the other study, a group of people who were taught keyboarding sequences in the morning, and
then tested 12 hours later without a period of sleep, improved their typing ability by 2%. Another group,
who were taught the sequences in the evening, and then tested 12 hours later after a night’s sleep, improved
their typing ability by 20%. This study found that performance improvement is linked to Stage 2 sleep, or
non-rapid eye movement (NREM) sleep, typically experienced late at night or in the early morning hours.
According to this study, those who get up earlier than usual, thus interrupting their Stage 2 sleep, may have
difficulty remembering motor skills tasks they had learned the day before.
61. According to the studies, what improves motor skills performance?
A. Waiting two days before continuing instruction B. Learning tasks in the correct sequence
C. Learning a skill and then sleeping
D. Getting a good night’s sleep before learning a skill
62. The findings of the first study indicate that ______.
A. sleep deprivation before learning a task has a negative effect on performance
B. sleeping immediately after learning a task has a positive effect on performance
C. sleep deprivation immediately after learning a task has no effect on performance
D. sleeping immediately before learning a task has a positive effect on performance
63. The results of the second study ______.
A. are unrelated to the first study B. contradict the results of the first study
C. confirm the results of the first study D. explain the results of the first study
64. According to the passage, what is the importance of NREM sleep?
A. A decrease in NREM improves the formation of memories.
B. Too much NREM slows down the formation of memories.
C. There is no relationship between NREM and the formation of memories.
D. Lack of NREM inhibits the formation of memories.
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65. According to the studies, which strategy would be best for learning to play the piano?
A. Learning in the evening, and then getting a good night’s sleep
B. Learning immediately after getting up very early
C. Learning in the morning, and then doing something else
D. Learning late in the evening and then taking a short nap
Passage B
Scientists at a Texas university have successfully cloned a cat for the first time. DNA obtained from
a female donor cat named Rainbow was transplanted into an egg cell whose nucleus and chromosomes had
been previously removed. The egg cell was then implanted into a surrogate mother, Allie. Sixty-six days
later, a kitten, later named Copy Cat, was born. The breakthrough in cloning a household pet was greeted
with excitement by pet lovers, many of whom have already “banked” their pets’ DNA and even made
financial contributions to the university in the hope of one day obtaining a clone. The news was also
welcomed by scientists interested in the preservation of endangered species.
Although scientists now have the technology to clone animals, Copy Cat’s birth came only after
several unsuccessful attempts at cloning a cat. Researchers first tried using skin cells from a donor cat to
create a clone, but only one pregnancy resulted out of 188 embryos, and this ended in a miscarriage.
Scientists then tried using cells from cats’ ovarian tissue. Out of 87 such embryos, only Copy Cat survived.
Although comparable to the success rate in sheep, cows, goats and pigs, these odds must be reduced to make
pet cloning feasible.
Animal rights activists claim that pet cloning is dangerous for the animals involved, and that it could
needlessly increase the pet population of the country. Also, activists say that believing cloning will bring
the same animal back is a fallacy.
Although Copy Cat’s coat color is similar to Rainbow’s and a genetic match confirms that she is
indeed a clone, her behavior and personality are very different. Rainbow is reserved, while Copy Cat is
playful and curious. In reality, social environment and upbringing are more likely to determine the
personality of an animal than genetic material and blood type.
66. The main purpose of this passage is to ______.
A. advocate further research into pet cloning
B. encourage pet lovers to bank their pets’ DNA
C. generate funds for the university’s pet cloning project
D. present the pros and cons associated with cloning pets
67. What is Allie’s relationship to Copy Cat?
A. She gave birth to Copy Cat. B. She was cloned from Copy Cat’s DNA.
C. She has the same personality as Copy Cat. D.
She provided the donor cells used to create Copy Cat.
68. According to the passage, what important fact should pet lovers keep in mind before cloning their pet?
A. Banking a pet’s DNA is expensive.
B. Cloning will bring back the same animal.
C. The clone could be different from the original animal.
D. Cloning sheep, cows and pigs is easier than cloning a cat.
69. What beneficial effect might cloning have in the future?
A. It could be used to prevent miscarriages.
B. It could be used to prevent the extinction of rare animals.
C. It could reduce the number of unwanted pets in the country.
D. It could reduce the impact of upbringing on a pet’s behavior.
70. According to the passage, which factor is most important in determining a pet’s behavior?
A. Its DNA B. Its donor tissue C. Its environment D. Its surrogate mother
Passage C
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Brood parasitism, an unusual practice among birds, involves one species laying its eggs in another
species’ nest, leaving the host to raise the intruder’s young. For instance, female European Cuckoos lay
their eggs only in the nests of other birds. A cuckoo egg usually closely mimics the eggs of the host, one of
whose eggs is often removed by the cuckoo. The host may recognize the intruder’s egg and abandon the
nest, or she may stay and raise the young. Soon after the cuckoo hatches, if there are any host bird’s young
in the nest, the cuckoo will toss them out, using a scooplike depression in its back. The host parents are then
left to raise the young cuckoo.
Brown-headed cowbirds are another brood parasitic species. They have been known to parasitize
over 200 other species of birds. Their eggs do not closely mimic host eggs, and they do not oust host eggs
and young from their nests. Instead, cowbirds tend to hatch earlier than hosts and grow faster, thus crowding
out and reducing the food intake of the host’s young.
Some host species have learned, however, to reject invader eggs. Scientists do not fully understand
how these rejector species have developed, or why some species still accept invader eggs even when the
eggs look different. Some scientists believe that acceptors are birds that do not want to risk damaging or
accidentally removing one of their own eggs when trying to eject an invader. Others believe that beak size
influences rejection, allowing birds with large beaks to eject invader eggs more easily. Still other scientists
claim that chance plays a big role in deciding which birds will be acceptors and which will be rejectors.
71. What do European Cuckoos and brown-headed cowbirds have in common?
A. They are both rejector species.
B. Their eggs do not closely mimic host eggs.
C. They lay their eggs in the nests of other birds.
D. They have been known to parasitize over 200 other species.
72. What is the “scooplike depression” mentioned at the end of paragraph one used for?
A. to remove host birds’ young B. to remove host birds’ eggs
C. to remove a parasite’s young D. to remove a parasite’s egg
73. What is one difference between European Cuckoos and brown-headed cowbirds?
A. Cuckoos raise their own young. B. The baby cuckoo eats the host birds’ eggs.
C.
The baby cuckoo crowds out host bird babies
. D.
The baby cuckoo ejects host birds’ young from nests.
74. What advantage do young cowbirds have in another bird’s nest?
A. They toss out the host birds’ young.
B. They develop faster than the host birds’ young.
C. They are very similar to the host birds’ young.
D. The mother cowbird removes one of the host birds’ eggs.
75. According to the passage, birds with large beaks ______.
A. tend to accept invader eggs B. are able to remove invader eggs
C. tend to damage their own eggs D. are rejected by birds with small beaks
Passage D
There are more than 500 carnivorous plant species growing naturally in the world, ranging in size
from a fraction of an inch to vines that are over 60 feet tall. While often biologically quite different from
each other, these plants all share a common trait, carnivorousness. This is the ability to capture animals and
digest them. Why have some plant species developed this extraordinary property? Most carnivorous plants
grow in acid soils or water that is poor in mineral salts. In order to survive, these plants have devised
ingenious traps over several thousands of years of evolution. Some use pools of water to drown unlucky
visitors,
others have sticky surfaces that work like flypaper, and some have “snap traps” that clamp down on insects
in a matter of milliseconds. The prey captured by these traps supply the vitamins and minerals that other
plants would normally absorb through their roots.
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Even though these plants may have diverse appearances and grow in different environments, they
are often closely related to each other. In the 19th Century, Charles Darwin believed that landbased Venus
flytraps, found in North and South Carolina, and aquatic waterwheels, which grow in Europe, Asia and
Australia, were closely related because they both depend on snap traps to catch their prey. A century later,
British researchers looking more closely at the form and structure of the waterwheel, decided that its closest
kin was not the Venus flytrap but the terrestrial sundew. The sundew consumes insects caught with its
flypaper trap.
However, it has recently been proved that Darwin’s hunch was right after all. Scientists at the New
York Botanical Garden studied the DNA of about a dozen carnivorous plants. They concluded that the
world’s only two snap-trapping plants really are sibling species, whereas the sundew is no closer than a
cousin, sharing a more distant common ancestor.
76. How does a snap trap work?
A. It drowns an insect. B. It encloses an insect.
C. It traps an insect on its sticky surface. D. It digests an insect through its roots.
77. Why did Darwin think the Venus flytrap and the waterwheel were related?
A. They live in similar environments. B. They have similar DNA.
C. Both are siblings of the sundew. D. Both have snap traps.
78. British researchers decided that the two species most closely related to each other are______.
A. waterwheels and sundews B. flytraps and snap traps
C. Venus flytraps and sundews D. Venus flytraps and waterwheels
79. How are non-carnivorous plants different from carnivorous plants?
A. Non-carnivorous plants get nutrients through their roots.
B. Non-carnivorous plants can live in acid soils.
C. Non-carnivorous plants are less biologically diverse than carnivorous plants.
D. Non-carnivorous plants evolved more slowly than carnivorous plants.
80. What are the two snap-trapping plants mentioned in the last sentence?
A. The aquatic waterwheel and the terrestrial sundew
B. The Venus flytraps from North and South Carolina
C. Venus flytraps and the aquatic waterwheel
D. Venus flytraps and the terrestrial sundew
B. WRITTEN TEST
I. CLOZE TEST (20 PTS): Read the texts below and complete each space with ONE suitable word.
Passage A
It is common knowledge that rainfall in the mountains directly influences nearby river levels. Yet
recent research has revealed that some efforts are not seen (1)______ fifty years after the rain has fallen. A
study by a civil engineering professor investigated the (2) ______ it takes for precipitation to travel from
mountains to valleys (3) ______ underground aquifers, or water passages. Using a computer model, this
scientist (4) ______ on the water levels of a major river in the Rio Grande Valley in New Mexico. His
model showed that a drought that occurred fifty years ago could be partly to (5) ______ for current low
water levels. The model assumed a fifty-year wet climate cycle followed by an abrupt change in which
precipitation was cut in half. For decades, there was no change in the base flow of the Rio Grande, (6)
______ after fifty years that dry cycle (7) ______ up in the river. Previously, (8) ______ such as how much
water to store and (9) ______ from reservoirs have been based on a conservative view, because it has been
hard to predict streamflows years (10) ______. However, if additional research supports this study, the
much-delayed impact of droughts on underground water levels would have significant implications for
water management.
Passage B
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Over one hundred brightly colored and diverse frog species have recently been identified on the
tropical island of Sri Lanka. The new species were identified by noticeable (11) ______ in physical features,
habitat, development, and genetic make-up. Some are tiny and dwell on the ground, whereas (12) ______
are large and inhabit trees. Five of the new (13)______ lay eggs in homespun baskets suspended above
water, so that when the eggs (14) ______ the tadpoles have no difficulty taking their first (15) ______. The
remaining new frog species give birth to their young by producing eggs on the forest floor. These frogs
(16)______ the tadpole stage and emerge as miniature (17) ______ of their parents.
Frogs and other amphibians are important indicators of ecological balance; therefore a decline in
their numbers would be considered a warning that (18) ______ of the natural environment for a particular
area is needed. (19) ______ that Sri Lanka has already lost 95% of its forests, measures to protect the
remaining forest fragments are crucial. Since many frogs produce chemicals that could have practical
applications in health care and medical treatment, they are a potential source of new drugs. Thus, ensuring
that frogs are protected by preserving and restoring their (20) ______ is very important.
II. WORD FORMATION: (20PTS)
PART 1: Complete each sentence, using the correct form of the word in parentheses.
1. Another nuclear accident in the same place is virtually ______. (CONCEIVE)
2. Though she had spent hours fixing the computer, he ______ her efforts. (LITTLE)
3. Smoking has caused ______ damage to his lungs. (REVERSE)
4. –“Was it a good read?" –“Oh, totally ______! I finished it in two days." (PUT)
5. The police file was ______ because of new evidence. (ACT)
6. The war has ______ nearly two-thirds of the country's population. (ROOT)
7. Premature disclosure of the test sites might lead to ______ of the experiment. (VALID)
8. Their ten-point lead puts the team in an almost ______ position. (ASSAIL)
9. The poet fell in love with her and ______ her in his verse. (MORTAL)
10. He was able to pass ______ through several military checkpoints. (HINDER)
PART 2: Complete the passage with the appropriate forms from the words given in the box.
DISPENSE PORTRAY NOBLE MIME COMPANY
NUMBER SYMBOL COMPREHEND RIDICULE FACE
SILENT ACTING
Mime and pantomime was a Greek and Roman dramatic entertainment representing scenes from life,
often in a (11) ______ manner. Currently, the art has evolved into the (12) ______ of a character or the
narration of a story solely by means of body movement. The Greco-Roman mime was a farce that stressed
(13) ______ action but which included song and spoken dialogue. In Roman pantomime, unlike the mime
actor, the players wore (14) ______ masks, which identified their characters but deprived them of speech
and of the use of (15) ______ gestures. Thus hand movements were particularly expressive and important.
Pantomimus, dressed like a tragic actor in a cloak and long tunic, usually performed solo, (16) ______ by
an orchestra. In the theatre of China and Japan, mime acquired a role unknown in the West, becoming a(n)
(17) ______ part of the major dramatic genres. In Chinese drama the conventions of gesticulation, as well
as the (18) ______ of the stage properties, are immense in scope and (19) ______ to those unfamiliar with
the traditional forms. The high art of modern mime was (20) ______ philosophically by such artists as
Marcel Marceau, who defined mime as lithe art of expressing feelings by attitudes and not a means of
expressing words through gestures.
III. ERROR CORRECTION: (10PTS) The following passage contains 10 errors. Identify and correct
them.
A SPORTING GOAL FOR WOMEN
Football is traditionally, a man's sport, but now the women are muscling in on their act, or so it
seems. Because many top male footballers have been transferred for astronomical sums of money that the
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game has become more a highly-powered business than a sport. This is where the women come in, more
motivated, more interested in the game more than in promoting themselves and generally better behaved
both on and in the pitch, making a strong contrast to their male counterparts' greed and cynicism. Indeed,
as to FIFA, the world football governing body, the future of football belongs to women, and the organization
has put out to actively promote women's football. Perhaps, in view of the fact that women are half the
world's population, this is how it should be. In the USA, many members of national women's football teams
are well known than male footballers, and some professional female players in both North America and
Europe have attracted lucrative sponsor deals. Generally, two problems beset women's football: the need to
be taken more serious and for more funding to be made available. Once these have already achieved along
with the blessing of FIFA, we should see footballers who are accessible, cooperative, decent and sporting
in place of the spoiled mercenary star boys of sport.
IV. SENTENCE TRANSFORMATION: (20 PTS) Rewrite the following sentences using the words
given.
1. He realised how much he cared for her only when she had been away for a long time. (HOME)
Her prolonged________________________________________________________.
2. So that she would be able to leave the room quickly, Kathy stood by the door. (POSITIONED)
Kathy ____________________________________________________________.
3. This essay shows a slight improvement on the last. (MARGINALLY)
This essay is______________________________.
4. If they discover your role in the incident, you will go to prison. (LIGHT)
If your role in the incident _______________________________.
5. No one could stand in for Bob when the proposal was drafted. (INSTRUMENTAL)
Bob _______________________________________________.
6. My boss says I can use his car whenever I want to, so long as I'm careful. (DISPOSAL)
My boss says his car _________________________________________.
7. If she hadn’t interfered, there would have been no problems. (SMOOTHLY)
Without her ______________________________________.
8. She didn't understand the situation and so made a terrible mistake. (STICK)
She got ______________________________________________.
9. I tried as hard as I could to make sure that this problem would not arise. (POWER)
I did ________________________________________________________.
10. Karen's bad mood is totally unconnected with the matter in hand. (BEARING)
The matter ___________________________________________.
THE END
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ĐỀ THI MẪU 18
ĐỀ THI CHỌN ĐỘI TUYỂN HSG THPT HỒ CHÍ MINH
2017 – 2018
(Nguồn: Scribd)
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ĐỀ THI MẪU 19
ĐỀ THI CHỌN ĐỘI TUYỂN HSGQG TỈNH ĐẮK LẮK
2018 – 2019
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The Benefits of Being Bilingual
A. According to the latest figures, the majority of the world’s population is now bilingual or
multilingual, having grown up speaking two or more languages. In the past, such children were
considered to be at a disadvantage compared with their monolingual peers. Over the past few decades,
however, technological advances have allowed researchers to look more deeply at how bilingualism
interacts with and changes the cognitive and neurological systems, thereby identifying several clear
benefits of being bilingual.
B. Research shows that when a bilingual person uses one language, the other is active at the same
time. When we hear a word, we don’t hear the entire word all at once: the sounds arrive in sequential
order. Long before the word is finished, the brain’s language system begins to guess what that word might
be. If you hear ‘can’, you will likely activate words like ‘candy’ and ‘candle’ as well, at least during the
earlier stages of word recognition. For bilingual people, this activation is not limited to a single language;
auditory input activates corresponding words regardless of the language to which they belong. Some of
the most compelling evidence for this phenomenon, called ‘language co-activation’, comes from studying
eye movements. A Russian-English bilingual asked to ‘pick up a marker’ from a set of objects would look
more at a stamp than someone who doesn’t know Russian, because the Russian word for ‘stamp’, marka,
sounds like the English word he or she heard, ‘marker’. In cases like this, language co-activation occurs
because what the listener hears could map onto words in either language.
C. Having to deal with this persistent linguistic competition can result in difficulties, however.
For instance, knowing more than one language can cause speakers to name pictures more slowly, and can
increase ‘tip-of-the-tongue states’, when you can almost, but not quite, bring a word to mind. As a result,
the constant juggling of two languages creates a need to control how much a person accesses a language
at any given time. For this reason, bilingual people often perform better on tasks that require conflict
management. In the classic Stroop Task, people see a word and are asked to name the colour of the word’s
font. When the colour and the word match (i., the word ‘red’ printed in red), people correctly name the
colour more quickly than when the colour and the word don’t match (i., the word ‘red’ printed in blue).
This occurs because the word itself (‘red’) and its font colour (blue) conflict. Bilingual people often excel
at tasks such as this, which tap into the ability to ignore competing perceptual information and focus on
the relevant aspects of the input. Bilinguals are also better at switching between two tasks; for example,
when bilinguals have to switch from categorizing objects by colour (red or green) to categorizing them by
shape (circle or triangle), they do so more quickly than monolingual people, reflecting better cognitive
control when having to make rapid changes of strategy.
D. It also seems that the neurological roots of the bilingual advantage extend to brain areas more
traditionally associated with sensory processing. When monolingual and bilingual adolescents listen to
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simple speech sounds without any intervening background noise, they show highly similar brain stem
responses. When researchers play the same sound to both groups in the presence of background noise,
however, the bilingual listeners’ neural response is considerably larger, reflecting better encoding of the
sound’s fundamental frequency, a feature of sound closely related to pitch perception.
E. Such improvements in cognitive and sensory processing may help a bilingual person to process
information in the environment, and help explain why bilingual adults acquire a third language better than
monolingual adults master a second language. This advantage may be rooted in the skill of focussing on
information about the new language while reducing interference from the languages they already know.
F. Research also indicates that bilingual experience may help to keep the cognitive mechanisms
sharp by recruiting alternate brain networks to compensate for those that become damaged during aging.
Older bilinguals enjoy improved memory relative to monolingual people, which can lead to real-world
health benefits. In a study of over 200 patients with Alzheimer’s disease, a degenerative brain disease,
bilingual patients reported showing initial symptoms of the disease an average of five years later than
monolingual patients. In a follow-up study, researchers compared the brains of bilingual and monolingual
patients matched on the severity of Alzheimer’s symptoms. Surprisingly, the bilinguals’ brains had more
physical signs of disease than their monolingual counterparts, even though their outward behaviour and
abilities were the same. If the brain is an engine, bilingualism may help it to go farther on the same
amount of fuel.
G. Furthermore, the benefits associated with bilingual experience seem to start very early. In one
study, researchers taught seven-month-old babies growing up in monolingual or bilingual homes that
when they heard a tinkling sound, a puppet appeared on one side of a screen. Halfway through the study,
the puppet began appearing on the opposite side of the screen. In order to get a reward, the infants had to
adjust the rule they’d learned; only the bilingual babies were able to successfully learn the new rule. This
suggests that for very young children, as well as for older people, navigating a multilingual environment
imparts advantages that transfer far beyond language.
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ONLINE LITERARY CRITICISM FOR ALL
(DIY literary criticism: more than just harmless fun?)
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ĐỀ THI MẪU 20
ĐỀ THI DHBB 2019
CHUYÊN SƯ PHẠM HÀ NỘI
PART A. LISTENING (50 points)
Section 1. (10 points)
Questions 1 - 5, listen to an interview with someone who reviews hotels and choose the correct answer
A, B, C, or D which fits best according to what your hear. Write your answers in the corresponding
numbered boxes provided.
1. What does Paddy say about some readers of her column?
A. They suspect that she enjoys criticizing hotels.
B. Her attitude to hotels has changed because of their response.
C. Her comments match their experiences of hotels.
D. They prefer reading about hotels they would not want to visit.
2. What does Paddy say about some hotel-keepers?
A. They sometimes have to force themselves to have a sense of humor.
B. They would be more suited to a different profession.
C. They expect to receive negative comments about their hotels.
D. They are surprised that they become friends of hers.
3. Paddy says that some hotel-keepers she has contacted about the book have
A. realized that she does not really have an assistant called Emily.
B. corrected inaccuracies that were in her review of their hotels.
C. responded favorably despite criticism she had made.
D. made her wonder whether her reviews of their hotels were unfair.
4. Paddy says that one hotel-keeper she spoke to told her that
A. other people are unlikely to be treated in the same way in hotels as she is.
B. he was unwilling to discuss some of the comments in her review.
C. her reviews did not have much influence as she believed.
D. he no longer wanted his hotel to appear in the book.
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5. The same owner also told her that
A. he had passed information about her to other hotels.
B. he resented her description of him in her review.
C. he did not understand why she wanted to put his hotel in her book.
D. there was nothing distinctive about her physical appearance.
Section 2 (10 points)
Questions 6 - 10, listen to a discussion on the history of an English word and decide whether these
statements are True (T) or False (F).
6. The topic that the students choose is a little bizarre.
7. The students decided to go for the word ‘nice’ mainly because it’s so well-known.
8. Listening to interesting lectures inspired the students to research the history of the word.
9. The students agree they need to add computer software to their presentation.
10. With regard to the reading background, Ruby is worried about its overlap with other modules.
Section 3 (10 points)
Questions 11 - 15. Listen and answer the questions. Write NO MORE THAN THREE WORDS AND/OR
A NUMBER.
1. How long have African runners dominated some running events?
__________________________________________
2. Besides being home to Kip’s family, what does the farm act as?
_________________________________________
3. According to Kip, what do abandoned kids need?
_________________________________________
4. When are the children at the orphanage free to do as they like?
_________________________________________
5. What is the farm going to build?
_________________________________________
Section 4 (20 points)
Questions 16 - 25. Listen to the news and fill in the following blank with a suitable phrase. WRITE NO
MORE THAN THREE WORDS in each blank.
Today the U.S. Supreme Court delivered a (16)________ to American business and an equally
sweeping defeat to American workers. The (17)_______ upheld and extended the growing practice adopted
by American businesses, namely requiring workers to agree as a condition of employment not to go to court
over wage and hour disputes but to instead submit their claims to (18)______ individually. Lawyer Ron
Chapman, who represents management in (19)_________, said he expects small and large businesses alike
to immediately move to impose these binding arbitration contracts in order to eliminate the fear of costly
class-action (20)_______ from juries. The lead (21)__________ in the case was an IT worker at Epic, the
giant health care software development company. That law guarantees the rights of workers to engage in
activities for the purpose of (22)________ or any other concerted activities. Justice Ruth Bader Ginsburg,
in a (23)_________ from the bench, called out the majority for what she said was an egregiously wrong
decision. Labor law experts said today's decision likely will present increasing problems for the #MeToo
movement and for other civil rights class actions claiming discrimination based on (24)________. There's
no transparency in most binding arbitration agreements, and they often include (25)_________. Yale law
professor Judith Resnik observes that today's decision applies to all manner of class actions.
PART B. LEXICO-GRAMMAR (30 points)
Exercise 1. Choose the correct answer (A, B, C, or D) to complete each of the following sentences.
(10 points)
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26. Most frequently, the earthquake lasts 30 to 60 seconds, so usually there is no time to avert the mortal
________ once the shaking starts.
A. upkeep B. upturn C. upshot D. upswing
27. They live under a constant pressure of being ________ and subsequently replaced by someone who is
younger, faster and more accomplished.
A. outcast B. outshone C. outstayed D. outgrown
28. There was a lot of ________ as throngs of people tried to see the famous actor walking through the
mall.
A. stamina B. discipline C. counsel D. commotion
29. Luckily my wallet was handed in to the police with all its contents ______________.
A. preserved B. unscathed C. contained D. intact
30. Serena is still _____________ ignorant of the fact that she is about to be made redundant.
A. blissfully B. decorously C. jubilantly D. ecstatically
31. No decision has been taken about the building of the new airport. The authorities are still
______________.
A. beating about the bush B. comparing apples and oranges
C. sitting on the fence D. holding all the aces
32. Oil spills will _______________ even the healthiest of marine ecosystem.
A. play havoc on B. break ground with C. pay the consequences for D. take their toll on
33. Don’t look so worried! You should take the boss’s remarks with a ____________of salt.
A. teaspoon B. pinch C. grain D. dose
34. Rachel has an amazing _______________ of jokes that she uses to good effect at parties.
A. body B. repertoire C. variation D. store
35. The question of peace settlement is likely to figure ________________ in the talks.
A. prominently B. prolifically C. proportionately D. properly
Exercise 2. The passage below contains 5 mistakes. Underline the mistakes and correct them. (5
points)
1
2
3
4
5
6
7
8
9
10
11
12
As we feel tired at bed-time, it is natural to assume that we sleep because we are tired. The
point seems so obvious that hardly anyone has ever sought to question it. Nevertheless, we
must ask “tired of what?” People certainly feel tired at the end of a hard day’s manual work,
but it is also true that office workers feel equally tired when bed-time comes. Even invalids,
confining to beds or wheelchairs, become tired as the evening wears out. Moreover, the manual
workers will still feel tired even after an evening spent relaxing in front of the television or
reading a book, activities which ought to have a refreshing effect. There is no proof connection
between physical exertion and the need for sleep. People want to sleep, however little exercise
they have had. Nor is the desire for sleep related to mental fatigue. In fact, sleep comes more
slowly to people who have had an intellectual stimulating day, just because their minds are
still full of thoughts when they retire. Ironically, one way of sending someone to sleep is to put
him or her into a boring situation which the intellectual effort is minimal.
Exercise 3. Fill in the blank with a suitable preposition or particle in the following passage.
Escaped prisoner Dean Parsons finally gave himself up this morning after a dramatic twelve-hour
siege during which he threatened to blow himself and his female hostage up with a hand grenade. Parsons,
who was serving an eight-year sentence for holding up a Post Office and making (41)______ with five
thousand pounds, had broken out of Peterhead prison eleven days previously. The hostage is believed to be
Kelly McAlister, Parson’s former girlfriend, and the occupant of the flat where the siege took place.
Three years ago, when Parsons first came before the court for armed robbery, McAlister was brought
(42)________ on charges of being an accomplice to the crime. However, when the jury brought their verdict
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(43)___________, McAlister was let (44)__________ for lack of evidence. After he was sentenced, Parsons
was led from the dock shouting “You should have sent her (45)_________ too. It was her idea in the first
place!” It is not yet known where or how Parsons spent his first ten days on the run, but last night neighbors
McAlister's phoned the police to report sounds of someone breaking in next door. The police arrived to find
…
Exercise 4. Read the text below. Use the word given in capitals in brackets to form a word that fits in
the gap.
Pop art was a(n) (46. CONVENTION)_____________ art style in which (47.
COMMON)_____________ objects such as comic strips, soup cans and road signs were used as subject
matter, and were often incorporated into the work. The pop art movement was largely a British and
American cultural phenomenon of the late 1950s and ‘60s. Art critic Lawrence Alloway, referring to the
prosaic (48. ICON)___________ of its painting and sculpture, named the movement pop art. It represented
an attempt to return to a more objective and (49. UNIVERSE)___________ accepted form of art after the
dominance in both the United States and Europe of the highly personal abstract (50.
EXPRESS)_____________. The art form was iconoclastic, rejecting the (51. SUPREME)___________ of
the ‘high art’ of the past and the (52. PRETEND)____________ of other contemporary avant -garde art. Pop
art became a cultural institution because of its close reflection of a particular social situation and because
its easily (53. COMPREHEND)_____________images were immediately exploited by the mass media.
Although the critics of pop art describe it as sensational and non-aesthetic, its proponents saw it as an art
that was democratic and not (54. DISCRIMINATE)____________, bringing together both connoisseurs
and untrained inexperienced viewers. Even though public reaction to pop art was (55.
FAVOR)____________, it found critical acceptance as a form of art suited to the highly technological,
mass media-oriented society of western countries.
PART C. READING
Exercise 1. Choose the option A, B, C, or D that best fits each blank in the following passage.
The problems of racial minorities make the headlines occasionally when one group or another
(56)____________ to (57)_____________ their protests against the oppressive treatment of their
authorities. The native Indians have been living within the (58)____________ of their reserves, the
Australian Aborigines have a hard time of integrating with the descendants of the European colonizers and
the African Movement keeps (59)____________ its war against the concealed racial discrimination in
America. There are also cultures and nations whose heritage and history has only remained alive
(60)____________ chronicles and museums. Vast numbers of indigenous populations have been
slaughtered by merciless invaders or persecuted by acquisitive colonizers, then, deprived of their lands,
rights and properties. Many of them have (61)__________ with their oppressors to be finally
(62)___________ 'non-existent'.
One example of such a community is represented by the Ainu people - the original inhabitants of the
Japanese Archipelago whose independent existence was ruined by an extremely rapid assimilation with the
Japanese culture. The Ainu are believed to have possessed very distinct characteristics from those that
(63)__________ the Japanese people. Theirs was a light complexion and thick wavy hair as well as a totally
isolated language. They adored many spirits (64)_________ by natural phenomena like animals, plants or
climatic forces. Once a year they would sacrifice a bear cub at a religious festival which was a sign of
reverent worship for the gods. Now, they are claimed to be no longer existent in their pure form.
By similar means, dozens of other cultures have vanished leaving behind only a trait of their
(65)_________imprinted in the character of the societies that have absorbed them.
56. A. pursues B. resolves C. undergoes D. embarks
57. A. place B. stage C. assure D. expose
58. A. boundaries B. realms C. margins D. zones
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59. A. deploying B. engaging C. waging D. tackling
60. A. in lieu of B. in the way of C. by dint of D. for the sake of
61. A. intermingled B. exchanged C. intertwined D. incorporated
62. A. decided B. nicknamed C. presupposed D. classified
63. A. divulge B. typify C. relate D. sport
64. A. embodied B. displayed C. ingrained D. defaced
65. A. legacy B. heredity C. remnant D. heirloom
Exercise 2. Read the text below and think of the word that best fits each space. Use only one word in
each space.
Over the last century the world has become increasingly smaller. Not geographically, of course, but
in the (66)___________ that media, technology and the opening of borders has enabled the world’s citizens
to view, share and gain access to a much wider range of cultures, societies and world views. In this
(67)___________ pot that the world has become, today’s child is privy (68)___________ facets of the
human experience that his immediate predecessors had no inkling even existed. It (69)_____________ to
reason that in order to absorb, configure and finally form opinions about this information-laden planet,
children must be supplied with certain tools. (70)______ in this list of ‘tools’ are: education, social skills,
cultural awareness and the acquisition of languages, the most important of these being the latter. Until
recently, a child who had the ability to speak more than one language would have been considered a very
(71)_____________ entity. This one-language phenomenon could be attributed to a combination of factors.
One of them is that the monolingual environment in which a child was raised played a strong role,
(72)____________ did the limited, biased education of the past. With regard to immigrants, the sad fact
was that non-native parents tended to withhold the teaching of the mother tongue so that the child would
acquire the ‘more prestigious’ language of the adopted country. Nowadays, the situation has
(73)___________ an almost complete reversal. In the majority of North American and European countries,
most children are given the opportunity to learn a second or even a third language. Children acquire these
foreign languages through various and diverse means. In many countries, learning a foreign language is a
compulsory subject in the state school (74)_____________. Other children rely on language schools or
private tuition to achieve their goal. In other instances, children are (75)___________ to bilingual parents,
who, if they so desire, may teach the children two languages.
Exercise 3. Read the text and choose the best answer A, B, C or D. (10 points)
It is often helpful when thinking about biological processes to consider some apparently similar yet
better understood non-biological process. In the case of visual perception an obvious choice would be color
photography. Since in many respects eyes resemble cameras, and percepts photographs, is it not reasonable
to assume that perception is a sort of photographic process whereby samples of the external world become
spontaneously and accurately reproduced somewhere inside our heads? Unfortunately, the answer must be
no. The best that can be said of the photographic analogy is that it points up what perception is not. Beyond
this it is superficial and misleading. Four simple experiments should make the matter plain.
In the first a person is asked to match a pair of black and white discs, which are rotating at such a
speed as to make them appear uniformly grey. One disc is standing in shadow, the other in bright
illumination. By adjusting the ratio of black to white in one of the discs the subject tries to make it look the
same as the other. The results show him to be remarkably accurate, for it seems he has made the proportion
of black to white in the brightly illuminated disc almost identical with that in the disc which stood in
shadow. But there is nothing photographic about his perception, for when the matched discs, still spinning,
are photographed, the resulting print shows them to be quite dissimilar in appearance. The disc in shadow
is obviously very much darker than the other one. What has happened? Both the camera and the person
were accurate, but their criteria differed. One might say that the camera recorded things as they look, and
the person things as they are. But the situation is manifestly more complex than this, for the person also
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recorded things as they look. He did better than the camera because he made them look as they really are.
He was not misled by the differences in illumination. He showed perceptual constancy. By reason of an
extremely rapid, wholly unconscious piece of computation he received a more accurate record of the
external world than could the camera.
In the second experiment a person is asked to match with a color card the colors of two pictures in
dim illumination. One is of a leaf, the other of a donkey. Both are colored an equal shade of green. In making
his match he chooses a much stronger green for the leaf than for the donkey. The leaf evidently looks greener
than the donkey. The percipient makes a perceptual world compatible with his own experience. It hardly
needs saying that cameras lack this versatility.
In the third experiment hungry, thirsty and satiated people are asked to equalize the brightness of
pictures depicting food, water and other objects unrelated to hunger or thirst. When the intensities at which
they set the pictures are measured it is found that hungry people see pictures relating to food as brighter
than the rest (i.e. to equalize the pictures they make the food ones less intense), and thirsty people do
likewise with “drink” pictures. For the satiated group no differences are obtained between the different
objects. In other words, perception serves to satisfy needs, not to enrich subjective experience. Unlike a
photograph the percept is determined by more than just the stimulus.
The fourth experiment is of a rather different kind. With ears plugged, their eyes beneath translucent
goggles and their bodies either encased in cotton wool, or floating naked in water at body temperature,
people are deprived for considerable periods of external stimulation. Contrary to what one might expect,
however, such circumstances result not in a lack of perceptual experience but rather a surprising change in
what is perceived. The subjects in such an experiment begin to see, feel and hear things which bear no more
relationship to the immediate external world than does a dream in someone who is asleep. These people are
not asleep yet their hallucinations, or so-called “autistic” perceptions, may be as vivid, if not more so, than
any normal percept.
76. In the first paragraph, the author suggests that __________.
A. color photography is a biological process. B. vision is rather like color photography.
C. vision is a sort of photographic process. D. vision and color photography are very different.
77. What does the word “it”, underlined in the first paragraph, refer to?
A. perception B. the photographic process
C. the comparison with photography D. the answer
78. In the first experiment, it is proved that a person __________.
A. makes mistakes of perception and is less accurate than a camera.
B. can see more clearly than a camera.
C. is more sensitive to changes in light than a camera.
D. sees colors as they are in spite of changes in the light.
79. What does the word “that”, underlined in the second paragraph, refer to?
A. the proportion of black to white B. the brightly illuminated disc
C. the other disc D. the grey color
80. The second experiment shows that __________.
A. people see colors according to their ideas of how things should look.
B. colors look different in a dim light.
C. cameras work less efficiently in a dim light.
D. colors are less intense in larger objects.
81. What does the word “satiated”, underlined in the fourth paragraph, means?
A. tired B. bored C. not hungry or thirsty D. nervous
82. What does “to equalize the brightness", underlined in the fourth paragraph, mean?
A. to arrange the pictures so that the equally bright ones are together
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B. to change the lighting so that the pictures look equally bright
C. to describe the brightness
D. to move the pictures nearer or further away
83. The third experiment proves that __________.
A. we see things differently according to our interest in them.
B. pictures of food and drink are especially interesting to everybody.
C. cameras are not good at equalizing brightness.
D. satiated people see less clearly than hungry or thirsty people.
84. The expression “contrary to what one might expect” occurs the fifth paragraph. What might one
expect?
A. that the subjects would go to sleep.
B. that they would feel uncomfortable and disturbed.
C. that they would see, hear and feel nothing.
D. that they would see, hear and feel strange things.
85. The fourth experiment proves __________.
A. that people deprived of sense stimulation go mad.
B. that people deprived of sense stimulation dream.
C. that people deprived of sense stimulation experience unreal things.
D. that people deprived of sense stimulation lack perceptual experience.
Exercise 4. Read the text and do the tasks below.
WHAT IS PERSONALITY?
A. We are all familiar with the idea that different people have different personalities, but what does this
actually mean? It implies that different people behave in different ways, but it must be more than that. After
all, different people find themselves in different circumstances, and much of their behavior follows from
this fact. However, our common experience reveals that different people respond in quite remarkably
different ways even when faced with roughly the same circumstances. Alan might be happy to live alone in
a quiet and orderly cottage, go out once a week, and stay in the same job for thirty years, whilst Beth likes
nothing better than exotic travel and being surrounded by vivacious friends and loud music.
B. In cases like these, we feel that it cannot be just the situation which is producing the differences in
behavior. Something about the way the person is ‘wired up’ seems to be at work, determining how they
react to situations, and, more than that, the kind of situations they get themselves into in the first place. This
is why personality seems to become stronger as we get older; when we are young, our situation reflects
external factors such as the social and family environment we were born into. As we grow older, we are
more and more affected by the consequences of our own choices (doing jobs that we were drawn to,
surrounded by people like us whom we have sought out). Thus, personality differences that might have been
very slight at birth become dramatic in later adulthood.
C. Personality, then, seems to be the set of enduring and stable dispositions that characterize a person. These
dispositions come partly from the expression of inherent features of the nervous system, and partly from
learning. Researchers sometimes distinguish between temperament, which refers exclusively to
characteristics that are inborn or directly caused by biological factors, and personality, which also includes
social and cultural learning. Nervousness, for example, might be a factor of temperament, but religious piety
is an aspect of personality.
D. The discovery that temperamental differences are real is one of the major findings of contemporary
psychology. It could easily have been the case that there were no intrinsic differences between people in
temperament, so that given the same learning history, the same dilemmas, they would all respond in much
the same way. Yet we now know that this is not the case.
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E. Personality measures turn out to be good predictors of your health, how happy you typically are - even
your taste in paintings. Personality is a much better predictor of these things than social class or age. The
origin of these differences is in part innate. That is to say, when people are adopted at birth and brought up
by new families, their personalities are more similar to those of their blood relatives than to the ones they
grew up with.
F. Personality differences tend to manifest themselves through the quick, gut-feeling, intuitive and
emotional systems of the human mind. The slower, rational, deliberate systems show less variation in output
from person to person. Deliberate rational strategies can be used to over-ride intuitive patterns of response,
and this is how people wishing to change their personalities or feelings have to go about it. As human
beings, we have the unique ability to look in at our personality from the outside and decide what we want
to do with it.
G. So what are the major ways personalities can differ? The dominant approach is to think of the space of
possible personalities as being defined by a number of dimensions. Each person can be given a location in
the space by their scores on all the different dimensions. Virtually all theories agree on two of the main
dimensions, neuroticism (or negative emotionality) and extroversion (or positive emotionality). However,
they differ on how many additional ones they recognize. Among the most influential proposals are openness,
conscientiousness and agreeableness. In the next section I shall examine these five dimensions.
Questions 86- 92: There are seven paragraphs marked A-G in the passage. Choose the correct heading
for each paragraph from the list below. Write your answers in the corresponding numbered box provided.
List of Headings
i
A degree of control
ii
Where research has been carried out into the effects of family on personality
iii
Categorizing personality features according to their origin
iv
A variety of reactions in similar situations
v
A link between personality and aspects of our lives that aren’t chosen
vi
A possible theory that cannot be true
vii
Measuring personality
viii
Potentially harmful effects of emotions
ix
How our lives can reinforce our personalities
x
Differences between men’s and women’s personalities
86. Paragraph A 87. Paragraph B 88. Paragraph C 89. Paragraph D
90. Paragraph E 91. Paragraph F 92. Paragraph G
Questions 93-95: Do the following statements reflect the claims of the writer? Write your answers in the
corresponding numbered box provided.
Write
YES if the statement reflects the claims of the writer
NO if the statement reflects the claims of the writer
NOT GIVEN if it is impossible to say what the writer thinks about this
93. Alan and Berth illustrate contrasting behavior in similar situations.
94. As we grow older, we become more able to analyze our personalities.
95. Nervousness is an example of a learned characteristic.
Exercise 5. The passage below consists of six paragraphs marked A, B, C, D, E and F. For questions 96-
105, read the passage and do the task that follows. Write your answers in the corresponding numbered
boxes provided.
Critics give their personal opinions of films they have seen recently
A. Blues Brothers 2000
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Eighteen years after the original Blues Brothers movie, director John Landis and his co-writer Dan
Ackroyd have decided to revive the franchise. Unfortunately, the thrill has gone, although the music is as
brash and energetic as ever and Elwood’s stunt driving continues to astound.
Sequences such as the huge, ghostly skeletons of cowboys galloping across the night during the
Blues Brothers’ spirited rendition of ‘Riders in the Sky (A Cowboy Legend)’ look stunning in themselves,
but have no bearing on the story.
Blues fans will doubtless relish the wealth of musical talent on display (it’s a far richer array than the first
film’s). Over time Blues Brothers 2000 will probably attain the same massive cult status as its predecessor,
but only the most indulgent of audiences is likely to be happy with this sequel.
B. Journey to the Beginning of the World
This is not Manoel de Oliveira’s final film – the tireless 90-year-old director has since made a follow-
up. However, it was the last appearance of Marcello Mastroianni, playing a film director called Manoel, to
all appearances a representation of Oliveira himself.
Oliveira is arguably the most marginal of Europe’s major directors, especially for British audiences - his
only previous release here (and then only just) was 1993’s Abraham Valley.
However, on the festival circuit Oliveira is revered, as much for his longevity as for his varied and
highly eccentric output. The film’s opening section offers us something dauntingly simple, shot with
audacious economy – a series of close-ups of people talking in the back of a car. It promises a sort of film
symposium in the guise of a road movie: after all, on most road trips, there’s little to do but talk and watch
the scenery. At times, Oliveira simply has his camera gaze out of the car’s rear window as the road recedes.
C. City of Angels
Although it is not without flaws, City of Angels stands out from the dreary succession of recent
Hollywood remakes of European movies. This is partly due to Dana Stevens’ screenplay and Brad
Silberling’s direction, which grab hold of the theme of director Wim Wenders’ 1987 film Wings of Desire
and head off very much in their own direction with it. Most of all, however, City of Angels pleases because
it is quite simply so surprising for a mainstream Hollywood movie. Designer Shay Cunliffe hits the tone
precisely, with the angels in baggy suits and long black duster coats, which are especially effective when
they gather in some of their preferred meeting places - the beach at dawn and dusk, in the city library during
the day - invisible to all but each other (and us).
There is nothing in Silberling’s previous career - which comprises directing episodes of LA Law and
NYPD Blue for television, followed by the kids’ film Casper - to prepare one for the confidence with which
he handles a film in which tone is all. City of Angels is the sort of one-off we should surely welcome.
D. Dad Savage
Strikingly shot in the bleak flatlands of Norfolk, Dad Savage is a British thriller that manages to
conjure up a whole new cinematic landscape, and populates it without falling back on the stereotypes of
bent policeman and East End gangsters. Making her feature debut, television director Betsan Morris Evans
shows that she can put the wide Super 35 frame to impressive use as well. In the claustrophobic scenes in
the cellar (to which the film keeps returning in between flashbacks), she charts the characters’ changing
allegiances through the way she arranges them across the screen. Above ground, meanwhile, the wide screen
captures the yawning emptiness of the East Anglian marshes, and hints at the corresponding emptiness of
the backwater life Vic, Bob and H are trying to escape from by turning to crime.
If anything, the structure is a bit too intricate: the transitions in and out of flashback are jolting, and it’s not
always clear whose point of view we’re flashing back from.
E. Mojo
Adapted from Jez Butterworth’s acclaimed stage play, Mojo occupies the same strange netherworld
as last year’s little-seen The SlabBoys, directed by John Byrne. Both were directed by their original writers;
and both were brought to the big screen through television funding, which underlines their ultimate
THE PRACTICE BOOKLET FOR ENGLISH-MAJOR (VER A)
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smallscreen destiny. Where Mojo has the edge on Slab Boys, however, is in the sheer quality of its
performances, which consistently hold the audience’s attention even as the narrative shambles distract ingly.
The fact that Mojo’s chances of making much impact among cinema-goers are remote shouldn’t
dampen Butterworth’s obvious enthusiasm. On this evidence, he has enough talent to suggest triumphs
ahead, although one wonders whether the screen or the theatre will prove more enticing for his trade.
F. The Wedding Singer
The Wedding Singer is the third collaboration between the comedian Adam Sandler and writer Tim
Herlihy, and as you might expect from the men behind Billy Madison and Happy Gilmore, it’s not a
particularly clever comedy. The 1985 setting, of no importance to the plot, is the pretext for some cheap
retro humor. But somehow, for all its simple-mindedness, this turns out to be a very winning romantic
comedy. A pleasant surprise is Sandler’s singing. Playing opposite him is Drew Barrymore, who has
managed to become a celebrity without ever having a lead role in a decent movie. As Julia in this film,
however, she does wonders with an unremarkable part.
For which of the films does the reviewer state the following?
Answers
One of the actors gets the most out of an uninspiring role.
96.
It is a follow-up to an earlier film.
97.
It is not likely to be a commercial success.
98.
The public has already had a chance to see it in a different medium.
99.
There are some impressive scenes which are of no significance to the narrative.
100.
It is more successful than other films of its kind.
101.
One of the characters in the film is likened to the director.
102.
There is no justification for setting the film in the past.
103.
The lives of the characters are mirrored in the scenery.
104.
It has an unusual setting for a film of this kind.
105.
PART D. WRITING (60 points)
Exercise 1. Read the following extract and use your own words to summarize it. Your summary should
be 140 words long.
Have you ever wondered why soldiers are always clad in green? This is to enable them to camouflage
themselves during wartime. Hiding in the jungles, their green attire blend into the surrounding trees and
shrubs, making it difficult for the enemies to spot them.
Long before man make use of camouflaging, insects have already adopted the tactic of disguise to
escape from the clutches of their predators. By having body colors close to those of the rocks and dried
leaves, they catch less attention from the predators and hence escape from being pursued. However, this
kind of disguise works only if the insects remain still in the presence of their predators.
Butterflies and moths have developed a variety of camouflage strategies since they are quite
defenseless and their predators - birds are abundant in supply. Many moth caterpillars resemble dead twigs
while the young of certain species of butterflies appear like bird droppings. Adult butterflies and moths
camouflage themselves too, in attempts to escape from their hunters - birds who are superior gliders.
Possessing wings which resemble dried leaves help certain butterflies and moths to hide among heaps of
dried leaves when predators are around.
Fortunately, not all insects choose the art of disguise to escape from their predators; otherwise, the
world would be so dull and colorless. There are insects which assimilate the bright body colors of bees and
wasps to escape from being pursued by their predators. The concept of mimicry was derived, owing to the
bees and wasps. Long ago, birds have already learnt to avoid brilliantly colored wasps and bees in fear of
their painful stings. Hence, over millions of years, many harmless insects have assimilated the bees and
wasps by imitating their bright body colors and shapes. In this way, they appear dangerous to their predators
and hence ward them off.
310
Mimics of the wasps and bees are most commonly found in the gardens. The furry, plump bee-fly
not only appears like the bumble bee in terms of body colors, even its hums sound similar too. The only
difference is that the bee-fly does not have a sting and is hence harmless. The hoverfly is another insect
which imitates the body colors of the wasps. Their bodies are striped yellow and black. The only deviations
are that hoverflies do not have stings and they have only one pair of wings each while wasps have two pairs
each. These variations are hardly noticed by the predators and hence help them to escape.
Exercise 2. The table below gives information about the problems faced by children in two primary
schools in 2005 and 2015. Summarize the information by selecting and reporting the main features, and
make comparisons where relevant. You should write about 150 words.
Exercise 3. Write an essay of 350 words on the following topic:
“Technological development leads to a lot of environmental issues. Some people think a simple
lifestyle can preserve the environment, while others argue that technology itself can solve it.” Discuss
both sides and give your opinion.
THE END
THE PRACTICE BOOKLET FOR ENGLISH-MAJOR (VER A)
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CÁC ĐỀ TỰ LUYỆN
Đề luyện tập 1 4
Đề luyện tập 2 11
Đề luyện tập 3 20
Đề luyện tập 4 26
Đề luyện tập 5 31
Đề luyện tập 6 39
Đề luyện tập 7 47
Đề luyện tập 8 53
Đề luyện tập 9 59
CONSOLIDATION TEST 1 66
Đề luyện tập 11 75
Đề luyện tập 12 91
Đề luyện tập 13 98
Đề luyện tập 14 107
FINAL TEST 113
GIVEAWAY TEST 123
CÁC ĐỀ THI THỬ, ĐỀ THI MẪU
Đề thi mẫu 1 131
Đề thi mẫu 2 140
Đề thi mẫu 3 148
Đề thi mẫu 4 155
Đề thi mẫu 5 163
Đề thi mẫu 6 168
Đề thi mẫu 7 179
Đề thi mẫu 8 188
Đề thi mẫu 9 197
Đề thi mẫu 10 207
Đề thi mẫu 11 216
Đề thi mẫu 12 224
Đề thi mẫu 13 232
Đề thi mẫu 14 242
Đề thi mẫu 15 252
Đề thi mẫu 16 261
Đề thi mẫu 17 270
Đề thi mẫu 18 279
Đề thi mẫu 19 287
Đề thi mẫu 20 298
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