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Môn: Đề thi Tuyển sinh lớp 10 chuyên Tiếng Anh
Trường: Đề thi chọn HSG Tiếng Anh từ lớp 9 đến lớp 12 cấp trường, quận/ huyện, tỉnh/ thành phố
Thông tin:
684 trang
8 tháng trước
Tác giả:
3
ENGLISH PRACTICE 1
PART ONE: PHONETICS
I. Choose the word whose underlined part is pronounced differently from that of the others )
1. A. supposedly B. markedly C. allegedly D.
determinedly
2. A. endure B. feature C. procedure D. measure
3. A. complete B. command C. common D. community
4. A. comb B. climb C. debt D.
cable
5. A. neighbour B. height C. sleigh D.
weight
II. Choose the word whose stress pattern is different from that of the others
1. A. possibility B. disappointed C. manufacture D.
instrument
2. A. environment B. mystery C. contribute D. terrific
3. A. deficiency B. psychology C. ecological D. competitor
4. A. recommend B. difficulty C. admirable D. document
5. A. encouragement B. interviewer C. acknowledge D.
miraculously
PART TWO: LEXICO-GRAMMAR
I. Choose the best option to complete each of the following sentences
1. Only after the atomic bomb ________ and development in the air travel _______, ______
science fiction really become popular.
A. had created/ had taken off/ was B. had been created/ had been taken off/ has
C. had been created/ had taken off/ did D. had been created/ / had taken off/ had
A. adapting B. adjusting C. bending D. folding
A. across B. around C. out D. over
4. _______, it is obvious that the whole thing was a waste of time and effort.
A. None of us wanted to go in the first place
B. Staff meetings are often boring and have no apparent point to them
C. Since the results were far more satisfactory than anyone had expected
5. There are ______ words in English having more than one meaning. Pay close attention to this
fact.
A. a large many B. quite many C. a great many D. quite a lot
6. This car has many features including _________.
A. stereo, safety devices, air condition, and it saves gas
B. good music, safety devices, air conditioning, and gas
C. stereo, safety devices, air conditioned, and good gas
D. stereo, safety devices, air conditioning, and low gas mileage
7. Round and round ___________.
A. the wheels of the engine went B. did the wheels of the engine go
C. went the wheels of the engine D. going the wheels of the engine
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8. The replacement of shops s
housewives with insufficient facilities for shopping.
A. leave B. have left C. has left D. to
have left
9. Your argument _______ that Britain is still a great power, but this is no longer the case.
A. outlines B. presupposes C. concerns
D. presents
10. They are happily married although, of course, they argue _______.
A. most times B. from day to day C. every now and then D. on the
occasion
11. He promised to mend the broken wheel soon without ___________ .
A. fail B. failure C. trouble D.
mistake
12. One of the first exercises in math class is ______ measure the radius of a circle.
A. to learn and B. to learn how to C. learning to D. learn to
13. We were shocked to hear the news of your ________.
A. having fired B. being fired C. having been fired D. to have been fired
A. get Tom to translate it B. have it translate
C. have Tom to translate it D. make it translate
15. _______ as taste is really a composite sense made up of both taste and smell.
A. That we refer to B. What we refer to
C. To which we refer D. What do we refer to
16. _______ have settled, one of their first concerns has been to locate an adequate water supply.
A. Wherever people B. There are people who
C. Where people D. People
17. Politicians should never lose ______ of the needs of the people they represent.
A. view B. sight C. regard D. prospect
18. _______ team sports require cooperation.
A. Of all B. They are all C. Why all are D. All
19. Studies indicate _________ collecting art today than ever before.
A. there are that more people B. more people that are
C. that there are more people D. people there are more
20. Doctors advise people who are deficient __________ vitamin C to eat more fruit and
vegetables.
A. from B. of C. in D. for
21. Dick put ____ ball in ____ net in _____ second half but ____ goal was disallowed.
A. a - a - a - a B. the - the - the - the
C. the - the - a - a D. a - a - the - the
22. There is a real possibility that these animals could be frightened _______ a sudden loud
noise.
A. being there B. should there be C. there was D. there have
been
23. The computer has dramatically affected ______ photographic lenses are constructed.
A. is the way B. that the way C. which way do D. the way
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A. fruitful B. fertile C. virile
D. prolific
25. The handwriting is completely ______ . This note must have been written a long time ago.
A. inedible B. indelible C. illegible D.
unfeasible
II. Give the correct form or tense of the verbs in brackets.
a. The children were frightened because the lights suddenly (1.go) ________ out and they (2.sit)
________ in the dark.
b. What tune (3. play) ________ when we (4. come) ________ in?
c. She was badly hurt when her car hit another car. If she (5. wear) ________ her seat belt, she
(6. not hurt) ________ so badly.
d. It is vital that no one else (7. know) _______ about the secret government operation.
e. It seems strange to be standing here, (8. look) _______ out at SydneyHarbor.
f. Tom had a lucky escape. He (9. kill) ________ when a car crashed into the front of his house.
g. _____ (10. Rank) as a masterpiece, a work of art must transcend the ideals of the period in
which it was created.
III. There are ten mistakes in the following passage. Find and correct them. (1.5 pt)
It seems that the mystery of why the Pyramids were built may have solved. Until quite
recently people got used to think that they were just tombs for pharaohs. Instead, the connection
with astronomy seems much more important. Egyptologists have often asked them how long it
spent to build them and why people built them in first place. Experts came up with a suggestion
that the Egyptians may have believed in the River Nile was the earthly equivalent of the Milky
Way. Many agree that the sizes of the three Giza Pyramids are in promotion to the three stars of
Orion. Nothing, then, was by the chance. Rather, the souls of dead pharaohs were deliberately
being project through shafts to reach at their goal of the Orion constellation.
IV. Give the correct form of the word in each of the following brackets.(1.5 pt)
It was not so long ago that we dealt with colleagues through face-to-face (1.
INTERACT) ______ and with counterparts and customers by phone or letter. But the world of
communication has undergone a dramatic transformation, not for all the good. Email, while (2.
DOUBT) _____ a swift means of communication providing your server is fully
(3.FUNCTION) ______ and that the address you have contains no (4. ACCURATE) _____ has
had a (5. SIGNIFY) _____ effect
those people, the use of email has become irresistibly (6. ADDICT) _____ to the extent that it is
(7. THREAT) _____ their mental and physical health. Addicts spend their day (8.
COMPULSION) _____ checking for email and have a (9. TEND) ______ to panic if their
server goes down. It is estimated that one in six people spend four hours a day sending and
receiving messages, the equivalent to more than two working days a week. The negative effect
on (10. PRODUCE) ________ is something employers are well aware of.
PART THREE: READING (6.0 POINTS)
I. Read the following passage and choose the option that indicates the correct answer to each
of the following questions.(2.0 pts)
In the United States in the early 1800's, individual state governments had more effect on
the economy than did the federal government. States chartered manufacturing, banking, mining,
and transportation firms and participated in the construction of various internal improvements
such as canals, turnpikes, and railroads. The states encouraged internal improvements in two
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distinct ways; first, by actually establishing state companies to build such improvements;
second, by providing part of the capital for mixed public-private companies setting out to make a
profit.
In the early nineteenth century, state governments also engaged in a surprisingly large
amount of direct regulatory activity, including extensive licensing and inspection programs.
Licensing targets reflected both similarities and differences between the economy of the
nineteenth century and that of today: in the nineteenth century, state regulation through licensing
fell especially on peddlers, innkeepers, and retail merchants of various kinds. The perishable
commodities of trade generally came understate inspection, and such important frontier staples
as lumber and gunpowder were also subject to state control. Finally, state governments
experimented with direct labor and business regulation designed to help the individual laborer or
consumer, including setting maximum limits on hours of work and restrictions on price-fixing
by businesses.
Although the states dominated economic activity during this period, the federal
government was not inactive. Its goals were the facilitation of western settlement and the
development of native industries. Toward these ends, the federal government pursued several
courses of action. It established a national bank to stabilize banking activities in the country and,
in part, to provide a supply of relatively easy money to the frontier, where it was greatly needed
for settlement. It permitted access to public western lands on increasingly easy terms,
culminating in the Homestead Act of 1862, by which title to land could be claimed on the basis
of residence alone. Finally, it set up a system of tariffs that was basically protectionist in effect,
although maneuvering for position by various regional interests produced frequent changes in
tariff rates throughout the nineteenth century.
1. What does the passage mainly discuss?
A. States's rights versus federal rights.
B. The participation of state governments in railroad, canal, and turnpike construction.
C. The roles of state and federal governments in the economy of the nineteenthcentury.
D. Regulatory activity by state governments.
2. The word “effect” in bold in paragraph 1 is closest in meaning to __________.
A. value B. argument C. influence D. restraint
3. All of the following are mentioned in the passage as areas that involved statevernments in the
nineteenth century EXCEPT _________.
A. mining B. banking C. manufacturing D. higher education
4. The word “distinct” in bold in paragraph 1 is closest in meaning to_________.
A. separate B. innovative C. alarming D.
provocative
5. It can be inferred from the first paragraph that in the nineteenth century canals and railroads
were _________.
A. built with money that came from the federal government
B. much more expensive to build than they had been previously
C. built predominantly in the western part of the country
D. sometimes built in part by state companies
6. The regulatory activities of state governments included all of the following EXCEPT_______.
A. licensing of retail merchants B. inspecting materials used in turnpike
maintenance
C. imposing limits on price-fixing D. control of lumber
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7. The word “setting” in bold in paragraph 2 is closest in meaning to _________.
A. discussing B. analyzing C. establishing D. avoiding
8. The word “ends” in bold in paragraph 3 is closest in meaning to ________.
A. benefits B. decisions C. services D.
goals
9. According to the passage, which of the following is true of the Homestead Act of 1862?
A. It made it increasingly possible for settlers to obtain land in the West.
B. It was a law first passed by state governments in the West.
C. It increased the money supply in the West.
D. It established tariffs in a number of regions.
10. Which of the following activities was the responsibility of the federal government in the
nineteenth century?
A.Control of the manufacture of gunpowder.
B. Determining the conditions under which individuals worked.
C. Regulation of the supply of money.
D. Inspection of new homes built on western lands.
II. Read the text below and fill in each blank with ONE suitable word. (2.0 pts)
The British are widely (1) _____ to be a very polite nation, and in (2)______ respects this
is true. An Italian journalist once commented of the British that they need (3) _____ fewer than
The second accompanies the handing over of the money. The third, again from the conductor, (4)
Such transactions in most (5) ____ parts of the world are usually conducted in total silence. In
sharp contrast to this excessive politeness with strangers, the British are strangely lacking (6)
(7)
______ other languages to fellow-diners before a meal, does not exist in English. The nearest
equivalent Enjoy your dinner! is said only by people who will not be partaking of the meal in
(8) ____ happiness to their friends or acquaintances only at
the start of a new year and at (9)_____ such as birthdays, (10) _____ the Greeks routinely wish
Your answers:
1._____________ 2._____________ 3._____________ 4._____________
5.____________
6._____________ 7._____________ 8._____________ 9._____________
10.____________
III. Read the passage and choose the best option for each of the following blanks. (2.0 pts)
Media and advertising
After more than fifty years of television, it might seem only obvious to conclude that it is
here to (1) ______. There have been many objections to it during this time, of course, and (2)
______ a variety of grounds. Did it cause eye-strain? Was the (3) ______ bombarding us with
radioactivity? Did the advertisements contain subliminal messages, persuading us to buy more?
Did children turn to violence through watching it, either because so (4) ______ programmes
taught them how to shoot, rob, and kill, or because they had to do something to counteract the
hours they had spent glued to the tiny screen? Or did it simply create a vast passive (5) ______
drugged by glamorous serials and inane situation (6) ______ ? On the other hand did it increase
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anxiety by sensationalizing the news [or the news which was (7) ______ by suitable pictures]
and filling our living rooms with war, famine and political unrest? (8) ______ in all, television
proved to be the all-purpose scapegoat for the second half of the century, blamed for everything,
but above all, eagerly watched. For no (9) ______ how much we despised it, feared it, were
bored by it, or felt that it took us away from the old paradise of family conversation and hobbies
such as collecting stamps, we never turned it off. We kept staring at the screen, aware that our
own tiny (10) ______ was in if we looked carefully.
1. A. be B. stay C. exist D. prolong
2. A. with B. over C. by D. on
3. A. screen B. danger C. machine D.
reason
4. A. that B. far C. many
D. what
5. A. programme B. personality C. audience D.
tense
6. A. comedies B. programmes C. perhaps D.
consequently
7. A. taken B. presented C. capable D.
accompanied
8. A. Taken B. All C. Somewhat D. Thus
9. A. one B. matter C. difference D.
reason
10. A. fault B. reflection C. situation D.
consciousness
PART FOUR: WRITING (6.0 POINTS)
I. Finish the second sentence in such a way that it means exactly the same as the sentence
printed before it. (2.0 pts)
1. If the work is finished by lunchtime, you can go home.
Get_________________________________________________________________________
___
It‟s
about_______________________________________________________________________
3. The fourth time he asked her to marry him, she accepted.
Only on his
_____________________________________________________________________
4. He said that he had won as a result of good luck.
He
attributed____________________________________________________________________
5. That reminds me of the time I climbed to the top of Mount Fuji.
That takes
me____________________________________________________________________
6. People rumour that he is rich but stingy.
What_______________________________________________________________________
____
7.
9
There
is_________________________________________________________________________
8. Just thinking about his face at that moment makes me laugh.
The
very_________________________________________________________________________
9.We cannot see animals in a vast area after the forest fire.
There is
an_______________________________________________________________________
10.
So intense
_______________________________________________________________________
II. Write a new sentence similar in meaning to the given one, using the word given in the
brackets. Do not alter the word in any way. (2.0 pts)
dawned)
____________________________________________________________________________
___
2. After the scandal, he was asked to resign. (HAND)
____________________________________________________________________________
___
3. Bruce said that the situation at work was like a family argument. (likened)
____________________________________________________________________________
___
4. My father is not feeling well these days. (weather)
____________________________________________________________________________
___
catch)
____________________________________________________________________________
___
6. His arrival was completely unexpected. (took)
____________________________________________________________________________
___
7. The success of our local theater has made our city famous. (map)
____________________________________________________________________________
___
8. He is certainly not a reliable witness. (means)
____________________________________________________________________________
___
9. Our company is the only company allowed to import these chemicals. (monopoly)
____________________________________________________________________________
___
(BALANCE)
____________________________________________________________________________
___
III. Essay writing (2.0 pts)
Some high schools require all students to wear school uniforms. Other high schools permit
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students to decide what to wear to school. Which of these two school policies do you think is
better?
In about 250 words, write an essay to expess your opinion, usingspecific reasons and examples
to support your opinion.
(You may continue your writing on the back page if you need more space.)
11
KEYS
PART ONE: PHONETICS (1.0 POINT)
I. Choose the word whose underlined part is pronounced differently fromthat of the others. (0.5
pt)
1. D 2. A 3. C 4. D 5. B
II. Choose the word whose stress pattern is different from that of the others.(0.5 pt)
1. D 2. B 3. C 4. A 5. B
PART TWO: LEXICO-GRAMMAR (7.0 POINTS)
I. Choose the best option to complete each of the following sentences.(2.5pts)
1. C 2. D 3. A 4. D 5.C 6. D 7. C
8. C 9. B 10. C 11. A 12. B 13. C 14. A
15. B 16. A 17. B 18.D 19. C 20. C 21. B
22. B 23. D 24. D 25. C
II. Give the correct form or tense of the verbs in brackets. (1.5 pt)
1. had gone 2. were sitting
3. was being played 4. came
5. had been wearing 6.
7. (should) know 8. looking
9. could have been killed 10. To be ranked
III. There are ten mistakes in the following passage. Find and correct them. (1.5 pt)
It seems that the mystery of why the Pyramids were built may (1. have solvedhave been
solved). Until quite recently people got used (2. to thinkto thinking) that they were just
tombs for pharaohs. Instead, the connection with astronomy (3.seem seems) much more
important. Egyptologists have often asked (4. them themselves) how long it (5. spent
took) to build them and why people built them in (6. first place the first place). Experts
came up with a suggestion that the Egyptians may have (7. believed in believed that) the
River Nile was the earthly equivalent of the Milky Way. Many agree that the sizes of the three
Giza Pyramids are in propotion to the three stars of Orion. Nothing, then, was (8. by the chance
by chance). Rather, the souls of dead pharaohs were deliberatedly being (9. project
projected) through shafts to (10. reach at reach) their goal of the Orion constellation.
No
Line
Mistake
Correction
1
1
have solved
have been solved
2
2
to think
to thinking
3
3
seem
seems
4
3
them
themselves
5
3
spent
took
6
4
first place
the first place
7
5
believed in
believed that
8
7
by the chance
by chance
9
7
project
projected
10
8
reach at
reach
IV. Give the correct form of the word in each of the following brackets. (1.5 pt)
1. INTERACTION 2. UNDOUBTEDLY 3. FUNCTIONAL
4. INACCURACIES 5. SIGNIFICANT 6. ADDICTIVE
7. THREATENING 8. COMPULSIVELY 9. TENDENCY
10. PRODUCTION
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PART THREE: READING (6.0 POINTS)
I. Read the following passage and choose the option that indicates the correct answer to each
of the following questions.(2.0 pts)
1. C 2. C 3. D 4. A 5. D
6. B 7. C 8. D 9. A 10. C
II. Read the text below and fill in each blank with ONE suitable word. (2.0 pts)
1. considered 2. some 3. no 4. means
5. other
6. in 7. many 8. wish 9. celebrations
10. while
III. Read the passage and choose the best option for each of the following blanks. (2.0 pts)
1.B 2.D 3.A 4.C 5.C
6.B 7.D 8.B 9.B 10.B
PART FOUR: WRITING (6 POINTS)
I. Rewrite the following sentences beginning with the given words. (2.0 pts)
1. Get the work finished by lunchtime and you can go home.
time you did your homework.
3. Only on his fourth proposal did she accept to marry him.
4. He attributed his win/ victory/ success/ achievement/ triumph to good luck.
5. That takes me back to the time I climbed to the top of Mount Fuji.
6. What people rumour is that he is rich but stingy.
7. There is no point in considering such a ridiculous proposal seriously.
8. The very thought of his face at that moment makes me laugh.
9.There is an absence of animals in a vast area after the forest fire.
10. So intense was the hatred for Frank’s new policies that the staff went on strike.
II. Write a new sentence similar in meaning to the given one, using the word given in the
brackets. Do not alter the word in any way. (2.0 pts)
1. It suddenly dawned
2. After the scandal, he was asked to hand in his resignation.
3. Bruce likened the situation at work to a family argument
4. My father is feeling (a bit) under the weather these days.
rd will ever catch on.
6. His arrival took us (completely) by surprise.
7. The success of our local theater has put our city on the map.
8. He is by no means a reliable witness.
9. Our company has got the monopoly of/on/in importing these chemicals.
balance.
III. Essay writing (2.0 pts) Marking scheme
Markers should discuss the suggested answers and the marking scale thoroughly
before marking the papers. The mark given to part III is based on the following scheme:
Mô tả tiêu chíđánh giá
Điểm tối đa
1.
Bố cục
0.40
dn phi th hic rõ ý kin ci vit
B cc hp lí, rõ ràng phù hp vi yêu cu c 3 phn: m
bài, thân bài, kt lun.
B cc uyn chuyn t m n kt lun
0.10
0.15
0.15
13
2.
Phát triển ý
0.40
Phát trin ý có trình t logic và mch lc
Có gii thích, dn chng, ví d xác th bo vý kin ci vit
0.20
0.20
3.
Sử dụng ngôn ngữ
0.40
S dng ngôn t phù hp vi ni dung ca bài vit
S dng ngôn t long v t vng và cu trúc.
S dng t ni các ý cho bài vit uyn chuyn
0.10
0.15
0.15
4.
Nội dung
0.40
thuyt phc
dn chng, ví d, lp lun
dài: S t không nhinh 10 %
0.15
0.15
0.10
5.
Ngữ pháp, dấu câu và chính tả
0.40
S du câu
Chính t: Vi
- Li chính t gây hiu nhm/ sai lch ý s b tính mt li (tr m ca
bài vit)
- Cùng mt li chính t lp li ch tính là mt li
S di, th, c pháp. (Li ng pháp gây hiu
nhm/ sai lch ý s b tr m bài vit.)
0.10
0.10
0.20
Tổng
2.00
ENGLISH PRACTICE 2
A. PHONETICS (10 points)
Question 1: Pick out the word whose underlined part is pronounced differently from those of
the other words. Write your answers in the numbered blanks provided below (5p)
01. A. random B. canal C. many D. explanatory
02. A. good B. moon C. food D. balloon
03. A. provide B. product C. production D. procedure
04. A. kite B. bite C. Christian D. Christ
05. A. voltage B. voyage C. massage D. dosage
Question 2: Choose the word whose stress pattern is differently from those of the other words.
Write your answers in the numbered blanks provided below (5p)
06. A. argumentative B. psychological C. contributory D. hypersensitive
07. A. atomic B. brilliant C. determined D. ambitious
08. A. trigonometry B. explanatory C. immediately D. democracy
09. A. photograph B. payroll C. accent D. regretful
10. A. majority B. ceremony C. astronomy D. investiture
B. GRAMMAR & VOCABULARY (60 points)
Question 3: Give the correct tense/ form of the verbs in the brackets. Write your answers in the
numbered blanks provided below (30p)
train.
14
b. I know I (14. not write) to you before, but I (15. be) so busy recently that I (16. not have) time
for writing letters. I (17. telephone) you instead, but I (18. forget) your number.
bank.
d. He is walking (20. hurry) to the place where his ex-wife, a famous naturalist now (21. lie) (22.
bury) among the animals she (23. love) so much.
e. We will see Alice at the corner, she (24. wait) for us when we (25. arrive).
f. He resents (26. be) (27. tell) what (28. do).
g. Her mother (29. go) abroad last month, so it (30. not be) her you see at the theater last
Sunday.
Question 4: The passage below contains 10 errors. IDENTIFY and CORRECT them. (0) has
been done as an example. Write your answers in the numbered blanks below (20p)
Question 5: Fill in each blank with a suitable PREPOSITION or PARTICLE. Write your
answers in the numbered blanks provided below the passage. (10p)
42. When the wound has healed_________ you can remove the plaster.
43. Without a fridge, fresh food will go_________ very quickly.
44.
July.
46. This service is free_________ charge.
47. They went ahead contrary_________ my advice.
48. The weather was fine, and everyone was making_________ the coast.
tomorrow.
50. Have a card_________ your sleeve.
C. READING (40 points)
Question 6: Read the following passage and choose the best answer. Write your answers in the
numbered blanks provided below the passage. (20p)
In addition to the great ridges and volcanic chains, the oceans conceal another form of
undersea mountains: the strange guyot, or flat-topped seamount. No marine geologist even
suspected the existence of these isolated mountains until they were discovered by geologist
Harry H. Hess in 1946. He was serving at the time as naval officer on a ship equipped with a
fathometer. Hess named these truncated peaks for the nineteenth-century Swiss-born geologist
15
Arnold Guyot, who had served on the faculty of Princeton University for thirty years. Since then,
hundreds of guyots have been discovered in every ocean but the Arctic. Like offshore canyons,
guyots present a challenge to oceanographic theory. They are believed to be extinct volcanoes.
Their flat tops indicate that they once stood above or just below the surface, where the action of
waves leveled off their peaks. Yet today, by definition, their summits are at least 600 feet below
the surface, and some are as deep as 8,200 feet. Most lie between 3,200 feet and 6,500 feet. Their
tops are not really flat but slope upward to a low pinnacle at the center. Dredging from the tops
of guyots has recovered basalt and coral rubble, and that would be expected from the eroded tops
of what were once islands. Some of this material is over 80 million years old. Geologists think
the drowning of the guyots involved two processes: The great weight of the volcanic mountains
depressed the sea floor beneath them, and the level of the sea rose a number of times, especially
when the last Ice Age ended, some 8,000 to 11.000 years ago.
51. What is the author's main purpose in writing this passage?
A. To trace the career of Arnold Guyot.
B. To describe feature of the undersea world.
C. To present the results of recent geologic research.
D. To discuss underwater ridges and volcano chains
52. The word “conceal” is closest in meaning to which of the following?
A. Contain B. Erode C. Hide D. Create
53. The passage implies that guyots were first detected by means of________.
A. a fathometer B. computer analysic
C. a deep-sea diving expedition D. research submarines
54. The author indicates that Arnold Guyot________.
A. was Harry Hess's instructor B. invented the fathometer
C. named the guyed after himself D. taught at Princeton University
55. What does the passage say about the Arctic Ocean?
A. The first guyot was discovered there.
B. No guyots have ever been found there.
C. There are more guyots there than in any other ocean.
D. It is impossible that guyots were ever formed there.
56. The author states that offshore canyons and guyots have which of the following
characteristics in common?
A. Both are found on the ocean floor near continental shelves.
B. Both present oceanographers with a mystery.
C. Both were formed by volcanic activity.
D. Both were, at one time, above the surface of the sea.
57. According to the passage, most guyots are found at a depth of________.
A. less than 600 feet. B. between 600 and 3,200 feet.
C. between 3,200 and 6,500 feet D. more than 8,200 feet
51. Which of the following is closest in meaning to the word “rubble”?
A. Fragments B. Mixture C. Columns D. Core
51. According to the passage, which of the following two processes were involved in the
submersion of guyots?
A. Erosion and volcanic activity.
B. The sinking of the sea floor and the rising of sea level.
C. Mountain building and the action of ocean currents
16
D. High tides and earthquakes
60. According to the passage, when did sea level significantly rise?
A. In 1946 B. In the nineteenth century
C. From 8,000 to 11,000 years D. 80 million years ago
Question 7: Read the following passage and choose the best answer. Write your answers in the
numbered blanks provided below the passage. (20p)
As Christmas evolved in the United States, new customs were adopted and many old
ones were reworked. The legend of Santa Claus, for example, had origins in Europe and was
brought by Dutch settlers to New York in the early 18
th
century. Traditionally, Santa Claus -
from the Dutch Sinter Klaas - was depicted as a tall, dignified, religious figure riding a white
horse through the air. Known as Saint Nicholas in Germany, he was usually accompanied by
Black Peter, an elf who punished disobedient children. In North America he eventually
developed into a fat, jolly old gentleman who had neither the religious attributes of Saint
Nicholas nor the strict disciplinarian character of Black Peter.
A Visit from Saint Nicholas, which Clement Clark Moore had written to amuse his daughter. The
poem introduced many Americans to the story of a kindly saint who flew over housetops in a
reindeer-drawn sleigh. Portraits and drawings of Santa Claus by American illustrator Thomas
Nast further strengthened the legend during the second half of the 19
th
century. Living at the
North Pole and assisted by elves, the modern Santa produced and delivered toys to all good
children. By the late 19
th
century he had become such a prominent figure of American folklore
New York Sun newspaper asking if Santa
was real, she received a direct answer: Yes, Virginia, there is a Santa Claus
61. Who brought the legend of Santa Claus to the USA according to the passage?
A. Sinter Klaas B. Saint Nicholas C. A German D. Dutch
settlers
62. Santa Claus was traditionally described as a________.
A. tall man who could walk through the air. B. fat, jolly, old man.
C. religious figure. D. fat man riding a white horse.
63. Santa Claus in North America was depicted as________.
A. a man with the strict disciplinarian character of Black Peter.
B. a good old man with less religious character.
C. one with religious attributes of Saint Nicholas.
D. a jolly man on horseback.
64. Who was Black Peter?
A. an elf accompanying Saint Nicholas. B. an elf who rode a white horse.
C. one of the disobedient children. D. a popular traditional figure.
65. What word is closest in meaning to “attributes”?
A. symbols of a person B. natural qualities C. effects D. outer appearance
66. Where did the legend of Santa Claus come from?
A. the North Pole B. Europe C. North America D. the City of New
York
67. 1823 was mentioned as a year when________.
A. Clement Clark Moore wrote his first poem
popular
17
C. Saint Nicholas visited New York
D. the image of Santa Claus was transformed
68. According to Clement Clark Moore’s poem
A. Santa Claus had nothing different in appearance from the traditional one.
B. Santa Claus had wings and could fly.
C. Santa Claus liked poetry.
D. Santa Claus was a kindly saint who flew over housetops in a sleigh.
69. The answer “Yes, Virginia, there is a Santa Claus” is an illustration for the fact
that________.
A. the New York Sun was popular with children.
B. Santa Claus was a prominent figure at that time.
C. newspapers are unreliable.
New York Sun
70. Which of the following statements is TRUE?
A. Santa Claus was an imaginary old man created by artists based on traditional figures.
B. Living in the North Pole, Santa Claus visited children at Christmas.
C. Santa Claus was a real figure living in northern America.
D. Santa Claus was a story based on Saint Nicholas and Black Peter.
D. USE OF ENGLISH (30 points)
Question 8: Choose the word that best fits each of the blanks in the following passage. Write
your answers in the numbered blanks provided below the passage. (0) has been done as an
example. (10p)
Vietnamese generally shake hands when greeting and parting. Using both hands shows
respect as does a (71)________ bow of the head. In rural areas, elderly people do not extend
their hand are greeted with a bow. Women are more (72)________ to bow the head than to
shake hands. Vietnamese names begin with the family name and are (73)________ by a given
name. For example, in the name Nguyen Van Due, Nguyen is the family name. People address
(74)________ by their given names, but add a title that indicates their perceived
(75)________ to the other person. These titles are family related rather than professional. Among
colleagues, for example, the (76)________ of the two might combine the given name with the
title of Anh ("Older Brother"). A(n) (77)________ greeting combined with the given name and
title is Xin chao ("Hello."). Classifiers for gender and familiarity are also combined with the
greeting. In formal meetings, business cards are sometimes (78)________ on greeting.
Vietnamese people have a strong (79)________ of hospitality and feel embarrassed if
they cannot show their guests full respect by preparing for their arrival. Therefore, it
(80)________ to visit someone without having been invited. Gifts are not required, but are
appreciated. Flowers, incense, or tea may be proper gifts for the hosts. Hosts also appreciate a
small gift for their children or elderly parents
71. A. light B. slight C. lightly D. lighted
72. A. possible B. capable C. probable D. likely
73. A. continued B. chased C. followed D. taken
74. A. each one B. one other C. one the other D. one another
75. A. relation B. relationship C. relation D. relatives
76. A. younger B. most young C. youngest D. young
77. A. easy B. basic C. fundamentally D. elementary
18
78. A. changed B. transferred C. reserved D. exchanged
79. A. sense B. sensation C. sensitivity D. sensible
80. A. inactive B. inaccurate C. inappropriate D. inexact
Question 9: Fill each blank with ONE suitable word. Write your answers in the numbered
blanks provided below the passage. (0) has been done as an example. (10p)
Cell Phones
Cell phones have been popular in Japan (0. since) the early 1990s, but it was
(81)________ until 1999 that their use really took off. The age of cell phones has emerged, but
with it come problems.
Cell phones are used on buses and trains, in restaurants, and in all areas of (82)________.
They cause problems when they (82)________ during meetings, concerts, weddings, or
even funerals. What's more, people speak loudly in public, and students read and text
messages during lessons. (83)________ seriously, when a cell phone is used near a person
(84)________ a pacemaker to fegulate his heartbeat, its radio waves may interfere with the
functioning of the pacemaker.
Now, something is being done to solve these (86)________. In many places, new
technology is being used to block cell phone calls. Airline (87)________ are requested to stop
using cell phones while on board. Concert halls ask their audience to switch their phones to
the (88)________ mode. However, phone users fear that if they do not (89)________ their
phones, they will lose valuable business opportunities. That's why many do not (90)________ off
their phones even when they are asked to.
Question 10: Write the correct FORM of each bracketed word. Write your answers in the
numbered spaces provided below. (10p)
91. Those (theatre) group has never lost its appeal.
92. Dolphins, (mammal) species, sometimes jump above the surface of the water.
93. The situation is so (chaos) in some countries now that it is difficult to see any solution
please), ill- met.
95. Good friends can enrich the quality of our lives (measure).
96. This famous singer had two (enter) in the Guinness Book of World Records.
97. Beauty is in the eye of the (hold).
98. Computers are now considered (dispense) in the business world.
99. Due to (electric) the difference between urban life and rural life is more and more reduced.
100. A doctor may prescribe (biotic) if the patient has an infection.
E. WRITING (30p)
Question 11: Finish each of the following sentences in such a way that it means the same as
the sentence printed before it (10p).
handbag.
The old lady was .........................................................................................
novel.
.........................................................................................
103. If you have completed your test, you can go home.
.............
104. Absolute secrecy was crucial to the success of the mission.
19
105. Something must be done to solve this problem.
t .......................................................................................... ....................
Question 12: Finish each of the following sentences in such a way that it is as similar its
possible in meaning to the original sentence. Use the word given and other words as
necessary. Do not change the form of the given word (10p).
106. The job received over a hundred applications. (APPLIED)
.......................
107. Alan prides himself on his punctuality. (TAKES)
(TURNOUT)
109. He is becoming quite famous as an interviewer. (NAME)
.........................................................
110. The whole team was in a happy mood. (SPIRITS)
Question 13: Writing an essay (40p)
It is widely believed nowadays that social knowledge and the ability to adapt in a changing
society make a school-leaver succeed in getting a job.
What do you think about the saying?
Write an essay of around 250 words to prove your points.
_____________THE END_____________
20
KEYS
A. PHONETICS (10p)
Question 1: (5p) 01. C 02. A 03. B 04. C 05. C
Question 2: (5p) 06. C 07. B 08. A 09. D 10. B
B. GRAMMAR & VOCABULARY (20p)
Question 3: (10p)
11. went 13. will miss
17. should/would have telephoned 18. have forgot(ten)
borrowed 20. hurrying 21. lies 22. buried
23. loved 24. will be waiting 25. arrive 26. being 27. told
28. to do 29. went been
Question 4: (10p)
visit address
been
39. reviously
Question 5: (5p)
41. to 42. over 43. off 44. to 45. from
46. of 47. to 48. for 49. in 50. Up
C. READING (20p)
Question 6: (10p)
51. B 52. C 53. A 54. D 55. B 56. B 57. C 58. A 59. B 60. C
Question 7: (10p)
61. D 62. C 63. B 64. A 65. A 66. B 67. D 68. D 69. B 70. A
D. USE OF ENGLISH (20p)
Question 8: (10p)
71. B 72. D 73. C 74. D 75. B 76. A 77. B 78. D 79. A 80. C
Question 9: (10p)
81. not 82. life 83. ring 84. More 85.using
86. problems 87. passengers 88. silent 89. answer 90. turn/switch
Question 10: (10p)
91. theatrical 92. mammalian 93. chaotic 94. unpleasant 95. immeasurably
96. entries 97. beholder 98. Indispensable 99. Electrification 100.
antibiotics
E. WRITING (30p)
Question 11: (10p)
101. The old lady was robbed of her hand bag.
103. Get your test completed/ finished and you can go home.
104. Without absolute secrecy this mission would not have succeeded/ been successful/ been a
success/ would have failed.
105. Urgent action is/ measures are necessary/ essential to solve this problem.
Question 12: (10p)
106. Over a hundred people applied for the job.
107. Alan takes (a) pride in his punctuality.
d a record/ high turnout.
21
109. He is making quite a name for himself as an interviewer.
110. The whole team was in good spirits.
Question 13: (20p) ESSAY WRITING
___________THE END___________
ENGLISH PRACTICE 3
I. LEXICO-GRAMMAR (7/20 points)
Part 1: Choose the word or phrase that best completes each sentence. Write your answer (A, B,
C, or D) in the numbered box.
A. on account of B. in spite of C. in the event of D. in place of
2. His poor handling of the business ________ on negligence.
A. neared B. edged C. approached D. bordered
3. Down ________ for three days.
A. the rain poured B. poured the rain
C. did the rain pour D. do the rain poor
4
A. have B. pick C. mind D. use
A. width B. depth C. length D. breadth
6. I suppose I could ________ advertising.
A. catch on B. get out of C. go in for D. work out
7. The storm ripped our tent to ________.
A. slices B. shreds C. strips D. specks
8. She travelled the world in ________ of her dreams.
A. pursuit B. finding C. chase D. trail
22
9. The agency is ________ and not run for profit.
A. charitable B. donated C. voluntary D. free
10. Mike, _______, will you switch off that television!
A. once and for all B. now and then
C. over and above D. from time to time
Your answers
1.
2.
3.
4.
5.
6.
7.
8.
9.
10.
Part 2: Write the correct FORM of each bracketed word in the numbered space provided in
the column on the right.
11. The (PLACE)_______ of natural resources is becoming inadequate
for the support of increasing population.
12. The grammar section provides coverage of all the most
(PROBLEM)_______ areas.
13. He has recorded the (NARRATE)______ for the production.
14. In this profession, women (NUMBER)______ men by two to one.
15. An (LAY)_______ showing population can be placed on top of the
map.
16. The shells are so hard and they are virtually (DESTROY)_______.
17. We should arrive two days early in order to (CLIMATE)________.
18. These changes are likely to (POOR)________ single-parent families
even further.
hospital is desperately (STAFF)______ at the moment.
20. This book will challenge your (CONCEPT)_______ about rural life.
11. ________
12. ________
13. ________
14. ________
15. ________
16. ________
17. ________
18. ________
19. ________
20. ________
Part 3: The passage below contains 10 mistakes. Underline the mistakes and correct them in
the space provided in the column on the right. (0) has been done as an example.
23
Human and primates, the family of apes, gorillas, and chimpanzees, among others,
divide many common traits.
While primates are deemed the most intelligent of animals, most researchers believed
they lack the capacity to produce language. However, a research project in the 1970s
at University of Georgia showed promise that chimpanzees have the ability to learn a
certain language, just as human children do.
The project used several chimpanzees as test subjects in which Lana, a female chimp
was the study focus.
Though the primates lack the vocal constructions to make human speech patterns, the
researchers created a language called Yerkish, using lexigram made up of symbols
that represent sounds and words. 125 symbols were placed on a keyboard, which
Lana was taught how to use the board to communicate with the researchers. She
successfully expressed her thoughts by pressing different keys in succession. In some
cases, she used up to seven at times.
0. Humans
21. ____________
22. ____________
23. ____________
24. ____________
25. ____________
26. ____________
27. ____________
28. ____________
29. ____________
30. ____________
Part 4: Supply the correct form of the VERB in brackets to complete the passage. Write your
answer in the numbered box.
I don't normally go to the cinema. Not because I don't like it but because it's just a habit I
(31.never GET)__________ into. However, on this occasion I (32. DECIDE)__________ to go
because my friends (33. constantly GO)__________ on about this film all week and eventually
wore me down. It was starring some ephemeral Hollywood actor whom I had vaguely heard of
but couldn't put a face to. We got to the cinema early to find people (34. already
WAIT)__________ outside, which suggested that my friends weren't the only ones who thought
it was worth seeing although I could still think of several other things I would rather having
been doing at that moment. In the end, the film (35. TURN)_________ out to be not half as bad
as expected, though I (36. PREFER)__________ something with a bit more action. The plot
centred on two men who were planning to carry out some immensely complicated robbery,
though what they (37. completely FAIL) ___________ to realize was that all the time their plans
(38. closely MONITOR) ____________ by the police. Somewhat unpredictably, however, they
got away with it because they (39. CHANGE) _____________ their plans at the last minute. It
was okay but I (40.not THINK)________ of going again.
Your answers
31.
36.
32.
37.
33.
38.
24
34.
39.
35.
40.
Part 5: Fill each gap in the following sentences with one of the prepositions or particles in the
box. Use each word only ONCE and write your answer in the numbered box. (Please note that
the given words outnumber the gaps.)
by
through
with
for
in
out
up
into
off
across
down
beyond
41. He likes to show _________ how well he speaks French.
42. They were sad because the plan fell _________ at the last minutes.
43. Ben is a true adventurer. He has climbed this country's highest mountain, canoed _________
the continent, and hiked through the Amazon jungle.
44. She wrote the book _________ collaboration with one of her students.
45. You'd better write _________ the appointment in your agenda, or you'll probably forget.
46. Mary has always looked _________ to her uncle, who is a very successful actor.
47. I do feel ________ you, honestly!
48. As I had put on weight, my dress was too tight so I had to let it ________ especially around
the waist.
49. I'm sorry but Dr. Ho sees patients _________ appointments only.
50. He spoke _________ such assurance that we couldn't but believe him.
Your answers
41.
46.
42.
47.
43.
48.
44.
49.
45.
50.
II. READING (6/ 20 points)
Part 1: Read the following passage and decide which answer (A, B, C, or D) best fits each gap.
Write your answer in the numbered box. (0) has been done as an example.
25
When faced (0)________ some new and possible bewildering technology change, most
people (51)________ in one of two ways. They either recoil (52)________ anything new,
claiming that it is unnecessary, or too complicated or that it (53)________ makes life less than
human. Or they learn to adapt to the new invention and (54)________ wonder how they could
possibly have existed (55)________ it. Take computers as example. For many of us, they still
(56)________ a threat to our freedom and give us a frightening (57)________ of a future in
which all decisions will be (58)________ by machines. This may be because they seem
(59)________, and difficult to understand. Ask most people what you can use a home computer
those of us who are (60)________ with computer and use them in our daily work, have little idea
of how they work. But it does not take long to learn how to operate a business programme, even
if things occasionally go wrong for no apparent (61)________. Presumably, much the same
happened when telephone and television became widespread. What seems to alarm most people
is the (62)________ of technology change, (63)________ than change itself. And the objections
that are made to new technology may (64)________ have a point to them, since change is not
always an improvement. As we discover during power cuts, there is a lot to be said for the oil
lamp, the coal fire, and forms of entertainment, such as books or board (65)________, which
0. A. with B. to C. for D. on
51. A. react B. treat C. solve D. perform
52. A. of B. out of C. away from D. from
53. A. somewhere B. someplace C. someway D. somewhat
54. A. eventually B. possibly C. initially D. naturally
55. A. with B. without C. on D. for
56. A. show B. meet C. face D. represent
57. A. possibility B. sense C. idea D. prospect
58. A. invented B. changed C. taken D. done
59. A. unsteady B. unsure C. mysterious D. obvious
60. A. accustomed B. familiar C. used D. commonplace
61. A. reason B. cue C. excuse D. cause
62. A. rate B. swiftness C. speed D. tempo
63. A. more B. less C. rather D. other
64. A. badly B. better C. worse D. well
65. A. sports B. games C. plays D. shows
Your answers
26
0. A
51.
52.
53.
54.
55.
56.
57.
58.
59.
60.
61.
62.
63.
64.
65.
Part 2: Read the following passage and answer the questions from 66 to 75 that follow.
THE HISTORY OF THE GUITAR
The word 'guitar' was brought into English as an adaptation of the Spanish word
further back into linguistic history, it seems to have been a combination of the Indo-European
stem 'guit--ord or string. The root '-tar' is actually
musical instrument. Although the spelling and pronunciation differ between languages, these key
elements have been present in most words for 'guitar' throughout history.
While the guitar may have gained most of its popularity as a musical instrument during
the modern era, guitar-like instruments have been in existence in numerous cultures throughout
the world for more than 5.000 years. The earliest instruments that the modern eye and ear would
recognise as a 'normal' acoustic guitar date from about 500 years ago. Prior to this time, stringed
instruments were in use throughout the world, but these early instruments are known primarily
from visual depictions, not from the continued existence of music written for them. The majority
of these depictions show simple stringed instruments, often lacking some of the parts that define
a modern guitar. A number of these instruments have more in common with the lute than the
guitar.
There is some uncertainty about the exact date of the earliest six-string guitar. The oldest
one still in existence, which was made by Gaetano Vinaccia, is dated 1779. However, the
authenticity of six-string guitars alleged to have been made prior to 1790 is often suspect, as
many fakes have been discovered dating to this era. The early nineteenth century is generally
accepted as the time period during which six-string guitars began taking on their modern shape
and dimensions. Thus for nearly two hundred years, luthiers, or guitar makers, have been
producing versions of the modern acoustic guitar.
The first electric guitar was not developed until the early twentieth century. George
Beauchamp received the first patent for an electric guitar in 1936, and Beauchamp went on to co-
found Rickenbacker, originally known as the Electro String Instrument Company. Although
27
Rickenbacker began producing electric guitars in the late 1930s, this brand received most of its
fame in the 1960s, when John Lennon used a Rickenbacker guitar for the Beatles' debut
performance on the Ed Sullivan show in 1964. George Harrison later bought a Rickenbacker
guitar of his own, and the company later gave him one of their earliest 12-string electric guitars.
Paul McCartney also used a Rickenbacker bass guitar for recording. The Beatles continued to
use Rickenbacker guitars throughout their career, and made the instruments highly popular
among other musicians of the era.
The Fender Musical Instruments Company and the Gibson Guitar Corporation were two
other early electric guitar pioneers, both developing models in the early 1950s. Fender began
with the Telecaster in 1950 and 1951, and the Fender Stratocaster debuted in 1954. Gibson began
selling the Gibson Les Paul, based partially on assistance from jazz musician and guitar
innovator Les Paul, in 1952. The majority of present day solid-body electric guitars are still
based largely on these three early electric guitar designs.
Throughout the history of the guitar, an enormous number of individuals have made their
mark on the way in which the instrument was built, played and perceived. Though some of these
individuals are particularly well known, like the Beatles or Les Paul, the majority of these people
are virtually invisible to most modern guitar fans. By looking at the entire history of the guitar,
rather than just recent developments, largely confined to electric guitars, it is possible to see
more of the contributions of earlier generations.
Questions 66-70
Complete the sentences. Choose NO MORE THAN THREE WORDS from the passage for
each answer. Write your answer in the numbered box.
66. Despite differences in _________, 'guit-' and '-tar' appear in the word for 'guitar' in many
languages.
67. Instruments that we would call acoustic guitars have been made and played for
approximately
_________.
68. The ________ of acoustic guitars have not changed much in 200 years.
28
69. Les Paul, the well-known ________ guitarist, was involved in the development of the
electric guitar.
70. Most ________ of the guitar know little about its rich history.
Your answers
66.
67.
68.
69.
70.
Questions 71-75
Complete the summary. Choose NO MORE THAN TWO WORDS from the passage for each
answer. Write your answer in the numbered box.
Instruments similar to the guitar have been played by musicians for over (71) ________ years.
What we know about many of these instruments comes from (72) ________ rather than actual
physical examples or music played on them. In some ways, these early stringed instruments were
closer to (73) ________ than the guitar as we know it today. We do have examples of six-string
guitars that are 200 years old. However, the (74) ________ of six-string guitars made by guitar
makers who are also known as luthiers before the final decade of the eighteenth century is often
open to question.
Although the electric guitar was invented in the 1930s, it took several decades for electric guitars
to develop, with the company Rickenbacker playing a major part in this development. Most (75)
________ electric guitars in use today are similar in design to guitars produced by the Fender
Musical Instruments Company and the Gibson Guitar Corporation in the 1950s.
Your answers
71.
72.
73.
74.
75.
Part 3: Some parts of the following passages have been removed. Read the passage and then
choose from the list A-J given below the best phrase to fill each of the spaces. Some of the
suggested answers do not fit at all. Write your answer in the numbered box. (0) has been done
as an example.
29
PEDAL POWER
taxi, (0)____________: pedal-powered rickshaws are becoming increasingly popular in the
capital. In fact, it is estimated that 350 of them now cruise the streets, though there is no official
licensing procedure for these diminutive vehicles, so precise numbers are not available. And this
are not subject to the same regulations as other vehicles, (76) ____________. Consequently, the
areas around popular tourist sights are sometimes packed with stationary pedicabs, as the
rickshaws are also known. And (77) ____________ as no specific law is being broken.
On the other hand, (78) ____________, which naturally get stuck in traffic jams like
other motor vehicle. And unlike traditional London cabs, pedal-powered rickshaws cause no
pollution whatsoever. Many tourists like them because they are an amusing, unusual way to get
around. But are they potentially dangerous? Well, (79) ____________. Some taxi drivers claim
the three-wheeled vehicles are inherently unstable and may tip over if the driver takes a corner
too quickly. Rickshaw drivers insist that they drive almost exclusively in the narrow streets of
the city centre, where (80) ____________. There has as yet been no serious accident involving a
pedicab, but the government is considering some form of regulation just to be on the safe side.
A. it could hardly be any different in this context
B. it is difficult for traffic police to do anything about them
C. it never seems to cause too much inconvenience
D. it very much depends who you talk to
E. it annoys pedestrians as much as motorists
F. it is clear that there is a need for an alternative to taxis
G. it is impossible to gain enough speed for this to be a problem
H. it is not clear whether they are subject to parking restrictions
I. it is tempting to try an alternative
Your answers
0. I
76.
77.
78.
79.
80.
Part 4: Fill each blank with ONE suitable word. Write your answer in the numbered box
provided below the passage. (0) has been done as an example.
30
Although the (0)________ in the global temperature by 4 per cent predicted by many
scientists may not sound like much, it is the difference between (81)________ and the last Ice
Age, when huge glaciers (82)________ Europe and most of Britain. Nobody knows exactly what
would happen in a warmer world, (83)________ we do know some things. Heat a kettle and the
water inside it expands. The temperature of the world has climbed more than half a degree this
century, and the oceans have risen by at (84)________ 10 cm.
But just as it takes several minutes for a kettle to begin (85)________, so it may have
taken the oceans thirty years to swell. This means that the global warming we are now
(86)________ is a result only of the carbon dioxide we have dumped into the atmosphere up to
(87)________ 1960s. Since then, the use of fossil (88)________ has increased rapidly. Scientists
working for the United Nations and European governments have (89)________ warning that
what the Dutch and the people of the East Anglia will need to do will be to build more extensive
__, because they are located at
sea level. Miami, (91)________ entirely built on a sandbank, could be swept away. But the
effects of (92)________ sea levels will be much worse for the developing countries. With a
metre rise in sea levels, 200 million people could become (93)________.
There are other fears too, (94)________ to a recent United Nations report. The plight of
the hungry in the northern Africa could (95)________, as rainfall in the Sahara and beyond is
reduced by 20 per cent.
Your answers
0. rise
81.
82.
83.
84.
85.
86.
87.
88.
89.
90.
91.
92.
93.
94.
95.
III. WRITING (7/ 20 points)
Part 1:
Finish each of the following sentences in such a way that it means the same as the sentence
printed before it.
96. Half the afternoon was spent on clay-modelling.
31
Clay-
97. I heard her use those words many times.
98. It was more an argument than a discussion.
It was not so ..................................................................................................................
99. They only reimbursed us because we took legal advice.
We wouldn't .................................................................................................................
100. Your silly question distracted me.
You drove .................................................................................................................
Part 2:
Use the word given in brackets and make any necessary additions to write a new sentence in
such a way that it is as similar as possible in meaning to the original sentence. Do NOT
change the form of the given word.
101. From the educational point of view his childhood years had been well spent (TERMS)
102. He's very good at tennis and he's also a very good footballer. (ADDITION)
103. Why does everything seem to be difficult to me? (ONLY)
104. If you work without a break, you are more likely to make an error. (PRONE)
Part 3:
The chart below shows the results of a survey on various home activities among young
people aged 11 to 16 in four countries. Write a report describing the information in the chart.
Home activities among young people
32
0
10
20
30
40
50
60
England Scotland Ireland Wales
Computer Games
Reading
Board Games
Watching TV
%
............................................................................................................................................................
............................................................................................................................................................
............................................................................................................................................................
............................................................................................................................................................
............................................................................................................................................................
............................................................................................................................................................
............................................................................................................................................................
............................................................................................................................................................
............................................................................................................................................................
............................................................................................................................................................
......................................................................................................................................................
Part 4:
A large number of people think that nowadays women should not work hard to earn their
living; they should spend more time in caring for their families.
To what extend do you agree or disagree with this opinion?
Write about 300 words to support your position (and do not include your personal information).
............................................................................................................................................................
............................................................................................................................................................
33
............................................................................................................................................................
............................................................................................................................................................
............................................................................................................................................................
............................................................................................................................................................
............................................................................................................................................................
............................................................................................................................................................
............................................................................................................................................................
............................................................................................................................................................
............................................................................................................................................................
............................................................................................................................................................
............................................................................................................................................................
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............................................................................................................................................................
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..........................................
THE END
KEYS – PRACTICE 3
I. LEXICO- GRAMMAR (7/20 points)
Part 1: (1/ 20pts) (0.1 point for each correct answer)
34
1. C
2. D
3. B
4. B
5. D
6. C
7. B
8. A
9. C
10. A
Part 2: (1/ 20pts) (0.1 point for each correct answer)
11. replacement
12. problematic
13. narration
14. outnumber
15. overlay
16. indestructible
17. acclimatize
18. impoverish
19. short-
staffed
20.
preconceptions
Part 3: (2/20pts) (0.2 point for each correct answer)
21. divide =>
share
22. believed =>
have believed
23. University
=> the
University
24. just as
=> just like
25. in which =>
among which
26. study focus =>
27. Though =>
Since
28. up of => of
29. which
=> and
30. at times =>
at a time
Part 4: (2/ 20pts) (0.2 point for each correct answer)
31. have
never got
32. decided
33. had been constantly going/
had constantly gone
34. were
already waiting
35. turned
36. would
have
preferred
37.
completely
failed
38. were being closely
monitored/ were closely
monitored
39. changed
40. am not
thinking
Part 5: (1/ 20pts) (0.1 point for each correct answer)
41.
off
42.
through
43.
across
44. in
45.
down
46. up
47. for
48. out
49.
by
50.
with
II. READING: (6/ 20 points)
Part 1: (1.5/ 20pts) (0.1 point for each correct answer)
51.
A
52.
D
53.
C
54.
A
55.
B
56.
D
57. B
58. C
59. C
60. B
61.
A
62. C
63. C
64.
D
65.
B
Part 2: (2/ 20pts) (0.2 point for each correct answer)
66. spelling and
pronunciation
67. five hundred
years
68. shape and
dimensions
69. jazz
70. Fans
71. five
thousand
72. visual depictions
73. the lute
74. authenticity
75. solid-body
Part 3: (1/ 20pts) (0.2 point for each correct answer)
76. H
77. B
78. G
79. D
80. F
35
Part 4: (1.5/ 20pts) (0.1 point for each correct answer)
81. now
82. covered
83. but
84. least
85. warming
86. experiencing
87. the
88. fuels
89. been
90. risk
91. almost
92. rising
93. homeless
94. according
95. worsen
III. WRITING: (7/ 20 points)
Part 1: (0.75/20pts) (0.15 point for each correct answer)
Suggested answers
96. Clay-modelling was timetabled for/took up/ half the afternoon.
the time (that) I heard her use those words.
98. It was not so much a discussion as argument.
99. We wouldn't have been reimbursed if we
100. You drove me to distraction with your silly question.
Part 2: (0.75/20pts) (0.15 point for each correct answer)
Suggested answers
101. In terms of education, his childhood years had been well spent.
footballer/ tennis player in addition to being a very good tennis player/
footballer.
104. Working without a break makes you more prone to error.
Part 3: (2.5/20pts)
Part 4: (3/20pts)
Notes:
The mark given to parts 3 and 4 is based on the following scheme:
1. Content: (40% of total mark) a provision of all main ideas and details as appropriate
36
2. Organization & Presentation: (30% of total mark) ideas are organized and presented with
coherence, style, and clarity appropriate to the level of English language gifted upper-
secondary school students.
3. Language: (30% of total mark) a variety of vocabulary and structures appropriate to the
level of English language gifted upper-secondary school students
Markers, please, should discuss the suggested answers and the marking scale thoroughly
before marking the papers.
Thank you for your cooperation.
PRACTICE TEST NO. 4
I. PRONUNCIATION
Part 1: Questions 1-10 Write the word whose stress pattern is different from the other three in
each of the following questions
1. A. disappearance B. Sympathetic C. capacity D. conversation
2. A. argument B. achievement C. Involvement D.
confinement
3. A. completion B. behaviour C. material D.
understand
4. A. opinion B. comfortable C. powerful D.
accurate
5. A. penalty B. habitat C. decision D.
Countryman
6. A. Atmosphere B. emission C. disposal D.
volcanic
7. A. economic B. considerate C. territorial D.
continental
8. A. commit B. recipe C. index D.
preview
9. A. economic B. considerate C. territorial D.
continental
10. A. commit B. recipe C. index D.
preview
Part 2: Questions 11-20 Write the word whose underlined part is pronounced differently from
the other three in each of the following questions
1. A. rained B. followed C. arrived D.
jumped
2. A. leather B. tea C. lead D. leave
3. A. autumn B. summer C. sunny D. much
4. A. considered B. stayed C. picked D.
received
37
5. A. prohibit B. co-exist C. frozen D. notify
6. A. rational B. devastate C. parade D.
danger
7. A. Valentine B. determine C. examine D.
heroine
8. A. muddy B. punctual C. studious D.
culture
9. A. element B. election C. event D.
eliminate
10. A. dreams B. thinks C. hours D.
gardens
II. LEXICO-GRAMMAR
Exercise 1. Complete each of the following sentences with the correct answer (A, B, C or D).
Identify your answer by writing the corresponding letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet.
1.
A. though B. although C. as though D. even
though
2. I kept out of the conversation because it _________ me.
3. The entire city was _________ electricity last night it was chaotic.
A. no B. almost no C. hardly any D. without
4. Henry was overweight, so he went on a strict diet and _________ twenty kilos.
A. missed B. lost C. failed D. fell
5. He was arrested because he answered to the description of the _________ man.
A. searched B. pursued C. wanted D. hunted
6. Humanity has done great damage to the environment in its search for _________ materials.
A. live B. raw C. crude D. rude
7. _________, the balcony chairs will be ruined in this weather.
A. Leaving uncovered B. Having left uncovered
C. Left uncovered D. Been left uncovered
8. One way to let off _________ after a stressful day is to take some vigorous exercise.
A. cloud B. tension C. steam D. sweat
9. Their research into the causes of cancer promises to break the new _________ in the field
and possibly lead to a cure.
A. earth B. ground C. soil D. land
10. After three days in the desert, his mind began to play _________ on him.
38
A. games B. jokes C. tricks D. fun
11. The match will be screened on ITV with _________ commentary by Any Gray.
A. lively B. live C. alive D. living
12.
yesterday.
A. could have told B. told C. have told D. had told
13. As the drug took _________, the patient became quieter.
A. effect B. force C. influence D. action
14. The dawn redwood appears ____ some 100 million years ago in northern forests around the
world.
A. was flourished B. having to flourish
C. to have flourished D. have flourished
15. His comments _________ little or no relation to the facts and the figures of the case.
A. reflect B. bear C. give D. possess
16. All _____ is a continuous supply of the basic necessities of life.
A. what is needed B. for our needs C. the thing needed D. that is
needed
17. It is urgent that this letter _____ immediately.
A. was posted B. posted C. be posted D. be post
18.
g
19. It is only recently that ballets have been based on the themes _____ American life.
A. reflecting B. reflects C. is reflecting D. reflected
20.
A. a head B. a mind C. the heart D. the nerve
Exercise 2. Supply the correct form of the word in capital letters. Write your answers on your
answer sheet.
SKIING HOLIDAYS IN COLORADO
To ski or snowboard in Colorado is to experience the pinnacle of winter sports. The state
of Colorado is known for its spectacular scenery and (1. BREATH) _______ views, which
39
inspire today's travelers as much as they spurred on the (2. SETTLE) _______ who first arrived
in this part of the US over a century ago. And whether you're seeking the outdoor
adventure of a (3. LIFE) _______ exciting nightlife or a great family getaway, Colorado has
everything you need.
November through April, snow conditions are (4. CONSIST) _______ and reliable,
featuring Colorado's (5. LEGEND) _______ snow
making and grooming operations always keeps trails in top shape.
The mountain destinations in the Colorado Rockies can turn your wildest ski dreams
into thrilling (6. REAL) _______. There, you'll find the best skiing and
snowboarding resorts on (7. PICTURE) _______ slopes, as well as the finest ski schools
in the US. Together, they present an (8. PARALLEL) _______ winter paradise. And the
best part is that you'll enjoy friendly, (9. CARE) _______ service in resorts that are (10.
COMMIT) _______ to delivering the highest quality amenities.
Exercise 3. Complete the following sentences with one appropriate preposition/ particle for
each blank.
1. _____for a lot of criticism from freedom
groups.
2. I was ________the impression that you like Indian food.
3. This is one of the exceptions ________the rule.
4. The factory paid ________nearly a million pounds to their employees who were injured in
the explosion.
5. Before they open the new factory, a lot of the young people round here were ________the
dole.
6. Mr. Horrid was a terrible teacher and obviously not cut ________for teaching.
7.
8. o find him were ________vain.
9. The farmhouse we stayed in was completely ________the beaten track.
10.
Exercise 4: There are 10 errors in the following passage. Identify and correct them
Children who tell pop music does not interfere with their homework receive
Line 1
support today, with the discovery that pay attention to visual stimuli and sounds
Line 2
requires completely different brain pathways which can operate at the same time
Line 3
with your appreciation of either being damaged. Researchers have founded that
Line 4
listening to car stereos does not create much interference when you are driving.
Line 5
Similarly, pop music should not interfere with children homework. The affect of
Line 6
40
pop music on their performance at it is far outweigh by other factors, such as
Line 7
how happy they are to be doing it. These findings could be applied for the
Line 8
design of places which people have to take in large amounts of information very
Line 9
quickly. They could, for example, be relevantly to the layout of pilot cockpits
Line 10
on aircraft.
Line 11
III. READING COMPREHENSION
Exercise 1. Read the passage then choose the best answer to each question that follows. Identify
your answer by writing the corresponding letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet.
THE ATMOSPHERE OF VENUS
Venus, also called the Morning Star and Evening Star, is the second-closest planet to the
sun and the brightest object in the night sky. The planet orbits the sun every two hundred and
twenty four Earth-
share both a similar size and bulk. Wha
The atmosphere on Venus is much heavier and has a higher density than that of Earth.
h a thick
cloud cover makes the surface of Venus nearly impossible to see unless observed through radar
mapping.
of Earth, the heat and pressure of the lower atmosphere
atmosphere is very thick due to a composition consisting mainly of carbon dioxide, and a small
amount of nitrogen. If man could survive the extreme heat of Venus’s surface (400 degrees
Celsius), then he would have to contend with a surface pressure that is more than 90 times
that of Earth.
infrared radiation is more readily absorbed by the atmosphere. Just like in a real greenhouse used
to grow plants years round, the proliferation of carbon dioxide traps radiation and warms
mperature
than Mercury, even though Venus is twice the distance from the sun.
[A] Studies
tion of
all the water caused the runaway greenhouse effect which regulates the planet today. [B] Thus
struggle with the early stages of the greenhouse effect. [C] Our problems do not stem from
41
evaporated water supplies but from a propagation of carbon dioxide and other greenhouse gases
due to industrial and automobile emissions. [D]
its
daytime temperatures and nighttime temperatures are not that far removed from each other. This
is due to the thermal inertia, the ability of a substance to store heat despite changing temperatures
ugh winds on the surface of Venus move
-moving there can
In 1966, humankind made its first attempt at send
atmosphere. The Venera 3 probe did collide with Venus surface; however, the abrupt impact
caused its communication system to fail, and it was unable to send and feedback. In 1967,
atmosphere and was able to take many readings, one of
-five percent carbon
succumbed to the crushing air pressure.
Questions 1-7: Choose the answer (A, B, C or D) which you think fits best according to the
passage.
1. According to paragraph 1, Venus is named the Morning Star and Evening Star
because_____.
A. it is very bright B. it is close to the sun
C. it can be seen from evening till morning D. it is used to find the direction by sailors
2. The word that in paragraph 2 refers to _________.
A. size B. bulk C. atmosphere D. density
3. Which of the following best expresses the essential information in the bold sentence in
paragraph 3? Incorrect answer choices change the meaning in important ways or leave out
essential information.
A. Earth experiences greater surface pressure than Venus.
B. If a man could survive its surface pressure.
C. The surface pressure and heat of Venus are much greater than those on Earth.
4. According to paragraph 3, the greenhouse effect on Venus is owed to _________.
A. the small amounts of nitrogen
B. the rapid increasing amounts of carbon dioxide
42
C. growing plants
D. the high atmospheric temperatures
5. In paragraph 4, the author of the passage implies that Earth _________.
A. might suffer the same greenhouse effect as Venus
B. once had an atmosp
C. has bodies of water similar to those on Venus today
D. is experiencing a reduction of carbon dioxide emissions
6.
be added to the passage.
Although the causes are different, the ramifications are the same.
Where would the sentence best fit?
7. The word propagation in paragraph 4 is closest in meaning to _________.
A. generation B. elimination C. evaporation D. desecration
Questions 8 to 10: Complete the brief summary of the passage by selecting the THREE
answer choices that express important ideas in the passage. The introductory sentence for the
summary is provided bellowed.
8.
Answer Choices
A. Venus once had large bodies of water that elaborated and caused a rapid increase in
carbon dioxide.
B. on Venus is
denser and can even move large obstructions.
C.
revealed much about its carbon dioxide filled atmosphere.
D. If man could survive the hot temperature of Venus, then he would have to contend with
the great surface pressure.
E. The first space probe of Venus was made in 1966.
F. Scientists are concerned that conditions on Earth that propagate significant quantities of
s.
43
Exercise 2. Read the text below and think of the word which best fits each space. Use only
ONE word in each space. Write your answers on your answer sheet.
SPLENDID SPAS OF ASIA
Lying on a bed almost on the (1) ________ of a cliff, with a stupendous ocean view and
the (2) ________ of waves, aches and pains are soothed away (3) ________ expert hands. Only
two steps are needed to reach the private pool, which seems to merge (4) ________ the ocean.
Such a scenario is no longer a fantasy (5) ________ an increasingly popular reality in
Asia for many stressed out businessmen and visitors from all over the world in search of that
peaceful time and space for their body and mind.
In the last four years, at (6) ________ 17 hotel spas have opened in South East Asia to
(7)________ this need. The tropical climate of the region and its reliable sunshine make for an
ideal spa setting. Picturesque environments (8) ________ with a series of rejuvenating treatments
bring the desired result. The Asian spa resorts have acquired a formidable reputation for their
professional services as (9) ________ as for the decor of their large treatment rooms. Visitors
relax with Thai music and soak in the warm tones of the room. As all these take (10) ________
in individual rooms, precious privacy is guaranteed, a rare privilege often absent from other spas
where guests share rooms or changing areas.
Exercise 3. Read the following passage and choose the best answer for each question. Identify
your answer by writing the corresponding letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet.
WIND - The untamable weather machine
On 15 October 1987, the southern counties of Britain were struck by the strongest winds
they had experienced in 200 years. Gusts of over 130 kilometers per hour slammed across the
region and £1.5-billion-worth of damage was (1) _________ in just a few hours.
Extreme weather events like this are dramatic (2) _________ of the power of the wind.
it plays a
would quite (3) __________ be no climate.
and links betw
temperatures quite suddenly by 10°C or more. It affects as many as one in three people in its (5)
__________, making them feel anxious, irritable and generally ill. In California, many people (6)
__________ the arrival of the Santa Ana, which rushes down from the high Mojave desert. Lyall
n the Santa Ana blows, murder rates soar.
44
The wind may get into the headlines when it comes in the form of tornadoes and
hurricanes, but for the (7) __________ part it goes about its job of shifting huge masses of air
around the planet. Plants take (8) __________ of this free ride to send their pollen grains far and
wide. Trees (9) __________ on it to remove old leaves and make way for new growth. Spiders
have been caught (10) __________ a lift at altitudes of almost 4.5 kilometers.
1. A. made B. caused C. destroyed D. completed
2. A. reminders B. recollections C. mementos D. memorial
3. A. easily B. rightly C. surely D. simply
4. A. last B. originate C. pass D. date
5. A. line B. road C. path D. bypass
6. A. despair B. respect C. dread D. warn
7. A. most B. maximum C. majority D. general
8. A. benefit B. chance C. occasion D. advantage
9. A. need B. trust C. hope D. rely
10. A. traveling B. hitching C. borrowing D. making
IV. WRITING
Exercise 1. Rewrite the following sentences without changing their meaning, using the words
given. These words must not be changed in any way.
1. I would like to be able to speak French. (HAD)
I wish _______________________________________________ speak French.
2. It was raining cats and dogs. (TORRENTS)
The rain was ___________________________________________________.
3. It was wrong of you to borrow my book without asking. (HAVE)
You ___________________________________before you borrowed my book.
4. When I was younger, this record was one of my favourites. (FAVOURITE)
This record used ___________________________ mine when I was younger.
5. My sister finds commuting every day annoying. (PUT)
6. The Mediterranean is warm, whereas the North Sea is much colder. (NOTHING)
The North Sea is _________________________________ the Mediterranean.
7. Christ would only eat a pizza if he could have a mushroom topping. (ON)
Christ _________________________________________ when he ate a pizza.
8. My father persuaded me to learn another foreign language. (TALKED)
My father _________________________________ another foreign language.
9. Sam tried extremely hard to convince her, but it was no use. (BRING)
45
Hard _________________________________________________________.
10. When he arrived at the airport, his family welcomed him warmly. (GIVEN)
On___________________________________________________________.
Exercise 2. Write an essay to give your opinion on the following topic.
Some people believe that history has little to tell us. Other people believe that people must
have knowledge of history in order to understand the present.
Give reasons for your answer and include any relevant examples from your own knowledge or
experience.
Write at least 250 words.
-------------Hết-----------
46
KEYS PRACTICE 4
I. PRONUNCIATION
Part 1: Questions 1-10 Write the word whose stress pattern is different from the other three in
each of the following questions
11. A. disappearance B. Sympathetic C. capacity D.
conversation
12. A. argument B. achievement C. Involvement D.
confinement
13. A. completion B. behaviour C. material D.
understand
14. A. opinion B. comfortable C. powerful D.
accurate
15. A. penalty B. habitat C. decision D.
Countryman
16. A. Atmosphere B. emission C. disposal D.
volcanic
17. A. economic B. considerate C. territorial D.
continental
18. A. commit B. recipe C. index D.
preview
19. A. economic B. considerate C. territorial D.
continental
20. A. commit B. recipe C. index D.
preview
Part 2: Questions 11-20 Write the word whose underlined part is pronounced differently from
the other three in each of the following questions
11. A. rained B. followed C. arrived D.
jumped
12. A. leather B. tea C. lead D. leave
13. A. autumn B. summer C. sunny D. much
14. A. considered B. stayed C. picked D.
received
15. A. prohibit B. co-exist C. frozen D. notify
16. A. rational B. devastate C. parade D.
danger
17. A. Valentine B. determine C. examine D.
heroine
18. A. muddy B. punctual C. studious D.
culture
19. A. element B. election C. event D.
eliminate
20. A. dreams B. thinks C. hours D.
gardens
47
II. LEXICO-GRAMMAR (30 POINTS)
Exercise 1. (10pts; 0.5pt/ each correct answer)
1. A
2. C
3. D
4. B
5. C
6. B
7. B
8. C
9. B
10. C
11. B
12. D
13. A
14. C
15. B
16. D
17. C
18. B
19. A
20. A
Exercise 2. (5pts; 0.5pt/ each correct answer)
1. breathtaking
2. settlers
3. lifetime
4. consistent
5. legendary
6. reality
7. picturesque
8. unparalleled
9. caring
10. committed
Exercise 3. (5pts; 0.5pt/ each correct answer)
1. in
2. under
3. to
4. out
5. on
6. out
7. at
8. in
9. off
10. for
Exercise 4. (10pts; 0.5pt/ each correct answer + 0.5pt/ each correction)
line
mistake
correction
line
mistake
correction
Line 1
tell
say
Line 6
affect
effect
Line 2
pay
paying
Line 7
outweigh
outweighed
Line 4
with
without
Line 8
for
to
Line 4
founded
found
Line 9
which
where
Line 6
children
Line 10
relevantly
relevant
III. READING (30pts)
Exercise 1. (10pts; 1pt/ each correct answer)
48
1. A
2. C
3. D
4. B
5. A
6. B
7. A
8 10. A, C, F in any order
Exercise 2. (10pts; 1pt/ each correct answer)
1. edge
2. sound
3. by
4. with
5. but
6. least
7. satisfy/meet
8. together/along
9. well
10. place
Exercise 3. (10pts; 1pt/ each correct answer)
1. B
2. A
3. D
4. D
5. C
6. C
7. A
8. D
9. D
10. B
IV. WRITING (20pts)
Exercise 1. (5pts; 0.5pt/ each correct answer)
1. I wish I had ability to speak French.
2. The rain was coming down in torrents.
3. You should have asked me/ for permission before you borrowed my book.
4. This record used to be a/one favourite of mine when I was younger.
5. to put up with commuting every day.
6. The North Sea is nothing like as warm as the Mediterranean.
7. Christ insisted on having a mushroom topping when he ate a pizza.
8. My father talked me into learning another language.
9. Hard as/ though Sam tried, he couldn‟t bring her round (to his way of thinking).
10. On his arrival at the airport, he was given a warm welcome by his family.
Exercise 2. (15 points)
Some people believe that history has little to tell us. Other people believe that people must have
knowledge of history in order to understand the present.
Marking scheme
The mark given is based on the following scheme:
49
Task achievement (25 % of total mark)
Coherence and cohesion (25 % of total mark)
Grammar range and Accuracy (25 % of total mark)
Lexical resource (25 % of total mark)
-------------Hết-----------
ENGLISH PRACTICE 5
SECTION A: PRONUNCIATION
Choose the word whose stress is pronounced differently from the other three in the following
questions
21. A. disappearance B. Sympathetic C. capacity D. conversation
22. A. argument B. achievement C. Involvement D. confinement
23. A. completion B. behaviour C. material D. understand
24. A. opinion B. comfortable C. powerful D. accurate
25. A. penalty B. habitat C. decision D. Countryman
26. A. Atmosphere B. emission C. disposal D. volcanic
27. A. economic B. considerate C. territorial D. continental
28. A. commit B. recipe C. index D. preview
29. A. economic B. considerate C. territorial D. continental
30. A. commit B. recipe C. index D. preview
SECTION B: READING
Part 1: Read the following passage and choose the correct answer to each of the questions.
Scientists have established that influenza viruses taken from man can cause diseases in
animals. In addition, man can catch the diseases from animals. In fact, a greater number of wild
birds seem to carry the viruses without showing any evidence of illness. Some scientists
conclude that a large family of influenza viruses may have evolved in the bird kingdom, a group
that has been on earth 100 million years and is able to carry the viruses without contracting the
disease. There is even convincing evidence to show that virus strain are transmitted from place
to place and from continent to continent by migrating birds.
It is known that two influenza viruses can recombine when both are present in an animal
at the same time. The result of such recombination is a great variety of strains containing
different H and N spikes. This raises the possibility that a human influenza viruses can
recombine with an influenza virus from a lower animal to produce an entirely new spike.
Research is underway to determine if that is the way major new strains come into being.
Another possibility is that two animal influenza strains may recombine in a pig, for example, to
produce a new strain which is transmitted to man.
50
11. According to the passage, scientists have discovered that influenza viruses _______
A. cause ill health in wild animals
B. do not always cause symptoms in birds
C. are rarely present in wild birds
D. change when transmitted from animals to man
12. What is known about the influenza viruses?
A. It was first found in a group of very old birds.
B. All the different strains can be found in wild birds.
C. It existed over 100 million years ago.
D. It can survive in many different places.
13. According to the passage, a great variety of influenza strains can appear when______
A. H and N spikes are produced
B. animal and bird viruses are combined
C. dissimilar types of viruses recombine
D. two viruses of the same type are contracted
14. New strains of viruses are transmitted to man by_______
A. a type of wild pig B. diseased lower animals
C. a group of migrating birds D. a variety of means
15. It can be inferred from the passage that all of the following are ways of producing
new strains of influenza EXCEPT_______
A. two influenza viruses in the same animal recombining
B. animal viruses recombining with human viruses
C. two animal viruses recombining
D. two animal viruses recombining in a human
Your answers:
51
11.
12.
13.
14.
15.
Part 2: Read the text and then select the correct answer, A, B, C or D. Write your answer in
the right box below.
The Netherlands
Welcome to the Netherlands, a tiny country that only extends, at its broadest, 312 km
north to south, and 264 km east to west - (16) ______ the land area increases slightly each year
as a (17) ______ of continuous land reclamation and drainage. With a lot of heart and much to
offer, 'Holland,' (18) ______ it is commonly known to most of us abroad - a name
stemming (19) ______ its once most prominent provinces - has more going on per
kilometre (20) ______ most countries, and more English-speaking natives. You'll be impressed
by its (21) ______ cities and charmed by its countryside and villages, full of contrasts. From the
exciting variety (22) ______ offer, you could choose a romantic canal boat tour in Amsterdam, a
Royal Tour by coach in The Hague, or a hydrofoil tour around the biggest harbour in the world -
Rotterdam. In season you could visit the dazzling bulb fields, enjoy a full day on a boat, or take a
bike tour through the pancake-flat countryside spiced with windmills. The possibilities
are (23) ______ and the nationwide tourist office, which is on hand to give you information
and (24) ______ reservations. You'll have (25) ______ language problems here, as the Dutch
are true linguists and English is spoken here almost universally.
16.
A. so
B. despite
C. in spite of
D. although
17.
A. whole
B. consequently
C. rule
D. result
18.
A. as
B. like
C. so
D. that
19.
A. in
B. from
C. on
D. of
20.
A. then
B. than
C. like
D. to
21.
A. historic
B. historical
C. historically
D. historian
22.
A. at
B. in
C. on
D. for
23.
A. countdown
B. counted
C. countless
D. countable
24.
A. sit
B. catch
C. do
D. make
25.
A. few
B. a few
C. little
D. a little
Your answers:
16.
17.
18.
19.
20.
52
21.
22.
23.
24.
25.
SECTION B: VOCABULARY AND GRAMMAR
Part 1: Choose the best answer to complete each of the following sentences. Write A, B, C or
D in your answers
26. Please and see us some time -
A. come to B. come about C. come round D. come away
27. This is
A. by far B. by chance C. by all means D. by myself
28. .
A. or so B. if not C. otherwise D. so that
29
A. from B. within C. for among D. out of.
30. The agency is ________ and not run for profit.
A. charitable B. donated C. voluntary D. free
31. He retired early ________ his ill health.
A. on behalf of B. in front of C. on account of D. in spite of
32. Job
A. whenever the work is B. when the work
C. is when the work D. whenever working
33. The jud
A. sentence. B. prison. C. put. D. imprison.
34
A. longlife B. prolong C. lengthened D. lifelong
35-frequency sounds and listening for echoes.
A. to run into B. running onto C. running into D. to run onto
53
Your answers :
26.
27.
28.
29.
30.
31.
32.
33.
34.
35.
Part 2: There are 8 mistakes in the following passage. Underline the mistakes and write the
correct answers in the space provided.
Let us suppose that you are in the position of a parent. Would you allow your children
read any book they wanted to without first checking its content? Would you take them to see any
film without first finding whether it is suitable for them? If your answer of these questions is yes,
then you are either extremely permissive, or just plain irresponsible. If your answer is not, then
you are exercising your right as a parent to protect your children from what you consider to be
desirable influences. In other words, by acting as a censor yourself, you are admitting that there
is a strong case for censorship.
Children need protection and it is the parents' responsible to provide it. But what about
adults? Aren't they old enough to decide that is good for them? The answer is that many adults
are, but don't make the mistake of thinking that all adults are as yourself. Censorship is for the
good of society as a whole. Highly civilized people might find it possible to live together
without laws of any kind: they would just rely on good sense to solve their problems. But
imagine what chaos there would be if we live in a society without laws! Like the law, censorship
contributes to the common good.
Your answers:
MISTAKES
CORRECTION
MISTAKES
CORRECTION
36.
40.
37.
41.
38.
42.
39.
43.
Part 3: Fill in each blank with a suitable word to fill in the blanks.
Vitamins are substances required for the proper functioning of the body. In this century,
thirteen vitamins have been discovered .
can also (44mple, sailors in the past were prone to suffer from scurvy
(45
54
of teeth and skin rashes. Sailors suffer from scurvy because they did not eat fruits and vegetables.
Fruits and vegetables contain vitamin C ,which is necessary for good (46
Vitamin B complex is composed of eight different vitamins. A lack of any of these
vitamins will lead to different(47
will suffer from beri-beri, a disease that causes heart problems and mental disorders. A lack of
vitamin B2 results in eye and skin problems while deficiency of vitamin B6 causes problems of
the nervous system. Too little vitamin B12 will cause anemia. The knowledge that vitamin
deficiencies caused certain diseases led doctors to (48
illnesses by giving them doses of the necessary (49)
(50armacy.
Your answers:
44.
45.
46.
47.
48.
49.
50.
Part 4: Complete the second sentence so that it has a similar meaning to first one. Use and
don‟t change the word given. Write 2-5 words in total.
51. I tried to talk to Jack about the problem, but he was too busy. WORD
52 MATTER
53. I was too scared to tell him what I really thought. COURAGE
54. People say that the pyramids are worth visiting. SUPPOSED
55 WASN’T
SECTION C: WRITING
Part 1: Part 1: You have recently seen a film you enjoyed very much. Write a letter to an
English-speaking penfriend, recommending the film and explaining why you thought it was so
55
good (80-90 words). Use your name and address as Tom Smith – 123, Red Street, Fantasy
City.
Part 2: Write a composition about 150-200 words on the following topic:
56
Some students prefer to study alone. Others prefer to study with a group of students. Which do
you prefer? Use specific reasons and examples to support your answer.
THE END
Keys practice 5
SECTION A: PRONUNCIATION (20 points)
Choose the word whose stress is pronounced differently from the other three in the following
questions
57
1. A. disappearance B. Sympathetic C. capacity D. conversation
2. A. argument B. achievement C. Involvement D. confinement
3. A. completion B. behaviour C. material D. understand
4. A. opinion B. comfortable C. powerful D. accurate
5. A. penalty B. habitat C. decision D. Countryman
6. A. Atmosphere B. emission C. disposal D. volcanic
7. A. economic B. considerate C. territorial D. continental
8. A. commit B. recipe C. index D. preview
9. A. economic B. considerate C. territorial D. continental
10. A. commit B. recipe C. index D. preview
SECTION B: READING (20 points)
Part 1: (2pts × 5 Qs)
11.B
12.D
13.C
14.D
15.D
Part 2: (1pts × 10 Qs)
16.D
17.D
18.A
19.B
20.B
21.A
22.C
23.C
24.D
25.A
SECTION C: VOCABULARY AND GRAMMAR (30 points)
Part 1(1pts × 10 Qs)
26.C
27.A
28.C
29.D
30.C
31.C
32.B
33.A
34.D
35.C
Part 2: (1pts ×8 Qs)
MISTAKES
CORRECTION
MISTAKES
CORRECTION
36. read
to read
40. responsible
responsibility
37. finding
finding out
41. that is good
what is good
38. not
no
42. as yourself
like yourself
39. desirable
undesirable
43.live
lived
Part 3: (1pts × 7 Qs).
58
44. lead
45.which/that
46.health
47.diseases
48.cure
49.vitamins
50.in
Part 4: (1pts × 5 Qs)
51. I tried to have a word with Jack about the problem, but he was too busy.
52. I said that it didn‟t matter to me which film we saw.
53. I didn‟t have the courage to tell him what I really thought.
54. The pyramids are supposed to be worth visiting.
55. I wasn‟t calm enough to react.
SECTION D: WRITING (20 points)
Part 1: (7pts)
Length (1ps): 80-90 words
Ideas (2ps):
Organization and Style (2ps): informal
Vocabulary and grammar (2ps)
Part 2: (13pts)
1. Length: (2ps) : 150 to 200 words.
2. Organization & style: (3ps) ideas are organized and presented with coherence, style, and
clarity appropriate to the level of English language gifted upper-secondary school
students.
3. Ideas (4ps): a provision of main ideas and appropriate details and examples.
4. Grammar and Vocabulary (4ps) a variety of vocabulary and structures appropriate to the
level of English language gifted upper-secondary school students.
ENGLISH PRACTICE 6
59
SECTION A: PHONETICS
I. Pick out the word whose underlined part is pronounced differently from that of the other
words. Write your answer in the space provided.
1. A. associate B. sociable C. ancient D. ancestor
2. A. walked B. threatened C. passed D. forced
3. A. too B. food C. soon D.
good
4. A. legal B. legend C. generous D. manager
5. A. adventure B. future C. mature D. figure
1.
3.
5.
2.
4.
II. Pick out the word that differs from the other words in the position of the main stress. Write
your answer in the space provided.
6. A. comedy B. collection C. comical D. calculate
7. A. ambitious B. memorial C. memory D. mechanic
8. A. remove B. cancel C. copy D. answer
9. A. Japanese B. engineer C. practical D.
questionnaire
10. A. document B. develop C. opponent D. astonish
6.
8.
10.
7.
9.
SECTION B: VOCABULARY AND GRAMMAR
I. Choose the word or phrase which best completes each sentence. Write your answer in the
space provided.
60
11. He has declared......building a new bridge.
A. against B. to C. in D. about
12. A washing machine of this type will certainly......normal domestic use.
A. stand up for B. get on to C. take down with D. come
up with
13. She set......some money each month for her holiday.
A. aside B. back C. about D. up
14. .......of half-starving wolves were roaming the snow-covered countryside.
A. Packs B. Herds C. Flocks D.
Swarms
15. We had to get a bank loan when the money finally.......
A. gave off B. gave in C. gave over D. gave
out
16. Mary always takes great care.......her children.
A. with B. for C. of D. to
17. ........he did not attend the English class, he knew the lesson quite well.
A. In spite of B. Despite C. Although D.
Because
18. Please don't enter.......knocking.
A. without B. with C. except for D. while
19. While studying he was financially dependent.......his parents.
A. of B. from C. on D. to
20. I took your pen........mistake.
A. of B. with C. by D. from
21. ........of all the staff, I would like to wish you a happy retirement.
A. In place B. On account C. Instead D. On
behalf
22. He kept his job.......the manager had threatened to sack him.
A. despite B. even C. although D. unless
23.
A. with B. by C. at D. on
24. Please cut my hair.......the style in this magazine.
61
A. the same long as B. the same length as C. the same long like D. the
same length like
25. Ancient Egyptians mummified the dead bodies through the use of chemicals, ......ancient
Peruvians did through natural processes.
A. whether or not B. even though C. whereas D.
because
11.
14.
17.
20.
23.
12.
15.
18.
21.
24.
13.
16.
19.
22.
25.
II. There is one mistake in each of the following sentences. Find and correct it.
26. Because the torrential rains that had devastated the area, the governor sent the National
Guard to assist in the clean-up operation.
27. One of the most important things in life is a good health.
28. The city has spent a big amount of money on crime prevention.
29. Comparing with other countries, Libya spends a high percentage of income on education.
30. People are now enjoying a higher level of living.
31. In the United Kingdom women see their doctor on the average five times a year.
32. Although Mar
foods in the traditional manner.
33. When we arrived at the store to purchase the dishwasher advertise in the newspaper, we
learned that all the dishwashers had been sold.
34. After rising the flag to commemorate the holiday, the mayor gave a long speech.
35. This time tomorrow I will lie on the beach, enjoying the sunshine.
MISTAKE
CORRECTION
MISTAKE
CORRECTION
26.
31.
62
27.
32.
28.
33.
29.
34.
30.
35.
III. Give the correct form of the words in the brackets in each of the following sentences.
Write your answer in the space provided.
36. I was annoyed at his (REFUSE)______ to co-operate.
else.
38. The noise (LESS)______ as the plane got farther away.
39. He lost in the election because he was a weak and (DECIDE)______ leader.
41. She was (EXTREME)______ knowledgeable about the history of China.
42. He was very (SET)_______ when his cat was run over.
43. Jackson had another violent (AGREE)_______ with the referee.
44. Many people were buried (LIVE)______ after the earthquake.
45. She studied (ECONOMY)______ at university.
36.
39.
42.
45.
37.
40.
43.
38.
41.
44.
SECTION C: READING COMPREHENSION
I. Fill in each numbered blank with one suitable word. Write your answer in the space
provided.
63
Australia is a big country, but nearly all Australians live near the sea. On hot summer days,
you can see thousands of people at the beach. Many beaches have waves (46)______ are very
high.
These large waves are known as surf and the people who ride them are called surfers.
______ to be able to surf properly the
(48)______ time you try. However, by practising a few times you will learn (49)______ to do it.
Surfing is not a new sport. Perhaps its origins need explaining. It started hundreds
(50)______ years ago in Hawaii. Men swam (51)______ to sea to catch fish and found they
could come back to land very quickly by riding the waves. These first surfers did not (52)______
______ do this type of surfing today.
After a while people started to use boards and rode the waves by lying, kneeling or standing
(54)______ them. These first surfboards were made of wood and the water made them rot after a
while. Today, surfboards are made of plastic or fibreglass (55)______.
46.
49.
52.
55.
47.
50.
53.
48.
51.
54.
II. Read the following passage and decide which answer (A, B, C, or D) best fits each gap.
Write your answer in the space provided.
What do you do well? What do you enjoy doing? Your answers to these two questions will
help you identify your (56)______. An employer will consider you seriously for a (57)______
when you can show them that you know who you are, what you can offer and which you have
studied. Sometimes it is difficult to know what your weaknesses are. Clearly not everyone is
equally good (58)______ everything. You may need to improve yourself and so (59)______
courses in that field could turn a weakness into strength.
You will need to (60)______ some time on your self-assessment. Your honesty and the
desire for self-improvement will lead to (61)______ in getting the right job. Explore the
following seven areas to start to get to know yourself: your aptitude, your skills, your
personality, the level of responsibility you feel comfortable with, your interests and your needs.
Ask (62)______ if you have any special talents and if you need to consider your physical
health when choosing a job. Be as honest and realistic as you can, and ask for other people's
64
(63)______ if necessary. Make a list of these things. It is usually a good idea to talk about your
aptitudes with teachers, family and friends.
If you are considering a career that (64)______ a special talent, such as art, acrobatics,
mathematics or music, discuss your aptitudes with (65)______ expert in that area and discover
how they fit the needs of the occupation.
56. A. strong B. strength C. strengthen D.
strengthened
57. A. position B. location C. spot D. room
58. A. upon B. in C. at D. for
59. A. meeting B. taking C. making D.
interviewing
60. A. use B. make C. lose D.
spend
61. A. success B. successful C. successfully D. succeed
62. A. you B. your C. yours D. yourself
63. A. interests B. fields C. opinions D. attendances
64. A. requires B. asks C. tells D. urges
65. A. a B. an C. the D. this
56.
59.
62.
65.
57.
60.
63.
58.
61.
64.
III. Read the following text and choose the best answer for the questions below. Write your
answer in the space provided.
May 7
th
1840 was the birthday of one of the most famous Russian composers of the
nineteenth century: Peter Ilyich Tchaikovsky, the son of a mining inspector. Tchaikovsky studied
music as a child and later studied composition at the St. Petersburg Conservatory. His greatest
period of productivity occurred between 1876 and 1890, during which time he enjoyed patronage
65
of Madame von Meck, a woman he never met, who gave him a yearly living stipend. Madame
von Meck later terminated her friendship with Tchaikovsky, as well as his living allowance,
when she, herself, was facing financial difficulties. It was during the time of Madame von
Swan Lake” The Sleeping Beauty”.
music, well-known for its rich melodic and sometimes melancholy passages, was one of the first
that brought serious dramatic music to dance. Before this, little attention had been given to the
music behind the dance. Tchaikovsky died ostensibly of cholera on November 6
th
1893, though
there are now some scholars who argue that he committed suicide.
66. The best title for this passage could be ______.
67. According to the passage, all of the following describe Madame von Meck EXCEPT
______.
A. she had economic troubles
B. she was generous
C. she was never introduced to Tchaikovsky
-known for ______.
A. its repetitive and monotonous tones
B. the ballet-like quality of music
C. the richness and melodic drama of the music
D. its lively, capricious melodies
69. Which of the following is NOT mentioned in the passage?
66
C. The patronage of Madame von Meck.
70. It can be inferred from the passage that ______.
A. it was not the music behind the dance that made Tchaikovsky famous
C. Madame von Meck was one of the most famous Russian composers
66.
68.
70.
67.
69.
SECTION D: WRITING
I. Finish the second sentence in such a way that it means the same as the sentence printed
before it.
71. It is extremely difficult for us to make ends meet these days.
We find
............................................................................................................................................................
..
72. Alice and Charles did not decide to move to a bigger house until after the birth of their
second child.
Only when
...........................................................................................................................................................
73. While mending the road, they accidentally blocked our water pipes.
They accidentally cut off
.....................................................................................................................................
74. He brought the umbrella along but it didn't rain.
67
He needn't
.........................................................................................................................................................
75. While I strongly disapprove of your behaviour, I will help you this time.
Despite
............................................................................................................................................................
...
II. Use the word given in brackets and make any necessary additions to write a new sentence
in such a way that it is as similar as possible in meaning to the original sentence. Do NOT
change the form of the given word(s).
(WRONG)
77. Sandra said that she was willing to work late.
(MIND)
78. They pretended to
(AS)
79. I can't lift this table on my own.
(UNLESS)
80. The coins are believed to have been buried for safe-keeping.
(IT)
III. Write a composition about the following topic:
What do you think an ideal teacher should be?
68
Give reasons for your answer and include any relevant examples from your own knowledge or
experience.
Write about 200 words.
............................................................................................................................................................
............................................................................................................................................................
............................................................................................................................................................
............................................................................................................................................................
............................................................................................................................................................
............................................................................................................................................................
............................................................................................................................................................
............................................................................................................................................................
............................................................................................................................................................
............................................................................................................................................................
............................................................................................................................................................
............................................................................................................................................................
............................................................................................................................................................
............................................................................................................................................................
............................................................................................................................................................
........................................................................
Keys – practice 6
SECTION A: PHONETICS (10 points)
I. Pick out the word whose underlined part is pronounced differently from that of the other
words. Write your answer in the space provided.
1 point/ 1 correct answer × 5 = 5 points
69
1
2
3
4
5
D
B
D
A
C
II. Pick out the word that differs from the other words in the position of the main stress. Write
your answer in the space provided.
1 point/ 1 correct answer × 5 = 5 points
6
7
8
9
10
B
C
A
C
A
SECTION B: VOCABULARY AND GRAMMAR (35 points)
I. Choose the word or phrase which best completes each sentence. Write your answer in the
space provided.
1 point/ 1 correct answer × 15 = 15 points
1. He has declared......building a new bridge.
A. against B. to C. in D. about
2. A washing machine of this type will certainly......normal domestic use.
A. stand up for B. get on to C. take down with D. come
up with
3. She set......some money each month for her holiday.
A. aside B. back C. about D. up
4. .......of half-starving wolves were roaming the snow-covered countryside.
A. Packs B. Herds C. Flocks D.
Swarms
5. We had to get a bank loan when the money finally.......
A. gave off B. gave in C. gave over D. gave
out
70
6. Mary always takes great care.......her children.
A. with B. for C. of D. to
7. ........he did not attend the English class, he knew the lesson quite well.
A. In spite of B. Despite C. Although D.
Because
8. Please don't enter.......knocking.
A. without B. with C. except for D. while
9. While studying he was financially dependent.......his parents.
A. of B. from C. on D. to
10. I took your pen........mistake.
A. of B. with C. by D. from
11. ........of all the staff, I would like to wish you a happy retirement.
A. In place B. On account C. Instead D. On
behalf
12. He kept his job.......the manager had threatened to sack him.
A. despite B. even C. although D. unless
13.
A. with B. by C. at D. on
14. Please cut my hair.......the style in this magazine.
A. the same long as B. the same length as C. the same long like D. the
same length like
15. Ancient Egyptians mummified the dead bodies through the use of chemicals, ......ancient
Peruvians did through natural processes.
A. whether or not B. even though C. whereas D.
because
II. There is one mistake in each of the following sentences. Find and correct it.
1 point/ 1 correct answer × 10 = 10 points
MISTAKE
CORRECTION
MISTAKE
CORRECTION
26.
Because
Because of
31.
on the average
on average
71
27.
a good health
good health
32.
know to
know how to
28.
a big amount
a large/ huge/
enormous amount
33.
advertise
Advertised, or:
that/ which had
been advertised
29.
Comparing
Compared
34.
rising
raising
30.
level
standard
35.
will lie
will be lying
III. Give the correct form of the words in the brackets in each of the following sentences.
Write your answer in the space provided.
1 point/ 1 correct answer × 10 = 10 points
36. refusal
39. indecisive
42. upset
45. economics
37. informative
40. unavoidable
43. disagreement
38. lessened
41. extremely
44. alive
SECTION C: READING COMPREHENSION (30 points)
I. Fill in each numbered blank with one suitable word. Write your answer in the space
provided.
1 point/ 1 correct answer × 10 = 10 points
46. that/ which
49. how
52. use
55. instead
47. expect
50. of
53. still
48. first
51. out
54. on
II. Read the following passage and decide which answer (A, B, C, or D) best fits each gap.
Write your answer in the space provided.
1 point/ 1 correct answer × 10 = 10 points
72
56. B
59. B
62. D
65. B
57. A
60. D
63. C
58. C
61. A
64. A
III. Read the following text and choose the best answer for the questions below. Write your
answer in the space provided.
2 points/ 1 correct answer × 5 = 10 points
66. A
68. C
70. B
67. D
69. B
SECTION D: WRITING (25 points)
I. Finish the second sentence in such a way that it means the same as the sentence printed
before it.
1 point/ 1 correct answer × 5 = 5 points
Suggested answers:
71. We find it difficult to make ends meet these days.
72. Only when Alice and Charles had their second child, did they decide to move to a bigger
house.
73. They accidentally cut off our water supplying while mending the road.
74. He needn't have brought the umbrella along (because it didn't rain anyway).
75. Despite my strong disapproval of your behaviour/ the fact that I strongly disapprove of
your behaviour, I will help you this time.
II. Use the word(s) given in brackets and make any necessary additions to write a new
sentence in such a way that it is as similar as possible in meaning to the original sentence. Do
NOT change the form of the given word(s).
73
1 point/ 1 correct answer × 5 = 5 points
Suggested answers:
76. While I was driving, I realized that there was something wrong with the car.
78. They acted as if they were enjoying
79. I can't lift this table unless you help me/ someone helps me.
80. It is believed that the coins were buried for safe-keeping.
III. Write a composition about the following topic: (15 points)
What do you think an ideal teacher should be?
Give reasons for your answer and include any relevant examples from your own knowledge or
experience.
Write about 200 words.
Notes:
The mark given to this part is based on the following scheme:
1. Content: (40% of total mark) a provision of all main ideas and details as appropriate.
2. Organization & Presentation: (30% of total mark) ideas are organized and presented
with coherence, style, and clarity appropriate to the level of English language gifted
upper-secondary school students.
3. Language: (30% of total mark) a variety of vocabulary and structures appropriate to
the level of English language gifted upper-secondary school students.
Markers, please, should discuss the suggested answers and the marking scale thoroughly
before marking the papers.
Thank you for your cooperation and considerations.
ENGLISH PRACTICE 7
SECTIONI–PHONETICS
I.Choose the word whose underlined part is pronounced differently from the rest in the same
line.( 5p)
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1.A.several B. suppose C. decisive D. sister
2.A. muddle B. struggle C. bush D. interrupt
3.A. ready B. measure C. steak D. stealth
4.A. wind B. behind C. mind D. find
5.A.chalice B. challenge C. choice D. chemist
II. Pick out the word that has the stress syllable differently from that of the other words.(5p)
1.A. application B. certificate C. biology D. security
2. A. university B. punctuality C. agricultural
D.mathematician
3. A. identify B. secondary C. luxuriously D. majority
4. A. academic B. engineering C. availabe D.sympathetic
5.A. obligatory B. geographical C. international D.
undergraduate
SECTION II- VOCABULARY AND GRAMMAR
I. Choose the best option ( A, B, C or D) to complete sentence below and write your answers in
the answer sheet.( 10p)
A. circumstances B. occasion C. opportunity D. reason
A. feelings B. reaction C. capital D. opinion
3. Though badly damaged by fire,
A. repaired B. renewed C. restored D. renovated
A. except B. other C. apart D. rather
5. When you are an old age
A. live on B. live up to C. live out D. live down
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A. suggested B. considered C. accepted D. advised
7. He said
A. must have B. had to C. should have D. was supposed to
A. to ask B. being asked C. to be asked D. asking
9.The restaurants
A. take B. to take C. taking D. taken
A. down B. over C. up D. out
II.Put the verb in brackets into the correct tense.( 10p)
III. Give the correct forms of the words in brackets to complete the blank space. ( 10p)
1.The judges describe Jones
HARD
SURVIVE
ADVICE
INSTALL
SOCIETY
76
EDUCATION
ATTEND
ystem.
COMPUTER
EXPECT
DEPEND
IV. Fill in each gap with a suitable preposition. (10 points)
tment I would like to thank you all.
waiter about the bill.
area faster.
SECTION III – READING
I.Read the following passage carefully and then answer the questions below.(10p)
Traditionally the United States has been described as a melting pot, a place where the
previous identities of each immigrant group are melted down to create an intergrated, uniform
society. Since the 1960s, many Americans have rejected the melting pot metaphor in favour of
the image of the mosaic, a picture created by assembling many small stones or tiles. In a mosaic,
each peace retains its own distinctive identity, while contributing to a larger design. Advocates of
the mosaic metaphor assert that it better represents the diverse multicultural society of the United
77
States. Today, may Americans value their immigrant heritage as an important part of their
identity. More recent immigrant groups from Asia, such as Vietnamese Americans and Korean
Americans, have established communities alongside those populated by the descendants of
European immigrants, such as French Americans, German Americans, Irish Americans and
Italian Americans.
1.Why has the United States often been described as a melting pot?
2. Why have people been in favour of the image of the “ mosaic”?
3. What does the word “mosaic” mean?
4. What have immigrant groups from Asia done to maintain their identity?
5. Name some recent immigrant groups from Asia in the United States?
78
II.Read the following passage and then choose the most suitable word for each space. (10 p)
CAR CATCHES FIRE
busy Oxford road after a fire started under the
bonnet this morning. They were just able to rescue their possessions before the car burst into
th two friends when he noticed smoke coming into the car.
(6) to get fire extin
burned out.
1. A. into B. on C. out of D. over
2. A. flames B. petrol C. smoke D. sparks
3. A.drove B. has driven C. was driving D. was driven
4. A. to B. from C. at D. in
5.A. but B. because C. although D. so
6. A. wandered B. jumped C. walked D. ran
7.A. hospital B. garage C.library D. swimming pool
8. A. this B. those C. that D. these
9. A. At length B.Finally C. At the end D. Terminally
10. A. police car B. ambulance C. taxi D. fire engine
III.Read the passage below carefully. Then choose the correct answer: A, B, C or D that best
answers the question about the passage. (5p)
When we were in England last year, I went fishing with my friend, Peter. Early in the
morning we were sitting quietly by the side of the lake when we had an unpleasant surprise. We
saw a duck come along with three ducklings padding cheerfully behind her. As we watched
them, there was a sudden swirl in the water. We caught a glimpse of the vicious jaws of a pike- a
fish which is rather like a freshwater shark- and one of the ducklings was dragged below the
surface.
This incident made Peter furious. He vowed to catch the pike. On three successive
mornings we returned to the vicinity and used several different kinds of bait. On the third day
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Peter was lucky. Using an artificial frog as bait, he managed to hook the monster. There was a
desperate fight but Peter was determined to capture the pike and succeeded. When he had got it
ashore and killed it, he wieghed the fish and found that it scaled nearly thirty pounds- a record
for that district.
1.Why do you think Peter was sitting quietly by the lake ?
A. He was watching the ducks.
C. He was waiting for the pike to appear.
D. He was fishing
2. To what does surprise in line 3 probably refer?
A. to the duck. B. to the ducklings. C. to the action of the pike. D. to the time
of the day.
A. He caught and killed the pike.
C. He vowed that he would catch the remaining ducklings
B. He remained determined to catch the pike.
D. He caught a frog and used it as bait for the pike.
4. How much was the pike worth?
A. about thirty pounds.
B. about two hundred and forty dollars.
C. the passage contains no information on this point.
D. the passage says that the fish scaled nearly thirty pound.
5. Which of the following titles best sums up the whole passage?
A. Mysterious disappearance of ducklings.
C. Record pike caught by an angry fisherman.
B. Revenge on a duck.
D. Huge pike caught by fisherman after desperate struggle at sea.
80
Section IV – writing
I. Finish each of the following sentences in such a way that it means exactly the same as the
sentence printed before it (5 points).
1. But for your unsuspected talents as a mechanic, he would have been stranded there for hours.
- If
-
3. The only thing that prevented the passing of the bill was the death of the Prime Minister.
-
-known.
-
5. I only recognised him when he came into the light.
-
II. Using the word given and other words, complete the sencond sentence so that it has a
similar meaning to the first sentence. (5points)
-
2. The last time I saw him was when I lived in London. ( SINCE)
-
-
4. Nobody plays this piece as beautifully as he does. (MORE)
- .else.
-
III. Using the cues below to complete each sentence of the following passage. (5p)
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1.Teacher/ Day/ Vietnam/ fall/ twenty/ November/ each year.
............................................................................................................................................................
............
2. General/ it / be/ mean/ schoolchildren/ show/ appreciation/ teacher/ who/ guide/ in/ study.
3. In / a/ time/ forget/ bad/ experience/ student/ have/ teacher/ scold/ punish.
4. Students/ give/ teacher/ flower/ small/ gift.
5. Small/ party/ hold/ and/ there/ be/ atmosphere/ fun/ amusement/ school.
IV. Writing an essay (10p)
Living in a tranditional family of three or four generations has both advantages and
disadvantages. What do you think of that matter? Write an essay of about 180- 200 words to
support your points.
-----------THE END-------------
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Keys – practice 7
SECTION I: Phonetics (10 POINTS)
I. A. (1p for 1 correct answer X 5 = 5 points)
1. B
2. C
3. C
4. A
5. D
B. (1p for 1 correct answer X 5 = 5 points)
1.A
2.D
3.B
4.C
5.A
SECTION II: VOCABULARY AND GRAMMAR (40 POINTS)
I . (1p for 1 correct answer X 10 = 10 points)
1.A
2. B
3. C
4. B
5. A
6. D
7. C
8. C
9. C
10. B
II .( 1p for 1 correct answer X 10 = 10 points)
1.
2.
3.
4. feel/ will bring
III .( 1p for 1 correct answer X 10 = 10 points)
1. hardened 6. eduacational
2. survivors 7. attendances
3. advisory 8. computerize
4. Installation 9. unexpected
5. socially 10. dependent
IV .( 1p for 1 correct answer X 10 = 10 points)
1. On 6. on
2. for 7. for
3. to 8. at
4. from 9. from
5. with 10. out
SECTION III.reading (25 POINTS)
I.(10 points): 2 pts/ each correct answer.
1. Because the United States is a place where the previous identities of each immigrant group
are melted down to create an intergrated, uniform society.
83
2. Because it better represents the diverse multicultural society of the United States.
3.It means a picture create by assembling many small stones or tiles.
4. They have established communities alongside those populated by the descendants of
European immigrants.
5. They are Vietnamese Americans and Korean Americans.
II. (10 points): 1 pts/ each correct answer.
1.C
2. A
3. C
4. B
5. A
6. D
7. B
8. D
9. B
10. D
III.(5 points): 1 pts/ each correct answer.
1. D
2. C
3. B
4. C
5. C
SECTION IV : WRITING (25 POINTS)
I.( 1p for 1 correct answer X 5 = 5 points)
there for hours.
2. He suggested inviting the Browns to the party on Sunday.
3. Had it not been for the death of the Prime Minister, the bill would have been passed.
-known.
5. Not until he came into the light did I recognise him.
II.( 1p for 1 correct answer X 5 = 5 points)
s worth asking George to help.
2. I haven’t seen him since I lived in London.
3. I am not used to going into town by car.
4. He plays this piece more beautifully than anybody/ anyone else.
5. I was prevented from going to work by transport strike.
III.( 1p for 1 correct answer X 5 = 5 points)
s on the twentieth of November each year.
84
2. Generally/ In general, it is meant for schoolchildren to show their appreciation to their
teachers who have guided them in their studies.
3. It is a time to forget the bad experiences students may have of their teachers scolding and
punishing them.
4. Students give their teachers flowers and small gifts.
5. Small parties are held and there is an atmosphere of fun and amazenment in the school.
II.10 points
Gm:
1. Form: an essay (2points)
+ Easy to read
+ Coherent
2. Content: ( 4 points)
+Successful fulfillment of the task.
3. Language: ( 4 points)
+ Appropriate vocabulary (1 point )
+ Suitable connectors (0.5 point )
+ Correct grammar (2 points )
+ Punctuating/ Spelling (0.5 point)
ENGLISH PRACTICE 8
Part I: Grammar and Vocabulary – Choose the best answer
1. Our holiday was_________ by the weather.
A. spoilt B. damaged C. overcome D. wasted
2. The________ charged by the architect for the plans of the new building were unusually
high.
85
A. hire B. price C. fees D. sum
3. He_________ his son of the dangers of driving too fast in his new car
A. warned B. remembered C. threatened D. concerned
4. The child was_________ by a lorry on the safety crossing in the main street.
A. knocked out B. run across C. run out D. knocked
down
5. When Ali arrived in London he spent all his time_________ and visited all the important
museums and buildings.
A. sight-seeing B. traveling C. looking D. touring
6. If you want a cheap air ticket you must_________ well in advance.
A. book B. engage C. reserve D. buy
7. His sister was full of_________ for the way in which he had so quickly learned to drive a
car.
A. pride B. admiration C. surprise D. jealousy
8. He asked if we would_________ to share the room.
A. accept B. consider C. agree D. approve
9. I wondered whether you would like to_________ to the theater tomorrow.
A. visit B. go away C. go out D. walk out
10. _________ I would like to say how pleased I am to be here.
A. Primarily B. Foremost C. Earliest D. First
11. The independent arbitrator managed to_________ the confrontation between the union
and the employers.
A. refuse B. confuse C. refute D. defuse
12. When I heard the footsteps behind me I was_________ that I would be attacked.
A. horrified B. terror-struck C. terrorized D. terrified
13. His illness made him_________ of concentration.
A. incompetent B. unable C. incapable D. powerless
14. Has the committee_________ a decision yet?
A. done B. made C. arrived D. voted
15. I am a bit hungry. I think_____________ something to eat.
16. What do you plan to do when you_____________ your course at college?
A. finish B. will finish C. have finished D. is going to
finish
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17. Where_____________? Which hairdresser did you go to?
A. did you cut your hair B. have you cut your hair
C. did you have cut your hair D. did you have your hair cut
18.
A. you come B. you to come C. you would come D. you came
19. I_____________ saying what I think.
A. believe B. believe in C. believe for D. believe
when
20. Somebody ran in front of the car as I was driving. Fortunately I_____________ just in
time.
A. could stop B. could have stopped
C. managed to stop D. must be able to stop
Part II: The passage below contains 10 mistakes. Underline the mistakes and write their
correct forms in the space provided in the column on the right. (0) has been done as an
example.
Traditional, mental tests have been divided into two types.
Achievement tests are designed to measure acquiring skills and
knowledge, particularly those that have been explicitness taught. The
proficiency exams required by few states for high school graduation
are achievement tests. Aptitude tests are designed and measure a
vocation aptitude tests can help you decide whether you would do
better like a mechanic or musician. However, all mental tests are in
some sense achievement tests because they assumption some sort of
past learning or experience with certainly objects, words, or
situations. The difference between achievement and aptitude tests is
the degree and intention use.
0. traditional
1. _____________________
2. _____________________
3. _____________________
4. _____________________
5. _____________________
6. _____________________
7. _____________________
8. _____________________
9. _____________________
10. _____________________
87
Part III: Give the correct form of the words in brackets to fill in the blanks.
Dark black clouds in a dull sky meant one thing and one thing only: there was going to be
suggested we should go to a museum, we all agreed immediately. As we had been (3.
sit down. We took a bus and arrived just as large shops of rain were beginning to fall.
ys
Section B: Reading
Part I:
The shark is a meat- eating fish and one of the most feared animals of the sea. Scientists
but they are most common in warm seas.
grow 60
d
All sharks are carnivores (meat-
al enemy is a large shark. Sharks eat their prey whole, or they tear
1. A. classify B. divide C. organize D. arrange
2. A. all B. through C. throughout D. over
3. A. grow B. rise C. evolve D. vary
4. A. as B. so C. very D. exactly
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5. A. stretch B. measure C. develop D. expand
6. A. some others B. others C. different kinds D. some sharks
7. A. dwell B. exist C. emigrate D. migrate
8. A. fresh B. sweet C. light D. clear
9. A. uncooked B. live C. lively D. alive
10. A. eat B. swallow C. exist D. feed
Part II: Fill in each blank with a suitable word to fill in the blanks.
Vitamins are substances required for the proper functioning of the body. In this century,
thirteen vitamins have
scurvy that is a disease resulting from the lack of vitamin C. It causes bleeding of the gum, loss
of teeth and skin rashes. Sailors suffer from scurvy because they did not eat fruits and vegetables.
Vitamin B complex is composed of eight different vitamins. A lack of any of these
will suffer from beri-
vitamin B2 results in eye and skin problems while deficiency of vitamin B6 causes problems of
deficiencies caused certain diseases led doctors to cure people suffering from these illnesses by
giving
pharmacy.
Part III: Read the following passage and answer the questions by choosing the best answer
among A, B, C or D.
Over the past 600 years, English has grown from a language of few speakers to become the
dominant language of international communication. English as we know it today emerged
around 1350, after having incorporated many elements of French that were introduced following
the Norman invasion of 1066. Until the 1600s, English was, for the most part, spoken only in
England and had not extended even as far as Wales, Scotland, or Ireland. However, during the
89
course of the next two centuries, English began to spread around the globe as a result of
exploration, trade (including slave trade), colonization, and missionary work. That small
enslaves of English speakers became established and grew in various parts of the world. As these
communities proliferated, English gradually became the primary language of international
business, banking, and diplomacy.
Currently, more than 80 percent of the information stored on computer systems worldwide is in
language of technology, advertising, media, international airports, and air traffic controllers.
Today there are 700 million English users in the world, and over half of these are nonnative
speakers, constituting the largest number of nonnative users of any language in the world.
1. What is the main topic of the passage?
A. The number of nonnative users of English.
B. The French influence on the English language.
C. The expansion of English as an internatonal language.
D. The use of English for science and tecnology.
2. English began to be used beyond England approximately.............................
A. in 1066 B. around 1350 C. before 1600 D. after 1600
3. According to the passage, all of the following contributed to the spread of English around the
world EXCEPT A. the slave trade B. the Norman invasion
C. missionaries. D. colonization
4. Which of the following statements is NOT true?
A. Most of the information stored on computer systems is in English.
is in languages other than English.
C. English is the only language used in technology, and advertising.
D. International airports and air controllers use mostly English.
5. According to the passage, approximately how many nonnative users of English are there in the
world today?
A. A quarter million B. Half a million C. 350 million D. 700
million.
90
Part IV:
BITTER WATER HITS THE BIG TIME
Chocolate, which has its origins in South America, is now part of a multi-million pound
worldwide business.
At Easter, British people spend over $230 million on chocolate. A massive eight per
cent of all chocolate is bought at this time.
(1)____. Although the large scale industrial production of chocolate began in the last
century, the cacao plant was first cultivated by the Aztec, Toltec and Mayan civilizations of
Central America over three thousand years ago.
The cacao tree is an evergreen, tropical plant which is found in Africa, South and
Central America, the West Indies and South East Asia. The fruit of this tree is melon-sized and
contains 20-40 seeds. (2)____. In English speaking countries, they are called cocoa beans. This
is a misspelling from the 17
th
century when they were also called cacoa and cocao beans.
The Aztecs used cocoa beans as money. (3)____. This is from the world in the Aztec
mixed with cinnamon and sugar, but the recipe did not spread to the rest of Europe for another
century. In the late 17
th
people gathered to drink chocolate.
(5)____. But in 1826, CJ van Houten of the Netherlands invented chocolate powder.
(6)____.
The age of the chocolate bar as we know it began in 1847 when a Bristol company, Fry
and Sons, combined cocoa butter with pure chocolate liquor and sugar to produce a solid block
that you could eat. (7)____.
At the turn of the century, the British chocolate market was dominated by French
companies. In 1879 the English company Cadbury even named their Birmingham factory
Bournville (ville is the French word for town) in the hope that a little glamour would rub off. But
ch began life as a Dairymaid in 1905. (8)____.It
seems that, for the time being at least, chocolate intake in Britain has established at about four
bars each week. (9)____. The latest market trick is the so-
the humble chocolate bar becomes an ice cream, a soft drink or a dessert, to tempt chocoholics
who have grown tired of conventional snacks.
At the other end of the production process, cacao farmers are still feeling the effects of a
crash in cocoa bean prices at the end of 1980s. (10)____. Perhaps you could spare a thought for
them as you munch your next chocolate bars.
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A. This was made by extracting most of the cocoa butter from the crushed beans.
B. A Swiss company then introduced milk solids to the process which gave us milk chocolate.
C. They also used them to make a drink called xocoatl.
D. Until the last century, the chocolate drink was made from solid blocks of chocolate which
had to be melted down in hot water.
E. When dried they become cacao beans, which can be used to make chocolate.
F. Clever advertising which associated it with the healthy qualities of milk from the English
countryside quickly established the bar as a rival to the more decadent French brands.
G. British manufacturers include up to 5 per cent vegetable fat in their chocolate, something
forbidden elsewhere.
H. As most cacao farmers operate on a very small scale, many were forced out of business.
I. This has forced manufacturers to look for new ways to attract customers.
J. In Aztec times the chocolate drink was flavored with spices and used on ceremonial
occasions and for welcoming visitors.
K. Only at Christmas do people eat more of the cocoa-based foodstuffs.
Section C: Writing
Part I: Rewrite the following sentences so that they have a similar meaning with the first
one.
She reminded him .................................................. .................................................. .........
2. It is believed that the man escaped in a stolen car.
The man............................................... .................................................. ...................
3. A small church lies at the foot of the hill.
At the foot .................................................. .................................................. .....................
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Were you .................................................. .................................................. ......................
It is .................................................. .................................................. .................................
He................................................ .................................................. ........................................
.......................................... ......................
8. Timmy has become confident as a result of his success .
9. I haven't seen my uncle for a long time.
It's a long time .................................................. .................................................. ....................
10. She dances beautifully and she sings sweetly, too.
Not only .................................................. .................................................. .............................
PART II: Rewrite the sentence, using the given word.
1. You should think about the price before you decide whether to buy it or not. (consideration)
call)
3. Twenty years ago this region produced twice as much coal as it does now.(halved)
93
4. The prime minister in unlikely to call an early general election. (likelihood)
5. The policeman acted quickly and averted an accident (prompt)
Part III: Write a composition (300 words) about the following topic:
How do movies and television influence people‟s behavior? Use reasons and specific examples
to support your answer.
94
95
Keys – practice 8
Part I
Câu
1
2
3
4
5
6
7
8
9
10
A
C
A
D
A
A
B
A
C
D
Câu
11
12
13
14
15
16
17
18
19
20
D
D
C
B
A
A
D
D
B
C
Part II
2.
Part III
1. thunderstorm
2. raincoat
3. shopping
4. pleasure
5. deserted
6. beating
7. disturbance
8. entrance
9. led
10. slightest
READING
Part I
1. A 2. C 3. D 4. A 5. B 6. B 7. A 8. A 9. B 10. D
Part II
1.discovered
2. lead
3. suffer
4. contain
5. health
6. diseases
7. disorders
8. knowledge
9. necessary
10. available
Part III
96
1. C 2. D 3. B 4. C 5. C
Part IV
1.K 2.E 3.C 4.J 5.D 6.A 7.B 8.F 9.I 10H
Section C:
1. She reminded him to phone the police.
2. The man is believed to have escaped in a stolen car
3. At the foot of the hill lies a small church
5. It is unnecessary to do so many things to please him.
done it by himself.
10. Not only does she dance beautifully but she also sings sweetly.
Part II
1. You should take the price into consideration before you decide whether to buy it or not
3 .Coal production/ (The coal produced) in this region has been halved in the 20 years.
accident
ENGLISH PRACTICE 9
PART A. PRONUNCIATION
I. Choose the word whose stress pattern is different from the rest
1. A. literature B. concentrate C. comfortable D. rhinoceros
2. A. produce B. protect C. project D. purchase
3. A. policeman B. candidate C. fantastic D. position
4. A. counterpart B. outstanding C. applicant D. wilderness
5. A. mosquito B. document C. literature D. business
6. A. magazine B. preference C. cigarette D. engineer
97
7. A. regardless B. coincide C. specific D. inventive
8. A. promise B. tonight C. furnish D. reason
9. A. electronic B. proficiency C. petroleum D. equivalent
10. A. substantial B. dramatic C. terrorist D. demolish
PART B. LEXICO - GRAMMAR
I. Complete each of the following sentences with the correct answer (A, B, C or D). Identify your
answer by writing the corresponding letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet.
1. You need a passport to cross the _________between Mexico and the United States.
A. edge B. line C. border D. rim
2. When you _______ your destination, your tour guide will meet you at the airport.
A. arrive B. get C. reach D. achieve
3. Rachel is mad ______ the Eurovision.
A. about B. for C. from D. against
4. We are pleased to announce that Keith Danish ______ replace Susan Williams as Operations
Manager from 24
th
September.
A. does B. is about to C. is to D. is due
5. Make sure you mix the ingredients well, ________ you might get lumps in your cake.
A. unless B. otherwise C. provided D. supposing.
e been
7. The bank is reported in the local newspaper _______ in broad daylight yesterday.
A. to be robbed B. robbed C. to have been robbed D. having been
robbed
this morning!
A. forget B. have forgotten C. be forgetting D. have been
forgetting
9. The doctor _______the cut on my knee and said it had completely healed up.
A. examined B. investigated C. researched D. looked into
98
10. Dr parker gave my mum a lovely ______for spaghetti carbonara.
A. receipt B. recipe C. prescription D. paper
A. injured B. broken C. damaged D. spoilt
12. I glanced at the newspaper and saw tha
A. headline B. heading C. subtitle D. chapter
13. I think my favorite _____ is probably table tennis.
A. athletics B. exercise C. sport D. gym
14. I think the discussion has gone on _______ and we should make a decision.
A. long enough B. such long C. so long D. enough long
A. Certain! B. Certainly C. Right! D. Never mind!
16. Lucy was late for school this morning because the alarm d
A. ring off B. get off C. go off D. take
off
17. She applied for paid leave but her boss rejected her application__________.
A. in hand B. on hand C. at hand D. out of hand
19. ______ parrots are native to tropical regions is untrue.
A. That all B. All C. Why all D.
Since all
B. Thanks for the mountains D. The beach definitely
II. There are 10 mistakes in the following passage. Find and then correct them. Write your
answers on your answer sheet.
It is very difficult to succeed in the music business; nine out of ten bands that release a first
record fail to produce the second. Surviving in the music industry requires luck and patience, but
most of all it requires and intricate knowledge of how a record company is functioned. The process
begins when a presenter of a company’s Artist and Repertoire (A&R) department visits bars and
night clubs, scouting for young, talented bands, After the representative identifies a promised band,
he or she will work to negotiate a contract with that band. The signature of this recording contract is
a slow process. A company will spend a long time to investigate the band itself as well as current
trends for popular music. During this period, it is important that a band reciprocates with an
investigation of its own, learning as much as possible about the record company and making
99
III. Supply the correct form of the word in capital letter. Write your answers on your
answer sheet.
PART C. READING
I. Read the following passage and choose the best answer for each question. Identify your
answer by writing the corresponding letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet.
Culture clashes
One (1)______(CHARACTER) of the modern world is that people increasingly find themselves living
side by side with people from other cultures. While in the past people with different cultures were able
to live quite (2)______(SEPARATE), high mobility and freedom of movement mean that we are more
likely today to be confronted with people whose way the life is (3)______(FAMILIAR) to us. In such
circumstances, (4)______(RACE) is a read danger.
People feel a tremendous (5)_____(LOYAL) to their own culture, and are often unwilling to develop
an (6)______(APPRECIATE) of the positive aspects of other cultures. They may feel that another
culture presents a threat to their own (7)______(INHERIT), one that could even lead to the
(8)_____(APPEAR) of certain aspects of their way of life. Often, however, this threat is more a matter
of (9)_____(PERCEIVE) than reality and different groups live in (10) ______(RELATE) harmony
in many parts of the world
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This symptoms of hay fever include watery and itchy eyes and a runny, congested nose.
People suffering from hay fever may experience occasional wheezing and repeated bouts of
sneezing and may even lose their sense of smell. Some victims of hay fever may also have
stopped-up ears. About 30 percent of those who suffer from hay fever may develop the
symptoms associated with periodic asthma or a sinus infection. The allergen-antibody theory
does not fully explain allergic reactions because the membranes and glands in eyes and ears are
controlled by the independent nervous system, which keeps these organs in balance. But the
independent nervous system itself is part of the emotional- response center and may cause the
feelings of anger, fear, resentment, and lack of self-confidence in reaction to allergy-causing
substances.
The most common cause of hay fever is the pollen of ragweed, which blossoms during
the summer and autumn. When airborne pollen particles, as well mold, come into contact with
ranes, they can cause allergic reactions that release histamine and result in
virtual blockage of air passages. To prevent hay fever or to decrease the severity of its
symptoms, contact with the ragweed pollen should be reduced. Although some communities
have attempted to eliminate the plants that cause the reactions, elimination programs have not
been successful because airborne pollen can travel considerable distances. Antihistamine can
help with short but severe attacks. Over extended periods of time, however, patients are
prescribed a series of injections of the substance to which they are sensitive in order to increase
immunity and thus be relieved of the seasonal allergy.
(Resource: Toefl test strategies by Eli Hinkel, Ph.D)
1.It can be inferred from the passage that the phrase “hay fever” refers to
A. fodder for cattle B. a seasonal discomfort
C. viral bacteria D. a lung disease
2. According to the passage, the symptoms of the allergy are predominantly
A. abdominal B. intestinal C. respiratory D. chronic
3. What can be inferred from the first paragraph?
A. Hay fever may cause severe allergic reactions and even death.
B. The cause of allergic reactions has not been determined.
C. The nervous system balances allergic reactions.
D. People should not have an emotional response to allergic reactions.
4. According to the passage, patients suffering from hay fever may also experience
A. hunger pains B. mood swings
C. nervous blockages D. sensory perceptions
5. The word “resentmentis closest in meaning to
A. reprieve B. reprisal C. irritation D. grief
6. According to the passage, the irritants are transported by
A. wind B. food C. travelers D. air
passages
7. The word “blockage” in the passage is closest in meaning to
101
A. obstruction B. bleeding C. enlargement D. dryness
8. According to the passage, to avoid incidents of hay fever, patients need to
A. avoid interactions with other patients
B. avoid exposure to pollen
C. increase their self-confidence
D. take doses of prescribed medicine.
9. Which of the following is NOT mentioned in the passage as a cause of allergies?
A. pollen B. mold C. flowers D. injections
10. A paragraph following this passage would most probably discuss
A. how the nervous system alerts patients.
B. how the immune system reacts to allergens.
C. what other diseases can be relieved by vaccines.
D. What flowers are harmless to hay fever patients.
II. Complete the following passage by choosing the correct option (A, B, C or D) to fill in
blanks. Write your answers on your answer sheet.
Down from the mountains
On the fourth day, We started our descent from the mountain range. We walked down the narrow
track in single (1)______, taking care not to slip on the wet surface. We followed the river down
a steep-sided (2)_____, stopping just once along the way to take a shower under a
beautiful______(3). Soon the (4)_______ began to change, with more and more trees and (5)
______vegetation. Several (6)_______ of birds flew overhead, and we saw an amazing multi-
coloured snake lying under a small (7)______ as we walked past. By the afternoon, the
countryside was changing again as we approached the coast. Here, there were (8)_______ where
farmers grew a variety of crops such as wheat, and we saw a (9)_________ of cows near a
farmhouse. Then we climbed up and down some tall, grass-covered (10)_______ , and at last we
had arrived at the sea.
1. A. line B. file C. track D.
queue
2. A. channel B. lagoon C. canal D. valley
3. A. pond B. waterfall C. current D. bath
4. A. scenery B. sights C. settings D.scenes
5. A. dense B. tight C. intense D.
close
6. A. crews B. bunches C. flocks D. crowds
7. A. wood B. hedge C. bush D.
forest
8. A. deserts B. fields C. shores D. jungles
9. A. team B. gang C. pack
D. herd
10. A. dunes B. beaches C. plains D. fences
102
II. Read the text below and think of the word which best fits each space. Use only ONE
word in each space. Write your answers on your answer sheet.
Travel Insurance
When going on holiday, it is always a good idea to take out travel insurance. This is just in case
something goes (1) _____ along the way. You could lose your luggage, you could be robbed, or
even become ill and need expensive medical treatment. For millions of holiday makers, travel
insurance is just a precaution (2)_______ will help them have an enjoyable and worry-free
holiday. But for (3)_____, travel insurance is a way of earning money (4) ______ making false
claims against insurance companies. For (5) ______ some people pretend that they have had
expensive equipment stolen which in (6) ______ never even existed, and then claim large sums
in compensation. Such claims cost insurance company a total (7)_____ £ 50 million per year.
will be able to tell at a glance (10) _____ someone has made a claim within the last three years.
Honest travelers will no longer have to pay through the nose f
PART D. WRITING
I. Complete the second sentence so that it has the similar meaning to the first sentence.
Write your answers on your answer sheet.
1. Is there any chance of his coming to the party? (likely)
Is he ________________________________________________________?
(have)
It ________________________________________________________
3. He promised me he would be back before midnight. (word)
He _________________________________________________________
4. He prefers cycling to walking. (prefer)
He would _____________________________________________________.
5. That dress is a third of the cost of the blue one. (much)
The blue dress is _______________________________________________
II. Essay writing
” Nowadays, the increasing number of schools in Vietnam are facing with the alarming issue,
school violence. What do you think are the causes of this? What solutions can you suggest?”
You should write about 250 words.
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………………
………………………………….………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………………
……………………………….…………………………………………………………………………………
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…………………………………………………………………………………………………………………
………………………………………………………………………………………………………….………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………………
………………………………………………………………….………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………….……………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………………
………………………………………………….………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………………
………….………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………….……………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………
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Keys – practice 9
PART A. PRONUNCIATION
I. Choose the word whose stress pattern is different from the rest
1. A. literature B. concentrate C. comfortable D.
rhinoceros
2. A. produce B. protect C. project D.
purchase
3. A. policeman B. candidate C. fantastic D.
position
4. A. counterpart B. outstanding C. applicant D.
wilderness
5. A. mosquito B. document C. literature D.
business
6. A. magazine B. preference C. cigarette D.
engineer
7. A. regardless B. coincide C. specific D.
inventive
8. A. promise B. tonight C. furnish D. reason
9. A. electronic B. proficiency C. petroleum D.
equivalent
10. A. substantial B. dramatic C. terrorist D.
demolish
PART B. LEXICO – GRAMMAR
I. Complete each of the following sentences with the correct answer (A, B, C or D). Identify your
answer by writing the corresponding letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet. (1pt; 0.05/item)
1. C
2. C
3. A
4. C
5. B
6. A
7. C
8. B
9. A
10. B
11. A
12. A
13. C
14. A
15. B
16. C
17. D
18. C
19. A
20. D
II. There are 10 mistakes in the following passage. Find and then correct them. Write your
answers on your answer sheet. (1pt; 0.1/item)
105
III. Supply the correct form of the word in capital letter. Write your answers on your
answer sheet. (1pt; 0.1/item)
1. characteristic 2. separately 3. unfamiliar 4. racism 5.
loyalty
6. appreciation 7. heritage 8. disappearance 9. perception 10.
relative
PART C. READING
I. Read the following passage and choose the best answer for each question. Identify your
answer by writing the corresponding letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet. (1pt; 0.1/item)
1.B
2.C
3. B
4. B
5. C
6. A
7. A
8. B
9. D
10. B
II. Complete the following passage by choosing the correct option (A, B, C or D) to fill in
blanks. Write your answers on your answer sheet. (1pt; 0.1/item)
1. B
2.D
3. B
4. A
5. A
6. C
7. C
8. B
9. D
10. A
III. Read the text below and think of the word which best fits each space. Use only ONE
word in each space. Write your answers on your answer sheet. (1pt; 0.1/item)
1. wrong 2. which 3. others/ some 4. by 5. example/
instance
6. fact 7. of 8. out 9. Thanks 10. whether/ if
PART D. WRITING (2pt)
I. Complete the second sentence so that it has the similar meaning to the first sentence.
Write your answers on your answer sheet. (0.5 pt; 0.1/item)
1. Is he likely to come to the party?
2. It can’t have been Jim who did it.
3. He gave me his word that he would be back before midnight
4. He would prefer to cycle rather than walk.
5. The blue dress is three time as much as that one.
II. Essay writing (1.5pt)
” Nowadays, the increasing number of schools in Vietnam are facing with the alarming issue,
school violence. What do you think are the causes of this? What solutions can you suggest?”
You should write about 250 words
Total score: 1.5 points;
Task achievement (25 % of total mark)
Grammar range and Accuracy (25 % of total mark)
Coherence and cohesion (25 % of total mark)
106
Lexical resource (25 % of total mark)
ENGLISH PRACTICE 10
PART A. PRONUNCIATION
Choose the word whose stress pattern is different
1. A. different B. tradition C. opera D. capital
2. A. individual B. unemployment C. difficult D. Population
3. A. apply B. appear C. visit D. attend
4. A. kindergarten B. conventional C. contaminate D. curriculum
5. A. corporate B. different C. engineer D. difficult
6. A. adorable B. ability C. entertainment D. impossible
7. A. company B. customer C. atmosphere D. employment
8. A. university B. institution C. preferential D. indicative
9. A. environment B. difficulty C. inhabitant D. community
10. A. impossible B. entertainment C. adorable D. ability
PART B. LEXICO-GRAMMAR
I. Complete each of the following sentences with the correct answer (A, B, C or D). Identify your
answer by writing the corresponding letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet.
A. far any more B. any longer C. any more far D. any lengthier
2. He missed two most important lectures. He _________very ill.
A. had to be B. must be C. was to be D. must have been
A. B. Without doubt C. No, feel free D. Straight ahead
before or after meal, Ron?
A. when to take B. what I will take with
C. on which I should take D. when I take
A. because B. although C. for fear of D. in case
6. How boring the lecture was! I _______ just in the first half of it.
A. dropped off B. fell out C. called off D. came out
7. Will it make any _______ to them if we deliver their equipment tomorrow?
A. displeasure B. alteration C. difference D. conflict
A. over B. on C. off D. out of
A. Try out B. Keep on C. Speed up D. Go off
in print.
A. both of which B. both of them C. all of which D. all of them
107
II. Supply the correct form of the word in capital letter. Write your answers on your answer
sheet.
With the development of fast motorway systems in many countries, once remote parts of the
countryside are (1. INCREASE) __________ becoming (2. ACCESS) ____________to people
who live in towns and cities. In many parts of the world, rising (3. PERSON)
____________incomes have resulted in mass (4. OWN) ____________ of motor cars at a time
when people have more leisure time to fill.
This means that there is a lot of (5. PRESS) ___________ on the countryside to accept a growing
number of visitors. In Britain, for example, the (6. NATION)____________ parks are used by
more than one hundred million people annually.
In (7. ADD) __________, similar numbers visit areas that do not enjoy the same level of (8.
PROTECT) ____________. Some people regard this invasion of the countryside as (9. DESIRE)
____________and they have begun campaigning to try and save some aspects of (10.
TRADITION)____________ rural culture.
III. In most lines of this text there is one unnecessary word. It is either incorrect
grammatically, or does not fit the sense of the text. Write the unnecessary word in the space
beside the text. Tick (√) each correct line. There are two examples at the beginning. Transfer
your answers to your answer sheet.
ots of favourite films. But
that kind because the characters are they such unusual people. The detective in
it, for example, is a computer expert who solves crimes on her computer using
information given to her by her assistants, who go out and interview to people.
The case in the film concerns about the wife of a millionaire, who has gone
missing.
up with it. There are a lot of strange characters in it, such as a man who always
wears two hats on, and some of the scenes really made me laugh. Also, there is
a big surprise at the
-
that.
PART C. READING
I. Read the following passage and choose the best answer for each question. Identify your
answer by writing the corresponding letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet.
ancient times? Or is it because the originators preferred odd words?
Take February, for example. Say it aloud a few minutes and you start to wonder. Most
of the months came mostly from a combination of the names of Roman gods and goddesses,
important festivals, and the original numbers of the months.
Julius Caesar and Pope Gregory XIII change the calendar to make it more exact. Caesar
developed a new calendar of 364 and a quarter days, the time it takes the earth to orbit the sun
108
years; they determined that there should be no leap year in years ending in 00- unless they were
divisible by 400; the years 1700, 1800, 1900 and 2100 would not be considered leap years, while
the years 1600 and 2000 would be. This new Gregorian calendar was so accurate that today,
scientists need only add leap seconds every few years to the clock in order to keep the calendar
ycles.
1. What is the topic of the passage?
A. how the modern calendar was named and developed
B. how the months were named
C. how the leap year system was developed
D. how accurate the modern day is calendar
2. It can be inferred from paragraph 1 that the author think the names of the months are
__________.
A. odd B. difficult to pronounce C. inappropriate D. none of the
answers
A. calendars B. days C. astronomers D. years
A. interesting B. informative C. correct D. simple
5. Which of the following will be a leap year?
A. 2300 B. 2400 C. 2200 D. 2500
6. Which of the following is true of the Gregorian calendar?
A. It needs major improvements.
B. It was so well designed, it needs little adjusting today.
D. none of the answers
7. Why is Caesar important in calendar making?
A. He changed the length of the year
B. He extended summer.
C. He has a month named for him
D. He altered the number of days in the year.
8. In what order is the information in the passage presented?
B. Roman Gods, important festivals, original numbers of months
D. none of the answers
A. studied B. invented C. observed D. improved
10. Why is the number of 364 and a quarter important?
A. It is the length of time from the beginning of spring to the end of winter.
B. It is the length of a planetary year.
C. It is the most accurate number for calendars.
D. It was a number randomly chosen by Caesar for his calendar.
II. Read the text below and think of the word which best fits each space. Use only ONE word
in each space. Write your answers on your answer sheet.
The legend of the root
109
its widespread use in oriental medicine has led to many myths and legends building up around
this remarkable plant. Ginseng has featured (1) ____ an active ingredient in oriental medical
literature for over 5,000 years. Its beneficial effects were, at one time, (2) ____ widely
recognized and praised that the root was said to be worth its weight in gold.
(3) ____ the long history of ginseng, no one fully knows how it works. The active part of
the ____ (4) is the root. Its full name is Panax Ginseng the word Panax, (5) ____ the word
in the study of ginseng. It is today believed that this remarkable plant may (6) ____ beneficial
effects in the treatment of many diseases which are difficult to treat with synthetic drug.
Today, ginseng is (7) ____ longer a myth or a legend. Throughout the world it is
becoming widely recognized that this ancient herb holds the answer to relieving the stresses and
ailments of modern living. It is widely used for the treatment of various ailments (8) ____ as
arthritis, diabetes, insomnia, hepatitis and anemia. However, the truth behind (9) ____ ginseng
works still remains a mystery. Yet its widespread effectiveness shows that the remarkable
properties are (10) ____ than just a legend.
III. Read the following passage and choose the best answer for each question. Identify your
answer by writing the corresponding letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet.
Environmental Concerns
Earth is the only place we know of on the universe that can support human life. (1)
________ human activities are making the planet less fit to live on. As the western world (2)
_______ on consuming two-
do so (3) ________ to stay alive we are rapidly destroying the (4) _______resource we have by
which all people can survive and prosper. Everywhere fertile soil is (5) ___________built on or
washed into the sea. Renewable resources are exploited so much that they will never be able to
recover (6) ______. We discharge pollutants into the atmosphere without any thought of the
consequences. As a result the plane
time when rising human numbers and consumption are (8) _______ increasingly heavy demands
medicines, warmth, shelter and minerals to (9) _______ us fed, comfortable, healthy and active.
If we are sensible in how we use the resources they will (10) _______ indefinitely. But if we use
them wastefully and excessively they will soon run out and everyone will suffer.
1. A. Although B. Still C. Yet D. Despite
2. A. continues B. repeats C. carries D. follows
3. A. already B. just C. for D. entirely
4. A. alone B. individual C. lone D. only
5. A. sooner B. neither C. either D. rather
6. A. quite B. greatly C. utterly D. completely
7. A. stopped B. narrowed C. reduced D. cut
8. A. doing B. having C. taking D. making
9. A. hold B. maintain C. stay D. keep
10. A. last B. stand C. go D. remain
PART D: WRITING
110
I. Complete the second sentence so that it has the similar meaning to the first sentence. Write
your answers on your answer sheet.
1. Its lack of irregular verbs makes Esperanto a unique language.
Unlike_________________________________________________.
Had_________________________________________________.
3. The Board of Directors discussed the business in length, but came to no decision.
The Board of Directors had ________________________________.
4. When she got to the party, everyone was dancing and singing.
On_________________________________________________.
5. Barbara runs a successful company and she also manages to look after her five children.
Not only_________________________________________________.
II. Write a passage of about 200 words to show your opinion on the following statement:
“Some people believe that children’s leisure activities must be educational, otherwise they
are a complete waste of time”
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--------------THE END --------------
112
Keys – practice 10
PART A. PRONUNCIATION
Choose the word whose stress pattern is different
1. A. different B. tradition C. opera D.
capital
2. A. individual B. unemployment C. difficult D.
Population
3. A. apply B. appear C. visit D. attend
4. A. kindergarten B. conventional C. contaminate D.
curriculum
5. A. corporate B. different C. engineer D.
difficult
6. A. adorable B. ability C. entertainment D.
impossible
7. A. company B. customer C. atmosphere D.
employment
8. A. university B. institution C. preferential D.
indicative
9. A. environment B. difficulty C. inhabitant D.
community
10. A. impossible B. entertainment C. adorable D. ability
PART B. LEXICO-GRAMMAR (30 points)
I. 10 points- Half a point for each correct answer)
1. B
2. D
3. C
4. A
5. D
6. A
7. C
8. C
9. B
10. D
II. 10 points (one point for each correct answer)
1. increasingly
2. accessible
3. personal
4. ownership
5. pressure
6. national
7. addition
8. protection
9. undesirable
10. traditional
III. 10 points (one point for each correct answer)
1.
2. they
3.
4. to
5. about
6.
7.
8. on
9. the
10. do
PART C: READING (30 POINTS)
I. (10 points: one point for each correct answer)
1. A
2. A
3. C
4. C
5. B
6. B
7. A
8. C
9. D
10. B
II. (10 points: one point for each correct answer).
1. as
2. so
3. despite
4. plant
5. like
6. have/cause/produce
7. no
8. such
9. how
10. more
III. (10 points: one point for each correct item).
1. C
2. C
3. B
4. D
5. C
6. D
7. C
8. D
9. D
10. A
113
PART D: WRITING (20 POINTS)
I. (5 points: one point for each correct answer).
1. Unlike other languages, Esperanto has no irregular verbs.
2. Had Mr. Smith known something / more / a little more / some more about the Internet, he
would have invested into some computer companies.
3. The Board of Directors had a long discussion on / about the business, but came to / reached /
made no decision.
4. On her arrival at the party, everyone was dancing and singing.
5. Not only does Barbara run a successful company, but she also manages to look after her five
children /but she manages to look after her five children as well.
II. 15 points: Bài viết cần phù hợp về hình thức, ngôn ngữ và nội dung.
1. Form: passage (2 points)
- Easy to follow
- Coherent
2. Content: (8 points)
+Successful fulfillment of the task.
3. Language: (5 points)
+ Appropriate vocabulary (1.5 point)
+ Suitable connectors (1 point\
+ Correct grammar (1.5 points)
+ Punctuating / Spelling (1 point)
--------------THE END--------------
ENGLISH PRACTICE 11
I. Choose the word that has a different stress pattern from the others.
21. A.shower B.allow C.shout
D.arrow
22. A.increase B.creation C.mean D.cheat
23. A.danger B.exchange C.blame D.anger
24. A.these B.theory C.worth D.threaten
25. A. chamber B. ancient C. danger D. ancestor
26. A. smoothly B. southern C. breath D. airworthy
27. A dozen B glove C love D stove
28. A kites B catches C oranges D buzzes
29. A wood B good C food D
childhood
30. A whistled B laughed C lodged D received
I. Choose the word that has a different stress pattern from the others.
16. A. community B. developing C. conditioner D. interested
17. A. continue B. importance C. different D. directed
18. A. medicines B. opposite C. pollution D. capable
19. A. preservation B. inspiration C. disposable D. popularity
20. A. exhausted B. atmosphere C. suspect D. computer
II. Choose the word, phrase or expression which best completes each sentence.
21. Hoa:
A. Yes, I am.
A. No problem B. Thank you. Hope you will drop in.
D. I think so.
23. You have never been to Italy, ________?
A. have you C. did you D. had you
A. character B. looking C. appearance D. personality
-
A. By bike B. Not much C. It sounds better D. Mu
26. ________ a dentist, Mike is very concerned about having healthy teeth.
A. Because B. He is C. As D. That he is
27. ________, you need to achieve a score of 60% or more.
A. To pass this test B. For being passed this test
C. In order pass this test D. So that to pass this test
28. As a famous person ________ many children admire, it is important for her to act
responsibly.
A. whose B. whom C. which D. when
29. The brochure says that the hotel has a great ________ of the sea.
A. appearance B. look C. sight D. view
30. Our new coach is popular ________ the whole team.
A. with B. to C. by D. for
A. have done B. did C. will do D. will have done
32. Margaret was slow at school, but she went on ________ Prime Minister.
A. being B. to be C. having been D. to have been
33. In 1870, ________, John D. Rockefeller and others created the Standard Oil Company.
A. in spite of oil prices fluctuated B. despite fluctuating oil prices
C. but the oil prices fluctuated D. oil prices were fluctuating
A. going B. making C. doing D. being
-
A. OK, what time? C. I know
III. Give the correct form of the words in brackets.
36. We found it ____________ (thrill) to your wonderful news. THRILLING
37. He left the room without any ____________ (explain). EXPLANATION
success). UNSUCCESSFULLY
39. Many people expressed ____________ (disagree) with the whole idea. DISAGREEMENT
40. There was a ____________ (wide
WIDESPREAD
41. Her health has ____________ (bad) considerably since we last saw her. WORSENED
42. A lot of plants and animals could be used as medicines against cancer, AIDS, heart diseases
and other ____________ (sick). SICKNESSES
43. He was ____________ (information) of the consequences in advance. INFORMED
44. I was kept ____________ (wake) last night by the noise from a party in the flat above.
AWAKE
45. This road is so bad that it needs ____________ (surface). RESURFACING
IV. Choose the underlined word or phrase in each sentence that needs correcting.
46. Last week unless my mother had had enough money, she would have bought that toy for me.
47. It often takes me about fifteen minutes to go to work from here by foot.
48. Those people say that it is such polluted air that they , ?
49. It is noisy enough in this room, so I would rather you stop shouting like that.
50. Dr. Roberts, the first woman to be elected president of the university, is intelligent, capable
and awareness of the problem to be solved.
V. Fill in the gaps
A. terrible B. size C. hope D. wrong E. loose F.
problem G. want
Choosing clothes can be difficult. Some people (51)________ to be fashionable, but they
ook exactly like everybody else. Not all clothes are suitable for work or school,
perhaps because they are not formal enough, or simply not comfortable. It is easy to buy the
(52)_________ size, and find that your trousers are too tight, especially if you are a little bit
overweight. Very (53)________ clothes make you feel slim, but when they have shrunk in the
washing machine, then you have the same (54)________! If you buy light cotton clothes, then
they might not be warm enough for winter. If your shoes
for the cold, you might look good, but feel (55)________!
II. Read the following passage and decide which option A, B, C or D best fits each space.
(10 points)
Schools in the United States have not always had a large number of libraries. As
(56)________as 1958 about half of the public schools in the United States had no libraries at all.
The number of public school libraries increased dramatically (57)_______ the federal
government passed the Elementary and Secondary Education Act of 1965, ( 58)_______
provided funds for school districts to improve their education programs and facilities, including
their libraries. (59) ________, many educators claim that since the legislation was passed federal
spending has not increased sufficiently to meet the rising (60)______ of new library technologies
such as computer databases and Internet access.
Because the federal government provides only limited funds to schools, individual school
districts (61) _______ on funds from local property taxes to meet the vast majority of public
school expenses. Therefore, the libraries of the public schools tend to reflect the (62) ______
capabilities of the communities in which they are located. Districts in wealthy suburbs often have
fully staffed libraries (63) _______ abundant resources, spacious facilities, and curricular and
instructional support. In (64) ______, school districts in many poor areas house their libraries in
ordinary classrooms or in small rooms. The libraries in such areas are generally staffed by
volunteers, who organize and (65) ______ books that are often out-of-date, irrelevant, or
damaged.
56. A. freshly
57. A. though
58. A. that
59. A. Nevertheless
60. A. fine
B. recently
B. with
B. who
B. Therefore
B. fee
C. frequently
C. during
C. which
C. Consequently
C. cost
D. newly
D. when
D. this
D. Otherwise
D. sum
61. A. go
62. A. educational
63. A. for
64. A. country
65. A. attain
B. come
B. economical
B. with
B. converse
B. obtain
C. rely
C. political
C. on
C. contrast
C. contain
D. stay
D. financial
D. by
D. conflict
D. maintain
III. Read the passage and choose the correct answer A, B, C or D(10 points).
Before the mid-nineteenth century, people in the United States ate most foods only in season.
Drying, smoking and salting could preserve meat for a short time, but the availability of fresh
meat, like that of fresh milk, was very limited; there was no way to prevent spoilage. But in
1810, a French inventor named Nicolas Appert developed the cooking-and-sealing process of
and preserving milk. Canned goods and condensed milk became more common during the
By 1880, however,
inventors had fashioned stamping and soldering machines that mass-produced cans from tinplate.
Suddenly all kinds of food could be preserved and bought at all times of the year.
Other trends and inventions had also helped make it possible for Americans to vary their
daily diets. Growing urban population created demand that encouraged fruit and vegetable
farmers to raise more produce. Railroad refrigerator cars enabled growers and meat packers to
ship perishables great distances and to preserve them
northern city dwellers could enjoy southern and western strawberries, grapes, and tomatoes,
previously available for a month at most, for up to six months of the year. In addition, increased
use of iceboxes enabled families to store perishables. As easy means of producing ice
thousand commercial ice plants, most of which made home deliveries. The icebox became a
fixture in most homes and remained so until the mechanized refrigerator replaced it in the
Almost everyone now had a more diversified diet. Some people continued to eat mainly
foods that were heavily in starches or carbohydrates, and not everyone could afford meat.
Nevertheless, many families could take advantage of previously unavailable fruits, vegetables,
and dairy products to achieve more varied fare.
66. What does the passage mainly discuss?
A. Causes of food spoilage
B. Commercial production of ice
C. Population movements in the nineteenth century
D. Inventions that led to changes in the American diet
in season
A. a particular time of year B. a kind of weather
C. an official schedule D. a method of flavoring
A. unavailable in rural areas B. available in limited quantities
C. shipped in refrigerator cars D. a staple part of the American diet.
69. It can be inferred that railroad refrigerator cars came into use
A. before 1860 B. before 1890 C. after 1900 D. after 1920
70. The word” them
A. refrigerator cars B.growers C. perishables D. distances.
7fixture” in line 18 is closest in meaning to
A. commonplace object B. substance C. luxury item D. mechanical
device
A. increased in cost B. occurred only in the summer
C. decreased in number D. were on an irregular schedule
Nevertheless
A. occasionally B. however C. therefore D. because
74. Which of the following types of food preservation was NOT mentioned in the passage?
A. Drying B. Chemical additives C. Canning D. Cold storage
75. Which of the following statements is supported by the passage?
A. Most farmers in the United States raised only fruits and vegetables.
B. People who lived in cities demanded home delivery of foods.
C. Tin cans and iceboxes helped to make many foods more widely available.
D. Commercial ice factories were developed by railroad owners
E. Writing
I. Finish each of the following sentences in such a way that it means exactly the same as the
sentences printed before. (5 points)
76. Having nothing else to do, we decided to go for a walk.
- Since.............................................................................................................................
77. She was not only bad-tempered but also very lazy.
- As well ........................................................................................................................
_ She flatly.......................................................................................................................
79. The school I studied at last year was better than this one.
- ...............................
- ....
II. Use the suggested words and phrases to write complete sentences of a letter. (10 points)
Dear Sir or Madam.
81. I/ write/ complain/ hair drier/ buy/ your shop/ last Saturday/ and/ treatment/ I receive/ when/ I
try/ return/ a few days later.
............................................................................................................................................
............................................................
............................................................................................................................................
............................................................
82.I buy/ hair drier/ Wednesday, November 22
nd
.
............................................................................................................................................
............................................................
83. first time/ try/ use/ handle become/ extremely hot/ and within a few minutes/ part/ plastic
casing/ begin/ melt.
............................................................................................................................................
............................................................
............................................................................................................................................
............................................................
84. I turn/ off/ immediately/ return/ with/ receipt/ your shop/ Saturday.
............................................................................................................................................
............................................................
85. I explain/ situation/ one/ assistants/ ask/ money back/ but / be told/ speak/ you.
............................................................................................................................................
............................................................
............................................................................................................................................
............................................................
86. Unfortunately you/ not available/ that day/ I/ write instead.
............................................................................................................................................
............................................................
87. I enclose/ hair drier/ copy of/ original receipt.
............................................................................................................................................
............................................................
88. Please send/ full fund/ soon/ possible.
............................................................................................................................................
............................................................
Yours faithfully,
III. Write a paragraph of about 120 words on the following topic: ( 10 points)
What club do you want to be founded in your school? Why?
............................................................................................................................................
............................................................
............................................................................................................................................
............................................................
............................................................................................................................................
............................................................
............................................................................................................................................
............................................................
............................................................................................................................................
............................................................
............................................................................................................................................
............................................................
............................................................................................................................................
............................................................
............................................................................................................................................
............................................................
Keys – practice 11
I. Choose the word that has a different stress pattern from the others.
1. A.shower B.allow C.shout
D.arrow
2. A.increase B.creation C.mean D.cheat
3. A.danger B.exchange C.blame D.anger
4. A.these B.theory C.worth D.threaten
5. A. chamber B. ancient C. danger D. ancestor
6. A. smoothly B. southern C. breath D. airworthy
7. A dozen B glove C love D stove
8. A kites B catches C oranges D buzzes
9. A wood B good C food D
childhood
10. A whistled B laughed C lodged D received
B. PHONETICS: ( 5 points) ( 1 point for each correct answer)
16. D 17. C 18. C 19. C 20. B
C. GRAMMAR – VOCABULARY – LANGUAGE FUNCTIONS.
I.
21. D 22. B 23. A 24. C 25. D 26. C 27. A 28.B
29. D 30.A 31. A 32. B 33. B 34. D 35.A
II.
36. THRILLING
37. EXPLANATION
38. UNSUCCESSFULLY
39. DISAGREEMENTS
40. WIDESPREAD
41. WORSENED
42. SICKNESSES
43. INFORMED
44. AWAKE
45. RESURFACING
III.
46.A 47. D 48. C 49. D 50.C
D. READING:
I. 51. G 52.D 53.E 54.F 55.A
II.
56. B 57. D 58. C 59. A 60. C
61. C 62. D 63. B 64. C 65. D
III.
66.D 67. A 68. B 69.B 70.C 71.A 72.C 73.B 74.B 75.C
E. WRITING.
I.
76. Since we had nothing else to do, we decided to go for a walk.
77. As well as being bad-
78. She flatly refused to apply for that kind of job.
now.
II. Dear Sir or Madam.
81. I am writing to complain about the/a hair drier (0.5)( which/that I) bought in your shop last
Saturday(0.5) and the treatment (which/that) I received (0.5)when trying/I tried to return it a few
days later.(0.5)
82. I bought the hair drier(0.5) on Wednesday, November 22
nd
.(0.5)
83. The first time I tried to use it,(0.5) the handle became extremely hot (0.5)and within a few
minutes part of the plastic casing began to melt.(0.5)
84. I turned it off immediately (0.5)and returned it with the receipt to your shop on
Saturday.(0.5)
85. I explained the situation to one of the/ your assistants (0.5)and asked for my/the money
back(0.5) but I was told (that I had) to speak to you.(0.5)
86. Unfortunately, you were not available that day,(0.5) so I am writing instead.(0.5)
87. I enclose the hair drier(0.5) and a/the copy of the original receipt.(0.5)
88. Please send me a full refund (0.5) as soon as possible (0.5)
Yours faithfully.
ENGLISH PRACTICE 12
PART I: PHONETICS. (1, 0 POINT).
Choose the word whose stress pattern is different from that of the other words in the same
group. Write your answer in the numbered box.
1. A. exposure B. Terminal C. utterance D. discipline
2. A. Economy B. Elaborate C. Assassinate D. Fascinate
3. A. mountain B. sustain C. contain D. retain
4. A. fulltime B. farmhand C. bookshop D. tradesman
5. A. Metropolitan
B. Entrepreneurial C. Hippopotamus D. curiosity
6. A. company B. comfortable C. together D. business
7. A. Associate B. Formal C. Movement D. militant
8. A. Important B. Cigarette
3
C. Protection
2
D. informal
9. A. introduce B. conversation
C. independent D. welcome
10. A. expect B. alone C. liquor D. invite
PART II: VOCABULARY AND GRAMMAR. (8, 0 POINTS).
I. Choose the best answer to fill in each gap. Write your answer in the numbered box. (1, 5
point).
1. In the ___of security, personnel must wear their identity badges at all times.
A. requirement B. interests C. demands D. assistance
2. ___ how angry he was he would never resort to violence.
A. No matter B. No problem C. Although D. Because
3. We played the game ___ the rules.
A. on account of B. ahead of C. according to D. apart from
B. I had tried D. I tried
5. This is ___ the most difficult job I have ever tackled.
A. by rights B. by all means C. by far D. by the way
6. She ___till the early hours listening to pop music.
A. took me up B. kept me up C. caught me up D. held me up
A. let B. put C. leave D. take
8. The chairman requested that ___
A. the members studied more carefully the problem.
B. the problem was more carefully studied.
C. with more carefulness the problem could be studied.
D. the members study the problem more carefully.
9. Smoking is ___ in many companies in our country.
A. permitted B. taught C. banned D. stopped
10. After the battle, the ___ soldiers were helped by those who could walk.
A. injured B. wounded C. broken D. killed
A. turn up B. care for C. show off D. catch on
12. Their house is ___ near the Cathedral.
A. whereabouts B. anywhere C. somewhere D. any place
13. This young tree could not have been damaged by accident. I believe it was done ___
A. in fact B. on purpose C. by appointment D. by plan
14. There was hardly ___ money left in my bank account.
A. more B. no C. some D. any
15. It is wrongly believed that natural resources will never be used ___.
A. off B. out C. away D. up
II. Give the correct tenses of the verbs in brackets. Write your answer in the box. (1,5
point)
1. If he __ (1. not drink) too much last night, he __ (2. not - be) tired now.
(3. be) at home last night because the door was open when I _ (4.
come).
3. At this time next week, they _(5. sit) in the train on their way to Paris.
(6. close) the window.
(8. be)away.
6. On the first of next month, he __ (9. be) in prison for five years.
7. His personal problems seem __ (10. distract) him from his work lately.
8. He suggested that a final decision ___ (11. make).
__ (12. always - make) noise in class, Tom.
10. __ (13. you/visit) many museums when you were in Paris?
11. The car looks very clean. ___ (14. you/wash) it?
12. My best friend, James, was no longer there. He ___ (15. go) away.
III. Put the correct form of the words in brackets. Write your answer in the box. (2,0
points) AUTUMN COLORS
A new term is rapidly gaining recognition in the American language - a 'leaf peeper' is
someone who, in autumn, is on the ___ (1. LOOK) for areas where the leaves of deciduous trees
have changed colour. In New England, in the USA, 'leaf peeping' is big business, generating
millions of dollars annually. The first report that leaves are changing colour sets off an ___ (2.
INVADE) of 'peepers' thus causing serious obstruction on some roads. Thousands of people log
on to websites in their __ (3. EAGER) to find the location of the trees that have foliage in the
most ___ (4. GLORY)colours. The popularity of 'leaf tourism' is well established in New
England, and the changing colours of autumn provide an annual __ (5. TALK) point. The
colours vary from year to year since the __ (6. INTENSE) of the colour is __(7. DEPEND) on
the chemical composition of the dying leaves. After a long dry summer, leaves often turn bright
red, while cloudy autumn days will produce less spectacular yellows. If climate change leads to
__ (8. INCREASE) hot, dry summers in the northern hemisphere, then countries in Europe can
expect summers not __ (9. LIKE) those across the Atlantic. They will then enjoy a kaleidoscope
of ___ (10. SEASON)colour to rival the deep reds and blazing oranges seen in New England.
IV. Find out and correct the mistake in each sentence. Write your answer in the box.(2,0
points)
Example: Thirty hours a week are a heavy work schedule.
1. A persimmon tastes best when it is such ripe that it looks wrinkled and almost spoiled.
2. American pioneers did water systems from logs with holes bored through theircenters.
3. The pituitary gland is a small endocrine gland at the base of the brain that releases many
hormones and regulates another endocrine glands.
4. In America, the Indians used crude oil for fuel and medicine hundreds of years before the first
white settlers arrive.
5. When radio programs became popular, approximately around 1925, many people stopped
attending movies.
6. Musical comedies, as an American form of entertainment, often take its subjects from
or past.
7. Of all seashore plants, seaweeds are best able to tolerate long periods out of water, followed
bylong periods coveringby water.
8. The fruit of the plantain looks much like a banana, and it is not so sweet or so pleasing in
flavor.
9. The viceroy butterfly, an insect that birds like to eat, has a color pattern similar to that of the
monarch butterfly, whom birds do not like to eat.
10. Behavior therapy uses rewards and punishments to encourage patients to act in a way
healthier.
V. Complete these sentences with proper prepositions or adverbs. Write your answers in
the numbered box.
1. Don't use pencils. Please write the letter ____________ ink.
2. My father made ______________ his mind to settle in the South.
3. ngine. I think it ran __________fuel.
4. Time is off now. Please hand ______________ your papers.
5. We invited 40 people to the party but only 23 turned __________
6. That fish of yours has been in the fridge for weeks. It must have gone _by now.
7. He needed a model, someone to look _____________ _
8. Uncle Tom is an idiot, but I only have to put ____________ him once a year.
___________ each other.
PART III: READING COMPREHENSION. (6,0 POINTS)
I. Read the passage below and decide which answer (A, B, C or D) best fits each
gap.
It is now extremely popular to take a gap year between school and university or
university and work and to spend it traveling. There are plenty of reasons to recommend it -
_________
__________In the end,
The idea may have its roots in the 18
th
century Grand tour once (3) ____________ by the
young, rich and noble, but it is the middle classes who have turned it (4) __________ something
that 200,000 British youngsters do every year. (5) ____________ has never been so easy and
cheap, with more places open to tourists than ever. Also, the gap year is now (6) ____________
by many employers and universities.
The States, the Far East and Australia were among the original (7) _________ _and
although these remain in the top five, young explorers are now going even further. The most far-
flung corners of the world are (8) ____________ in popularity year by year. About $700 will buy
a student ticket (9) ___________ for six months that will take you from London to Calcutta,
Singapore, Bangkok, Perth, Sydney, Auckland, Fiji, Tahiti, Los Angeles and (10) ____________
again.
1. A. merely
B. only
C. slightly
D. simply
2. A. occasion
B. moment
C. chance
D. luck
3. A. undertaken
B. gone
C. done
D. given
4. A. up
B. out
C. over
D. into
5. A. Voyage
B. Travel
C. Excursion
D. Tour
6. A. received
B. stood
C. accepted
D. admitted
7. A. destinations
B. endings
C. landings
D. terminals
8. A. spreading
B. expanding
C. enlarging
D. growing
9. A. genuine
B. valid
C. effective
D. legal
10. A. now
B. here
C. back
D. then
II. Read the passage and fill in each blank with ONE suitable word. Write your answer in
the numbered box.(2,0 Ginseng is one of the great mysteries of the east. Often referred to
building up around this remarkable plant. Ginseng has featured (1) _ __ an active ingredient in
oriental medical literature for over 5,000 years. Its beneficial effects were, at one time, (2) __
widely recognized and praised that the root was said to be worth its weight in gold.
(3) _the long history of ginseng, no one fully knows how it works. The active part of the
_ (4) is the root. Its full name is Panax Ginseng the word Panax, (5) _the word panacea,
study of ginseng. It is today believed that this remarkable plant may (6) ___ beneficial effects in
the treatment of many diseases which are difficult to treat with synthetic drug.
Today, ginseng is (7) __ longer a myth or a legend. Throughout the world it is becoming
widely recognized that this ancient herb holds the answer to relieving the stresses and ailments of
modern living. It is widely used for the treatment of various ailments (8) __ as arthritis, diabetes,
insomnia, hepatitis and anemia. However, the truth behind (9) __ ginseng works still remains a
mystery. Yet its widespread effectiveness shows that the remarkable properties are (10) ___ than
just a legend.
III. Read the passage, then choose the correct options. Write your answer in the box. (2,0
points)
One of the 7 wonders of the ancient world, the great pyramid of Giza was a monument of
wisdom and prophecy built as a tomb for Pharaoh Cheop in 1720 BC. Despite its antiquity,
certain aspects of this construction makes it truly one of the truly great wonders of the world.
The thirteen acre structure near the Nile river is a solid mass of stone blocks covered with
limestone. Inside are a number of hidden passageways and the burial chamber for the pharaoh. It
is the largest single structure in the world. The 4 sides of the pyramid are aligned almost exactly
on true north, south, east and west an incredible engineering feat. The ancient Egyptians were
sun worshipers and great astronomers, so computations for the great pyramid were based on
astronomical observations.
Explorations and detailed examinations of the base of the structure reveal many
intersecting lines. Further scientific study indicates that these represent type of timeline of events
past, present and future. Many of the events have been interpreted and found to coincide with
known facts of the past. Others are prophesied for future generations and currently under
investigation. Many believe that pyramids have supernatural powers, and this one is no
exception. Some researchers even associate with its extraterrestrial being of the ancient past.
Was it superstructure made by ordinary beings, or one built by a race far superior to any
known today.
1. What has research of the base reveal?
A. There are racks in the foundation.
B. Tomb robbers have stolen p
C. The lines represent important events.
D. A superior race of people built it.
2. Extraterrestrial beings are ____
A. very strong workers. B. astronomers in the ancient times.
C. researchers in Egyptology. D. living beings from other planets.
3. What was the most probable reason for providing so many hidden passages?
A. To allow the weight of the pyramid to settle evenly.
B. To permit the high priests to pray at night.
to the afterlife.
D. To keep grave robbers from finding the tomb and the treasure buried with the pharaoh.
____
A. crossing B. coming C. observing D. cutting
5. What do the intersecting lines in the base symbolize?
B. Pathways of the great solar body.
C. Astrological computation. D. Dates of important events taking place throughout time.
g to ____
A. said B. armed C. terminated D. foretold
7. What is the best title for the passage?
A. Symbolism of the Great pyramid.
B. Problems with the construction of great pyramid.
C. Wonders of the Great pyramid of Giza.
D. Exploration of the burial chamber of Cheop.
8. On what did the ancient Egyptians based their calculation?
A. Observation of the celestial bodies. B. Advanced technology.
C. Advanced tools of measurements.
9. Why was the Great pyramid constructed?
A. As a solar observatory. B. As a religious temple.
C. As a tomb for the pharaoh. D. As an engineering feat.
10. Why is the Great pyramid of Giza considered one of the seven wonders of the world?
A. It is perfectly aligned with the 4 cardinal points of the compass and contains many
prophecies.
B. It was selected as the tomb of the pharaoh Cheop.
C. It was built a super race.
D. It is very old.
PART IV: WRITING. (5,0 POINTS)
I. Rewrite each of the sentences without changing its meaning, using the cue given. (1,0
point)
..............
2. House prices have risen dramatically this year.
There has .... ........................................................................................................................
They stole ........ ...................................................................................................................
He tried in vain ...... ............................................................................................................
5. She started to clean up the house just after the guests had left.
No sooner ..... ........................................................................................................................
6. The boy was about to cry when he was reprimanded by his mother.
...........
7. People believe that the Chinese invented paper in 105 A.D.
....................
8. As people use a lot of wood-pulp, many trees are cut down.
...............................................................................................................
9. It takes six hours to drive from here to London.
...........................................................
10. He got so angry that no one dared to say anything.
.................................................................................................................................................
II. Rewrite each of the sentences without changing its meanings, using the word given. (1,0
point)
1. If you want to see me, come here by six a.m. (PROVIDED)
............................................................................................................................................................
..............................................
(OBJECTS)
............................................................................................................................................................
..............................................
(OPINION)
............................................................................................................................................................
..............................................
4. The concert was not as good as he had hoped. (EXPECTATIONS)
............................................................................................................................................................
..............................................
5. We missed the beginning of the concert because we had overslept. (CONSEQUENCE)
............................................................................................................................................................
..............................................
III.Write an essay (3, 0 points).
Face book dominates the free-time for too many people especially the students. It can
have negative effect on their study and the physical development.
Do you agree or disagree? Write an essay (250 - 300 words) to express your opinion.
Write an essay (250 - 300 words) to express your opinion.(3, 0 points).
Keys – practice 12
PART I:
1A
2D
3A
4A
5B
6C
7A
8B
9D
10C
PART II:
I
1B
2A
3C
4A
5C
6B
7A
8D
9C
10B
11D
12C
13B
14D
15D
II.
1. had not
drunk/wouldn’t fell
2. have been/came
3. will be sitting
4. closed
5. has acted/been
acting/were
6. will have been
7. to have been
distracting
8. (should) be made
9. are always making
10.did you visit
11. have you washed
12. had gone
III.
1. outlook
2. invasion
3. eagerness
4. glorious
5. talking
6.intensitive
7. dependent
8. increasingly
9. unlike
10. seasonal
IV.
1. B - so
2. A - made
3. D - other
4. D - arrived
5. C - /
6. C - their
7. D - covered
8. B - but
9. D - which
10. D – healthier
way
V.
1. in
2. up
3. out of
4. in
5.up
6. off
7. up/up
to
8. up
with
9. down
10. to
PART III:
I.
1B
2C
3A
4D
5B
6C
7A
8B
9B
10C
II
1C
2D
3D
4A
5D
6D
7C
8A
9C
10A
II
1C
2D
3D
4A
5D
6D
7C
8A
9C
10A
PART IV:
I.
1. Ibeen for my father‟s money, we could not have managed.....
2. There has ....been a dramatic rise/increase in the house prices this year.
3. They stole ........everything except for/but/apart from the television...
4. He tried in vain ......to search for the stolen car.
5. No sooner .......had the guests left than she started to clean up the house.
6. The boy was on .......the point of crying when he was reprimanded by his mother.
7. Paper.......is believed to have been invented by the Chinese in 105 A.D.
8. The more ........wood-pulp is used, the more trees are cut down..........
9. It is ........a six-hour-drive from here to London.
10. So ......angry did he get that no one dared to say anything.
II.
1. Provided (that) you want to see me, come here by 6 a.m
2. He objects to anyone (else) touching his records
3. He had a low opinion of the musical show yesterday
4. The concert failed to come/live up to his expectations/The concert didn‟t come/live up to
5. We missed the beginning of the concert as a consequence of (our) oversleeping/We had
overslept. As a consequence, we missed the beginning
ENGLISH PRACTICE 13
A. PHONETICS
Choose the word whose main stress pattern is different from the rest in each of the following
questions
1. A. career B. schoolgirl C. machine D. request
2. A. deposit B. complexion C. difference D. decision
3. A. tuition B. symbolize C. etiquette D. interest
4. A. semester B. acceptance C. procedure D. institute
5. A. industry B. comprehend C . confident D. socialize
B. VOCABULARY AND GRAMMAR (20 pts)
I. Choose the best option to complete each of the following sentences.
1. To meet this __________, we have brought 3 ships into regular operation.
A. demand B. success C. appeal D. situation
_______________.
A. tongue B. mouth C. figure D. head
3. The discovery was a major ______________for research workers.
A. breakthrough B. breakdown C. breakout D. breakup
to listen.
A. moment B. situation C. opportunity D.
circumstance
5. He drives so quickly that I am afraid that one day he wll___________someone crossing the
road.
A. crash down B. knock down C. turn over D. run
across
6. When the electricity failed, he ____________a match to find the candles.
A. rubbed B. struck C. scratched D. started
________of children.
A. reach B. grasp C. hand D. hold
8. I __________part in the last competition if I__________younger.
A. would have taken/would be B. would take/were
C. would have taken/would have been D. would have taken/ were
9. It was desirable that we ____________at dawn.
A. started B. had started C. start D. would start
10. Thousand dollars ____________wasted by him in the casino.
A. was B. were C. are D. has
A. another B. other C. others D. the other
____
A. and angrily pointing to the notice. B. pointing angrily to the notice.
C. angrily pointed to the notice. D. and pointed angrily the notice
13. There has to be this starting and stopping movement __________the eye can only see only
when it is not moving.
A. because B. although C. when D. while
A. Were you ever/was B. Have you ever been/ have been
C. Were you ever/have been D. Have you ever been /was
15. When the tenants failed to pay their bill, the authorities decided to cut ________the gas
supply to the flat.
A. down B. out C. across D. off
II. Some of the lines in the passage are correct, and some have a word that needs correction. If
a line is correct, put a tick (
). If a line has a word that needs correction, write the word and
its correction. There are two examples at the beginning ( 0 and 00).
Women are experts at gossiping, and they always talk about trivial
hich men have been always thought.
However, some new research suggests that when women talk to
women, whose conversations are far from frivolous, and cover many
more topics (up to 40 subjects) than when men talk to other men.
rom health to their houses, from
politics to fashion, from films to family, from education to
relationship problems. Football is notable absent. Men tend to have a
more limited range of subjects, the most popular being work, sport,
jokes, cars, and women.
According to Professor Petra Boynton, a psychology at University
College London, which interviewed over 1000 women, women also
tend to move quickly from one subject to another in conversation,
whereas men usually stick about one subject for longer periods of
time.
At work, this difference can be an advantage for men, where they can
put another matters aside and concentrate fully on the topic being
discussed. In the other hand, it also means that they sometimes find it
hard to concentrate when several things have to be discussed at the
same time in a meeting.
0.
00. which=> what
0. _____
00. ____
1.______
2.______
3.______
4.______
5.______
6.______
7.______
8.______
9.______
10._____
11._____
12._____
13._____
14._____
15._____
III. Supply the correct forms of the words in the CAPITAL letters
) from a familiar
culture to one which is ________( 2). It is an experience described by
people who have traveled abroad to work, live or study; it can be felt to a
certain extent even when abroad on holiday. It can ______(3) anyone,
including _______(4) students. It includes the shock of a new
environment, meeting lots of new people and learning the ways of a
_______(5) country. It also includes the shock of being separated from the
______(6) people in your life, maybe family, friends, colleagues,
teachers: people you would normally talk to at times of _____(7), people
who give you support and guidance. When familiar ______(8) , sounds,
smells or tastes are no longer there you can miss them very much. If you
are tired and ______(9) when you arrive small things can be upsetting and
out of all proportion to their real __________(10).
MOVE
FAMILIAR
EFFECT
NATION
DIFFER
IMPORT
CERTAIN
SEE
JET-LAG
SIGNIFY
C. READING
I. Read the text and think of the word that best fits each space. (ONE word for each space)
About 50 years ______(1) now, it is possible to use virtual reality to bring the_____(2) back to
life, people will drag out _____(3) old and boring movies and choose a relative _____(4) bring
back to life. The visual will be combined ______(5) records about that person to create a virtual
relative.
Then the family can _____(6) a chat with that relative, _____(7) it running, and live with it. The
experience will be_____(8) living with a ghost. People who died long ago will be
resurrected,____(9) they can take on new _____(10).
II. Read the passage and choose the best heading in the box for each paragraph. There are
three extra ones that should not be used.
1.___________
Sunshine contains three different bans of ultraviolet radiation: UVA, UVB and UVC. Although
UVC is the most dangerous, because it is a shorter-wavelength radiation than UVA and UVB, it
but it is now known that both bands can cause skin cancer. It is UVB which causes sunburn.
However, both UVA and UVB can age the skin prematurely.
2.___________
Levels of UV rays can vary. A two-week holiday in the Mediterranean will expose you to the
same amount of sun as you would get in a year in Britain. Short periods of intense exposure to
the sun are thought to be more risky than regular daily exposure, particularly if you have fairer
skin. However, even if you have darker skin tones you will burn eventually. You can find out the
daily UV rate by watching the solar UV index which has recently been introduced on national
weather forecasts across Europe.
3.___________
A. How to maximize the SPF of sunscreens?
B. Summer sport and skin protection
C. How the various types of radiation differ?
D. Sunscreens: the higher the SPF the better?
E. What is ultraviolet radiation?
F. Other ways to protect yourself
G. What are the first signs of skin cancer?
H. A short break in the sun won’t hurt, will it?
The ideal sunscreen to use is an SPF15. This means a sunscreen which gives you fifteen times
more protection that you would have normally. An SPF15 sunscreen will absorb proportionally
equal amounts of UVA and UVB, and will give you good protection if you are sensible about
your exposure. Sunscreens higher than SPF15 tend to lose their balanced effect: the chemicals in
an SPF30, for example, will not block UVA rays as effectively as UVB. The other danger with
high SPFs is that people will stay in the sun longer because they think are better protected.
Higher SPFs do not give proportionately greater protection. An SPF15 gives 93 percent
protection, for example, while an SPF34 gives 97 percent protection.
4.____________
you can still enjoy the warmth of the sun. Be careful when sitting in the shade, however. You can
still get burnt because you will be exposed to rays bouncing off reflective surfaces nearby. This
is particularly the case near water. Not all clothing offers effective protection, either. If you can
see the light through a piece of clothing when you hold it up, it will not offer much of a barrier to
UV rays.
5.____________
You should keep an eye out for any moles or dark spots on the skin that change in size, shape, or
color, become bigger, itchy or inflamed, or bleed. All these may be symptoms of skin cancer and
should be checked by a doctor. Once a mole has been identified as a potential melanoma, it is
removed under local anaesthetic and sent for examination. Most turn out to be harmless. Of the
three forms of skin cancer the two most common varieties basal cell and squamous cell
carcinomas are easily treatable and rarely fatal, and even melanomas can be treated effectively if
caught in time.
III. Read the following passages and choose the best answer to each question.
Scientists do not yet thoroughly understand just how the body of an individual becomes sensitive
to a substance that is harmless or even wholesome for the average person. Milk, wheat, and egg,
for example, rank among the most healthful and widely used foods. Yet these foods can cause
persons sensitive to them to suffer greatly. At first, the body of the individual is not harmed by
coming into contact with the substance. After a varying interval of time, usually longer than a
few weeks, the body becomes sensitive to it, and an allergy has begun to develop. Sometimes it's
hard to figure out if you have a food allergy, since it can show up so many different ways. Your
symptoms could be caused by many other problems. You may have rashes, hives, joint pains
mimicking arthritis, headaches, irritability, or depression. The most common food allergies are to
milk, eggs, seafood, wheat, nuts, seeds, chocolate, oranges, and tomatoes. Many of these
allergies will not develop if these foods are not fed to an infant until her or his intestines mature
at around seven months. Breast milk also tends to be protective. Migraines can be set off by
foods containing tyramine, phenathylamine, monosodium glutamate, or sodium nitrate. Common
foods which contain these are chocolate, aged cheeses, sour cream, red wine, pickled herring,
chicken livers, avocados, ripe bananas, cured meats, many Oriental and prepared foods (read the
labels!). Some people have been successful in treating their migraines with supplements of B-
vitamins, particularly B6 and niacin. Children who are hyperactive may benefit from eliminating
food additives, especially colorings, and foods high in salicylates from their diets. A few of these
are almonds, green peppers, peaches, tea, grapes. This is the diet made popular by Benjamin
Feingold, who has written the book Why your Child is Hyperactive. Other researchers have had
mixed results when testing whether the diet is effective.
1. The topic of this passage is
A. reactions to foods B. food and nutrition
C. infants and allergies D. a good diet
2. According to the passage, the difficulty in diagnosing allergies to foods is due to
A. the vast number of different foods we eat
B. lack of a proper treatment plan
C. the similarity of symptoms of the allergy to other problems
D. the use of prepared formula to feed babies
3. The word "symptoms" is closest in meaning to
A. indications B. diet C. diagnosis D.
prescriptions
4. The phrase "set off" is closest in meaning to
A. relieved B. identified C. avoided D. triggered
5. What can be inferred about babies from this passage?
A. They can eat almost anything.
B. They should have a carefully restricted diet as infants.
C. They gain little benefit from being breast fed.
D. They may become hyperactive if fed solid food too early.
6. The word "hyperactive" is closest in meaning to
A. overly active B. unusually low activity
C. excited D. inquisitive
7. The author states that the reason that infants need to avoid certain foods related to allergies has
to do with the infant's
A. lack of teeth B. poor metabolism
C. underdeveloped intestinal tract D. inability to swallow solid foods
8. The word "these" refers to
A. food additives B. food colorings
C. unnutritious foods D. foods high in salicylates
9. Which of the following was a suggested treatment for migraines in the passage?
A. Eating more ripe bananas
B. Avoiding all Oriental foods
C. Getting plenty of sodium nitrate
D. Using Vitamin B in addition to a good diet
10. According to the article the Feingold diet is NOT
A. verified by researchers as being consistently effective
B. available in book form
C. beneficial for hyperactive children
D. designed to eliminate foods containing certain food additives
D. WRITING
I. Rewrite the following sentences, using key words in the parentheses or the suggested
phrases given at the beginning of the sentences
1. Jack has become confident as a result of his success. (turned)
2. To find new fuels it is necessary to spend a lot of money.( means)
Finding_____________________________________money.
sincere)
Dan________________________________________not to watch so much TV.
4. Someone almost certainly broke the window on purpose. (must)
The window ________________________on purpose.
5. We were all surprised when she suddenly left the job. (found)
All__________________________________left the job.
6. The cost of living has gone up considerably in the last few years.
There________________________________________________
She flatly_____________________________________________.
8. If we can solve the problem soon, it will be better for all concerned.
The sooner____________________________________________.
9. We must continue our efforts, whether there are problems or not.
Regardless ___________________________________________.
The teacher shouted_______________.
II. The social networks such as Facebook or Twitter are very popular among teenagers.
What are their advantages? Give examples and reasons to support your opinion.
Write a paragraph of about 200 words.
............................................................................................................................................................
............
............................................................................................................................................................
............
............................................................................................................................................................
............
............................................................................................................................................................
............
............................................................................................................................................................
............
............................................................................................................................................................
............
............................................................................................................................................................
............
Keys – practice 13
Bài
Câu
Nội dung trình bày
Điểm
Phonetics
1
B
0,1
2
C
0,1
3
A
0,1
4
D
0,1
5
B
0,1
Grammar 1
1
A
0,1
2
A
0,1
3
A
0,1
4
A
0,1
5
B
0,1
6
B
0,1
7
A
0,1
8
D
0,1
9
C
0,1
10
A
0,1
11
A
0,1
12
B
0,1
13
A
0,1
14
D
0,1
15
D
0,1
Grammar 2
1
0,1
2
whose => their
0,1
3
0,1
4
ranged => range
0,1
5
0,1
6
notable => notably
0,1
7
0,1
8
psychology => psychologist
0,1
9
which => who
0,1
10
0,1
11
about => to
0,1
12
0,1
13
another => other
0,1
14
In => On
0,1
15
0,1
Grammar 3
1
movement
0,1
2
unfamiliar
0,1
3
affect
0,1
4
international
0,1
5
different
0,1
6
important
0,1
7
uncertainty
0,1
8
sights
0,1
9
jet-lagged
0,1
10
significance
0,1
Reading 1
1
from
0,1
2
dead
0,1
3
their
0,1
4
to
0,1
5
with
0,1
6
have
0,1
7
keep
0,1
8
like
0,1
9
so
0,1
10
roles
0,1
Reading 2
1
C
2
H
3
D
4
F
5
G
Reading 3
1
A
2
C
3
A
4
D
5
B
6
A
7
C
8
D
9
D
10
A
Writing
1
0,15
2
Finding new fuels means spending a lot of money.
0,15
3
Dan made a sincere promise not to watch so much TV.
0,15
4
The window must have been broken on purpose.
0,15
5
All of us found it surprising when she suddenly left the job.
0,15
6
There has been a considerable rise/increase in the cost of living in
the last few years.
0,15
7
She flatly refused to sleep in that haunted house.
0,15
8
The sooner we can solve the problem, the better it will be for all
concerned.
0,15
9
Regardless of whatever problems, we must continued our efforts.
0,15
10
The teacher shouted to the boys to make less noise.
0,15
ENGLISH PRACTICE 14
PART I – PRONUNCIATION
Choose the word whose stress pattern is different from the rest
1. A. difficult B. corporate C. different D. engineer
2. A. demolish B. substantial C. dramatic D. terrorist
3. A. proficiency B. electronic C. petroleum D. equivalent
4. A. vineyard B. ignite C. business D. Finland
5. A. change B. image C. danger D. oasis
6. A. reference B. interview C. government D. understand
7. A. scholarship B. develop C. equipment D. discourage
8. A. expectation B. temperament C. opportunity D. decoration
9. A. religious B. miserable C. performance D. including
10. A. decision B. personal C. interest D. wonderful
PART II - LEXICO-GRAMMAR
I. Complete each of the following sentences with the correct answer (A, B, C or D). Identify your
answer by writing the corresponding letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet.
21.
A. though B. although C. as though D. even though
22. I kept out of the conversation because it _________ me.
23. The entire city was _________ electricity last night- it was chaotic.
A. no B. almost no C. hardly any D. without
24. Henry was overweight, so he went on s strict diet and _________ twenty kilos.
A. missed B. lost C. failed D. fell
25. He was arrested because he answered to the description of the _________ man.
A. searched B. pursued C. wanted D. hunted
26. Humanity has done great damage to the environment in its search for _________
materials.
A. live B. raw C. crude D. rude
27. _________, the balcony chairs will be ruined in this weather.
A. Leaving uncovered B. Having left uncovered
C. Left uncovered D. Been left uncovered
28. One way to let off _________ after a stressful day is to take some vigorous exercise.
A. cloud B. tension C. steam D. sweat
29. Their research into the causes of cancer promises to break the new _________ in the field
and possibly lead to a cure.
A. earth B. ground C. soil D. land
30. After three days in the desert, his mind began to play _________ on him.
A. games B. jokes C. tricks D. fun
31. The match will be screened on ITV with _________ commentary by Any Gray.
A. lively B. live C. alive D. living
32.
yesterday.
A. could have told B. told C. have told D. had told
33. As the drug took _________, the patient became quieter.
A. effect B. force C. influence D. action
34. The dawn redwood appears ____ some 100 million years ago in northern forests around
the world.
A. was flourished B. having to flourish
C. to have flourished D. have flourished
35. His comments _________ little or no relation to the facts and the figures of the case.
A. reflect B. bear C. give D. possess
36. All _____ is a continuous supply of the basic necessities of life.
A. what is needed B. for our needs C. the thing needed D. that is needed
37. It is urgent that this letter _____ immediately.
A. was posted B. posted C. be posted D. be post
38.
B. I understand wh
39. It is only recently that ballets have been based on the themes _____ American life.
A. reflecting B. reflects C. is reflecting D. reflected
40. ___ for numbers.
A. a head B. a mind C. the heart D. the nerve
II. Supply the correct form of the word in capital letter. Write your answers on your
answer sheet.
SKIING HOLIDAYS IN COLORADO
To ski or snowboard in Colorado is to experience the pinnacle of winter sports. The state
of Colorado is known for its spectacular scenery and (1. BREATH) ____ views, which inspire
today's travelers as much as they spurred on the (2. SETTLE) ____ who first arrived in this part
of the US over a century ago. And whether you're seeking the outdoor adventure of a (3. LIFE)
____ exciting nightlife or a great family getaway, Colorado has everything you need.
November through April, snow conditions are (4. CONSIST) ____ and reliable,
featuring Colorado's (5. LEGEND) ____ snow making
and grooming operations always keep trails in top shape.
The mountain destinations in the Colorado Rockies can turn your wildest ski dreams
into thrilling (6. REAL) ______.There, you'll find the best skiing and snowboarding on (7.
PICTURE) ____ slopes, as well as the finest ski schools in the US. Together, they present an (8.
PARALLEL) ____ winter paradise. And the best part is that you'll enjoy friendly, (9. CARE)
____ service in resorts that are (10. COMMIT) ____ to delivering the highest quality amenities.
III. Complete the following sentences with one appropriate preposition for each blank.
11. reduce crime came ________for a lot of criticism from
freedom groups.
12. I was ________the impression that you like Indian food.
13. This is one of the exceptions ________the rule.
14. The factory paid ________nearly a million pounds to their employees who were injured
in the explosion.
15. Before they open the new factory, a lot of the young people round here were
________the dole.
16. Mr. Horrid was a terrible teacher and obviously not cut ________for teaching.
17.
18. All
19. The farmhouse we stayed in was completely ________the beaten track.
20.
PART III: READING COMPREHENSION
I. Read the passage then choose the best answer to each question that follows. Identify your
answer by writing the corresponding letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet.
THE ATMOSPHERE OF VENUS
Venus, also called the Morning Star and Evening Star, is the second-closest planet to the
sun and the brightest object in the night sky. The planet orbits the sun every two hundred and
twenty four Earth-
compar
The atmosphere on Venus is much heavier and has a higher density than that of Earth.
cloud cover makes the surface of Venus nearly impossible to see unless observed through radar
mapping.
atmosphere is very thick due to a composition consisting mainly of carbon dioxide, and a small
amount of nitrogen. If man could survive the extreme heat of Venus’s surface (400 degrees
Celsius), then he would have to contend with a surface pressure that is more than 90 times
that of Earth.
infrared radiation is more readily absorbed by the atmosphere. Just like in a real greenhouse used
to grow plants years round, the proliferation of carbon dioxide traps radiation and warms
than Mercury, even though Venus is twice the distance from the sun.
[A] Studies
all the water caused the runaway greenhouse effect which regulates the planet today. [B] Thus
struggle with the early stages of the greenhouse effect. [C] Our problems do not stem from
evaporated water supplies but from a propagation of carbon dioxide and other greenhouse gases
due to industrial and automobile emissions. [D]
daytime temperatures and nighttime temperatures are not that far removed from each other. This
is due to the thermal inertia, the ability of a substance to store heat despite changing temperatures
slowly in comparison -moving there can
atmosphere. The Venera 3 probe did collide with Venus surface; however, the abrupt impact
caused its communication system to fail, and it was unable to send and feedback. In 1967,
which -five percent carbon
succumbed to the crushing air pressure.
Questions 1-7: Choose the answer (A, B, C or D) which you think fits best according to the
passage.
8. According to paragraph 1, Venus is named the Morning Star and Evening Star
because_________.
A. it is very bright B. it is close to the sun
C. it can be seen from evening till morning D. it is used to find the direction by
sailors
9. The word that in paragraph 2 refers to _________.
A. size B. bulk C. atmosphere D. density
10. Which of the following best expresses the essential information in the bold sentence in
paragraph 3? Incorrect answer choices change the meaning in important ways or leave
out essential information.
A. Earth experiences greater surface pressure than Venus.
B. If a man could survive its surface pressure.
C. The surface pressure and heat of Venus are much greater than those on Earth.
D
11. According to paragraph 3, the greenhouse effect on Venus is owed to _________.
A. the small amounts of nitrogen
B. the rapid increasing amounts of carbon dioxide
C. growing plants
D. the high atmospheric temperatures
12. In paragraph 4, the author of the passage implies that Earth _________.
A. might suffer the same greenhouse effect as Venus
B
C. has bodies of water similar to those on Venus today
D. is experiencing a reduction of carbon dioxide emissions
13.
could be added to the passage.
Although the causes are different, the ramifications are the same.
Where would the sentence best fit?
14. The word propagation in paragraph 4 is closest in meaning to _________.
A. generation B. elimination C. evaporation D. desecration
Questions 8 to 10: Complete the brief summary of the passage by selecting the THREE
answer choices that express important ideas in the passage. The introductory sentence for the
summary is provided bellowed.
8. …………………………………………..…………………………………………..……
9.
………………………………………………….…………………………………………
10. ………………………………………………………………..…………………………
Answer Choices
G. Venus once had large bodies of water that elaborated and cause a rapid increase in carbon
dioxide.
H. air movement on Venus is
denser and can even more large obstructions.
I.
revealed much about its carbon dioxide filled atmosphere.
J. If man could survive the hot temperature of Venus, then he would have to contend with
the great surface pressure.
K. The first space probe of Venus was made in 1966.
L. Scientists are concerned that conditions on Earth that propagate significant quantities of
carbon dioxide will produce greenhouse effects
II. Read the text below and think of the word which best fits each space. Use only ONE
word in each space. Write your answers on your answer sheet.
SPLENDID SPAS OF ASIA
Lying on a bed almost on the (1) ________ of a cliff, with a stupendous ocean view and
the (2) ________ of waves, aches and pains are soothed away (3) ________ expert hands. Only
two steps are needed to reach the private pool, which seems to merge (4) ________ the ocean.
Such a scenario is no longer a fantasy (5) ________ an increasingly popular reality in
Asia for many stressed out businessmen and visitors from all over the world in search of that
peaceful time and space for their body and mind.
In the last four years, at (6) ________ 17 hotel spas have opened in South East Asia to
(7) ________ this need. The tropical climate of the region and its reliable sunshine make for an
ideal spa setting. Picturesque environments (8) ________ with a series of rejuvenating treatments
bring the desired result. The Asian spa resorts have acquired a formidable reputation for their
professional services as (9) ________ as for the decor of their large treatment rooms. Visitors
relax with Thai music and soak in the warm tones of the room. As all these take (10) ________
in individual rooms, precious privacy is guaranteed, a rare privilege often absent from other spas
where guests share rooms or changing areas.
III. Read the following passage and choose the best answer for each question. Identify your
answer by writing the corresponding letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet.
WIND - The untamable weather machine
On 15 October 1987, the southern counties of Britain were struck by the strongest winds
they had experienced in 200 years. Gusts of over 130 kilometers per hour slammed across the
region and £1.5- billion-worth of damage was (1)__________ in just a few hours.
Extreme weather events like this are dramatic (2)__________ of the power of the wind.
ut it plays a
would quite (3)__________ be no climate.
and links be
temperatures quite suddenly by 10°C or more. It affects as many as one in three people in its
(5)__________, making them feel anxious, irritable and generally ill. In California, many people
(6)__________ the arrival of the Santa Ana, which rushes down from the high Mojave desert.
the Santa Ana blows, murder rates
soar.
The wind may get into the headlines when it comes in the form of tornadoes and
hurricanes, but for the (7)__________ part it goes about its job of shifting huge masses of air
around the planet. Plants take (8)__________ of this free ride to send their pollen grains far and
wide. Trees (99)__________ on it to remove old leaves and make way for new growth. Spiders
have been caught (10)__________ a lift at altitudes of almost 4.5 kilometers.
11. A. made B. caused C. destroyed D. completed
12. A. reminders B. recollections C. mementos D. memorial
13. A. easily B. rightly C. surely D. simply
14. A. last B. originate C. pass D. date
15. A. line B. road C. path D. bypass
16. A. despair B. respect C. dread D. warn
17. A. most B. maximum C. majority D. general
18. A. benefit B. chance C. occasion D. advantage
19. A. need B. trust C. hope D. realize
20. A. traveling B. hitching C. borrowing D. making
PART IV: WRITING
I. Rewrite the following sentences without changing their meaning, using the words given.
These words must not be changed in any way.
11. I would like to be able to speak French. (HAD)
I wish ________________________________________________________ speak
French.
12. It was raining cats and dogs. (TORRENTS)
The rain was
______________________________________________________________
13. It was wrong of you to borrow my book without asking. (HAVE)
You ____________________________________________before you borrowed my
book.
14. When I was younger, this record was one of my favourites. (FAVOURITE)
This record used ______________________________________ mine when I was
younger.
15. My sister finds commuting every day annoying. (PUT)
day.
16. The Mediterranean is warm, whereas the North Sea is much colder. (NOTHING)
The North Sea is ____________________________________________ the
Mediterranean.
17. Christ would only eat a pizza if he could have a mushroom topping. ON
Christ ______________________________________________ when he ate a pizza.
18. My father persuaded me to learn another foreign language. TALKED
My father ______________________________________________ another foreign
language.
19. Sam tried extremely hard to convince her, but it was no use. BRING
Hard
________________________________________________________________________
20. When he arrived at the airport, his family welcomed him warmly. GIVEN
On_____________________________________________________________________
______
II. Write an essay to give your opinion on the following topic.
Some people believe that history has little to tell us. Other people believe that people must have
knowledge of history in order to understand the present.
Give reasons for your answer and include any relevant examples from your own knowledge or
experience.
Write at least 250 words.
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------------------THE END -----------------
Keys – practice 14
PART I – PRONUNCIATION
Choose the word whose stress pattern is different from the rest
1. A. difficult B. corporate C. different D.
engineer
2. A. demolish B. substantial C. dramatic D.
terrorist
3. A. proficiency B. electronic C. petroleum D.
equivalent
4. A. vineyard B. ignite C. business D.
Finland
5. A. change B. image C. danger D. oasis
6. A. reference B. interview C. government D.
understand
7. A. scholarship B. develop C. equipment D.
discourage
8. A. expectation B. temperament C. opportunity D.
decoration
9. A. religious B. miserable C. performance D.
including
10. A. decision B. personal C. interest D.
wonderful
PART II - LEXICO-GRAMMAR
PART III. LEXICO-GRAMMAR (25 POINTS)
I. Read the sentences carefully and choose the best answers to make complete ones. (10pts)
1.A
2. C
3. D
4. B
5. C
6. B
7. B
8. C
9. B
10. C
11. B
12. D
13. A
14. C
15. B
16. D
17. C
18. B
19. A
20. A
II. Write the correct FORM of each bracketed word. (10 pts)
1. breathtaking
2. settlers
3. lifetime
4. consistent
5. legendary
6. reality
7. picturesque
8. unparalleled
9. caring
10. committed
III. Complete the following sentences with one appropriate preposition for each blank.
(5pts)
1. in
2. under
3. to
4. out
5. on
6. out
7. at
8. in
9. off
10. for
PART IV. READING (30POINTS)
I. Read the text & decide which word best fits each space by choosing A, B, C or D. (10pts)
1. A
2. C
3. D
4. B
5. A
6. B
7. A
8. A
9. C.
10. F
In any order from question 8 to 10
II. Fill in each blank space with an appropriate word. (10pts)
1. edge
2. sound
3. by
4. with
5. but
6. least
7. satisfy/meet
8. together/along
9. well
10. place
III. Read the following passage and choose the best answer. (10pts)
1. B
2. A
3. D
4. D
5. C
6.C
7. A
8. D
9. D
10. B
PART V. WRITING (25 POINTS)
I. Finish each of the sentences in such a way that it means exactly the same as the sentence
printed before it. (5 pts)
11. I wish I had ability to speak French.
12. The rain was coming down in torrents.
13.
14. This record used to be a favourite of mine when I was younger.
15. ter to put up with commuting every day.
16. The North Sea is nothing like as warm as the Mediterranean.
17. Christ insisted on having a mushroom topping when he ate a pizza.
18. My father talked me into learning another language.
19. t bring her round (to his way of thinking.
20. On his arrival at the airport, he was given a warm welcome by his family
II. Write an essay to give your opinion on the following topic. (20 points)
Some people believe that history has little to tell us. Other people believe that people must have
knowledge of history in order to understand the present.
Give reasons for your answer and include any relevant examples from your own knowledge or
experience.
Write at least 250 words.
The impression mark given is based on the following scheme:
1. Content: 50% of total mark: a provision of all main ideas and details as appropriate
2. Language: 30% of total mark: a variety of vocabulary and structures appropriate to the
level of English language gifted upper-secondary school students
3. Presentation: 20% of total mark: coherence, cohesion, and style appropriate to the level
of English language gifted upper-secondary school students.
ENGLISH PRACTICE 15
PART I – PRONUNCIATION
Choose the word whose stress pattern is different from the rest
1. A. vulnerable B. conservation C. generation D. disappearance
2. A. encounter B. influence C. agency D. memory
3. A. crossbar =B. advance C. goalie D. Polo
4. A. succeed B. anxious C. well-done D. reduce
5. A. studious B. semester C. similar D. century
6. A. teacher B. brochure C. achieve D. purchase
7. A. departure B. inherit C. elegant D. authentic
8. A. satisfy B. quality C. mistake D. Sequential
9. A. repetition B. television C. residential D. mountaineer
10. A. communication B. international C. university D. necessarily
PART II: LEXICO-GRAMMAR
I. Complete each of the following sentences with the correct answer (A, B, C or D). Identify your
answer by writing the corresponding letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet.
1.
A. trying not hard enough B. trying not hard enough
C. not trying hard enough D. trying not enough hard
2. The public library _________ to all readers who are interested in reading and doing
research.
A. is opening B. is open C. is opened D. is being opened
3.
them.
A. first B. at first C. firstly D. first of all
4. I quickly packed my new belongings and spent _________ money I had on a one-way
ticket home.
A. little B. a little C. the little D. a little of
5. She believes that all countries should _________ the death penalty as it is inhumane.
A. put down to B. catch up on C. get down to D. do away with
6. Keep your ticket _________ you have to show it to an inspector.
A. if B. in case C. unless D. supposing
7. He always _________ aside some time every day to read to his children.
A. sets B. leaves C. spares D. lets
8.
A. dealer B. trader C. pusher D. vendor
9. I use weed-killer to _________ the weeds in the garden.
A. get rid of B. get out of C. get away with D. get in the way with
10. If there is new evidence that proves his innocence, it is likely that the authorities will
_________ him from jail.
A. release B. relieve C. remove D. rehabilitate
11. he was found _________ by the jury.
A. faulty B. mistaken C. guilty D. sinful
12. The dish was so tasty that I asked for second _________.
A. helping B. portion C. ration D. share
13. - it is so silly!
A. took in B. caught on C. took up D. caught by
14. -
15. _ to win the prize if she plays
A. is due B. is bound C. is about D. is set
16.
to pay for a hotel.
A. place him in B. put him up C. back him up D. turn him out
17. Susan became so tired of city life that she decided to buy a piece of land _________.
A. out of the ordinary B. as the crow flies
C. far and away D. in the middle of nowhere
18. My mind went ____ when the official asked me my phone number-
it at all.
A. empty B. clear C. blank D. vacant
19. During their first date, Jane had nervously peppered the conversation with _____talk.
A. unimportant B. tiny C. small D. trivial
20. We do go _________ in the office, but the odd rule gets broken from time to time.
A. by the book B. for a song C. astray D. in phrases
II. Supply the correct FORM of the word in capital letter. Write your answers on your
answer sheet.
Before going to an interview, it is advisable to go through a mock interview. This will
give you the opportunity to try out your technique and answers live. It is also a chance to receive
feedback that is (1. BENEFIT) __________ in guiding you towards improving your interview
style and general (2. PRESENT) _________ Just one mock interview will result in a (3.
NOTICE)_________ improvement in your interview skill. Why? For the same reason that a (4.
SPEAK
when you give it (5. ORAL)_________ The first time you give it in front of an audience, it will
come out nothing like the one you prepared.
It is the same with being interviewed. It is not enough to look at a question and say,
to talk to yourself in front of a mirror. Seek out a (6. PROFESSION) _________ and have the
session videotaped. Then you will have two opinions
find you get a completely different (7. IMPRESS)________ when listening to yourself than
when you are watching yourself saying something. Just as your voice always sounds different on
tape, so do your (8. RESPOND) _______. You will be glad the image is captured on tape and
9. VISIT)________ your
answers and go through a second mock interview. This should help with any (10.
EASE)________ and give you more confidence for the real interview.
III. There are 10 errors in the following passage. Identify and correct them. The first has
been done for you.
Most children with (0) health appetites are ready to eat almost anything that is
offering them and a child rare dislikes food unless it is badly cooked. The way
the meal is cooked and served is most important and an attractive served meal
sk a child whether he likes and
dislikes a food and never discuss them in front of him or allow nobody else to do
so. If the father says he hates fat meat or the mother refuses vegetables under the
it for grant that he likes
everything and he probably will. Nothing healthful should be omitted out the
meal because of a supposing dislike. At meal time, it is a good idea to give a
child a small portion and let him come back for a second helping other than give
him as much as he is likely to at all once. Do not talk too much to the child
during the meal times. But let him get on with his food, and do not allow him to
leave the table immediately after a meal or he will soon learn to swallow his food
so that he can hurry back to his toys. Under no circumstance must a child be
coaxed and forced to eat.
(0) healthy
(1)_________
(2)_________
(3)_________
(4)_________
(5)_________
(6)_________
(7)_________
(8)_________
(9)_________
(10)_________
PART III: READING
I. Read the following passage and choose the best answer for each question. Identify your
answer by writing the corresponding letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet.
The ability to weep is a uniquely human form of emotional response. Some scientists have
suggested that human tears are (1) _____ of an aquatic past but this does not seem very likely.
We cry from the moment we enter this world, for a number of reasons. Helpless babies cry to
persuade their parents that they are ill, hungry or uncomfortable. As they (2) _____, they will
also cry just to attract parental attention and will often stop when they get it.
The idea that having a good cry do you (3) _____ is a very old one and now it has scientific
validity since recent research into tears has shown that they (4) _____ a natural painkiller called
enkaphalin. By fighting sorrow and pain this chemical helps you feel better. Weeping can
increase the quantities of enkaphalin you (5) _____.
Unfortunately, in our society we impose restrictions upon this naturally (6) _____ activity.
Because some people still regard it as a (7) _____ of weakness in men, boys in particular are
admonished when they cry. This kind of repression can only increase stress, both emotionally
and physically.
Tears of emotion also help the body (8) _____ itself of toxic chemical waste, for there is
more protein in them than in tears resulting from cold winds or other irritants. Crying comforts,
calms and can be very enjoyable (9) _____ the popularity of highly emotional films which are
laughing together.
1. A. witness B. evidence C. result D. display
2. A. evolve B. change C. develop D. alter
3. A. better B. fine C. good D. well
4. A. contain B. retain C. hold D. keep
5. A. construct B. achieve C. provide D. produce
6. A. curing B. treating C. healing D. improving
7. A. hint B. symbol C. feature D. sign
8. A. release B. rid C. loosen D. expel
9. A. consider B. remark C. distinguish D. regard
10. A. named B. entitled C. subtitled D. called
II. Read the text below and think of the word which best fits each space. Use only ONE
word in each space. Write your answers on your answer sheet.
ITALY’S MOST POETIC CITY
Venice has been an inspiration for writers, artists and musicians throughout history. In
collection of art and architecture (2) _____ to its trade with the East.
The city (3) ____ its visitors incredible sights. Do not believe those who say Venice is a
museum. This is still a living city full of joys. Venice looks good in any light. The sun makes the
domes sparkle, but even on a grey, (4) _____ day the city can be extremely romantic.
And (5) _____ it gets overcrowded, (6) _____ is an easy escape to the other islands in the
Venice Gulf, (7) _____ brightly-
In a curious way, Venice is a model city for the future; it is free from cars and the (8)
_____ way to get around is by public transport or on foot. This one fact alone (9) _____ it a
unique city, one (10) _____ traffic noise, the creation of genius indeed.
III. Read the passage then choose the best answer to each question that follows. Identify your
answer by writing the corresponding letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet.
Legend has it that sometime toward the end of the Civil War (1861-1865) a government
train carrying oxen traveling through the northern plains of eastern Wyoming was caught in a
snowstorm and had to be abandoned. The driver returned the next spring to see what had become
of his cargo. Instead of the skeletons he had expected to find, he saw his oxen, living, fat, and
healthy. How had they survived?
The answer lay in a resource that unknowing Americans lands trampled underfoot in their
barren. In the
eastern parts of the United States, the preferred grass for forage was a cultivated plant. It grew
well with enough rain, then when cut and stored it would cure and become nourishing hay for
winter feed. But in the dry grazing lands of the West that familiar bluejoint grass was often killed
by drought. To raise cattle out there seemed risky or even hopeless.
Who could imagine a fairy-tale grass that required no rain and somehow made it possible
for cattle to feed themselves all winter? But the surprising western wild grasses did just that.
They had wonderfully convenient features that made them superior to the cultivated eastern
grasses. Variously known as buffalo grass, grama grass, or mesquite grass, not only were they
immune to drought; but they were actually preserved by the lack of summer and autumn rains.
They were not juicy like the cultivated eastern grasses, but had short, hard stems. And they did
not need to be cured in a barn, but dried right where they grew on the ground. When they dried in
this way, they remained naturally sweet and nourishing through the winter. Cattle left outdoors to
fend for themselves thrived on this hay. And the cattle themselves helped plant the fresh grass
year after year for they trampled the natural seeds firmly into the soil to be watered by the
melting snows of winter and the occasional rains of spring. The dry summer air cured them much
as storing in a barn cured the cultivated grasses.
1. What does the passage mainly discuss?
A. A type of wild vegetation B. Western migration after Civil War
C. The raising of cattle D. The climate of the Western United States
2. What can be inferred by the phrase “Legend has it” in line 1?
A. Most history book include the story of the train.
B. The story of the train is similar to other ones from that time period.
C. The driver of the train invented the story.
D. The story of the train may not be completed factual.
3. The word “they” in line 4 refers to _____.
A. plains B. skeletons C. oxen D. Americans
4. What can be inferred about the “Great American Desert” mentioned in line 7?
B. It was not originally assumed to be a fertile area.
C. It was a popular place to raise cattle before the Civil War.
5. The word “barren” in paragraph 2 is closed in meaning to _____.
A. lonely B. uncomfortable C. infertile D. dangerous
6. preferredparagraph 2 is closed in meaning to _____.
A. favored B. available C. ordinary D. required
7. Which of the following can be inferred about the cultivated grass mentioned in the second
paragraph?
A. Cattle raised in the Western United States refused to eat it.
B. It had to be imported into the United States.
C. It would probably not grow in the western United States.
D. It was difficult for cattle to digest.
8. Which of the following was NOT one of the names given to the western grasses?
A. Mesquite grass B. Bluejoint grass C. Buffalo grass D. Grama grass
9. Which of the following was NOT mentioned as a characteristic of western grasses?
A. They contain little moisture B. They have tough stems
C. They can be grown indoors D. They are not affected by dry weather
10. According to the passage, the cattle help promote the growth of the wild grass by_____.
A. eating only small quantities of grass
B. continually moving from one grazing area to another
C. naturally fertilizing the soil
D. stepping on and pressing the seeds into the ground
PART IV: WRITING
I. Rewrite the following sentences without changing their meaning, using the words given.
These words must not be changed in any way.
1. Return the product to the shop if you have any complaints about it.
Should
______________________________________________________________________
2. subscribing to that magazine.
I cancelled
___________________________________________________________________
3. Her success went beyond her expectation.
Never
_______________________________________________________________________
4. His fondness for the game increased with his proficiency.
The more __________________________________________________________-
__________
5.
The operation left
______________________________________________________________
6. I am sure he recognized us at the airport.
He must
_____________________________________________________________________
7. The journalists only heard about the changes to the wedding plans when they arrived at
the avenue.
Not until
_____________________________________________________________________
8.
__________________________________________________________
9. Someone has suggested raising the parking fees in the city.
It
___________________________________________________________________________
10.
____________________________________________________________________
II. Write an essay (about 250 words) about the following topic:
Sometimes tourists may damage tourist sites. Explain what some of the negative effects may be.
Suggest some solutions to this problem.
______________________________________________________________________________
______________________________________________________________________________
______________________________________________________________________________
______________________________________________________________________________
______________________________________________________________________________
______________________________________________________________________________
______________________________________________________________________________
______________________________________________________________________________
______________________________________________________________________________
______________________________________________________________________________
______________________________________________________________________________
______________________________________________________________________________
______________________________________________________________________________
______________________________________________________________________________
______________________________________________________________________________
______________________________________________________________________________
______________________________________________________________________________
_______
-----------------THE END-----------------
Keys – practice 15
PART A
1. A. vulnerable B. conservation C. generation D.
disappearance
2. A. encounter B. influence C. agency D.
memory
3. A. crossbar B. advance C. goalie D.
Polo
4. A. succeed B. anxious C. well-done D.
reduce
5. A. studious B. semester C. similar D.
century
6. A. teacher B. brochure C. achieve D.
purchase
7. A. departure B. inherit C. elegant D.
authentic
8. A. satisfy B. quality C. mistake D.
Sequential
9. A. repetition B. television C. residential D.
mountaineer
10. A. communication B. international C. university D.
necessarily
PART III. LEXICO-GRAMMAR
I. Complete each of the following sentences with the correct answer. 10pts)
1. C
2. B
3. B
4. C
5. D
6. B
7. A
8. D
9. A
10. A
11. C
12. A
13. B
14. A
15. B
16. B
17. D
18. C
19. C
20. A
II. Each sentence below contains 1 mistake. IDENTIFY the mistakes and WRITE THEIR
CORRECT FORMS. (5pts)
1. offering => offered
2. attractive => attractively
3. and => or
4. nobody => anybody
5. under =>in/with
6. grant => granted
7. out => from
8. supposing => supposed
9. other => rather
10. circumstance => circumstances
III. Supply the correct FORM of the word in capital letter.
1. beneficial
2. presentation
3. noticeable
4. speech
5. orally
6. professional
7. impression
8. responses
9. revisit
10. unease
PART IV. READING
I. Read the text & decide which word best fits each space by choosing A, B, C or D. (10pts)
1. B
2. C
3. C
4. A
5. D
6. C
7. D
8. B
9. A
10. D
II. Fill in each blank space with an appropriate word. (10pts)
1. largest/greatest
2. thanks
3. offers
4. rainy/cloudy
5. if
6. there
7. whose
8. only
9. makes
10. without
III. Read the following passage and choose the best answer. (10pts)
1. A
2. B
3. C
4. D
5. C
6. A
7. C
8. B
9. D
10. B
PART V. WRITING
I. Finish each of the sentences in such a way that it means exactly the same as the sentence
printed before it. (5pts)
1. Should you have any complaints about the product, return it to the shop.
2. I cancelled my subscription to that magazine nine months ago.
3. Never had she expected she was so successful.
4. The more proficient he was at the game, the more he was fond of it.
5. The operation left Simon feeling weaker than he (had) expected.
6. He must have recognized us at the airport.
7. Not until the journalist arrived at the airport did they hear the changes to the wedding
plans.
8. criticized her for not doing her work more carefully.
9. It has been suggested that the parking fees (should) be raised.
10.
II. Write an essay (about 250 words) about the following topic:
Sometimes tourists may damage tourist sites. Explain what some of the negative effects may be.
Suggest some solutions to this problem.
Marking scheme
The impression mark given is based on the following scheme:
4. Content: 50% of total mark: a provision of all main ideas and details as appropriate
5. Language: 30% of total mark: a variety of vocabulary and structures appropriate to the
level of English language gifted upper-secondary school students
6. Presentation: 20% of total mark: coherence, cohesion, and style appropriate to the level
of English language gifted upper-secondary school students.
ENGLISH PRACTICE 16
PART I – PRONUNCIATION
Choose the word whose stress pattern is different from the other three in the following
questions
1. A. argument B. reject C. attract D. install
2. A. librarian B. religious C. commercial D. Japanese
3. A. technology B. activity C. experience D. presentation
4. A. informality B. entertainment C. situation D. appropriate
5. A. experience B. cosmetics C. economics D. fertility
6. A. preparation B. apology C. geography D. experience
7. A. surplus B. surface C. surgeon D. surprise
8. A. award B. control C. regard D. conquer
9. A. colleague B. neighbour C. career D. classmate
10. A. disappear B. precision C. mechanic D. discover
PART 2: LEXICO - GRAMMAR
Section 1: Choose the best option (A, B, C or D) to complete each of the following sentences.
1. Much of what he said had little _______ to the issue we were discussing.
A. accordance B. involvement C. concern D. relevance
2. The restless lion kept pacing _________ along the front of its cage.
A. back and fort B. up and down C. on and off D. back and out
3. You can have _______ for the meals during your package vacation.
A. vouchers B. tags C. checks D. records
4. A new motorcycle model has just been _______ on the Internet.
A. delivered B. designed C. launched D. exploited
-
A. do B. have C. set D. make
6. The Prime Minister has _______ from the dogmatic position he adopted a few days ago.
A. backed out B. backed down C. backed up D. backed on
7. At the South Pole _______, the coldest and most desolate region on Earth.
A. Antarctica lies where B. Antarctica lies and
C. where Antarctica lies D. lies Antarctica
8. _______ in the diet is especially important for vegetarians.
A. Enough protein is obtained B. Obtaining enough protein
C. They obtain enough protein D. By obtaining enough protein
9. _______ over long distances is a fact.
A. That electricity can be transmitted B. That electricity transmitting
C. That electricity D. That can be transmitted
A. dangerously knocked over B. in danger knocked over
C. in danger of being knocked over D. in danger of knocking over
A. chance B. advantage C. interest D. charge
12. By 2050, medical technology _______ many diseases.
A. has conquered B. will conquer C. will have conquered D. is
conquering
13. I realized _______ that he was a thief.
A. sooner or later B. all along C. at the beginning D. eventually
14. _______ his assistance in those days, I would not be so successful now.
A. If it had not for B. Had it not been for
C. If there were not D. Unless I had
15. They thought they could deceive me but they were wrong. I could ________.
A. see them off B. see off them C. see through them D. see them through
16. Janet will see you if you use the computer without permission. She has eyes like a _______.
A. hawk B. bird C. goose D. fox
17. My sister remained very calm. She _______.
A. kept her temper B. kept her soul C. kept her head D. lost her head
18. A network of railroads to unite the continent and encourage Western settlement _______
before the Civil War by Asa Whitney.
A. when proposed B. to propose C. was proposed D. a proposal
19. Farmers are at the _______ of the bad weather that can destroy their crop.
A. change B. influence C. force D. mercy
20. He showed his _______ for the TV programme by switching it off.
A. distaste B. discontent C. annoyance D. boredom
Section 2: Use the word given in capitals at the end of each line to form a word that fits in the space
at the same line.
OBSESSED WITH YOUR INBOX?
It was not so long ago that we dealt with colleagues through
face-to-face interaction and with counterparts and customers by
phone or letter. But the world of communication has (1)
________ a dramatic transformation, not all for the good. Email,
while (2) _______ a swift means of communication providing
your server is fully (3) ________ and that the address you have
contains no (4) _________ has had a (5) _______ effect on
certain people's, both at home and in business. For these
people, the use of email has become (6) _______ addictive to the
extent that it is (7) ________ their mental and physical health.
Addicts spend their day (8) ________ checking for email and
have a (9) ________ to panic if their server goes down. It is
estimated that one in six people spend four hours a day sending
and receiving messages the equivalent to more than two working
days a week. The negative effect on (10) ________ is something
employers are well aware of.
1. GO
2. DOUBT
3. FUNCTION
4. ACCURATE
5. SIGNIFY
6. RESIST
7. THREAD
8. COMPULSION
9. TEND
10. PRODUCE
Section 3: There are 10 errors in the following passage. Identify and correct them
Children who tell pop music does not interfere with their homework receive support
today, with the discovery that pay attention to visual stimuli and sounds requires completely
different brain pathways which can operate at the same time with your appreciation of either
being damaged. Researchers have founded that listening to car stereos does not create much
interference when you are driving. Similarly, pop music should not interfere to
homework. The affect of pop music on their performance at it is far outweigh by other factors,
such as how happy they are to be doing it. These findings could be applied for the design of
places which people have to take in large amounts of information very quickly. They could, for
example, be relevantly to the layout of pilot cockpits on aircraft.
LINE
MISTAKE
CORRECTION
LINE
MISTAKE
CORRECTION
Section 4: Complete each of the following sentences with a suitable preposition.
_______.
2. _______ receipt of your instructions, I immediately sent a telex message to Algeria.
4. The applause died _______ after 5 minutes.
5. He accepted my advice _______ reservation.
6. Our students are orientated _______ the science subjects.
7. Cheques should be made _______ to Wellington.
9. She is Polish _______ birth, but she has French nationality.
allow _______ changes in the weather.
PART 3. READING
Section 1: Fill each of the following numbered blanks with ONE suitable word and write your
answers in the corresponding boxes provided below the passage.
How to win friends and influence colleagues
The worst sins that office workers can commit in the eyes of colleagues are interrupting
meeting. It is almost (2) _______ bad to eat at your desk, make personal phone calls or leave
coffee cups (3) _______ around, according to Bodytalk, a guide published by the Industrial
Society, (4) _______ lists the 30 traits most likely to annoy colleagues.
(5) _______ signing off
afterwards, messing up the photocopier by jamming the paper or leaving it set to produce multiple
copies. Reading newspaper, doodling, chewing gum, keeping cuddly toys or ornaments on your
desk, and putting up postcards or supposedly witty slogan (6) _______ invite disapproval. Also
unpopular are (7) _______ who never fetch a colleague a drink from the machine, or who (8)
_______ to hold the lift door open when others are approaching. (9) _______ conduct, according to
thor, Judi James, not only gives you an unprofessional image but is downright anti-
social and could result (10) _______ dismissal.
Section 2: Fill the gaps in the passage by choosing the best phrases from A-M.
A few years ago one enlightened city decided to ease traffic congestion by (1) _______.
People would just take a bike, ride it to where they were going and leave it (2) _______. The trouble
was the citizens naturally found it (3) _______ to have their own free bicycle and (4) _______.
That slight detail of human nature apart, it was a good idea and (5) _______. The electric cars
buzzing round the streets of La Rochelle in France are seen (6) _______ and, it is clamed, will make
it easier (7) _______ within the city centre.
The idea is based on the belief that people like their own space, the freedom to drive a vehicle
oncept has grown (10)
_______.
A. to end the use of private cars
H. supplying sufficient communal bicycles
B. rather than crowd on to a bus or train
I. taking the place of bicycles
C. to encourage their use
J. a sort of do-it-yourself taxi
D. stock swiftly dwindled
K. as a supplement to conventional cars
E. out of a practical study
L. instead of car
F. for someone else to use
G. even more convenient
Section 3: Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet
to indicate the correct answer to each of the questions.
One of the seven wonders of the ancient world, the Great Pyramid of Giza was a monument
of wisdom and prophecy built as a tomb for Pharaoh Cheops in 2720 B.C. Despite its antiquity,
certain aspects of its construction makes it one of the truly wonders of the world. The thirteen-
acre structure near the Nile river is a solid mass of stone blocks covered with limestone. Inside
are the number of hidden passageways and the burial chamber of the Pharaoh. It is the largest
single structure in the world. The four sides of the pyramid are aligned almost exactly on true
north, south, east and west-an incredible engineering feat. The ancient Egyptians were sun
worshippers and great astronomers, so computations for the Great Pyramid were based on
astronomical observations.
Explorations and detailed examinations of the base of the structure reveal many intersecting
lines. Further scientific study indicates that these represent a type of timeline of events past,
present and future. Many of the events have been interpreted and found to coincide with known
facts of the past. Others are prophesied for future generations and are currently under
investigation. Many believe that pyramids have supernatural powers and this one is no exception.
Some researchers even associate it with extraterrestrial beings of ancient past.
Was this superstructure made by ordinary beings, or one built by a race far superior to any
known today?
1. What has research of the base revealed?
A. there are cracks in the foundation
body
C. The lines represent important events D. A superior race of people built in
2. Extraterrestrial beings are _______.
A. very strong workers B. astronomers in the ancient times
C. researchers in Egyptology D. living beings from other planets
3. What was the most probable reason for providing so many hidden passages?
A. To allow the weight of the pyramid to settle evenly
B. To permit the high priests to pray at night
D. To keep grave robbers from finding the tomb and the treasure buried with the pharaoh
feain meaning to _______.
A. accomplishment B. Appendage C. festivity D. structure
5. What do the intersecting lines in the base symbolize?
B. Pathways of the great solar bodies
C. Astrological computations
D. Dates of important events taking place throughout time
prophesied’ is closest in meaning to _______.
A. affiliated B. precipitated C. terminated D. foretold
7. What is the best title for the passage?
A. Symbolism of the Great Pyramid B. Problems with the Construction of the
Great Pyramid
C. Wonders of the Great Pyramid of Giza D. Exploration of the Burial Chamber of
Cheops
8. On what did the ancient Egyptians base their calculations?
A. Observation of the celestial bodies B. Advanced technology
C. Advanced tools of measurement
9. Why was the Great Pyramid constructed?
A. As a solar observatory B. As a religious temple
C. As a tomb for the Pharaoh D. as an engineering feat
10. Why is the Great Pyramid of Giza considered one of the seven wonders of the world?
A. it is perfectly aligned with the four cardinal points of the compass and contains many
prophecies
B. It was selected of the tomb of Pharaoh Cheops
C. It was built by a super race
D. It is very old
Section 4: Choose the best answer (A, B, C or D) to complete each numbered gap in the
passage below. Identify your answer by writing the corresponding letter A, B, C or D on your
answer sheet.
CARNIVOROUS PLANTS
All plants rely on nutrients taken from the soil in order to survive. However, in areas where the
soil does not contain enough (1) _______ nutrients, some plants have adapted to (2) _______ their
diets from another source: living organisms. Though they are few in number, carnivorous plants are
-celled organisms to insects in order to
survive. They are commonly found in marshlands. Carnivorous plants feature one of several types of
ensnare prey, which they consume to make up for nutrients that may be missing from the
soil. While there are over 400 species of carnivorous plants in the world today, some are more (4)
_______ than others.
The most well-known of these plants are the snap traps, which include the Venus flytrap. Snap
traps are easily identified by their leaves, which are separated into two lobes that have the ability to
fold together. Inside the lobes, the surface is covered with tiny hairs that are (5) _______ to
movement.
rapidly brings the two lobes together, trapping the prey (6) _______ inside. The response of the traps
is phenomenal (7) _______ speed: the time between triggering the hairs and snapping shut is less
than a second. As the prey struggles inside the trap, it only triggers more hairs, causing the leaves to
tighten their (8) _______. The plant then secrets liquid chemicals from special glands into the trap to
dissolve the prey and absorb all of its nutrients. Besides the Venus flytrap, only one other type of
snap trap exists today, (9) _______ to as the waterwheel plant. The two share a common ancestor and
differ only in a few ways. For instance, the waterwheel is an aquatic plant, while the flytrap is
exclusively terrestrial. In addition, the flytrap feeds primarily on arthropods like spiders, while the
waterwheel lives (10) _______ simple invertebrates, like certain types of plankton.
1. A. critical B. vital C. crucial D.
indispensable
2. A. modify B. enlarge C. augment D. supplement
3. A. nonetheless B. though C. contradictorily D. yet
4. A. prevalent B. current C. domineering D. prevailing
5. A. vulnerable B. liable C. prone D. sensitive
6. A. closely B. securely C. irreplaceably D. steadily
7. A. in accordance with B. in preference to C. in regard to D. on merits
of
8. A. fist B. hold C. seizure D. grip
9. A. denoted B. referred C. indicated D. implicated
10. A. off B. onto C. though D. with
PART E. WRITING
Section 1: Write a new sentence as similar as possible in meaning to the original sentence, but
using the word given. The word must not be altered in any way.
1. The new lecturer was unpopular with his students. TAKE
___________________________________________________.
2. John decided that an actor's life was not of him. CUT
___________________________________________________.
3. The number of people out of work has been going down little by little. GRADUAL
___________________________________________________.
4. I really want to see her again. DYING
___________________________________________________.
5. What did his silence mean?
SIGNIFICANCE
___________________________________________________.
Section 2: Write an essay of around 250 words on the following topic.
The idea of going overseas for university study is an exciting prospect for many people. But
while it may offer some advantages, it is probably better to stay home because of the difficulties a
student inevitably encounters living and studying in a different culture.
To what extent do you agree or disagree this statement?
Give reasons for your answer.
_________The end_________
Keys – practice 16
PART I – PRONUNCIATION
Choose the word whose stress pattern is different from the other three in the following
questions
1. A. argument B. reject C. attract D. install
2. A. librarian B. religious C. commercial D. Japanese
3. A. technology B. activity C. experience D.
presentation
4. A. informality B. entertainment C. situation D.
appropriate
5. A. experience B. cosmetics C. economics D. fertility
6. A. preparation B. apology C. geography D. experience
7. A. surplus B. surface C. surgeon D. surprise
8. A. award B. control C. regard D. conquer
9. A. colleague B. neighbour C. career D. classmate
10. A. disappear B. precision C. mechanic D. discover
PART 2: LEXICO-GRAMMAR - 25 pts
Section 1: Choose the best option (A, B, C, or D) to complete the sentences (10 pts; 1pt/item)
1. D
5. B
9. A
13. B
17. C
2. A
6. A
10. C
14. B
18. C
3. A
7. D
11. B
15. C
19. D
4. C
8. B
12. C
16. A
20. A
Section 2: Word formation (5 pt; 0,5pt/item)
1. undergone
2. undoubtedly
3. functional
4. inaccuracies
5. significant
6. irresistibly
7. threatening
8. compulsively
9. tendency
10. production
Section 3: Identify the 10 mistakes in the following sentences and correct them (5 pt; 0.5pt/item)
LINE
MISTAKE
CORRECTION
LINE
MISTAKE
CORRECTION
1
tell
say
5
affect
effect
2
pay
paying
6
outweigh
outweighed
3
with
without
7
for
to
4
founded
found
7
which
where
5
to
with
8
relevantly
relevant
(Lưu ý: Tìm đúng từ nhưng sửa sai được 0,25pt)
Section 4: Complete each of the following sentences with a suitable preposition - 5 pts,
0,5pt/item
1. round
2. on
3. off
4. away
5. without
6. towards/ to
7. out
8. around
9. by
10. for
PART 3: READING - 30 pts
Section 1: (10 pt; 1pt/item)
1. for
2. as
3. lying
4. which
5. without
6. all
7. those/people
8. fail/forget
9. Such
10. in
Section 2: (5 pt; 0,5pt/item)
1. H
2. F
3. G
4. D
5. M
6. K
7. A
8. B
9. J
10. E
Section 3: (5 pt; 0,5pt/item)
1. C
2. D
3. D
4. A
5. D
6. D
7. C
8. A
9. C
10. A
Section 4: (10 pt; 1pt/item)
1. B
2. D
3. A
4. A
5. D
6. B
7. C
8. D
9. B
10. A
PART 4: WRITING - 25 pts
Section 1: (5 pt; 1/item)
1. The students didn't take to their new lecturer.
2. John (decided that he) was not cut out to be an actor.
3. There has been a gradual decline (reduction/ fall/ decrease) in the number of people out of
work.
4. Iam (I'm) dying to see her again.
5. What's (What was) the significance of his silence?
Section 2: Essay writing (20 pts)
Total score: 2 points; assessed against the language level appropriate to that of a secondary student
with four years of learning English in a gifted school in Vietnam.
Task achievement (5pts)
Grammar range and Accuracy (5 pts)
Coherence and cohesion (5 pts)
Lexical resource ( 0.5 pts)
ENGLISH PRACTICE 17
I – PRONUNCIATION
Choose the word whose stress pattern is different from the other three in the following
questions
1. A. complain B. gather C. product D. transcript
2. A. mosquito B. elephant C. dinosaur D. buffalo
3. A. protect B. settle C. relate D. compose
4. A. government B. understand C. interview D. reference
5. A. scholarship B. develop C. equipment D. discourage
6. A. integral B. terrific C. cathedral D. museum
7. A. appreciative B. archeologist C. architectural D. cosmopolitan
8. A. photograph B. separate C. recommend D. hurricane
9. A. tonight B. control C. purpose D. involve
10. A. enough B. aware C. support D. swallow
II. LEXICO-GRAMMAR
Exercise 1: Choose the best answer for each question.
1. My sister never allows ____ a party at home.
A. to have B. me having C. having had D. having
2. She forgot _____ her toilet bag for her trip and she is now a little annoyed about it.
A. to be packing B. having packed C. packing D. to pack
3. When I __________ how to ski for the first time, I felt so happy.
A. succeeded B. began C. studied D. learned
4. Thailand defeated Laos ___2______3.
A. with/by B. by/of C. by/to D. with/of
5.
A. have been released B. have released C. was released D. has been released
6.
A. which B. what C. that D. it
7.
A. I am going to answer D. I answered
8. tre of Sydney.
A. many-floored B. multi-storey C. multi-storied D. many-story
9.
A. distinguish B. seprate C. disgnose D. estimate
10. Rapid _______ would cause frequent floods and leave little water during dry seasons.
A. run-off B. run-in C. run-out D. run-over
11. You are _______ to clean the bathroom.
A. declared B. imagined C. supposed D. spoken
12. They are passing new laws to ________ wildlife in the area.
A. conserve B. protest C. shield D. shelter
13. They ________ a serious threat to security.
A. put B. place C. set D. pose
14. _______ did he pay for his transitor radio?
A. How high B. How many C. How much D. How often
15. More than half the staff ___________ temporary.
A. is B. are C. was D. were
16. He reduced _________ and turned sharp left.
A. speed B. rapidity C. fast D. rate
17.
A. like B. alike C. likely D. look like
18. The kids found it hard to stay ________.
A. unmoved B. unmoving C. still D. stuck
19. _________ he became famous did he realize the price of fame.
A. Only until B. Not until C. Since D. Until
20.
A. out of job B. out of order C. out of work D. out of employment
1.
2.
3.
4.
5.
6.
7.
8.
9.
10.
11.
12.
13.
14.
15.
16.
17.
18.
19.
20.
Exercise 2: Provide the correct article A/AN/THE/X (zero article) in the following gaps.
(21)________first few days after getting home from (22)______ college were okay but then I
began to feel rather bored and lonely. My parents were busy working and (23)______most of my
friends were either away on holiday or else had (24)________ holiday jobs. I tried to get a job
myself but without success. I was beginning to wish I had not come home when I saw
(25)_______advertisement for holiday courses in (26)________local newspaper. For
(27)_______small fee you could try lots of different activities organized by (28)________
met new people as many of (30)________ tourists staying in the town joined in.
21.
22.
23.
24.
25.
26.
27.
28.
29.
30.
Exercise 3: Provide the correct form of the word in bold capitals.
The World Health Organisation (WHO) is (31) WORRY that 1.1 billion teenagers and people
in their twenties and early thirties are damaging their (32) HEAR by listening to loud music. It
says (33) NEAR half the young people in middle and high-income countries risk hearing loss
because of the "(34) SAFETY use" of personal music (35) PLAY, including smartphones.
Loud music in nightclubs, bars and at sporting events also increases the risk. The WHO
recommends a safe (36) LIMITED of listening to music for just one hour a day. The WHO
director for (37) INJURE prevention, Dr Etienne Krug, told the BBC that: "What we're trying
to do is raise (38) AWARE of an issue that is not (39) TALK about enough." He said hearing
loss is easily (40) PREVENT.
21.
22.
23.
24.
25.
26.
27.
28.
29.
30.
Exercise 4: Choose the incorrect parts and correct them.
31. Despite (A) fats and oil are nutritionally (B) important as (C) energy sources, medical
research indicates that saturated fats may contribute to hardening (D) of the arteries.
32. The radio telescope, invented (A) in 1932, has capabilities (B) beyond far (C) those of optical
telescopes in tracking (D) signals from galaxies.
33. The boat rose and fell slow (A) as (B) the huge sea swells (C) moved (D) towards shore.
34. She was determined (A) to pursue (B) a tertiary education however (C) happened to her (D).
35. Today there is (A) an unusually (B) large amount (C) of students in the class (D).
III. READING
Exercise 1: Questions 1 – 10
Clinic for internet addicts opens in US
If you have to take a quick break from reading this article to send a text message or check your
Blackberry, then the good news is that help is at hand.
A new centre for cyberspace addicts has opened in the US city of Seattle. It claims to be
$14,000, six people at a time can spend 45 days fighting against their constant need to connect to
the internet. Residents are given counselling and psychotherapy, as well as group activities such
as household chores, walks in the grounds and exercising.
The centre, in the countryside about 50km outside Seattle, is the idea of therapist Hilarie Cash.
She recorded her first case of cyberspace addiction in 1994, with a patient so glued to video
games that he lost his marriage and two jobs. But until this summer she had only met patients on
a day-by-day basis. Cash points out that although countries such as China, South Korea and
Taiwan have places where internet addicts can find help, America has been slow to recognise the
problem.
World of Warcraft, which took up most of his time awake. He started playing the game when he
By comparison to the whizz-bang on the screen in front of him, the social life at university
Alexander eventually left the university and found help with his gaming probl
Questions 1 – 6: Read the text and choose the correct answers to these questions.
1. The centre is for people who spend too much time ____________
A. at the office B. on the phone C. online
2. The residents at the centre do activities ___________
A. in pairs B. in small groups C. in big groups
3.
A. video games B. exercising C. household chores
4. People have been slow to recognise the addiction in ___________
A. China B. South Korea C. the US
5. Ben began to have problems when he started ______________
A. at college B. at the centre C. at work
6. Ben found the game a good way to _____________
A. study B. make friends C. help his problem
Questions 7 – 12: Read the text and write NO MORE THAN THREE WORDS for each
answer to these questions.
7. Where is the new centre?
8. How much does the course cost?
9. How long is the course?
10. When did Cash have her fist addicted patient?
11. What internet game did Ben play?
12. How many hours a day did Ben play the game?
1.
2.
3.
4.
5.
6.
7.
8.
9.
10.
11.
12.
Exercise 2: Questions 13 – 20
Read the text and fill in each blank with a most suitable word.
School students do not shower after sports class
A report has found that more than half of high (13)__________ boys and two-thirds of girls
never shower after a physical (14)__________ class. Researchers suggest that students don't
want to sweat and take a (15)__________ , so they are less active in sports classes. The
researchers questioned almost 4,000 children in schools in Essex, England. Lead researcher Dr
Gavin Sandercock said he was surprised (16)__________ how rarely students showered. He
said: "We know (17)__________ children aren't getting (18)__________ physical activity
because we have seen their fitness declining; (19)__________ the unwillingness to shower is a
barrier to working up a sweat (20)__________ playing sport, it's something we need to tackle to
promote activity at schools."
13.
14.
15.
16.
17.
18.
19.
20.
Exercise 3: Questions 21 – 30
Read the text and choose the most suitable option to complete the text.
The Internet bus
In the desert areas that surround Tucson city, USA, students spend hundreds of hours on yellow
buses each year getting to and from their schools. But when mobile internet equipment was
(21)____________ on a yellow school bus, the bored, often noisy, teens were transformed into
quiet, studious individuals.
District officials got the idea during (22)____________ drives on school business to Phoenix,
two hours each way, when they (23)____________ that, when they went in pairs, one person
could drive and the other could work using a laptop and a wireless card. They (24)____________
o.
information officer (26)____________ across an article about having internet across in cars. He
The officials have been delighted to see the (27)____________ of homework getting done,
morning and evening, as the internet bus (28)____________ up and drops off students along the
70-minute drive. (29)____________ some students spend their time playing games or visiting
social networking sites, most students do make (30)____________ their travel time to study.
21. A. installed B. set C. included D. structured
22. A. extraordinary B. occasional C. exceptional D. few
23. A. believed B. acknowledged C. estimated D. realised
24. A. thought B. imagined C. suspected D. wondered
25. A. increase B. enlarge C. rise D. heighten
26. A. got B. looked C. came D. put
27. A. total B. amount C. number D. measure
28. A. brings B. picks C. rides D.
catches
29. A. Since B. Despite C. Although D. However
30. A. progress B. work C. use D. part
31.
32.
33.
34.
35.
36.
37.
38.
39.
40.
IV. WRITING
Exercise 1: Complete the following sentences so that their meanings are close to the
originals.
1. front of me.
2.
3. The job received over a hundred applications.
4.
5. The best solution was thought of by Sally.
Exercise 2: Write a PARAGRAPH of at least 120 words on the following topic:
If you could study a subject that you have never had the opportunity to study, what would you
choose? Explain your choice, using specific reasons and details.
Keys – practice 17
I – PRONUNCIATION
Choose the word whose stress pattern is different from the other three in the following
questions
1. A. complain B. gather C. product D.
transcript
2. A. mosquito B. elephant C. dinosaur D.
buffalo
3. A. protect B. settle C. relate D.
compose
4. A. government B. understand C. interview D.
reference
5. A. scholarship B. develop C. equipment D.
discourage
6. A. integral B. terrific C. cathedral D.
museum
7. A. appreciative B. archeologist C. architectural D.
cosmopolitan
8. A. photograph B. separate C. recommend D.
hurricane
9. A. tonight B. control C. purpose D.
involve
10. A. enough B. aware C. support D.
swallow
II. LEXICO-GRAMMAR: Total: 3 pts
Exercise 1: (Total: 1 pts: 0.05pt/each correct answer)
1. D
2. D
3. D
4. C
5. A
6. A
7. C
8. B
9. A
10. A
11. C
12. A
13. D
14. C
15. B
16. A
17. A
18. C
19. B
20. C
Exercise 2: (Total: 0.5 pts: 0.05pt/each correct answer)
21. The
22. x
23. x
24. x
25. an
26. the
27. a
28. the
29. a
30. the
Exercise 3: (Total: 1 pts: 0.1pt/each correct answer)
31. worried
32. hearing
33. nearly
34. unsafe
35. players
36. limit
37. injury
38. awareness
39. talked
40. preventable
Exercise 4: (Total: 0.5 pts: 0.05pt/each correct finding + 0.05pt/each correction)
41. A => Although/ Though
42. C => far beyond
43. A => slowly
44. C => whatever
45. C => number
III. READING: Total: 3 pts (0.1pt/each correct answer)
Exercise 1:
1. C
2. B
3. A
4. C
5. A
6. B
7. Seattle
8. S14,000
9. 45 days
10. 1994
11. World of Warcraft
12. 16 or 17
Exercise 2:
13. school
14. education
15. shower
16. at
17. that
18. enough
19. if
20. or
Exercise 3:
21. A
22. B
23. D
24. D
25. A
26. C
27. B
28. B
29. C
30. C
IV. WRITING: Total: 2 pts
Exercise 1: Total: 0.5 pts (0.1pt/each correct answer)
1. my writing torn to pieces in front of me.
2. A decision will have to
3. Over a hundred people applied for the job.
4. You have made up this story!
5. Sally came up with the best solution.
Exercise 2: 1.5 pts
ng dn
- Chng dn chm.
- Chi tim s các ý (nu có) phm bo không sai lch vi tm
mi c thng nht trong hng chm thi.
- m
ng dn c th
Tiêu chí
Mô t chi tit
m
Ni dung
Vi (ch cn vi )
Vit logic, hp lí
0,3
0,4
Ngôn ng
u trúc ng pháp
S dng t vng phù hp phong phú
0,3
0,3
Trình bày
Vi s t nh
Mch lc, rõ ràng, có ý sáng to
0,1
0,1
Tng
1.5
Cách tính li: - 01 li ng pháp (cu trúc, t v 0,05
- 01 li chính t tr 0,01
- Vi t nh tr 0,2
- Vit nhi t qnh không tr m
ENGLISH PRACTICE 18
I – PRONUNCIATION
Choose the word whose stress pattern is different from the other three in the following
questions
1. A. period B. consider C. advocate D. cultural
2. A. exclude B. expire C. expert D. exceed
3. A. industrial B. infallible C. intimacy D. intensity
4. A. engineering B. comprehension C. maturity D. architectural
5. A. curriculum B. grammatical C. repetitious D. historical
6. A. enough B. aware C. support D. swallow
7. A. period B. consider C. advocate D. cultural
8. A. exclude B. expire C. expert D. exceed
9. A. industrial B. infallible C. intimacy D. intensity
10. A. engineering B. comprehension C. maturity D. architectural
II. LEXICO-GRAMMAR
Exercise 1. Complete each of the following sentences with the correct answer (A, B, C or D).
Identify your answer by writing the corresponding letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet.
21.
A. trying not hard enough B. not trying enough hard
C. not trying hard enough D. trying not enough hard
22. The public library _________ to all readers who are interested in reading and doing
research.
A. is opening B. is open C. is opened D. is being opened
23.
A. first B. at first C. firstly D. first of all
24. I quickly packed my new belongings and spent _________ money I had on a one-way ticket
home.
A. little B. a little C. the little D. a little of
25. She believes that all countries should _________ the death penalty as it is inhumane.
A. put down to B. catch up on C. get down to D. do away with
26. Keep your ticket _________ you have to show it to an inspector.
A. if B. in case C. unless D. supposing
27. He always _________ aside some time every day to read to his children.
A. sets B. leaves C. spares D. lets
28.
vegetable.
A. dealer B. trader C. pusher D. vendor
29. I use weed-killer to _________ the weeds in the garden.
A. get rid of B. get out of C. get away with D. get in the way with
30. If there is new evidence that proves his innocence, it is likely that the authorities will
_________ him from jail.
A. release B. relieve C. remove D. rehabilitate
31. very good and he was found _________ by the jury.
A. faulty B. mistaken C. guilty D. sinful
32. The dish was so tasty that I asked for a second _________.
A. helping B. portion C. ration D. share
33. - it is so silly!
A. took in B. caught on C. took up D. caught by
34. -
-
35.
A. is due B. is bound C. is about D. is set
36. have to
pay for a hotel.
A. place him in B. put him up C. back him up D. turn him out
37. The doctor _______the cut on my knee and said it had completely healed up.
A. examined B. investigated C. researched D. looked into
38. My mind went _________ when the official asked me my phone number
remember it at all.
A. empty B. clear C. blank D. vacant
39. During their first date, Jane had nervously peppered the conversation with _____talk.
A. unimportant B. tiny C. small D. trivial
40. You need a passport to cross the _________between Mexico and the United States.
A. edge B. line C. border D. rim
Exercise 2. There are 10 errors in the following passage. Identify and correct them like the
example provided.
Example
It is very difficult to success in the music business; nine out of
ten bands that release a first record fail to produce the second.
Surviving in the music industry requires luck and patience, but most
of all it requires and intricate knowledge of how a record company is
Artist and Repertoire (A&R) department visits bars and night clubs,
scouting for young, talented bands. After the representative identifies
a promised band, he or she will work to negotiate a contract with that
Line 1
Line 2
Line 3
Line 4
Line 5
Line 6
Line 7
Line 8
band. The signature of this recording contract is a slow process. A
company will spend a long time to investigate the band itself as well
as current trends for popular music. During this period, it is important
that a band reciprocates with an investigation of its own, learning as
much as possible about the record company and making personnel
connections within the different departments that will handle their
recordings.
Line 9
Line 10
Line 11
Line 12
Line 13
Line 14
Exercise 3. Supply the correct FORM of the word in capital letters. Write your answers on
your answer sheet.
Before going to an interview, it is advisable to go through a mock interview. This will give you
the opportunity to try out your technique and answers live. It is also a chance to receive feedback
that is (1. BENEFIT) __________ in guiding you towards improving your interview style and
general (2. PRESENT) __________. Just one mock interview will result in a (3. NOTICE)
______ improvement in your interview skill. Why? For the same reason that a (4. SPEAK)
_
give it (5. ORAL)_______. The first time you give it in front of an audience, it will come out
nothing like the one you prepared.
It is the same with being interviewed. It is not enough to look at a question and say,
to talk to yourself in front of a mirror. Seek out a (6. PROFESSION) _______ and have the
session videotaped. Then you will have two opinions
find you get a completely different (7. IMPRESS)________ when listening to yourself than
when you are watching yourself saying something. Just as your voice always sounds different on
tape, so do your (8. RESPOND) _______. You will be glad the image is captured on tape and not
answers and go through a second mock interview. This should help with any (10.
EASE)________ and give you more confidence for the real interview.
III. READING
Exercise 1. Read the following passage and choose the best answer for each question.
Identify your answer by writing the corresponding letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet.
The ability to weep is a uniquely human form of emotional response. Some scientists have
suggested that human tears are (1) _____ of an aquatic past but this does not seem very likely.
We cry from the moment we enter this world, for a number of reasons. Helpless babies cry to
persuade their parents that they are ill, hungry or uncomfortable. As they (2) _____, they will
also cry just to attract parental attention and will often stop when they get it.
The idea that having a good cry do you (3) _____ is a very old one and now it has scientific
validity since recent research into tears has shown that they (4) _____ a natural painkiller called
enkaphalin. By fighting sorrow and pain this chemical helps you feel better. Weeping can
increase the quantities of enkaphalin you (5) _____.
Unfortunately, in our society we impose restrictions upon this naturally (6) _____ activity.
Because some people still regard it as a (7) _____ of weakness in men, boys in particular are
admonished when they cry. This kind of repression can only increase stress, both emotionally
and physically.
Tears of emotion also help the body (8) _____ itself of toxic chemical waste, for there is
more protein in them than in tears resulting from cold winds or other irritants. Crying comforts,
calms and can be very enjoyable (9) _____ the popularity of highly emotional films which are
laughing together.
11. A. witness B. evidence C. result D. display
12. A. evolve B. change C. develop D. alter
13. A. better B. fine C. good D. well
14. A. contain B. retain C. hold D. keep
15. A. construct B. achieve C. provide D. produce
16. A. curing B. treating C. healing D. improving
17. A. hint B. symbol C. feature D. sign
18. A. release B. rid C. loosen D. expel
19. A. consider B. remark C. distinguish D. regard
20. A. named B. entitled C. subtitled D. called
Exercise 2. Read the text below and think of the word which best fits each space. Use only
ONE word in each space. Write your answers on your answer sheet.
Travel Insurance
When going on holiday, it is always a good idea to take out travel insurance. This is just
in case something goes (1) _____ along the way. You could lose your luggage, you could be
robbed, or even become ill and need expensive medical treatment. For millions of holiday
makers, travel insurance is just a precaution (2)_______ will help them have an enjoyable and
worry-free holiday. But for (3)_____, travel insurance is a way of earning money (4) ______
making false claims against insurance companies. For (5) ______, some people pretend that they
have had expensive equipment stolen which in (6) ______ never even existed, and then claim
large sums in compensation. Such claims cost insurance company a total (7)_____ £50 million
companies will be able to tell at a glance (10) _____ someone has made a claim within the last
dishonesty.
Exercise 3. Read the passage then choose the best answer to each question that follows. Identify
your answer by writing the corresponding letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet.
The symptoms of hay fever include watery and itchy eyes and a runny, congested nose.
People suffering from hay fever may experience occasional wheezing and repeated bouts of
sneezing and may even lose their sense of smell. Some victims of hay fever may also have
stopped-up ears. About 30 percent of those who suffer from hay fever may develop the
symptoms associated with periodic asthma or a sinus infection. The allergen-antibody theory
does not fully explain allergic reactions because the membranes and glands in eyes and ears are
controlled by the independent nervous system, which keeps these organs in balance. But the
independent nervous system itself is part of the emotional- response center and may cause the
feelings of anger, fear, resentment, and lack of self-confidence in reaction to allergy-causing
substances.
The most common cause of hay fever is the pollen of ragweed, which blossoms during
the summer and autumn. When airborne pollen particles, as well as mold, come into contact with
virtual blockage of air passages. To prevent hay fever or to decrease the severity of its
symptoms, contact with the ragweed pollen should be reduced. Although some communities
have attempted to eliminate the plants that cause the reactions, elimination programs have not
been successful because airborne pollen can travel considerable distances. Antihistamine can
help with short but severe attacks. Over extended periods of time, however, patients are
prescribed a series of injections of the substance to which they are sensitive in order to increase
immunity and thus be relieved of the seasonal allergy.
(Resource: Toefl test strategies by Eli Hinkel, Ph.D)
1. It can be inferred from the passage that the phrase “hay fever” refers to________.
A. fodder for cattle B. a seasonal discomfort
C. viral bacteria D. a lung disease
2. According to the passage, the symptoms of the allergy are predominantly________.
A. abdominal B. intestinal C. respiratory D. chronic
3. What can be inferred from the first paragraph?
A. Hay fever may cause severe allergic reactions and even death.
B. The cause of allergic reactions has not been determined.
C. The nervous system balances allergic reactions.
D. People should not have an emotional response to allergic reactions.
4. According to the passage, patients suffering from hay fever may also experience________.
A. hunger pains B. mood swings
C. nervous blockages D. sensory perceptions
5. The word “resentment
A. reprieve B. reprisal C. irritation D. grief
6. According to the passage, the irritants are transported by________.
A. wind B. food C. travelers D. air
passages
7. The word “blockage” in the passage is closest in meaning to________.
A. obstruction B. bleeding C. enlargement D. dryness
8. According to the passage, to avoid incidents of hay fever, patients need to________.
A. avoid interactions with other patients B. avoid exposure to pollen
C. increase their self-confidence D. take doses of prescribed medicine.
9. Which of the following is NOT mentioned in the passage as a cause of allergies?
A. pollen B. mold C. flowers D. injections
10. A paragraph following this passage would most probably discuss________.
A. how the nervous system alerts patients.
B. how the immune system reacts to allergens.
C. what other diseases can be relieved by vaccines.
D. what flowers are harmless to hay fever patients.
IV. WRITING
Exercise 1. Rewrite the following sentences without changing their meaning.
1. Return the product to the shop if you have any complaint about it.
Should
______________________________________________________________________
2.
I cancelled
___________________________________________________________________
3. Her success went beyond her expectation.
Never
_______________________________________________________________________
4. His fondness for the game increased with his proficiency.
The more
____________________________________________________________________
5. t he would feel so weak after the operation.
The operation left
______________________________________________________________
6. I am sure he recognized us at the airport.
He must
_____________________________________________________________________
The journalists only heard about the changes to the wedding plans when they arrived at
the avenue.
Not until
_____________________________________________________________________
7.
riticized
__________________________________________________________
8. Someone has suggested raising the parking fees in the city.
It
___________________________________________________________________________
9. That dress is a third of the cost of the blue one.
The blue dress is
three__________________________________________________________
Exercise 2. Write an essay (about 250 words) about the following topic:
Sometimes tourists may damage tourist sites. Explain what some of the negative effects may be.
Suggest some solutions to this problem.
-------------Hết-----------
Keys – practice 18
I – PRONUNCIATION
Choose the word whose stress pattern is different from the other three in the following
questions
1. A. period B. consider C. advocate D. cultural
2. A. exclude B. expire C. expert D. exceed
3. A. industrial B. infallible C. intimacy D. intensity
4. A. engineering B. comprehension C. maturity D.
architectural
5. A. curriculum B. grammatical C. repetitious D. historical
6. A. enough B. aware C. support D. swallow
7. A. period B. consider C. advocate D. cultural
8. A. exclude B. expire C. expert D. exceed
9. A. industrial B. infallible C. intimacy D. intensity
10. A. engineering B. comprehension C. maturity D.
architectural
II. LEXICO-GRAMMAR (25 pts)
Exercise 1. (10pts: 0.5 pt/each correct answer)
1. C
2. B
3. B
4. C
5. D
6. B
7. A
8. D
9. A
10. A
11. C
12. A
13. B
14. A
15. B
16. B
17. A
18. C
19. C
20. C
Exercise 2. Each sentence below contains 1 mistake. IDENTIFY the mistakes and WRITE
THEIR CORRECT FORMS. (10pts: 0.5 pt/each correct finding + 0.5 pt/each correction)
signing
Exercise 3. (5 pts: 0.5 pt/each correct answer)
1. beneficial
2. presentation
3. noticeable
4. speech
5. orally
6. professional
7. impression
8. responses
9. revisit
10. unease
III. READING (30pts)
Exercise 1. (10pts: 1 pt/each correct answer)
1. B
2. C
3. C
4. A
5. D
6. C
7. D
8. B
9. A
10. D
Exercise 2. (10pts: 1 pt/each correct answer)
1. wrong
2. which
3. others/ some
4. by
5. example/ instance
6. fact
7. of
8. out
9. Thanks
10. whether/ if
Exercise 3. (10pts: 1 pt/each correct answer)
1.B
2.C
3. B
4. B
5. C
6. A
7. A
8. B
9. D
10. B
IV. WRITING (25 pts)
Exercise 1. (10pts: 1 pt/each correct answer)
11. Should you have any complaint about the product, return it to the shop.
12. I cancelled my subscription/ subscibing to that magazine nine months ago.
13. Never had she expected she was so successful/ she got so much/ such success.
14. The more proficient he was at the game, the more he was fond of it.
15. The operation left Simon feeling weaker than he (had) expected.
16. He must have recognized us at the airport.
17. Not until the journalists arrived at the avenue did they hear about the changes to the
wedding plans.
18. her for not doing her work more carefully.
19. It has been suggested that the parking fees in the city (should) be raised.
20. The blue dress is three times as much/ expensive as that one.
Exercise 2. (15 pts)
Sometimes tourists may damage tourist sites.
Explain what some of the negative effects may be. Suggest some solutions to this problem.
Marking scheme
The mark given is based on the following scheme:
Task achievement (25 % of total mark)
Coherence and cohesion (25 % of total mark)
Grammar range and Accuracy (25 % of total mark)
Lexical resource (25 % of total mark)
-------------Hết-----------
ENGLISH PRACTICE 19
I – PRONUNCIATION
Choose the word whose stress pattern is different from the other three in the following
questions
1. A. curriculum B. grammatical C. repetitious D. historical
2. A. emergency B. geothermal C. alternative D. expensively
3. A. technology B. variety C. centenarian D. Compulsory
4. a. reindeer b. engineer c. pioneer d. referee
5. a. dangerous b. marvelous c. conspicuous d. numerous
6. a. establish b. illustrate c. intimidate d. inheritance
7. a. expansion b. conversion c. precision d. explosion
8. a. eradicate b. character c. malaria d. spectacular
9. A.encourage B.financial C.departure D.average
10. A.career B.request C.ancient D.machine
PART II. GRAMMAR AND VOCABULARY
I. Complete the following sentences by choosing the correct answer among four options (A,
B, C or D).
1. She looked very______ when I told her the good news.
A. happily B. happiness C. happy D. was happy
2. I don't want much sugar in my coffee. Just_______, please.
A. few B. a few C. little D. a little
3. He's left his book at home; he's always so______.
A. forgetful B. forgettable C. forgotten D. forgetting
4. 'I'm very ______ to you for putting in so much hard work,' the boss said.
A. thanking B. grateful C. considerate D. careful
5. Steel_______ with chromium to produce a noncorrosive substance known as stainless
steel.
A. is combined B. that is combined C. combining D. when
combined
6. Joe seemed to be in a good mood, ________ he snapped at me angrily when I asked him
to join us.
A. yet B. so C. for D. and
7. A fire must have a readily available supply of oxygen. ________, it will stop burning.
A. Consequently B. Furthermore C. Otherwise D. However
A. except to B. with C. from D. but
A. charged with B. charged C. in charge D. in charge of
10. He was new on the job, but he quickly fit himself into the ________ routine of the office.
A. establishing B. established C. establishes D. establish
11. Florida, ________ the Sunshine State, attracts many tourists every year.
A. is B. is known as C. known as D. that is known as
12. ________becoming extinct is of great concern to zoologists.
A. That giant pandas are B. Giant pandas are
C. Are giant pandas D. Giant panda is
13. Her parents gave her everything she asked for. She's a completed _______ child.
A. wounded B. spoilt C. damaged D. destroyed
14. _______ my experience, very few people really understand the problem.
A. To B. In C. With D. From
15. When she died, she gave _________ all her money to a charity for cats.
A. away B. out C. on D. off
II. Complete the following passage by supplying the correct form of the word to fill in each
blank.
The increase in city crime is a global phenomenon. Some people say that a lot of crime
in this country is because of (1 - migrate) ______ and the new people arriving from other
countries bring different (2 - culture) ______
this idea because the most common crimes are (3 - local) ______ produced and not imported
from other countries. (4 - Vandal) ______ is one of the biggest crimes in my city with bus
shelters and shop windows being popular targets. Another popular crime is (5 - pay) ______
parking fines, which is unlikely to be because of immigrants because most of them do not own
cars. The (6 - oppose) ______ point of view is that young local people feel angry when they
(7 - hand) ______ the change in their environment, they strike out
at easy targets. This would explain why bicycle (8 - thief) ______ is more common than car
crime these days, especially in rich (9 - neighbors) ______ where most cars are protected with
electronic alarms. Another reason, though, for so many bicycles getting stolen might be that the
(10 - punish) ______ is not very severe compared to car stealing which can land you in prison
for a number of years.
III. Fill in each blank with one suitable preposition.
1. Most American men earn _______ average about $110 a week.
2. He was walking through the park when a strange dog suddenly went _______ him.
3. My car is not worth much _______ most $ 50.
5. Clive was really cut _______ when he failed his proficiency exam.
IV. Identify the error in each sentence. Write the corresponding letter A, B, C or D on the
answer sheet.
1. The children forgot picking up the note from the office and now they are worried.
A B C D
2. Helen has never met such good person who is ready to help others.
A B C D
3. If only I have done the test better than other students did.
A B C D
4. If you want to borrow my car, promise to drive careful.
A B C D
5. Rumors began circulating that the Prime Minister was seriously illness.
A B C D
6. Everybody in class has to choose a topic of your own to write an essay of 500 words.
A B C D
7. Neither of the boys had ever been out of town before, so they were really exciting.
A B C D
8. I hope that I can help you with the historic questions.
A B C D
9. My son learned to talk the time before he was 5 years old.
A B C D
10. Jim offered us presents as if it had been Xmas.
A B C D
PART III: READING
I. Read the passage carefully, then choose the correct option (marked A, B, C or D) to
answer the questions.
Million of people are using cell phones today. In many places, it is actually considered
unusual not to use one. In many countries, cell phones are very popular with young people. They
find that the phones are means of communication having a mobile phone shows that they are
cool and connected.
The explosion in mobile phone use around the world has made some health professionals
worried. Some doctors are concerned that in the future many people may suffer health problems
from the use of mobile phones. In England, there has been a serious debate about this issue.
Mobile phone companies are worried about the negative publicity of such ideas. They say that
there is no proof that mobile phones are bad for your health.
On the other hand, medical studies have shown changes in the brain cells of some people
who use mobile phones. Signs of change in the issues of the brain and head can be detected with
modern scanning equipment. In one case, a traveling salesman had to retire at young age because
of serious memory loss. He couldn't remember even simple tasks. He would often forget the
name of his own son. This man used to talk on his mobile phone for about six hours a day, every
day of his working week, for a couple of years. His family doctor blamed his mobile phone use,
but his employer's doctor didn't agree.
What is it that makes mobile phones potentially harmful? The answer is radiation. High
tech machines can detect very small amounts of radiation from mobile phones. Mobile phone
companies agree that there is some radiation, but they say the amount is too small to worry
about.
As the discussion about their safety continues, it appears that it's best to use mobile
phones less often. Use your regular phone of you want to talk for a long time. Use your mobile
phone only when you really need it. Mobile phones can be very useful and convenient, especially
in emergencies. In the future, mobile phones may have a warning label that says they are bad for
your health. So for now, it's wise not to use your mobile phone too often.
1. According to the passage, cell phones are especially popular with young people because
______.
A. they are indispensable in everyday communication
B. they make them look more stylish
C. they keep the users alert all the time
D. they cannot be replaced by regular phones
2. The changes possible caused by the cell phones are mainly concerned with______.
A. the mobility of the mind and the body B. the smallest units of brain
C. the arteries of the brain D. the resident memory
3. The word "means" in the passage most closely means _______.
A. meanings B. expression C. method D. transmission
4. The word "potentially" in the passage most closely means _______.
A. obviously B. possibly C. certainly D. privately
5. "Negative publicity" in the passage most likely means _______.
A. information on the lethal effects of cell phones
B. widespread opinion about bad effects of cell phones
C. the negative public use of cell phones
D. poor ideas about the effects of cell phones
6. Doctors have tentatively concluded that cell phones may _______.
A. damage their users' emotions B. cause some mental malfunction
C. change their users' temperament D. change their users' social behavior
7. The man mentioned in the passage, who used his cell phone too often _______.
A. suffered serious loss of mental ability B. could no longer think lucidly
C. abandoned his family D. had a problem with memory
8. According to the passage, what makes mobile phones potentially harmful is ______.
A. their radiant light B. their power of attraction
C. their raiding power D. their invisible rays
9. According to the writer, people should _______.
A. only use mobile phones in urgent cases
B. only use mobile phones in medical emergencies
C. keep off mobile phones regularly
D. never used mobile phones in all cases
10.The most suitable title for the passage could be ______.
A. "The reasons why mobile phones are regular"
B. "Technological Innovation and their price"
C. "They way mobile phones work"
D. "Mobile phones a must of our time"
II. Complete the following passage by choosing A, B, C or D to fill in each blank.
Stamp collecting! What a wonderful hobby! I began when I was only five. I used to (1)
______ for the postman's arrival, always (2) ______ to seize unwanted envelopes and tear off the
corner with the stamp stuck on it.
Once I remember it was too clearly my mother and father were sunning themselves in
the garden when the post (3) _____ on the doormat. I heard the clatter of the letter flap and
hurriedly went to (4) ______. There were four or five envelops, all with very exciting stamps.
Even at the (5) ______ age of five I knew one doesn't open mail addressed to other
people. However, tearing just the corners off the envelops (6) ______ me as perfectly fair and
allowable, and just what I did. I carefully tore as (7) ______ to the stamps as (8) _______,
feeling that even the envelopes, which were addressed to my parents and not to be, should be
treated with (9) _______.
There were nothing furtive in what I did. I knew my parents would see what I'd done, and
I didn't think there was any (10) ______ in it. They always let me (11) ______ the corners after
they'd opened them. Why should I think there was any harm in doing it first, (12) ______ in
mind that they weren't on hand to be (13) ______. Wouldn't they rather be left to doze in their
summer deckchairs?
(14) ______, though, my father solemnly showed me his letters. They looked distinctly
moth-eaten, with bites taken out of the corners and sites. I began to (15) ______ what I've done.
1. A. stare B. watch C. look D. peer
2. A. glad B. pleased C. eager D. excited
3. A. came B. was C. lay D. arrived
4. A. investigate B. observe C. see D. notice
5. A. junior B. tender C. small D. little
6. A. struck B. seemed C. appeared D. felt
7. A. nearby B. close C. next D. round
8. A. able B. possibly C. possible D. could
9. A. gentleness B. caution C. honor D. respect
10. A. trouble B. wrong C. bad D. harm
11. A. take B. tear C. cut D. remove
12. A. having B. holding C. bearing D. keeping
13. A. consulted B. advised C. queried D. requested
14. A. After B. Then C. Later D. Soon
15. A. accept B. realize C. admit D. confess
III. Read the following passage and answer the questions that follow. Write A, B, C or D to
indicate your answers on the answer sheet.
Every drop of water in the ocean, even in the deepest parts, responds to the forces that
create the tides. No other force that affects the sea is so strong. Compared with the tides, the
waves created by the wind are surface movements felt no more than a hundred fathoms below
the surface. The currents also seldom involve more than the upper several hundred fathoms
despite their impressive sweep.
The tides are a response of the waters of the ocean to the pull of the Moon and the more
distant Sun. In theory, there is a gravitational attraction between the water and even the
outermost star of the universe. In reality, however, the pull of remote stars is so slight as to be
obliterated by the control of the Moon and, to a lesser extent, the Sun. Just as the Moon rises
later each day by fifty minutes, on the average, so, in most places, the time of high tide is
correspondingly later each day. And as the Moon waxes and wanes in its monthly cycle, so the
height of the tide varies. The tidal movements are strongest when the Moon is a sliver in the sky,
and when it is full. These are the highest flood tides and the lowest ebb tides of the lunar month
and are called the spring tides. At these times the Sun, Moon, and Earth are nearly in line and the
pull of the two heavenly bodies is added together to bring the water high on the beaches, to send
its surf upward against the sea cliffs, and to draw a high tide into the harbors. Twice each month,
at the quarters of the Moon, when the Sun, Moon and Earth lie at the apexes of a triangular
configuration and the pull of the Sun and Moon are opposed, the moderate tidal movements
called neap tides occur. Then the difference between high and low water is less than at any other
time during the month.
1. What is the main point of the first paragraph?
A. The waves created by ocean currents are very large.
B. Despite the strength of the wind, it only moves surface water.
C. Deep ocean water is seldom affected by forces that move water.
D. The tides are the most powerful force to affect the movement of ocean water.
2. The words "In reality" in the passage is closest in meaning to
A. surprisingly B. actually C. characteristically D. similarly
3. It can be inferred from the passage that the most important factor in determining how much
gravitational effect one object in space has on the tides is
A. size B. distance C. temperature D. density
4. The word "configuration" in the passage is closest in meaning to
A. unit B. center C. surface D.
arrangement
5. Neap tides occur when
A. the Sun counteracts the Moon's gravitational attraction
B. the Moon is full
C. the Moon is farthest from the Sun
D. waves created by the wind combine with the Moon's gravitational attraction
PART IV. WRITING
I. Write the new sentences using the word give. Do not change the word given in any way.
1. We are afraid that the next train to Cardiff has been cancelled.
REGRET
We ________________________ the next train to Cardiff has been cancelled.
2. 'I was going to phone Sarah but I had too much homework to do', said John
MEANT
John said that ___________________ but he'd had too much homework to do.
3. Many people think that Gone with the Wind is one of the greatest films ever made.
BE
Gone with the Wind _________________ one of the greatest films ever made.
4. If you hold your breath for a few seconds it might get rid of your hiccups.
HOLDING
You might be able to get rid of your hiccups if you _____________ for a few seconds.
5. Anna didn't like it at all when one of her colleagues got the promotion instead of her.
RESENTED
Anna _____________________ the promotion instead of her.
6. I have a good relationship with my neighbors.
ON
My neighbors __________________well together.
7. It wasn't a good idea for me to spend all my money on beer and cigarettes, but I did.
UP
I wish ________________________ my money on beer and cigarettes.
8. The police left and then all the journalists arrived.
ALREADY
The police ____________________all the journalists arrived.
9. Although Sarah wasn't wearing a helmet, she wasn't injured in the accident.
OF
Sarah wasn't injured in the accident, ______________ a helmet.
10. She felt she had achieved a lot in life, despite her disadvantaged background.
SENSE
Despite her disadvantaged background, she felt _______________ about her life.
II. Write a complete letter using the given word/phrases as cues. You should change the
form of words if necessary.
1. Thank/ much/French/ cookery book/ you/ give/ me.
2. recipes/ look/ wonderful/, and/ I/ certainly/ enjoy/ use/ it.
3. I/ hope/ you/ and/ Auntie Susan/ have/ good/ Christmas.
4. we/ stay/ at/ home/, but/ have/ couple/ day/ trips/ out/ nearby.
5. our/ local/ theatre/ put/ on/ production/ "A Christmas Carol"/, which/ fun.
6. I/ go/ back/ University/ next/ week/, and/ this/ year/ I/have/ to/ study/ hard/ final/ exams.
7. I/ really/ enjoy/ the/ course/ so/ far/, but/ I/ not/ sure/ what/ do/ once/ I/ get/degree.
8. university/ arrange/ career/ interviews/, but/ I/ not/really/ have/clear/ idea/what/ I/ want/ do.
9. hopefully/ it/ all/ become/ clearer/ during/ course/ the/ year.
10. Thank/ again/ lovely/ present/, and/ Happy/ New/ Year/
Keys – practice 19
I – PRONUNCIATION
Choose the word whose stress pattern is different from the other three in the following
questions
1. A. curriculum B. grammatical C. repetitious D.
historical
2. A. emergency B. geothermal C. alternative D.
expensively
3. A. technology B. variety C. centenarian D.
Compulsory
4. a. reindeer b. engineer c. pioneer d. referee
5. a. dangerous b. marvelous c. conspicuous d. numerous
6. a. establish b. illustrate c. intimidate d. inheritance
7. a. expansion b. conversion c. precision d. explosion
8. a. eradicate b. character c. malaria d. spectacular
9. A.encourage B.financial C.departure D.average
10. A.career B.request C.ancient D.machine
PART II. GRAMMAR AND VOCABULARY (35pts)
I. (15pts: 1/item)
1. C
2. D
3. A
4. B
5. A
6. A
7. C
8. D
9. D
10. B
11. C
12. A
13. B
14. B
15. A
II. (10pts: 1/item)
1. immigration
3. locally
5. unpaid
7. handle
9. neighborhoods
2. cultural
4. vandalism
6. opposing
8. theft
10. punishment
III. (5pts: 1pt/item)
1. on
2. for
3. at
4. off
5. up
IV. (5pts: 0.5 pt/ item)
1. A
3. A
5. D
7. D
9. B
2. B
4. D
6. C
8. D
10. D
PART III. READING (30 pts)
I. (10pts: 1/item)
1. A
2. C
3. C
4. B
5. B
6. B
7. D
8. A
9. A
10. B
II. (15pts: 1/item)
1. B
2. C
3. D
4. A
5. B
6. A
7. B
8. C
9. D
10. D
11. D
12. C
13. A
14. C
15. B
III. (5pts: 1pt/item)
1. D
2. B
3. B
4. D
5. A
PART IV. WRITING (20pts)
I. (10pts: 1/item)
1. regret to inform/to tell you/announce that
2. he had meant to phone Sarah
3. is considered/thought to be
4. try holding your breath
5. resented one of her colleagues getting
6. and I get on
7. I hadn't used up
8. had already left when/before
9. in spite of not wearing
10. a sense of achievement
II. (10pts: 1pt/item)
1. Thank you very much for the French cookery book you gave me.
2. The recipes look wonderful, and I'll certainly enjoy using it.
3. I hope you and Auntie Susan had a good Christmas.
4. We stayed at home, but had a couple of day trips out nearby.
5. Our local theatre put on a production of "A Christmas Carol", which was fun.
6. I am going back to University next week, and this year I'm going to have to study hard for the
final exams.
7. I've really enjoyed the course so far, but I'm not sure what to do once I get my degree.
8. The University arranges career interviews, but I don't really have a clear idea of what I want to
do.
9. Hopefully it will all become clearer during the course of the year.
10. Thank you again for the lovely present, and Happy New Year!
ENGLISH PRACTICE 20
PART I. PHONETICS
I. Pick out the word whose underlined part is pronounced differently from those of the
other words.
1. A. latter B. label C. ladder D. latitude
2. A. pour B. roar C. flour D. soar
3. A. chase B. purchase C. bookcase D. suitcase
4. A. thread B. feather C. bread D. bead
5. A. prepare B. preface C. preparation D. prejudice
II. Choose the word whose stress pattern is differently from those of the other words.
1. A. amphibian B. champagne C. cathedral D. creature
2. A. accommodation B. antibiotic C. counterclockwise D.
deforestation
3. A. consciousness B. ecotourism C. biosphere D. confirm
4. A. architectural B. cosmopolitan C. appreciative D.
archeologist
5. A. consolidate B. context C. conference D. confidence
PART II. LEXICO-GRAMMAR
I. Read the sentences carefully and choose the best answers to make complete ones.
A. her permanent residence was B. where her permanent residence
C. permanent residence for her D. her permanent residence
2. Just as remote-controlled satellites can be employed to explore outer space, _______
employed to investigate the deep sea.
A. can be robots B. robots can be C. can robots D. can robots that are
3. _______ is not clear to researchers.
A. Why dinosaurs having become extinct. B. Why dinosaurs became extinct
C. Did dinosaurs become extinct D. Dinosaurs became extinct
4. The first transatlantic telephone cable system was not established _______ 1956.
A. while B. until C. on D. when
5. Drinking water _______ excessive amounts of fluorides may leave a stained or mottled effect
on the enamel of teeth.
A. containing B. in which containing
C. contains D. that contain
Universities.
A. to be part B. which was part C. was part D part
7. If you can win his attention ___________ for you.
A. the so much better B. the better so much
C. so much the better D. so the much better
8. The President resigned; the whiff of scandal remained ____________.
A. otherwise B. therefore C. immediately D. nevertheless
9. Which __________ agency do you work for?
A. ads B. advertised C. advertising D. advertisement
10. Van Gogh suffered from depression ____________ by overwork and ill-health.
A. brought on B. coming about C. taken up D. put through
II. Each sentence below contains 1 mistake. IDENTIFY the mistakes and WRITE THEIR
CORRECT FORMS.
1. Had the committee members considered the alternatives more carefully, they would have
realized that the second was superior than the first:
2. Malnutrition is a major cause of death in those countries where the cultivation of rice have
been impeded by recurrent drought.
3. Because the residents had worked so diligent to renovate the old building, the manager had a
party.
them pull.
5. Time spends very slowly when you are waiting for a bus to arrive
6. Judy decided to wait until after she had taken her exams before having her wisdom teeth pull.
7. Hardly the plane had landed when Adam realized that he had left the file that he needed at his
office.
8. When she was asked for her opinion on the course, she said it had been a waist of time.
9. I try to remember your name but I am afraid I cannot remember it.
III. Fill in each blank with a suitable PREPOSITION or PARTICLE.
1. I know ________ experience that I do my best work early in the morning.
2. I am astonished ________ the way my students can spend all night at the disco and still
remember their prepositions next morning.
3. Is it possible to insure yourself ________ nuclear attack?
4. At school today, we had a long discussion _______ the best way to learn a foreign language.
6. Raise the gun to your shoulder, aim _______ the target, and try not to kill anyone.
7. Small children should be watched ____________ carefully.
8. Would you give up your country cottage __________ a town flat?
10.The performance on the first night came ______________ pretty.
IV. Write the correct FORM of each bracketed word.
1. (ADAPT)__________ to a new environment is a difficult thing for old people.
2. Police asked (PASS) ______________ if they had seen the accident happen.
3. What a (WORRY) ______________pair of children. They have to be watched every minute of
the day.
4. Children are taught from young to be (RESPECT) _____________ to their elders.
5. They frequently (MOBILE) _________________ the traffic as they march through the streets.
6. He shook his head in _____________ (APPROVE)
7. He fought the illness with courage and ________________ (DETERMINE)
8. She seems (REASON) __________happy in her new job.
9. Can we (ARRANGE) _____________the meeting for next Monday at 7?
PART III. READING
I. Read the text & decide which word best fits each space by choosing A, B, C or D.
Action scenes in films
Modern cinema audiences expect to see plenty of thrilling scenes in action films. These scenes,
which are (1) __________ as stunts, are usually performed by stuntmen who are specially trained
to do dangerous things safely. (2) ________ can crash a car, but if you are shooting a film, you
have to be extremely (3) __________ sometimes stopping right in front of the camera and film
crew. At an early (4) ___________ in the production, an expert stuntman is (5) __________ in to
work out the action scenes and form a team. He is the only person who can go (6) __________
the wishes of the director, although he will usually only do this in the (7) __________ of safety.
Many famous actors like to do the dangerous parts themselves, which produces better shots,
_________ in all the important aspects of the character they are playing, but without the recent
progress in safety equipment, insurance companies would never let them take the risk. To do
their own stunts, actors need to be good athletes, but they must also be sensible and know their
(10) ___________.If they were to be hurt, the film would come to a sudden halt.
1. A. remarked B. known C. referred D. named
2. A. Everyone B. Someone C. Anyone D. No one
3. A. detailed B. plain C. straight D. precise
4. A. period B. minute C. part D. stage
5. A. led B. taken C. drawn D. called
6. A. over B. against C. through D. across
7. A. interests B. needs C. purposes D. regards
8. A. work B. get C. put D. stand
9. A. connected B. arranged C. involved D. affected
10. A. limits B. ends C. frontiers D. borders
II. Fill in each blank space with an appropriate word.
THE BIRTH OF THE T-SHIRT
The T-shirt, or at least the T-shirt as we know it, was born in the theatre. When
Tennessee William's play A Streetcar Named Oesire opened in New York in December 1947, a
young actor (1) ____________ Marlon Brando went (2) __________ stage wearing a (3)
_________ of blue jeans and a bright, white, capped-sleeve T-shirt. It was the first time the T-
shirt had been seen publicly as anything (4) ____________ an item of underwear and it set a
fashion trend that was to last through (5) _____________ the end of the century. The idea for the
T-shirt came (6) __________ Brando himself. He had worn one at rehearsals for the play. The
director was so impressed by the look that was created that he asked Brando to wear the shirt in
the play itself. Brando may have seen the shirt being advertised by the American company Sears
Roebuck. They had decided to market the shirt (7) ___________ a fashionable garment in its (8)
____________ right, rather than just something to be worn (9) __________ warmth beneath a
denim workshirt (10) ___________ an army uniform. It was Brando, however, who popularized
it, especially with the release of the film version of Streetcar in 1951. A short leather jacket
completed the look that was to be adopted by teenage rebels in many countries for decades
afterwards.
III. Read the following passage and choose the best answer.
Since the world became industrialized, the number of animal species that have either
become extinct or have neared extinction has increased. Bengal tigers, for instance, which once
roamed the jungles in vast numbers, now number only about 2,300. By the year 2025, it is
estimated that they will become extinct. What is alarming about the case of the Bengal tiger is
that this extinction will have been caused almost entirely by poachers who, according to some
sources, are not always interested in material gain but in personal gratification. This is an
example of the callousness that is contributing to the problem of extinction. Animals, such as
International laws protecting these animals must be enacted to ensure their survival and the
survival of our planet.
Countries around the world have begun to deal with the problem in various ways. Some
countries, in an effort to circumvent the problem, have allocated large amounts of land to animal
reserves. They then charge admission prices to help defray the costs of maintaining the parks,
and they often must also depend on world organizations for support. This money enables them to
invest in equipment and patrols to protect the animals. Another response to the increase in animal
extinction is an international boycott of products made from endangered species. This has had
some effect, but by itself it will not prevent animals from being hunted and killed.
1. What is the main topic of the passage?
A. the Bengal tiger B. international boycott
C. endangered species D. problems with industrialization
alarming
A. dangerous B. serious C. gripping D. distressing
poachers
following?
A. illegal hunters B. enterprising researchers
C. concerned scientists D. trained hunters
callousnessthe first paragraph could best be replaced by which of the
following?
A. indirectnessB. independence C. incompetence D. insensitivity
5. The above passage is divided into two paragraphs in order to contrast.
A. a problem and a solution B. a statement and an illustration
C. a comparison and contrast D. specific and general information
this
A. Bengal tigers B. Interest in material gain
C. Killing animals for personal satisfaction D. The decrease in the Bengal tiger
population
allocated
A. set aside B. combined C. organized D. taken off
defrayin meaning to which of the following?
A. lower B. raise C. make a payment on D. make an
investment toward
international boycott
A. buying and selling of animal products overseas
B. a refusal to buy animal products worldwide
C. a global increase in animal survival
D. defraying the cost of maintaining national parks
A. forgiving B. concerned C. vindictive D. surprised
PART IV. WRITING
I. Finish each of the sentences in such a way that it means exactly the same as the sentence
printed before it.
1. She never seems to succeed even though she works hard.
Hard _____________________________________________________.
2. Do all the washing, please!
Let ______________________________________________________.
3. I regret not going to the airport to say good bye to him.
I wish ___________________________________________________.
4. Mick thought that we were married.
Mick was under _________________________________________.
5. The only thing that kept us out of prison was the way he spoke the local dialect.
But for his command ____________________________________.
II. Write an essay ( about 250 words) about the following topic:
Some people say that traffic accidents are caused by the increasing number of
motorbikes. Others blame for man’s fault. Which point of view do you agree? State at least
three relevant evidences.
Keys – practice 20
PART II. PHONETICS
I. Pick out the word whose underlined part is pronounced differently from those of the
other words. (5pts)
1. B
2.C
3.B
4.D
5.D
II. Choose the word whose stress pattern is differently from those of the other words. (5pts)
1.D
2.C
3.D
4.C
5.D
PART III. LEXICO-GRAMMAR
I. Read the sentences carefully and choose the best answers to make complete ones. (10pts)
1. D
2.B
3.B
4.B
5.A
6.D
7.C
8.D
9.C
10.A
II. Each sentence below contains 1 mistake. IDENTIFY the mistakes and WRITE THEIR
CORRECT FORMS. (10pts)
1. to the first 2. has 3. diligently 4. them pulled 5. Time passes
6. pulled 7. had the plane 8. waste of time 9. am trying 10. by myself
III. Fill in each blank with a suitable PREPOSITION or PARTICLE. (10pts)
1. from
2. at/by
3.against
4. about
5. from
6.at
7.over
8. for
9.of
10.off
IV. Write the correct FORM of each bracketed word. (10pts)
1. Adaptation
2. passers-by
3.worrisome
4.respectful
5.immobilize
6.disapproval
7.determination
8.reasonably
9.rearrange
10.inactive
PART IV. READING
I. Read the text & decide which word best fits each space by choosing A, B, C or D. (10pts)
1.B
2.C
3.D
4.D
5.D
6.B
7.A
8.D
9.C
10.A
II. Fill in each blank space with an appropriate word. (10pts)
1.named/called
2.on
3.pair
4.but/ except
5.to/until
6.from
7.as
8.own
9.for
10.or
III. Read the following passage and choose the best answer. (10pts)
1.C
2.D
3.A
4.D
5.A
6.C
7.A
8.C
9.B
10.B
PART V. WRITING
I. Finish each of the sentences in such a way that it means exactly the same as the sentence
printed before it. (10pts)
1. Hard as/ though she works, she never seems to succeed.
2. Let all the washing be done.
3. I wish I had gone to the airport to say good bye to him.
4. Mick was under the impression that we were married
5. But for his command of the local dialect, we could have been put into prison / jail.
II. Write an essay (of about 250 words) about the following topic (20pts)
Some people say that traffic accidents are caused by the increasing number of
you agree? State at least three
relevant evidences.
Marking scheme
The impression mark given is based on the following scheme:
1. Content: 50% of total mark: a provision of all main ideas and details as appropriate
2. Language: 30% of total mark: a variety of vocabulary and structures appropriate to the
level of English language gifted upper-secondary school students
3. Presentation: 20% of total mark: coherence, cohesion, and style appropriate to the level
of English language gifted upper-secondary school students.
------The end ------
ENGLISH PRACTICE 21
I. LEXICO-GRAMMAR (10.8 pts)
a. Choose the best option A, B, C or D to complete the sentences.
1. She swam strongly and_______ cross the river easily, even though it was swollen by the heavy rain.
A. used to B. was able to C. could D. was supposed to
2. The government has spent one million pounds on an advertising ______ to encourage energy
conservation.
A. campaign B. promotion C. operation D. competition
3. Toxic chemicals are one of the factors that lead wildlife to the ______ of extinction.
A. wall B. fence C. verge D. bridge
4. ______ the best of my knowledge, this system cannot work automatically.
A. For B. To C. Within D. In
5. The aim of ASEAN is to promote closer economic_______.
A. delegation B. integration C. reputation D. migration
6. The International Committee of the Red Cross is a private _______ institution founded
in 1863 in Geneva, Switzerland.
A. human B. humanity C. humanization D. humanitarian
7. Affected by the Western cultures, Vietnamese young people's attitudes _______ love and
marriage have dramatically changed.
A. for B. with C. through D. towards
8. How do you speak the fraction 2/5?
A. two-five B. two-fifths C. second-fifths D. two-fifth
9. anized person.
A. unless B. otherwise C. if not D. or so
10. You may borrow as many books as you like, provided you show them to ______ at the desk.
A. whoever B. who C. whom D. which
11. It is essential that your luggage _______ thoroughly before delivery.
A. to be checked B. being checked C. be checked D. should be checking
12. The reason why this game attracts so many youngsters is that ___________ other video
games, this one is far more interesting.
A. comparing to B. in compared with
C. on comparison to D. in comparison with
13. Take the shortcut round the church _______ late for school.
A. in order not be B. in order that we won't be
C. so that not to be D. so that we couldn't
14. A cooperative program between two companies building a famous ancient city, into
a(n) _______ city has proceeded smoothly since it started in September last year.
A. friendly ecology B. ecology-friendly
C. friendly-ecological D. ecological-friendly
15. Doctor Pike ______ the hospital after he ______an uneventful evening on duty. He ______
of his day of rest.
A. was leaving / has had / thought B. left / had had / was thinking
C. will leave / had / will think D. is leaving / will have / thinks
16. Something _____ immediately to prevent teenagers from _____ in factories and mines.
A. should be done /being exploited B. we should do /exploiting
C. should do / be exploited D. should have done /exploited
17. John: you decided on a present yet?
Ben: ,
A. new two exciting spy novels B. two spy exciting new novels
C. two exciting new spy novels D. exciting new two spy novels
b. Choose the best option A, B, C or D to indicate the word or phrase that is CLOSEST
in meaning to the underlined part in each of the following questions.
1. I knew he was only flattering me because he wanted to borrow some money.
A. making me impatient B. praising me too much
C. making me feel worse D. elevating me
2. We spent the entire day looking for a new apartment.
A. all day long B. all long day C. the long day D. day after day
3. He testified that he had seen the man leaving the building around the time of the murder.
A. said B. provided evidence C. disapproved D. denied
4. She has a deep aversion to getting up in the morning so she usually goes to work late.
A. intense dislike B. feeling C. provocation D. trouble
5. Those who transgress the laws of society will be punished.
A. disagree with B. disperse C. violate D. interfere with
c. Fill a suitable preposition/ particle into each gap to complete the sentences.
1. She felt a bit dizzy and had to lean _________ the wall before walking on.
2. Next year, we intend to bring __________ several new products. But at the moment,
we are still testing them.
s a suitable topic for a research paper. I need to talk it ______ with my
teacher before I start writing.
4. The store had to lay _______ a number of clerks because sales were down.
d. Choose and give correct form of the verbs in column A with particles in column B to
make phrasal verbs to complete the sentences. There are some extra.
A
B
give fall step go get hold
come
off down in up through on
2. He twisted my arm to make me tell what I knew, but I refused to ___________.
3. Some people think that the Queen should ___________ and allow the Prince to become
King.
4. Whenever the subject of holidays _______________, Ruth and her husband have an
argument.
5. They were planning to hold a Pop Concert in one of the parks but it ___________ owing to
opposition from the local residents.
e. Give the correct form of the words given to complete the sentences.
1. One is left with the ______________ problem of larger populations requiring more and
more food. (solve)
2. The ______________ of the trains and buses causes frustration and annoyance. (frequent)
3. Women who are slimming can never enjoy a meal without being afraid of
______________ their diet. (organize)
4. They frequently ______________ the traffic as they march through the streets. (mobile)
5. There will sometimes be silences and pauses in a TV commentary, although these are
becoming ______________ rare. (increase)
6. More women than men emphasized ______________ and trust; more men than women
in
(confidence)
7. Among the middle-aged men and women, the lack of contact with relatives, even those
who lived nearby, was notable, suggesting that friends and relatives are indeed
____________. (change)
8. There is _______(wide)
9. Welcome to another edition of the club newsletter. A list of ___________ events for the
autumn is being prepared. (come)
10. One of the ____________ of this car is its high petrol consumption. (draw)
f. Fill a suitable word in each space to complete the passage.
The Countryside Agency began the process of designating the South Downs as a National Park
in April last year. We believe that being a National Park is the best way to protect the Downs,
build on the achievements of the past to (1) ______________ and enhance the area in its widest
sense for future (2) ______________ . The Downs are under huge and increasing pressure.
The South East is one of the busiest and most pressurised regions (3) ______________ Europe.
This means there is (4) ______________ demand for the development of new homes, roads and
industry. There are also more people living and working in the region, which means more need
for people to be able to access beautiful and peaceful countryside to get (5) ______________
from it all. The Downs already receives around 35 million visits a year: this number is likely to
increase as more and more people
live and work in the area.
Designation will bring a body with new ideas and resources specifically focused on (6)
______________ and visitor management, working with others across the whole of the Park to
encourage co-ordination and joint action, and taking action itself where needed. It will be able
to manage the increasing number of visitors so that the Downs themselves are not (7)
______________, but are still a resource everyone can enjoy. It will also be best placed to
protect and enhance the Downs, so that the qualities so many people love in this special area
remain for future generations. We have two (8) ______________: to identify a boundary for
the proposed National Park and to prepare advice to the Government on the arrangements
needed for a South Downs National Park Authority.
The Agency is launching a widespread public consultation in November 2015 which will last
for three months and give all interested organisations and individuals the (9) _________ to
comment in detail on our initial proposals for the boundary and the administrative options for
the National Park Authority. If you would like to receive a copy of the consultation document
once it is published then please contact us (10) _____________ the feedback form.
II. READING (5.2 pts)
a. Read the passage and choose the best option A, B, C or D to answer the questions.
Most forms of property are concrete and tangible, such as houses, cars, furniture, or anything
else that is included in one's possessions. Other forms of property can be intangible, and
copyright deals with intangible forms of property. Copyright is a legal protection extended to
authors of creative works, for example, books, magazine articles, maps, films, plays, television
shows, software, paintings, photographs, music, choreography in dance, and all other forms of
intellectual or artistic property.
Although the purpose of artistic property is usually public use and enjoyment, copyright
establishes the ownership of the creator. When a person buys a copyrighted magazine, it belongs
to this individual as a tangible object. However, the authors of the magazine articles own the
research and the writing that went into creating the articles. The right to make and sell or give
away copies of books or articles belongs to the authors, publishers, or other individuals or
organizations that hold the copyright. To copy an entire book or a part of it, permission must be
received from the copyright owner, who will most likely expect to be paid.
Copyright law distinguishes between different types of intellectual property. Music may be
played by anyone after it is published. However, if it is performed for profit, the performers need
to pay a fee, called a royalty. A similar principle applies to performances of songs and plays. On
the other hand, names, ideas, and book titles are excepted. Ideas do not become copyrighted
property until they are published in a book, a painting, or a musical work. Almost all artistic
work created before the 20
th
century is not copyrighted because it was created before the
copyright law was passed.
reproduce copyrighted material and sell it for profit without paying royalties to the creator.
Technological innovations have made piracy easy, and anyone can duplicate a motion picture on
videotape, a computer program, or a book. Video cassette recorders can be used by practically
anyone to copy movies and television programs, and copying software has become almost as
easy as copying a book. Large companies zealously monitor their copyrights for slogans,
advertisements, and brand names, protected by a trademark.
1. What does the passage mainly discuss?
A. Legal rights of property owners
B. Legal ownership of creative work
C. Examples of copyright piracy work
D. Copying creating work for profit
2. Which of the following properties is NOT mentioned as protected by copyright?
A. music and plays B. paintings and maps
The two common ways of infringing upon the copyright are
plagiarism and piracy. Plagiarizing the work of another person means
passing it off as one's own. The word plagiarism is derived from the
Latin plagiarus, which means "abductor." Piracy may be an act of one
person but, in many cases, it is a joint effort of several people who
C. printed medium D. scientific discoveries
3. It can be inferred from the passage that it is legal if ___________.
A. two songs, written by two different composers, have the same melody
B. two books, written by two different authors, have the same titles
C. two drawings, created by two different artists, have the same images
D. two plays, created by two different playwrights, have the same plot and characters
4. With which of the following statements is the author most likely to agree?
A. Teachers are not allowed to make copies of published materials for use by their students.
B. Plays written in the 16th century cannot be performed in theaters without permission.
C. Singers can publicly sing only the songs for which they wrote the music and the lyrics.
D. It is illegal to make photographs when sightseeing or traveling.
5. The phrase "infringing upon" is closest in meaning to _________.
A. impinging upon B. inducting for
C. violating D. abhorring
6. The purpose of copyright law is most comparable with the purpose of which of the
following?
A. A law against theft B. A law against smoking
C. A school policy D. A household rule
7. According to the passage, copyright law is _____________.
A. meticulously observed B. routinely ignored
C. frequently debated D. zealously enforced
b. Read the passage and do the tasks followed
At any given time, more than a million international students around the world are engaged in
the study of the English language in a predominantly English-speaking country. The five most
popular destinations, in order of popularity, are the U. S., Britain, Australia, New Zealand, and
Canada. The reasons for choosing to study English abroad differ with each individual, as do the
reasons for the choice of destination.
Numerous studies conducted in Britain and the United States show that the country of choice
depends to a large extent on economic factors. While this should not provoke much surprise,
careful analysis of the data suggests that students and their parents are most influenced by the
preconceptions they have of the countries considered for study abroad, which, in turn, influence
the amount they or their parents are prepared to outlay for the experience. The strength of
international business connections between countries also gives a good indication of where
students will seek tuition. In the main, students tend to follow the traditional pattern of study for
their national group. The United States attracts the most diverse array of nationalities to its
English language classrooms, this heterogeneity being largely due to its immense pulling power
as the world's foremost economy and the resulting extensive focus on U.S. culture. Furthermore,
throughout the non-European world, in Asia and North and South America especially, the course
books used to teach English in most elementary and high schools introduce students to American
English and the American accent from a very early age. Canada also benefits from worldwide
North American exposure, but has the most homogenous group of students - most with French as
their first language. Before furthering their English skills, students in Europe study from
predominantly British English material; most Europeans, naturally, opt for neighboring Britain,
but many Asian, Middle-Eastern, and African students decide upon the same route too.
Australia and New Zealand are often overlooked, but hundreds of thousands of
international students have discovered the delights of studying in the Southern Hemisphere.
The majority are Asian for reasons that are not difficult to comprehend: the proximity of the
two countries to Asia, (Jakarta, the capital of Australia's closest Asian neighbor, Indonesia, is
only 5506 kilometers from Sydney), the comparatively inexpensive cost of living and tuition,
and, perhaps of most importance to many Asian students whose English study is a prelude to
tertiary study, the growing awareness that courses at antipodean universities and colleges are of
an exceptionally high standard. In addition, revised entry procedures for overseas students have
made it possible for an increasing number to attend classes to improve their English for
alternative reasons.
Australia and New Zealand have roughly the same mix of students in their language
classrooms, but not all students of English who choose these countries are from Asia. The
emerging global consciousness of the late twentieth century has meant that students from as far
as Sweden and Brazil are choosing to combine a taste for exotic travel with the study of English
'down under' and in 'the land of the long white cloud'. But even the Asian economic downturn
in the 1990s has not significantly altered the demographic composition of the majority of
English language classrooms within the region.
Nor have the economic problems in Asia caused appreciable drops in full-time college and
university attendances by Asian students in these two countries. This is partly because there has
always been a greater demand for enrolment at Australian and New Zealand tertiary institutions
than places available to overseas students. In addition, the economic squeeze seems to have had
a compensatory effect. It has clearly caused a reduction in the number of students from affected
countries who are financially able to study overseas. However, there has been a slight but
noticeable shift towards Australia and New Zealand by less wealthy Asian students who might
otherwise have chosen the United States for English study.
The U.S. and Britain will always be the first choice of most students wishing to study the
English language abroad, and it is too early to tell whether this trend will continue. However,
economic considerations undoubtedly wield great influence upon Asian and non-Asian students
alike. If student expectations can be met in less traditional study destinations, and as the world
continues to shrink, future international students of English will be advantaged because the
choice of viable study destinations will be wider.
1-3. Complete the missing information in the table below
U.S
Britain
Australia
New
Zealand
Canada
order of
popularity
1st
2nd
3rd
4th
5th
type of English in
course books
used in this
country
American
not given
not given
student
heterogeneity
(1 = most
heterogenous
5 = least
heterogenous)
1
2
equal 3
5
4-9. Tick (√ ) in the right column if the statement is True, False or Not Given in the text
True
False
Not Given
4. Study destination choices are mostly influenced by proximity to
home.
5. Students who wish to study business will probably study English
overseas.
6. Students of the same nationality usually make similar study
choices.
7. English language classrooms in the U.S. have the widest range of
student nationalities.
8. Standards at Australian and New Zealand tertiary institutions are
improving.
9. Despite the 1990s Asian economic crisis, Asian students still
dominate the English language classrooms of Australia and New
Zealand.
c. Read the following passage and choose the best option A, B, C, or D to indicate the
correct word(s) for each of the numbered blanks.
The expression on your face can actually dramatically alter your feelings and perceptions,
and it has been proved that (1) ____ smiling or frowning can create corresponding emotional
responses. The idea was first (2) _______ by a French physiologist, Israel Waynbaum, in
1906. He believed that different facial (3) _______ affected the flow of blood to the brain, and
that this could create positive or negative feelings. A happy smile or irrepressible laughter
increased the blood flow and contributed to joyful feelings. But sad, angry expressions
decreased the flow of oxygen- carrying blood, and created a vicious (4) _______ of gloom
and depression by effectively (5) _______ the brain of essential fuel.
Psychologist Robert Zajonc rediscovered this early research, and (6) ____ that the
temperature of the brain could affect the production and synthesis of neurotransmitters which
definitely influence our moods and energy levels. He argues that an impaired blood flow
could not only deprive the brain of oxygen, but create further chemical imbalance by
inhibiting these vital hormonal messages. Zajonc goes on to propose that our brains remember
that smiling is associated with being happy, and that by deliberately smiling through your
tears you can (7) ____ your brain to release uplifting neurotransmitters replacing a
depressed condition with a happier one. People suffering from psychosomatic illness
depression and anxiety states could (8) _____ from simply exercising their zygomatic (9)
____ which pull the corners of the mouth (10) ____ to form a smile, several times an hour.
1. A. desperately B. determinedly C. deliberately D. decidedly
2. A. put off B. put down C. put by D. put forward
3. A. aspects B. looks C. expressions D. appearances
4. A. cycle B. spiral C. circle D. vortex
5. A. cutting B. starving C. removing D. eliminating
6. A. advises B. wants C. demands D. suggests
7. A. make B. persuade C. give D. decide
8. A. recover B. improve C. benefit D. progress
9. A. muscles B. nerves C. veins D. bones
10. A. to and from B. up and back C. now and then D. up and down
III. WRITING (4.0 pts)
a. Finish each of the sentences in such a way that it means exactly the same as the sentence
printed before it.
1. I am having a lot of trouble now because I lost my passport last week.
If I
______________________________________________________________________________
__________.
2. The hurricane blew the roof off the house.
The house
______________________________________________________________________________
__.
3. He was sentenced to six months in prison for his part in the robbery.
He received a
______________________________________________________________________________
.
4. That rumor about the politician and the construction contract is absolutely false.
There is
______________________________________________________________________________
____.
5. I thought about what had happened all those years before.
I cast
______________________________________________________________________________
______.
In few other books
_________________________________________________________________________.
______________________________________________________________________________
_____?
To
______________________________________________________________________________
________.
______________________________________________________________________________
____.
Not a great
______________________________________________________________________________
_.
b. Complete the second sentence so that it has a similar meaning to the first sentence, using the
word given. Do not change the word given in any way.
1. Most people regard him as the best man for the job. (widely)
______________________________________________________________________________
___________.
2. The suspect could not explain why he had sand on his boots. (account)
______________________________________________________________________________
____________
3. The best solution was thought of by Sally. (came)
______________________________________________________________________________
____________
(allowances)
______________________________________________________________________________
____________
5. He stood no chance of passing his driving test. (inevitable)
______________________________________________________________________________
____________
______The end ______
KEYS PRACTICE 21
I. Lexico – Grammar ( 54 x 0.2 pt = 10.8 pts)
a. Choose the best option A, B, C or D to
complete the sentences.
1. B. was able to
2. A. campaign
3. C. verge
4. B. To
5. B. integration
6. D. humanitarian
7. D. towards
8. B. two-fifths
9. B. otherwise
10. A. whoever
11. C. be checked
12. D. in comparison with
13. B. in order that we won't be
14. B. ecology-friendly
15. B. left / had had / was thinking
16. A. should be done / being exploited
17. C. two exciting new spy novels
b. Choose the best option A, B, C or D to
indicate the word or phrase that is closest in
meaning to the underlined part in each of the
following questions.
d. Choose and give correct form of the verbs
in column A with particles in column B to
make phrasal verbs to complete the sentences.
1. hold off
2. give in
3. step down
4. comes up
5. fell through
e. Give the correct form of the words given to
complete the sentences.
1. insoluble/unsolved
2. infrequency
3. disorganizing
4. immobilize
5. increasingly
6. confidentiality
7. interchangeable
8. widespread
9. forthcoming/ upcoming
10. drawbacks
f. Fill a suitable word in each space to
complete the passage
1. B. praising me too much
2. A. all day long
3. B. provided evidence
4. A. intense dislike
5. C. violate
c. Fill a suitable preposition/ particle into
each gap to complete the sentences.
1. against
2. out
3. over
4. off
5. of
6. under
7. up
1. conserve/ protect
2. generations
3. in
4. increasing/ greater
5. away
6. conservation
7. damaged
8. tasks
9. opportunity
10. using
II. READING ( 26 x 0.2 pts = 5.2 pts)
a. Read the passage and choose the best option A, B, C or D to answer the questions.
1. B. Legal ownership of creative work
2. D. scientific discoveries
3. B. two books, written by two different authors, have the same titles
4. A. Teachers are not allowed to make copies of published materials for use by their students.
5. C. violating
6. A. A law against theft
7. B. routinely ignored
b. Read the passage and do the tasks followed
l. British 2. not given (NG) 3. (equal) 3
4. F 5. NG 6. T 7. T 8. NG 9. T
c. Read the following passage and choose the best option A, B, C, or D to indicate the
correct word(s) for each of the numbered blanks.
1. C. deliberately
2. D. put forward
3. C. expressions
4. C. circle
5. B. starving
6. D. suggests
7. B. persuade
8. C. benefit
9. A. muscles
10. B. up and back
III. WRITING (4.0 pts)
a. Finish each of the sentences in such a way that it means exactly the same as the sentence
printed before it.
(10 x 0.2 pt = 2.0 pts)
so much trouble now.
2. The house had its/the roof blown off by/in/during/because of the hurricane.
3. He received a six month sentence (in prison) for his part in the robbery.
4. There is absolutely no truth in that rumor about the politician and the construction contract.
5. I cast my mind back to what had happened all those years before.
6. In few other books is this problem explained so well./ will we see this problem so well
explained.
8. To avoid waking anyone up, Doris tiptoed up the stairs.
10. Not a great deal of damage was done to my car in/by the collision./
Not a great amount of damage was caused to my car in/by the collision.
b. Complete the second sentence so that it has a similar meaning to the first sentence, using the word given. Do not
change the word given in any way. (5 x 0.4 pt = 2.0 pts)
1. He is widely regarded as the best man for the job.
2. The suspect could not account for the sand on his boots /
The suspect could not account for the fact (that) he had sand on his boots.
3. Sally came up with the best solution.
4. You should make allowances for the fact that he hasn't spoken French for years.
You should make allowances for his not speaking French for years.
5. It was inevitable that he would fail his driving test.
ENGLISH PRACTICE 22
Part 1: Circle the word whose underlined part is pronounced differently from that of the
others in each group. Circle A, B, C or D to indicate your answer. (5 pts)
1. A. arrow B. loud C. moldy D. poultry
2. A. basilisk B. bison C. basic D.
basin
3. A. subtlety B. indebtedness C. bombard D. combing
4. A. benevolent B. content C. molecules D. technique
5. A. conscience B. bronchitis C. shuttle D. chauffeur
Part 2: Choose the word whose syllable is stressed differently from that of the others in
each line. Circle A, B, C or D to indicate your answer. (5 pts)
6. A. comic B. clementine C. climax D. thermonuclear
7. A. diligent B. dimension C. action D. innate
8. A. characterize B. absence C. datum D. charcoal
9. A. solicitor B. separately C. spacious D. sequence
10. A. parachute B. armchair C. accent D. accidentally
II. LEXICO – GRAMMAR
Part 1: Choose the word or phrase that best completes each sentence. Circle A, B, C or D to
indicate your answer. (20 pts)
11. Assembly lines are useful for producing a large _____ of identical products.
A. quality B. quantity C. quandary D. qualification
12. Only the _____ of the building is going to be remodeled.
A. insides B. interior C. indoors D. inner
13. Whether the sports club survives is a matter of complete _____ to me.
A. indifference B. disinterest C. importance D. interest
14. After years of neglect there was a huge _____ program to return the city to its former glory.
A. restoration B. preservation C. conservation D.
refurbishment
15. The assistant suggested _____ the next day when the manager would be there.
A. we are coming back B. to come back C. we will come back D. we
came back
16. I never get a _____ of sleep after watching a horror film.
A. wink B. blink C. night D.
ounce
17. As it was Christmas, the _____ at church was much larger than usual.
A. audience B. convention C. congregation D.
grouping
18. The sheep were huddled into a _____ to protect them from overnight frosts.
A. cage B. kennel C. hutch D. pen
A. gave B. returned C. subscribed D. found
20. Many _____ crafts such as weaving are now being revived.
A. customary B. habitual C. traditional D. ordinary
21. He managed to finish his thesis under the _____ of his tutor.
A. guidance B. help C. aid D. assistance
22. Mr. Henry was given a medal in _____ of his service to his country.
A. gratitude B. knowledge C. recognition D. response
23. Everyone knows about pollution problems, but not many people have _____ any solutions.
A. thought over B. come up with C. looked into D. got round to
24. You _____ as well seek for a fish in the tree as try to do that.
A. must B. would C. should D. might
out before the end of the
next century.
A. Raw B. Rude C. Crude D. Blunt
26. By the time you receive this letter, I _____ for China.
A. will have left B. have left C. would have left D. will leave
27. Prizes are awarded _____ the number of points scored.
A. resulting from B. adding up C. presented to D. according
to
28. The needs of gifted children in schools have long been _____ neglected.
A. dolefully B. woefully C. idly D. pathetically
29. I must take this watch to be repaired; it _____ over 20 minutes a day.
A. increases B. gains C. accelerates D.
progresses
A. culminating B. leading C. arriving D. finalizing
Part 2: Write the correct FORM of each bracketed word in the numbered space
provided in the column on the right. (0) has been done as an example. (10 pts)
According to some (0) _____ (SCIENCE), high-risk sports can be particularly (31)
_____ (VALUE) for certain types of people. Such activities help them to learn that
recent fashion for jumping from bridges attached to a (33) _____ (LONG) of elastic
(34) _____ (WORLD) and interest in it is continuing to grow.
Before the special elastic rope (35) _____ (TIGHT) around them, jumpers reach
speeds of nearly 160kph. First-timers are usually too (36) _____ (TERROR) to
open their mouths, and when they are finally (37) _____ (LOW) safely to the
ground, they walk around with broad smiles on their faces, saying (38) _____
(REPEAT) how amazing it was. However, for some people, it is only the (39)
_____ (EMBARRASS) of refusing to jump at the last minute that finally persuades
them to conquer their fear of (40) _____ (HIGH) and push themselves off into
space.
scientists
31. ________________
32. ________________
33. ________________
34. ________________
35. ________________
36. ________________
37. ________________
38. ________________
39. ________________
40. ________________
Part 3: The passage below contains 10 mistakes. Underline the mistakes and write their
correct forms in the space provided in the column on the right. (0) has been done as an
example. (10 pts)
Traditional, mental tests have been divided into two types.
Achievement tests are designed to measure acquiring skills and
knowledge, particularly those that have been explicitness
taught. The proficiency exams required by few states for high
school graduation are achievement tests. Aptitude tests are
designed and mea
but knowledge. For example, vocation aptitude tests can help
you decide whether you would do better like a mechanic or
musician. However, all mental tests are in some sense
achievement tests because they assumption some sort of past
learning or experience with certainly objects, words, or
situations. The difference between achievement and aptitude
tests is the degree and intention use.
41. _____________________
42. _____________________
43. _____________________
44. _____________________
45. _____________________
46. _____________________
47. _____________________
48. _____________________
49. _____________________
50. _____________________
Part 4: Fill in each of the gaps with the correct preposition or particle. Write your
answers in the numbered spaces provided below the passage. (10 pts)
The show was fully booked (51) _____ for weeks, and when it opened last night, the
public poured (52) _____ and very soon the London Arts Center was packed (53) _____. But
why? What did they come to see? They came to see human beings take (54) _____ circus
animals, men in cat suits who stood (55) _____ for real lions and tigers. The show was put (56)
_____ by its creators to protest (57) _____ traditional circuses and to send a message about
cruelty to animals. The show was timed to tie (58) _____ with the National Protection of
Animals Week. It was a good idea, but the standard of the performances was third-rate and an
embarrassing number of people simply walked (59) _____ before it ended. There were some
amusing moments when the performers sent (60) _____ typical circus folks, but overall it was a
people during the rest of its seven-day run.
Part 5: Complete each sentence with the correct form of ONE of the phrasal verbs
below. Write your answers in the numbered spaces provided below the passage. Each verb is
used only once. (10 pts)
try out
slip up
carry on
get by
put out
take after
get down
look up
go through
turn down
63. In many ways you _____ your father.
65. I proposed to her but she _____ me _____.
68.
to buy,
s.
Part 6: Insert A, AN, THE or Ø (zero article) where necessary. Write your answers in
the numbered spaces provided below the passage. (10 pts)
Suddenly (71) _____ blackbird flew to (72) _____ top of (73) _____ beach. She perched way up
on (74) _____ topmost twig that stuck up thin against (75) _____. Then she commenced to sing.
Her little black body seemed only (76) _____ tiny dark speck at that distance. She looked like
(77) _____ old dead leaf. But she poured out her song in (78) _____ great flood of rejoicing
through (79) _____ whole forest. And (80) _____ things began to stir.
III. READING COMPREHENSION
Part 1: Read the following passage and decide which answer (A, B, C or D) best fits
each gap. Circle A, B, C or D to indicate your answer. (10 pts)
The ability to weep is a uniquely human form of emotional response. Some scientists
have suggested that human tears are (81) _____ of an aquatic past but this does not seem very
likely. We cry from the moment we enter this world, for a number of reasons. Helpless babies
cry to persuade their parents that they are ill, hungry or uncomfortable. As they (82) _____, they
will also cry just to attract parental attention and will often stop when they get it.
The idea that having a good cry do you (83) _____ is a very old one and now it has scientific
validity since recent research into tears has shown that they (84) _____ a natural painkiller called
enkaphalin. By fighting sorrow and pain this chemical helps you feel better. Weeping can
increase the quantities of enkaphalin you (85) _____.
Unfortunately, in our society we impose restrictions upon this naturally (86) _____ activity.
Because some people still regard it as a (87) _____ of weakness in men, boys in particular are
admonished when they cry. This kind of repression can only increase stress, both emotionally
and physically.
Tears of emotion also help the body (88) _____ itself of toxic chemical waste, for there is more
protein in them than in tears resulting from cold winds or other irritants. Crying comforts, calms
and can be very enjoyable (89) _____ the popularity of highly emotional films which are
laughing together.
81. A. witness B. evidence C. result D. display
82. A. evolve B. change C. develop D. alter
83. A. better B. fine C. good D. well
84. A. contain B. retain C. hold D. keep
85. A. construct B. achieve C. provide D.
produce
86. A. curing B. treating C. healing D. improving
87. A. hint B. symbol C. feature D. sign
88. A. release B. rid C. loosen D. expel
89. A. consider B. remark C. distinguish D.
regard
90. A. named B. entitled C. subtitled D. called
Part 2: Read the following passage and fill the blank with ONE suitable word. Write
your answer in the space provided below the passage. (10 pts)
New technologies, like all technologies, are morally neutral. (91) _____ their advent
makes the world a better place or not depends on the uses to which they are (92) _____. And
that, (93) _____ turn, depends upon the decisions of many people, especially of politicians,
managers, trade (94) _____ leaders, engineers and scientists. The new technologies, cheap,
flexible, dependent on knowledge and information as their main input, can (95) _____ human
being from many of their current constraints for example constraints of resources and geography.
(96) _____ the new technologies could also (97) _____ those with power to control their fellow
citizens even more effectively than in the (98) _____ efficient dictatorships of the past. The new
technological society will (99) _____ colossal demands on our imagination and ingenuity and on
the capacity (100) _____ our institutions to respond to new challenges.
Part 3: Read the following passage and answer the questions from 101 to 110. (10 pts)
Legend has it that sometime toward the end of the Civil War (1861-1865) a government
train carrying oxen traveling through the northern plains of eastern Wyoming was caught in a
snowstorm and had to be abandoned. The driver returned the next spring to see what had become
of his cargo. Instead of the skeletons he had expected to find, he saw his oxen, living, fat, and
healthy. How had they survived?
The answer lay in a resource that unknowing Americans lands trampled underfoot in their haste
parts of the United States, the preferred grass for forage was a cultivated plant. It grew well with
enough rain, then when cut and stored it would cure and become nourishing hay for winter feed.
But in the dry grazing lands of the West that familiar bluejoint grass was often killed by drought.
To raise cattle out there seemed risky or even hopeless. Who could imagine a fairy-tale grass that
required no rain and somehow made it possible for cattle to feed themselves all winter? But the
surprising western wild grasses did just that. They had wonderfully convenient features that
made them superior to the cultivated eastern grasses. Variously known as buffalo grass, grama
grass, or mesquite grass, not only were they immune to drought; but they were actually preserved
by the lack of summer and autumn rains. They were not juicy like the cultivated eastern grasses,
but had short, hard stems. And they did not need to be cured in a barn, but dried right where they
grew on the ground. When they dried in this way, they remained naturally sweet and nourishing
through the winter. Cattle left outdoors to fend for themselves thrived on this hay. And the cattle
themselves helped plant the fresh grass year after year for they trampled the natural seeds firmly
into the soil to be watered by the melting snows of winter and the occasional rains of spring. The
dry summer air cured them much as storing in a barn cured the cultivated grasses.
101. What does the passage mainly discuss?
A. A type of wild vegetation B. Western migration after Civil War
C. The raising of cattle D. The climate of the Western United States
102. What can be inferred by the phrase “Legend has it” in line 1?
A. Most history book include the story of the train.
B. The story of the train is similar to other ones from that time period.
C. The driver of the train invented the story.
D. The story of the train may not be completed factual.
103. The word “they” in line 4 refers to _____.
A. plains B. skeletons C. oxen D. Americans
104. What can be inferred about the “Great American Desert” mentioned in line 7?
B. It was not originally assumed to be a fertile area.
C. It was a popular place to raise cattle before the Civil War.
105. The word “barren” in line 7 is closed in meaning to _____.
A. lonely B. uncomfortable C. infertile D. dangerous
A. favored B. available C. ordinary D.
required
107. Which of the following can be inferred about the cultivated grass mentioned in the second
paragraph?
A. Cattle raised in the Western United States refused to eat it.
B. It had to be imported into the United States.
C. It would probably not grow in the western United States.
D. It was difficult for cattle to digest.
108. Which of the following was NOT one of the names given to the western grasses?
A. Mesquite grass B. Bluejoint grass
C. Buffalo grass D. Grama grass
109. Which of the following was NOT mentioned as a characteristic of western grasses?
A. They contain little moisture B. They have tough stems
C. They can be grown indoors D. They are not affected by dry weather
110. According to the passage, the cattle help promote the growth of the wild grass by_____.
A. eating only small quantities of grass.
B. continually moving from one grazing area to another.
C. naturally fertilizing the soil.
D. stepping on and pressing the seeds into the ground.
IV. WRITING (6/20 points)
Part 1: Finish the second sentence in such a way that it means exactly the same as the
sentence printed before it
111. Customs officials are stopping more travelers than usual this week.
he meeting.
114. He never suspected that the bicycle had been stolen.
115. How could I help, except to offer to lend her some money?
Part 2: Use the word(s) given in the brackets and make any necessary additions to
complete a new sentence in such a way that it is as similar as possible in meaning to the
original sentence. Do NOT change the form of the given word(s).
116. To this day no one has equaled his achievements in the field of technology. (unsurpassed)
117. Peter grimaced as he swallowed the foul-tasting medicine. (pulled)
-tasting medicine.
planned. (longer)
unfortunate.
119. What he told me made me very curious to hear the rest of the history. (appetite)
story.
120. They chose not to drive because they thought there would be too much snow. (fear)
snow.
_____THE END_____
Keys – practice 22
I. PHONETICS: 1/20 points
Part 1: (5 x 0.1 = 0.5)
1. B 2. A 3. C 4. C 5. B
Part 2: (5 x 0.1 = 0.5)
6. D 7. B 8. A 9. A 10. D
II. LEXICO – GRAMMAR: 6/20 points
Part 1: (20 x 0.05 = 1)
11. B 12. B 13. A 14. A 15. D
16. A 17. C 18. D 19. D 20. C
21. A 22. C 23. B 24. D 25. C
26. A 27. D 28. B 29. B 30. A
Part 2: (10 x 0.1 = 1)
34. world worldwide
Part 3: (10 x 0.1 = 1)
Part 4: (10 x 0.1 = 1)
51. up 52. in 53. out 54. off 55. in
56. on 57. against 58. in 59. out 60. up
Part 5: (10 x 0.1 = 1)
61. get by 62. going through 63. take after 64. slip up 65. turned down
66. put out 67. carry on 68. get down 69. try out 70. look up
Part 6: (10 x 0.1 = 1)
71. a 72. the 73. a 74. the 75. the
76. a 77. an 78. a 79. the 80. Ø
III. READING COMPREHENSION: 4/20 points
Part 1: (10 x 0.1 = 1)
81. B 82. C 83. C 84. A 85. D
86. C 87. D 88. B 89. A 90. D
Part 2: (10 x 0.1 = 1)
91. whether 92. put 93. in 94. union 95. free
96. but 97. enable 98. most 99. make 100. of
Part 3: (10 x 0.2 = 2)
101. A 102. B 103. C 104. D 105. C
106. A 107. C 108. B 109. D 110. B
IV. WRITING: 6/20 points
Part 1: (5 x 0.2 = 1)
111. An increased number of travellers is being stopped by customs officials this week.
112. Rather than disturb the meeting, I left without saying goodbye.
113. The moment I decided to get up to dance, the band decided to stop playing.
114. At no time did he suspect that the bicycle had been stolen.
115. Other than to offer to lend her some money, how could I help?
Part 2: (5 x 0.2 = 1)
116. his achievements are unsurpassed. 117. pulled a face as he swallowed.
118. will take longer than originally planned, which is. 119. whetted my appetite for the rest
of.
120. not to drive for fear of.
ENGLISH PRACTICE 23
section I: Phonetics
Question 1. Pick out the word whose underlined part is pronounced differently
1.A. manufacture
B. mature
C. pasture
D. agriculture
2.A. breathe
B. mathematics
C. southern
D. trustworthy
3.A. special
B. social
C. official
D. society
4.A. answered
B. crowded
C. enjoyed
D. failed
5.A. horrifying
B. honey
C. vehicle
D. hit
Question 2. Pick out the word whose stress is placed differently
6.A. examine
B. introduce
C. determine
D. peninsula
7.A. inventory
B. circumstance
C. monastery
D. personnel
8.A. safeguarding
B. returnee
C. horizontal
D. mausoleum
9.A. existential
B. appellation
C. colonialist
D. Argentina
10.A. defective
B. deficit
C. reference
D. deference
Your answers
1 ........
2
..........
3..........
4
..........
5...........
6
.........
7
...........
8
...........
9
...........
10
........
section II: Vocabulary and grammar
Question 1. Choose the word that best completes each sentence
1. These figures give you some ideas of the cost of .............. your car for one year.
A. controlling
B. handling
C. managing
D. maintaining
2. It takes a great deal of ................. for the class to make a trip abroad.
A. arrangement
B. organization
C. expense
D. business
3. Paper making began in China and from there it ............. to North Africa.
A. spread
B. sprang
C. spilled
D. flowed
4. When will it ........... on you that I am right and you are wrong?
A. descend
B. come
C. dawn
D. arise
5. They are fighting to eradicate the ............. of starvation caused by the civil war.
A. leaving
B. legacy
C. tradition
D. remains
6. He had to .............. a new syllabus as the old one was out-dated.
A. make up
B. do up
C. take up
D. get up
7. They say he inherited his money from a ............ relative he had never met.
A. far away
B. remote
C. distant
D. far
8. I was thinking of going out, but on .............. thoughts, it might be better to stay in.
A. strong
B. second
C. good
D. deep
9. I have been working very hard, I hope I will ........... my math exam.
A. get through
B. get round
C. get through to
D. get up
10. Marrying into such a rich family had always been ............. his wildest dreams.
A. under
B. above
C. over
D. beyond
11. Here is an example of an ancient ............. Chinese vase.
A. beautiful
B. tiny
C. patterned
D. exotic
12. Because of its warm typical climate, Hawaii ............ subzero temperature.
A. almost experiences never
B. almost never experiences
C. experiences never almost
D. experiences almost never
13. After the accident, there was considerable doubt ............. exactly what had happened.
A. in the question of
B. as to
C. in the shape of
D. for
14. Turn to page 35 to find out at a ............. which courses are available to you.
A. glance
B. stare
C. glimpse
D. look
15. The actor was so nervous that he could only remember small ............. of dialogue.
A. shreds
B. pieces
C. patches
D. snatches
16. The truant was ............. from school for unbecoming behavior.
A. dispelled
B. repelled
C. compelled
D. expelled
17. The light from the car .............. as it receded into the distance.
A. seeped out
B. faded away
C. shone out
D. rolled away
18. Nobody would call me an alcoholic, but I like to have a drink of beer ............. and then.
A. now
B. when
C. often
D. there
A. further
B. however
C. anyway
D. even if
20. The musical comedy Oklahoma did much to expand the potential of the musical stage, and it
encouraged others to attempt .............. .
A. original themes
B. to original themes
C. that were original themes
D. how original themes
Your answers
1 ........
2
..........
3..........
4
..........
5...........
6
.........
7
...........
8
...........
9
...........
10 ........
11.........
12
........
13........
14
........
15 ........
16
.......
17
........
18.........
19
.........
20.........
Question 2. Mistake correction
There are 10 mistakes in the following passage. Find them and correct them
was the year 1898 that an insurance company for deaf people was born. A small group of young
deaf man had a meeting in this year. They were all worried. At that time, only deaf people were
not allowed to buy insurance. The group worked hard during the three years making research.
They were ready for action at the second meeting. That meeting was historic because the men
found the Fraternal Society of the Deaf. The first few years on the Fraternal Society of the Deaf
were difficult. There was no money for an office, so they worked in their home. Since the
company was very young, there was no money to pay for deadly benefits. If a member passed
away, each of the other members gave one dollar to help pay for burial costs. As time passed by,
the company grew. As it grew, the benefits improved. Health insurance has added. In 1905, the
first office opened in Chicago, Illinois. In 1907, the name of the company changed. The new
name, still is used today, was the National Fraternal Society of the Deaf, NFSD.
1 ......................
.......................
2 ......................
.......................
3 .....................
........................
4 .......................
......................
5 .......................
......................
6 ....................
.........................
7 .......................
......................
8 .......................
......................
9 ......................
.......................
10 .....................
........................
Question 3. Complete each sentence with a suitable preposition
1. He got ............... his examination fairly well although his health had broken down a few days
before it started
4. When you look .............. the matter in the library, did you find any question?
5. Someone who robs an old lady of all her savings is ............. contempt and deserves to be
punished.
6. He was poor, but he rent a mansion and set himself .............. as a millionaire.
7. I must find the time and energy to get ............. to doing that job.
8. The dog ran away from me and disappeared ............. the hill .
9.As nobody seems to know what to do next, may I put .............. a proposal?
10. ............ all likelihood, we will never know the real reason.
Your answers
1 ........
2
..........
3..........
4
..........
5...........
6
.........
7
...........
8
...........
9
...........
10
........
section III: reading comprehension
Question 1. Read the passage and choose the best option to each question
Since the dawn of time, people have found ways to communicate with one another.
Smoke signals and tribal drums were some of the earliest forms of communication. Letters,
carried by birds or by humans on foot or on horseback, made it possible for people to
communicate larger amounts of information between two places. The telegraph and telephone set
the stage for more modern means of communication. With the invention of the cellular phone,
communication itself has become mobile.
For you, a cell phone is probably just a device that you or your friends use to keep in
touch with family and friends, take pictures, play games, or send text messages. The definition of
a cell phone is more specific: it is a hand-held wireless communication device that sends and
receives signals by way of small special areas called cells.
Walkie-talkies, telephones, and cell phones are duplex communication devices: they
make it possible for two people to talk to each other. Cell phones and walkie-talkies are different
from regular phones, because they can be used in many different locations. A walkie-talkie is
sometimes called a half-duplex communication device, because only one person can talk at a
time. A cell phone is a full-duplex device because it uses both frequencies at the same time. A
walkie-talkie has only one channel. A cell phone has more than a thousand channels. A walkie-
talkie can transmit and receive signals across a distance of about a mile. A cell phone can
transmit and receive signals over hundreds of miles. In 1973, an electronic company called
Motorola hired Martin Cooper to work on wireless communication. Motorola and Bell
Laboratories (now AT&T) were in a race to invent the first portable communication device.
Martin Cooper won the race and became the inventor of the cell phone. On April 3, 1973,
Cooper made the first cell phone call to his opponent at AT&T while walking down the streets of
New York City. People on the sidewalks gazed at Cooper in amazement as he walked down the
-Tac. It weighed a
ones that weigh as little as 3 or 4 ounces).
After the invention of his cell phone, Cooper began thinking of ways to make the cell
phone available to the general public. After ten years, Motorola introduced the first cell phones
for commercial use. The early cell phone and its service were both very expensive. The cell
phone itself cost about $3,500. In 1977, AT&T constructed a cell phone system and tried it out
in Chicago with over 2,000 customers. In 1981, a second cellular phone system was started in the
Washington, D.C. and Baltimore area. It took nearly 37 years for cell phones to become
available for general public use. Today there are more than sixty million cell phone customers
with cell phones producing over thirty billion dollars per year.
1. What is the main idea of the passage?
A. the difference between cell phones and
telephones
B. how Cooper competed with AT&T
C. the history of a cell phone
D. the increasing number of people using cell phones
2. What definition is true of a cell phone?
A. Something we use just for playing games.
B. A version of walkie-talkie
C. The first product of two famous
corporations
D. A hand-held wireless communication device
3. What is wrong about a walkie-talkie?
A. Only one person can talk at a time.
B. It has one channel.
C. It was first designed in 1973.
D. It can be used within a distance of a mile.
4. The word “duplex” in line 10 is closest in meaning to
A. quick
B. modern
C. having two parts
D. having defects
5. To whom did Cooper make his first cell phone call?
A. a person on a New York Street
B. his assistant at Motorola
C. a member of Bell Laboratories
D. the director of his company
A. ten times as heavy as
B. much lighter
C. 2 pounds heavier
D. as heavy as
7. When did Motorola introduce the first cell-phones for commercial use?
A. in the same year when AT&T constructed a cell phone system
B. in 1983
C. in the same year when he first made a cell-phone call
D. in 1981
8. When did AT&T widely start their cellular phone system?
A. 37 years after their first design
B. in 1981
C. in 2001
D. in 1977
9. What does the word “gazed” in line 21mean?
A. angrily looked
B. glanced
C. started conversation
D. looked with admiration
10. The phrase tried it out in the last paragraph refers to?
A. tested the cell-phone system
B. reported on AT&T
C. introduced the cell phone system
D. made effort to sell the cell-phones
Your answers
1 ........
2
..........
3..........
4
..........
5...........
6
.........
7
...........
8
...........
9
...........
10
........
Question 2. You are going to read a newspaper article about sleep. Five paragraphs have been
removed from the article. Choose from the paragraphs A – F the one which fits each gap (1 –
5). There is one extra paragraph which you do not need to use.
Enough Sleep?
Tiredness, it is often claimed, has become the modern conditions. As the richer, busier
countries have grown, so sleeplessness and anxiety have also grown in the popular psyche.
Research in the USA has found 40 million Americans to be chronically affected, and some recent
best-selling novels in Britain have featured insomniacs as protagonists, or sleep-research
laboratories as their settings.
1
Recently, a sleep researcher fried an experiment. He offered his subjects the opposite of the
modern
three weeks to reach an equilibrium of eight-and-a-quarter hours. That indicates a great rebound
of sleep
2
For guinea pigs, they advertise in the student newspapers. Subjects are picked up by taxi, paid
$ 5 an hour, and asked to adjust their sleeping patterns according to instructions. Dr. Louise
electrodes
3
The young men all deny they are going to fall asleep. Dr. Reyner has a video recording of one
trying not to. At first the person at the wheel is very upright, wet and bleary eyes determinedly
fixed on the windscreen. Then he begins to blink briefly, every now and again; then for longer,
and more often, with a slight drop of the head. Each nod grows heavier than the last. The blinks
become a 10-second blackout. Every time, he jerks awake as if nothing has happened. But the
car, by the second or third occasion, has shot off the carriageway.
4
But apart from these findings, what else do we know about human sleep with any kind of
certainty? It is known that humans sleep, like other mammals, according to a daily cycle. Once
asleep, they switch between four different stages of unconsciousness, from stage one sleep, the
shallowest, to the stage four, the deepest. When dreams occur, which is usually during the
lightest sleep, the brain paralyses the body except for the hands and eyelids, thus preventing
injuries.
5
However, there is a strong degree of certainty among scientists that women sleep for half an
hour longer than men, and that older people require less sl
______________________________________________________________________________
_________
A. Beyond this, certainties blur into theories. It is often suggested, for example, that sleep repairs
body tissue, or restores muscles, or rests the frontal section of the brain that controls speech and
creativity. But all of this may happen more quickly during relaxed wakefulness, so no one is
really sure.
B. Part of this interest is in sleep in general: in its rhythms, its uses and in problems with
researche
C. The sleep researchers seem interested in this theory. But the laboratory is not funded to
investigate such matters. Its sponsors what its research to lead to practical solutions such as
deciding where Take a break signs should be placed on motorways, and how different kinds of
food and drink can affect driving and sleeplessness.
D. A coffee might have helped. Two cups, Dr. Reyner says, even after no sleep at all, can make
you a safe driver for half an hour or more. She recommends a whole basket of alertness products:
tablets, energy drinks, caffeinated chewing gum. Shift workers, she is quite sure, could probably
use them.
E more physical. In a darkened room stands a motorway
simulator, the front section of a car facing a wide projection screen. The subjects are always told
-
all. The projector is switched on and they are asked to drive, while answering questions. An
endless road rolls ahead, sunlight glares; and the air is warm.
F. In Europe, such propositions are perhaps most thoroughly tested in a small, unassuming
building on a university campus in the English midlands. The university sleep research
laboratory has investigated, among many subjects, the effects of fatigue on sailors, the effects of
airport noise on sleepers, and the dangers of motorway driving for flagging drivers.
Your answers
1 ........................
2 ....................
3 ......................
4 ........................
5 .......................
section IV: Use of English
Question 1. Read the passage and choose the word that best fits each gap
Why did you decide to read this and will you keep reading to the end? Do you expect to
understand every single part of it and will you remember anything about it in a fortnight's time ?
Common sense (1) ......... that the answers to these questions depend
(2) ......... matter is interesting, the argument clear and the layout attractive. But psychologists are
discovering that to (3) ......... why people read - and often don't read -technical information, they
have to examine so much the writing as the reader.
Even the most technically confident people often (4) ......... instructions for the video on home
computer in favour of hands-on experience. And people frequently (5) ......... little consumer
information, whether on nutritional labels or in the small print of contracts a Psychologists
researching reading (6) ......... to assume that both beginners and competent readers read
everything put in front of them from start to finish. There are arguments among them about the
(7) .........of eyes, memory and brain during the process. Some believe that fluent readers take (8)
......... every letter or word they see: others (9) ......... that readers rely on memory or context to
carry them from one phrase to another. But they have always assumed that the reading process is
the same: reading starts, comprehension (10) ......... then reading stops.
1.A. suggests
B. transmits
C. advises
D. informs
2.A. content
B. topic
C. subject
D. text
3.A. ensure
B. determine
C. value
D. rate
4.A. miss
B. omit
C. pass
D. ignore
5.A. get
B. pay
C. take
D. make
6.A. tend
B. undertake
C. lead
D. consent
7.A. concern
B. role
C. share
D. relation
8.A. up
B. over
C. out
D. in
9.A. insist
B. direct
C. urge
D. press
10.A. sets
B. occurs
C. issues
D. establishes
Your answers
1 ........
2
..........
3..........
4
..........
5...........
6
.........
7
...........
8
...........
9
...........
10
........
Question 2. Read the passage and fill each gap with ONE suitable word
It is not surprising that actors want to be pop stars and vice versa. (1) ..................... that is
deep in a part of our brain that most of us manage to keep under control, we all want to be pop
stars and actors.
..................... profession that automatically qualifies you for
the other, except, of course, for the fact that famous actors and singers are already surrounded by
people who never say no to them. (3) ..................... the whole, pop stars tend to fare better on
act is no big drawback in Hollywood, whereas not being able to play or sing still tends to count
(6) ..................... you in the recording studio.
Some stars do display a genuine proficiency in both disciplines, and a few even maintain
successful careers in both fields, but this just (7) ..................... a bad example for all the others.
For every success, there are two dozen failures. And most of them have no idea how terrible
they are. (8) ..................... as power tends to corrupt, so celebrity tends to destroy the ability to
But perh
(10) ..................... there is one good thing about actors trying to sing and singers trying to act, it
is that it keeps them all too busy to write books.
Your answers
1
..........................
2
.........................
3
...........................
4
...........................
5
.........................
6 ........................
7
.........................
8 .........................
9
...........................
10
........................
Question 3. Give the correct form of the words in brackets. N0(0) has been done
People of the Forest
This TV (0. DOCUMENT) ................................ follows a family of chimpanzees which live
in the forest of Tanzania. Set in (1. SPECTACLE) ................................ scenery the programme
gives us a fascinating insight into the life and social (2.ACTION) ................................ of these
creatures. Apparently, we humans share 98% of our genes with chimpanzees; indeed, they are
our closest (3.RELATE) ................................ in the animal (4. KING) and scenes in the
documentary offer clear evidence of our (5. SIMILAR) ................................ . The focus of the
film is on Fifi and we first see her as a (6. PLAY) ................................ five-year-old who spends
all her time annoying her younger brother. Meanwhile, the older male chimps seem to be
involved in an endless fight for (7. SUPREME) ................................ . And it is no surprise to
learn that while all this is taking place the females are left to deal with the day-to-day (8.
ORGANISE) ................................ matters. Make sure you set aside an hour to watch this. The
(9.GEOGRAPHY) ................................ splendour of the location makes this programme
worthwhile viewing, although our (10. LIKE) ................................ to these animals will make
you think.
Your answers
0. DOCUMENT documentary
1..........................
2 ........................
3 .........................
4 .........................
5 ........................
6 .........................
7 .......................
8 .........................
9 .........................
10 ......................
section V: Writing
A. Sentence transformation
Question 1. Finish each of the following sentences in such a way that it means the same as the
sentence before it
At all .................................................................................................................... .
2. One advantage of living in the city is the range of clothes shops.
One point ............................................................................................................ .
3. For further information, please send a self-addressed envelope to the above address.
Further information can ....................................................................................... .
4. The thought of what might happen next fills me with horror.
I dread .................................................................................................................. .
5. The realization that I had mad a big mistake came later.
Only ................................................................................................................... .
Question 2. Finish each of the following sentences in such a way that it is as similar as
possible in meaning to the original sentence. Use the word given and other words as
necessary. Do not change the form of the given word
1. It was Peter who pointed the mistake out to me.
( attention)
................................................................................................................ .
( recollection)
................................................................................................................ ?
.................................................................................................................... .
4. You should pay more attention to those road signs about speed limits.
( notice)
................................................................................................................... .
5. She herself admits to being rather selfish.
( admission)
.................................................................................................................... .
B. Essay writing
Do you agree or disagree with the following statement? High schools should allow students to
study the courses that students want to study. Use specific reasons and examples to support
your opinion.
Write at least 250 words
............................................................................................................................................................
............................................................................................................................................................
............................................................................................................................................................
............................................................................................................................................................
................................................
............................................................................................................................................................
............................................................................................................................................................
............................................................................................................................................................
....................................
............................................................................................................................................................
............................................................................................................................................................
............................................................................................................................................................
............................................................................................................................................................
................................................
............................... THe end .............................
Keys – practice 23
I. Phonetics ( 10 marks)
1.C
2.A
3.D
4.B
5.C
6.B
7.D
8.A
9.C
10.A
II. Vocabulary and grammar
Question 1. Choose the word that best completes each sentence ( 10 marks)
1.D
2.B
3.A
4.C
5.D
6.A
7.C
8.B
9.A
10.D
11.C
12.B
13.B
14.A
15.C
16.D
17.B
18.A
19.C
20.A
Question 2. Mistake correction ( 5 marks)
There are 10 mistake in the following passage. Find them and correct them
1. in past in the past
2. deaf man deaf men
making research doing .....
4. found founded
5. on the fraternal of the
6. their home their homes
7. deadly benefits death ....
8. passed by passed
9. has added was added
10. is used used
Question 3. Complete each sentence with a suitable preposition ( 5 marks)
1. through
2. at
3. away
4. into
5. beneath
6. up
7. (a)round
8. over
9. forward
10. In
III. reading comprehension
Question 1. Read the passage and choose the best option to each question ( 10 marks)
1.D
2.C
3.A
4.B
5.A
6.B
7.D
8.C
9.A
10.B
2. You are going to read a newspaper article about sleep. Five paragraphs have been removed
from the article. Choose from the paragraphs A – F the one which fits each gap (1 – 5). There
is one extra paragraph which you do not need to use. ( 10 marks)
Enough Sleep?
1.B
2.F
3.E
4.D
5.A
IV. Use of English
Question 1. Read the passage and choose the word that best fits each gap ( 5 marks)
1.A
2.C
3.B
4.D
5.C
6.A
7.B
8.D
9.A
10.B
Question 2. Read the passage and fill each gap with ONE suitable word (10 marks)
1. Somewhere
2. one / former / first
3. On
4. opposite
5. face
6. against
7. sets
8. Just
9. yourself
10. If
Question 3. Give the correct form of the words in brackets. N0(0) has been done (5 marks)
1.
SPECTACULAR
2. interaction
3. relatives
4. kingdom
5. similarity
(ies)
6. playful
7. supremacy
8. organizational
9. geographic(al)
10. likeness
V. Writing
A. Sentence transformation
Question 1. Finish each of the following sentences in such a way that it means the same as the
sentence before it ( 5 marks)
2. One point in favor of living in the city is the range of clothes shops
3. Further information can be obtained by sending a self-addressed envelope to the above
address.
4. I dread to think what might happen next.
5. Only later did I realize that I had mad a big mistake
Question 2. Finish each of the following sentences in such a way that it is as similar its
possible in meaning to the original sentence. Use the word given and other words as
necessary. Do not change the form of the given word ( 5 marks)
1. It was Peter who drew my attention to the mistake
4. You should take notice of those road signs about speed limits
5. By (On) her own admission, she is rather selfish
B. Essay writing (20 marks)
The impression mark is based on the following scheme:
1. Content: 10 points: a provision of all main ideas and details as appropriate
2. Language: 5 points: a variety of vocabulary and structures appropriate to the level of
English language gifted upper-secondary school students
3. Presentation: 5 points: coherence, cohesion, and style appropriate to the level of English
language gifted upper-secondary school students.
............................... THe end .............................
ENGLISH PRACTICE 24
I. PRONUNCIATION
Choose the word whose stress pattern is different from the others in the following questions
1. A.creative B.sensitive C.ambitious D.attentive
2. A.professor B.manager C.reporter D.director
3. A.exercise B.refusal C.collective D.abundant
4. A. material B. maritime C. marathon D. masculine
5. A. conceal B. consul C. contour D. contraband
6. A. participant B. accidental C. parentheses D. industrial
7. A. competent B. compliance C. commuter D. computer
8. A. malevolent B. pasteurise C. satellite D. manicure
9. A. emotional B. sympathetic C. responsible D. indifferent
10. A. continue B. inhabit C. disappear D. imagine
II. LEXICO-GRAMMAR
Part 1: Choose the word or phrase that best completes each sentence. Write your
answer A, B, C or D in the numbered boxes.
1. ___________ the weather forecast, it will rain heavily later this morning.
A. On account of
B. According to
C. Because of
D. Due to
2. I read the contract again and again __________ avoiding making spelling mistakes.
A. in view of
B. in terms of
C. with a view to
D. by means of
3. It's a shame they didn't pick you up, but it doesn't _______ out the possibility that you might
get a job in a different department.
A. strike
B. cancel
C. draw
D. rule
4. I reckon Mark is ________ of a nervous breakdown.
A. in charge
B. under suspicion
C. on the verge
D. indicative
5. Many local authorities realize there is a need to make _______ for disabled people in their
housing programmes.
A. assitance
B. conditions
C. admittance
D. provision
6. It turned out that we _________ rushed to the airport as the plane was delayed by several
hours.
A. hadn't
B. should have
C. mustn't have
D. needn't have
7. All three TV channels provide extensive _________ of sporting events.
A. coverage
B. vision
C. broadcast
D. network
8. No matter how angry he was, he would never ________ to violence.
A. resolve
B. recourse
C. exert
D. resort
9. ________ as a masterpiece, a work of art must transcend the ideals of the period in which it
was created.
A. Ranking
B. To be ranked
C. Being ranked
D. In order to be ranking
10. _________, the people who come to this club are in their twenties and thirties.
A. By and large
B. All together
C. To a degree
D. Virtually
11. I am afraid that you have _________ the deadline, so we can't take your application into
account.
A. missed
B. met
C. delayed
D. put off
12. The main aim of the campaign is to raise _______ of the issues involved.
A. knowledge
B. awareness
C. attention
D. acquaintance
13. After so many years, it is great to see him _________ his ambitions.
A. get
B. realise
C. possess
D. deserve
14. It was confirmed that the accident was caused by human ________.
A. error
B. slip
C. fault
D. blunder
15. The roadworks made ________ to the hotel from the main road difficult.
A. entrance
B. approach
C. access
D. ways in
Your answers:
1.
2.
3.
4.
5.
6.
7.
8.
9.
10.
11.
12.
13.
14.
15.
Part 2: Write the correct FORM of each bracketed word in the numbered space provided in
the column on the right. (0) has been done as an example.
The origins of Halloween
Halloween is celebrated in many parts of the (0)________ (WEST) world, and
is a time when people dress up as witches or ghosts, and go "trick-or treating".
It is (1) _________ (DOUBT) one of the most popular traditions in the United
States and Britain.
The celebration (2) _________(ORIGIN) about two thousand years ago with
the Celts. These people were the (3) ________ (INHABIT) of an area that
includes Britain, Ireland and Brittany. They relied on the land for their (4)
_______ (LIVE), and this meant that they were at the mercy of (5) ________
(PREDICT) weather conditions, especially during the winter.
The Celtic new year began on 1st November, which also marked the beginning
of winter, a period (6) _________ (TRADITION) associated with death. On
the eve of the new year, it was believed that the barriers between the worlds of
the living and the dead were (7) ________ (TEMPORARY) withdrawn, and it
was possible to communicate with spirits. The Celts believed that the spirits
offered them (8) ________ (GUIDE) and protection, and the Druids (Celtic
priests) were (9) _________ (REPUTE) able to predict the future on this point.
When the Roman completed their (10) ________ (CONQUER) of Celtic
lands, they added their own flavour to this festival. The advent of Christianity
brought about yet other changes.
0.____ western _____
1. _________________
2. _________________
3. _________________
4. _________________
5. _________________
6. _________________
7. _________________
8. _________________
9. _________________
10. ________________
Part 3: The passage below contains 10 mistakes. UNDERLINE the mistake and WRITE
THEIR CORECT FORMS in the space provided in the column on the right. (0) has been done
as an example.
The horse and carriage is a thing of the past, but love and marriage are still
with us and still closely interrelating. Most American marriages, particular
first marriages uniting young people, are the result of mutual attraction and
affection rather with practical considerations.
In the United States, parents do not arrange marriages for their children.
Teenagers begin date in high school and usually find mates through their own
academic and social contacts. Though young people feel free to choose their
friends from different groups, almost choose a mate of similar background.
This is due partly to parental guidance. Parents cannot select spouses for their
children, but they can usually influence choices by voicing disapproval for
someone they consider suitable.
However, marriages of members of different groups (interclass, interfaith, and
interracial marriages) are increasing, probably because of the greater mobile of
today's youth and the fact that they are restricted by fewer prejudices as their
parents. Many young people leave their hometowns to attend college, serve in
armed forces, or pursue a career in a bigger city. One away from home and
family, they are more likely to date and marry outside their own social group.
0. __ interrelated ____
1. ________________
2. _________________
3. _________________
4.__________________
5. _________________
6. _________________
7. _________________
8. _________________
9. _________________
10._________________
Part 4: Fill in the gaps in the following sentences with suitable particles. Write your answers
in the
corresponding numbered boxes. (0) has been done as an example.
0. Could you deal ________ this problem. I'm rather busy.
1. The Minister is also implicated __________ the scandal.
2. Irrespective _________ the poor weather conditions the search for the missing child was
continued.
3. I have been using her computer ever since she placed it __________ my disposal.
4. I met him at the party and he asked __________ you.
5. You can't miss him. That haircut makes him stand ___________ in a crowd.
Your answers:
0. with
1.
2.
3.
4.
5.
Part 5: Complete each sentence with a correct phrasal verb from the box. Write your answers
in the numbered boxes. Each phrasal verb is used only once.
put down
come out
see off
set about
work out
stand for
step up
track down
turn down
make up for
1. The managing director __________ the company's poor performance to high interest rates.
2. The police were able to __________ the car thieves using satellite technology.
3. This is a sensitive matter, and we have to __________ dealing with it very carefully.
4. David's new album is expected to ___________ at the end of the year.
5. I hope this award will ____________ your disappointment at not winning the first prize.
6. The company has decided to ___________ production of cars at its factory in Hull.
7. You might need a calculator to __________ this problem.
8. Claire decided to __________ the job, because it would have meant more travelling.
9. Our maths teacher simply won't _________ any talking in class.
10. Helen is going to the airport to _________ some friends.
Your answers:
1.
2.
3.
4.
5.
6.
7.
8.
9.
10.
III. READING
Part 1: Read the following passage and decide which answer (A, B, C, or D) best fits each gap.
Write your answer in the numbered boxes.
The Mysterious Isle
In the early morning of 23 January, 2009, the most powerful storm for a decade hit western
France. With wind speeds in (1) ________ of 120 miles per hour, it flattened forests, (2)
________ down power lines and caused massive destruction to buildings and roads. But it also
left behind an extraordinary creation. Seven miles out to sea at the (3) ________ where the
Atlantic Ocean meets the estuary of the River Gironde, a small island had (4) _________ out of
water. Locals soon gave it the name The Mysterious Isle. What was so remarkable, (5) ________
its sudden apparition, was the fact that the island (6) _________ intact in what is often quite a
hostile sea environment. It could well become a permanent feature.
Scientists (7) ________ realised that the island's appearance (8) ________ a unique opportunity
to study the creation and development of a new ecosystem. Within months, it had been colonised
by seabirds, insects and vegetation. Unfortunately, however, they were not alone in (9) ________
the island attractive. It became increasingly difficult to (10) ________ the site from human
visitors. In its first year, day trippers came in powered dinghies, a parachute club used it as a
landing strip, a rave party was even held there one night.
1.
A. surplus
B. advance
C. excess
D. put
2.
A. fetched
B. brought
C. carried
D. sent
3.
A. scene
B. mark
C. stage
D. point
4.
A. risen
B. growth
C. lifted
D. surfaced
5.
A. in spite of
B. instead of
C. apart from
D. on account of
6.
A. prolonged
B. remained
C. resided
D. preserved
7
A. quickly
B. briskly
C. hastily
D. speedily
8.
A. delivered
B. awarded
C. proposed
D. offered
9.
A. regarding
B. finding
C. seeking
D. deciding
10.
A. prevent
B. preserve
C. protect
D. prohibit
Your answers:
1.
2.
3.
4.
5.
6.
7.
8.
9.
10
Part 2: Fill each of the following numbered blanks with ONE suitable word and write your
answers in the
corresponding boxes provided below the passage.
Enjoy the benefits of stress!
Are you looking forward to another busy week? You should be according to some experts. They
argue that the stress encountered in our daily lives is not only good for us, but essential to survival.
They say that the response to (1) _________, which creates a chemical called adrenal in, helps the
mind and body to act quickly (2) ___________ emergencies. Animals and human beings use it to
meet the hostile conditions which exist on the planet.
Whilst nobody denies the pressures of everyday life, what is surprising is that we are yet to develop
successful ways of dealing with them. (3) ________ the experts consider the current strategies to
be inadequate and often dangerous. They believe that (4) ________ of trying to manage our
response to stress with drugs or relaxation techniques, we must exploit it. Apparently, research
shows that people (5) ________ create conditions of stress for (6) _______ by doing exciting and
risky sports or looking for challenges, cope much better with life's problems. Activities of this type
have been shown to create a lot of emotion; people may actually cry or feel extremely
uncomfortable. But there is a point (7) _________ which they realise they have succeeded and
know that it was a positive experience. This is because we learn through challenge and difficulty.
That's (8) _________ we get our wisdom. Few of us, unfortunately, understand this fact. For
example, many people believe they (9) _________ from stress at work, and take time off as a
result. Yet it has been found in some companies that by far (10) __________ healthiest people
are those with the most responsibility. So next time you're in a stressful situation, just remember
that it will be a positive learning experience and could also benefit your health!
Your answers:
1.
2.
3.
4.
5.
6.
7.
8.
9.
10.
Part 3: Read the following passage. For question 1-5, choose the best answer (A, B, C, or D).
Write your answers in the corresponding numbered boxes.
Day after day we hear about how anthropogenic development is causing global warming.
According to an increasingly vocal minority, however, we should be asking ourselves how much
of this is media hype and how much is based on real evidence. It seems, as so often is the case,
that it depends on which expert you listen to, or which statistics you study.
Yes, it is true that there is a mass of evidence to indicate that the world is getting warmer, with
one of the world's leading weather predictors stating that air temperatures have shown an
increase of just under half a degree Celsius since the beginning of the twentieth century. And
while this may not sound like anything worth losing sleep over the international press would
have us believe that the consequences could be devastating. Other experts, however, are of the
opinion that what we are seeing is just part of a natural upward and downward swing that has
always been part of the cycle of global weather. An analysis of the views of major
meteorologists in the United States showed that less than 20% of them believed that any change
in temperature over the last hundred years was our own fault-the rest attributed it to natural
cyclical changes.
There is, of course, no denying that we are still at a very early stage in understanding weather.
The effects of such variables as rainfall, cloud formation, the seas and oceans, gases such as
methane and ozone, or even solar energy are still not really understood, and therefore the
predictions that we make using them cannot always be relied on. Dr. James Hansen, in 1988, was
predicting that the likely effects of global warming would be a raising of world temperature
which would have disastrous consequences for mankind: "a strong cause and effect relationship
between the current climate and human alteration of the atmosphere". He has now gone on
record as stating that using artificial models of climate as a way of predicting change is all but
impossible. In fact, he now believes that, rather than getting hotter, our planet is getting greener
as a result of the carbon dioxide increase, with the prospect of increasing vegetation in areas
which in recent history have been frozen wastelands.
In fact. there is some evidence to suggest that as our computer-based weather models have
become more sophisticated, the predicted rises in temperature have been cut back. In addition, if
we look at the much reported rise in global temperature over the last century, a close analysis
reveals that the lion's share of that increase, almost three quarters in total, occurred before man
began to 'poison' his world with industrial processes and the accompanying greenhouse gas
emissions in the second half of the twentieth century.
So should we pay any attention to those stories that scream out at us from billboards and
television news headlines, claiming that man, with his inexhaustible dependence on oil-based
machinery and ever more sophisticated forms of transport is creating a nightmare level of
'greenhouse gas emissions, poisoning his environment and ripping open the ozone layer?
Doubters point to scientific evidence. which can prove that, of all the greenhouse gases, only two
percent come from man-made sources, the rest resulting from natural emissions.
Who, then, to believe: the environmentalist exhorting us to leave the car at home, to buy re-
usable products packaged in recycled paper and to plant trees in our back yard? Or the sceptics,
including, of course, a lot of big businesses who have most to lose, when they tell us that we are
making a mountain out of a molehill? And my own opinion? The jury's still out as far as I am
concerned!
1. The author __________
A. believe that man is causing global warming.
B. believes that global warming is a natural process.
C. is sure what the causes of global warming are.
D. does not say what he believes the causes of global warming are.
2. As to the cause of global warming, the author believes that _________
A. occasionally the facts depend on who you are talking to.
B. the facts always depend on who you are talking to.
C. often the facts depend on which expert you listen to.
D. you should not speak to experts.
3. More than 80% of the top meteorologists in the United States are of the opinion that
_________
A. global warming should make us lose sleep.
B. global warming is not the result of natural cyclical changes but man-made.
C. the consequences of global warming will be devastating.
D. global warming is not man-made, but the result of natural cyclical changes.
4. Our understanding of weather __________
A. leads to reliable predictions.
B. is variable.
C. cannot be denied.
D. is not very developed yet.
5. Currently, Dr James Hansen's beliefs include the fact that _________
A. it is nearly impossible to predict weather change using artificial models.
B. the consequences of global warming would be disastrous for mankind.
C. there is a significant link between the climate now, and man's changing of the atmosphere.
D. Earth is getting colder.
Your answers:
1.
2.
3.
4.
5.
For questions 6-10, write in the corresponding numbered boxes with YES, NO, or NOT
GIVEN:
Yes if the statement agrees with the information in the passage
No if the statement contradicts the information in the passage
Not given if there is no information about the statement in the passage.
6. At the same time that computer-based weather models have become more sophisticated,
weather forecasters have become more expert.
7. Most of the increase in global temperature happened in the second half of the twentieth
century.
8. The media wants us to blame ourselves for global warming.
9. The media encourages the public to use environmentally friendly vehicles, such as electric
cars to combat global warming.
10. Many big businesses are on the side of the sceptics as regards the cause of global warming.
Your answers:
6.
7.
8.
9.
10.
IV. WRITING
Part 1: Finish each of the following sentences in such a way that it means exactly the
same as the sentence before it.
1.
Although Mary was exhausted, she agreed to join in the activity.
2.
We'll let you know as soon as we have received the information.
.................................................................................................................
3.
You can only really master a language if you use it regularly.
..........................................
4.
It's nobody's fault that the match was cancelled.
5.
I don't intend to apologise to either of them..
..........................................................................................................
Part 2: Use the word given in brackets and make any necessary additions to write a new
sentence in such a way that it is as similar as possible in meaning to the original sentence. Do
NOT change the form of the given word. You must use between three and six words, including
the word given. (0) has been done as an example.
0. Fiona refused to wear her old dress. (not)
Fiona said that ________ she would not wear ________ her old dress.
1.
As long as he could see, Kevin really didn't mind where he sat in the stadium. (difference)
As long as he could see , ____________________________________ where he sat in the
stadium.
2.
Somebody should have told us that the date had been changed. (informed)
We should ___________________________________ the change of the date.
3.
Jane's family persuaded her to enter the competition. (talked)
Jane was ____________________________________ the competition by her family.
4.
We never imagined that Julian might be planning to resign from his job. (occurred)
It never __________________________________ Julian might be planning to resign from his
job.
5.
Sally was all ready to leave the office when her boss asked her to type up a report (point)
____________ the office when her boss asked her to type up
a report.
Part 3: Write an essay of about 250 words on the following topic:
"The widespread use of the Internet has brought many problems. What do you think are the
main problems associated with the use of the web? What solutions can you suggest"?
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---THE END---
Keys – practice 24
I, PRONUNCIATION
1. A.creative B.sensitive C.ambitious D.attentive
2. A.professor B.manager C.reporter D.director
3. A.exercise B.refusal C.collective D.abundant
4. A. material B. maritime C. marathon D. masculine
5. A. conceal B. consul C. contour D. contraband
6. A. participant B. accidental C. parentheses D. industrial
7. A. competent B. compliance C. commuter D. computer
8. A. malevolent B. pasteurise C. satellite D. manicure
9. A. emotional B. sympathetic C. responsible D. indifferent
10. A. continue B. inhabit C. disappear D. imagine
II. LEXICO-GRAMMAR. (7,5 điểm)
Part 1.(15 câu x 0,15 = 2,25 điểm)
1. B
2. C
3. D
4. C
5. D
6. D
7. A
8. D
9. B
10. A
11. A
12. B
13. B
14. A
15. C
Part 2: ( 10 câu x 0,15 = 1,5 điểm)
1. undoubtedly
2. originated
3. inhabitants
4. livelihood
5. unpredictable
6. traditionally
7. temporarily
8. guidance
9. reputedly
10. conquest
Part 3: ( 10 câu x 0,15 = 1,5 điểm)
The horse and carriage is a thing of the past, but love and marriage are still
with us and still closely interrelating. Most American marriages, particular
first marriages uniting young people, are the result of mutual attraction and
affection rather with practical considerations.
In the United States, parents do not arrange marriages for their children.
Teenagers begin date in high school and usually find mates through their own
academic and social contacts. Though young people feel free to choose their
friends from different groups, almost choose a mate of similar background.
This is due partly to parental guidance. Parents cannot select spouses for their
children, but they can usually influence choices by voicing disapproval for
someone they consider suitable.
However, marriages of members of different groups (interclass, interfaith, and
interracial marriages) are increasing, probably because of the greater mobile
of today's youth and the fact that they are restricted by fewer prejudices as
their parents. Many young people leave their hometowns to attend college,
serve in armed forces, or pursue a career in a bigger city. One away from
home and family, they are more likely to date and marry outside their own
social group.
0. interrelated
1. particularly
2. than
3. dating/ to date
4. most
5. of
6. unsuitable
7. between / among
8. mobility
9 . than
10. once
Part 4: (5 câu x 0,15 = 0,75)
1. in
2. of
3. at
4. after
5. out
Part 5:(10 câu x 0,15 = 1,5 điểm)
1. put down
2. track down
3. set about
4. come out
5. make up for
6. step up
7. work out
8. turn down
9. stand for
10. see off
III. READING (4,5 điểm)
Part 1:(10 câu x 0,15 = 1,5 điểm)
1. C
2. B
3. D
4. A
5. C
6. B
7. A
8. D
9. B
10. C
Part 2: (10 câu x 0,15 = 1,5 điểm)
1. stress
2. in / during
3. Even
4. instead
5. who / that
6. themselves
7. at
8. how
9. suffer
10. the
Part 3:(10 câu x 0,15 = 1,5 điểm)
1. D
2. C
3. D
4. D
5. A
6. NOT GIVEN
7. NO
8. YES
9. NOT GIVEN
10. YES
IV. WRITING. ( 5 điểm)
Part 1: (5 câu x 0,2 = 1 điểm)
1. Exhausted as / though Mary was / might be, she agreed to join the activity.
2. The minute / moment we have received the information , we'll let you know.
3. Only by using it ( a language) regularly, can you really master a language (it).
4. Nobody is to blame for the match cancellation / the match's cancellation / the cancellation of
the match / the fact that the match was cancelled.
5. I have no intention of apologising / apologizing to either of them.
Part 2:(5 câu x 0,2 = 1 điểm)
1. As long as he could see, it made no difference to Kevin where he sat in the stadium.
2. We should have been informed of / about the change of the date.
3. Jane was talked into entering the competition by her family.
4. It never occurred to us that Julian might be planning to resign from his job.
5. Sally was on the point of leaving the office when her boss asked her to type up a report.
Part 2: (3 điểm) Giám khảo tự quyết định dựa vào các yêu cầu sau:
- Task fulfillment (idea/content): 30%
- Essay organization (coherence, cohesion); 30%
- Vocabulary/structures (variety, accuracy, appropriacy): 30%
- Handwriting, essay layout ... : 10%
ENGLISH PRACTICE 25
PART 1: PRONUNCIATION
Choose the word whose stress pattern is different from the others in the following question
1. A. emit B. indeed C. belong D. private
2. A. economic B. territorial C. multiracial D. memorial
3. A. compromise B. correspond C. interview D. innocent
4. A. origin B. subsequent C. admirable D. conductor
5. A. favorite B. relatively C. ingredient D. notice
6. A. museum B. commemorate C. commercial D. commentator
7. A. zoology B. conquest C. cement D. duet
8. A. emergency B. vulnerable C. activity D. initiative
9. A. photocopy B. particular C. enthusiasm D. economy
10. A. innocent B. nevertheless C. contents D. supermarket
PART II. GRAMMAR AND VOCABULARY (3.5 PT)
I. Complete the following sentences by choosing the correct answer among four options (A,
B, C or D)
1. Jack _____________ a fortune when his great uncle Jack passed on.
A. made into B. went into C. came into D. bought
2. Telephone service to that remote village can't be ______ this year.
A. provided B. supplied C. improved D. made
3. His company had to close because of_______.
A. redundancy B. economic difficulties
C. subtitles D. a high rate of unemployment
4. I couldn't ______over how well the team play!
A. make B. get C. turn D. put
5. Even if you are good at a game, you shouldn't be______.
A. overconfident B. unconfident C. confidential D. confidentable
A. That I could do such a thing it B. That I could do such a thing
C. I could do such a thing it D. I could do such a thing
7. ________ is the biggest city in Michigan, it is not the capital.
A. Detroit B. If Detroit C. Although Detroit D. Detroit, which
A. continuous B. constant C. continual D. stopping
9. They were walking on tiptoe ______ the Director's room.
A. pass B. passed C. past D. passing
A. of late B. not long ago C. currently D. by now
II. Each line of the following passage has one mistake related to either grammar or
vocabulary usage. Find and correct them.
Air pollution is a cause for ill health in human beings. It a lot of
countries, there are laws limited the amount of smoke which factories can
produce. Because there isn't enough information on the amount of smoke in
the atmosphere, doctors have proved that air pollution makes lung cancer.
The gases from the exhausts of cars have also risen air pollution in most
cities. The lead in petrol produces a poisoned gas which often collects in
busy streets surrounding by high buildings. Children who live in areas
where there is a lot of lead in the atmosphere cannot think as quick as other
children and they are clumsy where they use their hands. There are long-term
effects of pollution. If the gases in the atmosphere continues to increase, the
earth's climate will become warmer. A lot of ice near the Poles may water and
may cause serious floods.
0. for --> of
1. _________
2. _________
3. _________
4. _________
5. _________
6. _________
7. _________
8. _________
9. _________
10. ________
III. Use the given phrasal verbs to replace the underlined words/phrases in the sentences.
Then put the verbs in the correct form in the sentences.
come into fall through turn in draw up let on
go round do without make out take after turn down
1. Before we do anything else, we ought to prepare a plan of action.
2. It was getting late so I decided to go to bed.
3. I believe that Diana has recently inherited a lot of money.
4. Do you think there is enough food to feed everybody?
manage.
6. He speaks very badly. I caunderstand
say anything to the children about the party. I want it to be a promise.
8. I was rejected for the army on the health ground.
fail.
10. I resemble my mother. She was small with blond hair and had a terrible memory too.
IV. Use the word given in capitals to form a word that fits in the gap in the sentences. Write
your answers on your answer sheet.
situation. (HUMILIATE)
3. That was a very ________ thing to say. (HURT)
5. He stood at the door to make sure that no one _______ the party. (GATE)
PART III. READING
I. Read the passage carefully , then fill in the blank a suitable word.
The majority of lottery winners change their lives (1) __________ little, and continue on
their settled way happy ever after. A couple of years ago, a Mr. David Horabin won a million. He
had been struggling to (2) _________ a success of his dry cleaning shop for the past 12 months.
He accepted his cheque in a small ceremony (3) ________ the premises at 2.30, and by three
o'clock he had reopened for business. The reaction of Mr. Pasquale Consalvo who won $30
million in the New York state lottery was very (4) _________. He was unhappy not to be able to
fulfill his desire to go to work as (5) ___________ on the day he won. He also said that if the
money made him (6) ____________ he would give it back. In fact, the chances of his life being
made a misery by his new-found wealth are almost (7) _________ slim though not quite as the
sixty million-to-one odds he beat to take a jackpot (8)________ had remained unclaimed through
six previous draws. Gambling small amounts (9) __________ the lottery is a harmless if futile
hobby. (10) __________, gambling can become an addiction, increasingly so as the activity
becomes socially acceptable.
II. Read the passage carefully, then choose the correct option (marked A, B, C or D) to
answer the questions.
A recent survey of crime statistics shows that we are all more likely to be burgled now than
20 years ago and the police advise everyone to take a few simple precautions to protect their
homes.
The first fact is that burglars and other intruders prefer easy opportunities, like a house
which is very obviously empty. This is much less of a challenge than an occupied house, and one
which is well-protected. A burglar will wonder if it is worth the bother.
There are some general tips on how to avoid your home becoming another crime statistic.
Avoid leaving signs that your house is empty. When you have to go out, leave at least one light
on as well as a radio or television, and do not leave any curtains wide open. The sight of your
latest music centre or computer is enough to tempt any burglar.
Never leave a spare key in a convenient hiding place. The first place a burglar will look is
under the doormat or in a flower pot and even somewhere more 'imaginative' could soon be
uncovered by the intruder. It is much safer to leave a key with a neighbor you can trust. But if
your house is in a quiet, desolate area be aware that this will be a burglar's dream, so deter any
potential criminal from approaching your house by fitting security lights to the outside of your
house.
But what could happen if, in spite of the aforementioned precautions, a burglar or
intruder has decided to target your home? Windows are usually the first point of entry for many
intruders. Downstairs windows provide easy access while upstairs windows can be reached with
a ladder or by climbing up the drainpipe. Before going to bed you should double-check that all
windows and shutters are locked. No matter how small your windows may be, it is surprising
what a narrow gap a determined burglar can manage to get through. For extra security, fit
window locks to the inside of the window.
What about entry via doors? Your back door and patio doors, which are easily forced open,
should have top quality security locks fitted. Even though this is expensive it will be money well
spent. Install a burglar alarm if you can afford it as another line of defence against intruders.
A sobering fact is that not all intruders have to break and enter into a property. Why go to
the trouble of breaking in if you can just knock and be invited in? Beware of bogus officials or
workmen and, particularly if you are elderly, fit a chain and an eye hole so you can scrutinize
callers at your leisure. When you do have callers never let anybody into your home unless you
are absolutely sure they are genuine. Ask to see an identity card, for example.
If you are in the frightening position of waking in the middle of the night and think you can
hear an intruder, then on no account should you approach the intruder. Far better to telephone the
police and wait for help.
1. According to the writer, we should _______.
A. avoid leaving our house empty
B. only go out when we have to
C. always keep the curtains closed
D. give the impression that our house is occupied when we go out
2. The “aforementioned precautions” refer to steps that _______.
A. will tell a burglar if your house is empty or not
B. are the most important precautions to take to make your home safe
C. will stop a potential burglar
D. will not stop an intruder if he has decided to try and enter your home
3. Gaining entry to a house through a small window _______.
A. is surprisingly difficult
B. is not as difficult as people think
C. is less likely to happen than gaining entry through a door
D. is tried only by very determined burglars
4 . According to the writer, window locks, security locks and burglar alarms _______.
A. cost a lot of money but are worth it B. are good value for money
C. are luxury items D. are absolutely essential items
5. The writer argues that fitting a chain and an eye hole _______.
A. will prevent your home being burgled
B. avoids you having to invite people into your home
C. is only necessary for elderly people
D. gives you time to check if the visitor is genuine
III. Choose the word that best fits each of the blanks in the following passage. Circle A, B,
C or D to indicate your answers.
Viewed from the outside (1) ________, the Houses of Parliament look impressive. The
architecture gives the place a traditional look, and the buildings are sandwiched between a busy
square and the river, making them a (2) ________between the country house of an eccentric
duke and a Victorian railway station. You have only to learn that the members (3) ______ to
with of course a few ladies to (5) _______ the numbers. Sadly, over the past few years first
radio, and now television, have shown the general public, who are (6) ______ the electorate,
what in fact goes on when bills are discussed and questions are asked. The first obvious fact is
that the chamber is very rarely full, and there may be only a handful of members present, some
of whom are quite clearly asleep, telling jokes to their neighbor, or shouting like badly-behaved
schoolchildren. There is not enough room for them all in the chamber in any (7) _______, which
is a second worrying point. Of course, television does not follow the work of committees, which
are the small discussions groups that do most of the real work of the House. But the (8) ______
impression that voters receive of the workings of government is not a good one. To put it (9)
_______, parliament looks disorganized, is clearly behind the time and seems to be filled with
bores and comedians. This is presumably why members (10) _______ for so long the efforts of
the BBC to broadcast parliamentary matters on television.
1. A. likewise B. at least C. nevertheless D. as well
2. A. mixture B. combination C. cross D. match
3. A. call B. refer C. speak D. submit
4. A. finalize B. end C. conclude D. complete
5. A. take away B. bring about C. make up D. set in
6. A. after all B. anyway C. even D. furthermore
7. A. point B. way C. matter D. case
8. A. total B. broad C. overall D. comprehensive
9. A. bluntly B. shortly C. directly D. basically
10. A. prevented B. checked C. defied D. resisted
PART IV: WRITING
I. Finish each of the following sentences in such a way that it means exactly the same as the
sentence printed before it.
1. The phone stopped ringing the moment I got down stairs.
No sooner _______________________________________________
2. He is determined to carry on working when he is 65.
He has no ________________________________________________
3.
He greatly ______________________________________________
4. She agreed to go out to dinner with him because she assumed he was not married.
Had she __________________________________________________
5. Everyone was surprised that the singer had very little money when he died.
The singer had _____________________________________________
II. Write about the following topic:
„Some people feel that certain workers like nurses, doctors and teachers are
undervalued and should be paid more‟
How far do you agree?
Give reasons for your answer and include any relevant examples from your own knowledge
or experience.
You should write at least 150 words.
Keys – practice 25
PART 1: PRONUNCIATION
Choose the word whose stress pattern is different from the others in the following question
1. A. emit B. indeed C. belong D. private
2. A. economic B. territorial C. multiracial D. memorial
3. A. compromise B. correspond C. interview D. innocent
4. A. origin B. subsequent C. admirable D. conductor
5. A. favorite B. relatively C. ingredient D. notice
6. A. museum B. commemorate C. commercial D. commentator
7. A. zoology B. conquest C. cement D. duet
8. A. emergency B. vulnerable C. activity D. initiative
9. A. photocopy B. particular C. enthusiasm D. economy
10. A. innocent B. nevertheless C. contents D. supermarket
PART II. GRAMMAR AND VOCABULARY (35pt)
I. (10pts: 1pt/item)
1. C
2. A
3. B
4. B
5. A
6. B
7. C
8. A
9. C
10. A
II. (10pts: 1pt/item)
1. limited --> limiting
6. surrounding --> surrounded
2. Because --> Although
7. quick --> quickly
3. makes --> causes
8. where--> when
4. risen --> increased
9. continues --> continue
5. poisoned --> poisonous
10. water --> melt
III. (10pts: 1 pt/item)
1. draw up
2. turn in
3. came into
4. go round
5. do without
6. make out
7. let on
8. turned down
9. fall though
10. take after
IV. ( 5pts: 1pt/ item)
1. humiliation
2. single-minded/
strong-minded
3. hurtful
4. uncharacteristic
5. gate-crashed
PART III. READING
I. (10pts: 1pt/item)
1. but
2. make
3. at
4. similar
5. usual
6. unhappy
7. as
8. that
9. on
10. However
II. (5 pts: 1 pt/item)
1. D
2. D
3. B
4. A
5. D
III. (10pts: 1pt/item)
1. B
2. C
3. B
4. D
5. C
6. A
7. D
8.C
9. A
10. D
PART IV. WRITING
I. (5 pts: 1pt/item)
1. No sooner had I got downstairs than the phone stopped ringing.
2. He has no intention of giving up working/ retiring when he is 65.
3. He greatly regretted not seeing Audrey on her trip to London.
4. Had she known that he was married, she would not have agreed to go out to dinner with him.
5. The singer had very little money (left) when he died, which surprised everybody.
II. Write about the following topic: 20 pts
The impression mark is based on the following scheme:
1. Content (10 pts): a provision of all main ideas and details as appropriate
2. Language (5pts): a variety of vocabulary and structures appropriate to the level of
English language gifted upper-secondary school students
3. Presentation (5pts): coherence, cohesion, and style appropriate to the level of English
language gifted upper-secondary school students.
ENGLISH PRACTICE 26
PART A: PRONUNCIATION
Choose the word whose stress pattern is different from the others in the following question
1. A. argument B. enquiry C. medicine D. justify
2. A. convenience B. mechanic C. preference D. official
3. A. recently B. attitude C. octopus D. proposal
4. A. economy B. advisory C. peninsula D. economics
5. A. arithmetic B. agriculture C. contributor D. assassinate
6. A. magnificent B. appliances C. potentially D.
preservation
7. A. computer B. property C. horizon D. imagine
8. A. architect B. electric C. mineral D. luxury
9. A. photochemical B. trigonometry C. dramatically D.
alphabetical
10. A. popularity B. conscientious C. apprenticeship D. personality
PART B. LEXICO - GRAMMAR
I. Choose the best answer from the four options (marked A, B, C, or D) to complete the
sentences.
A. out of use B. out of practice C. out of reach D. out of turn
2.
A. pink, long, lovely, silk B. lovely, long, pink, silk
C. lovely, pink, long, silk D. long, pink, silk, lovely
3. _________ air is essential to man, so is water to fish.
A. As B. Just C. Since D.
Like
4. Having selected to represent the Association of American Engineers at the International
Convention, _________.
A. the members applauded him B. a speech had to be given by him
C. the members congratulated him D. he gave a short acceptance speech
5. We _______ wandering about without any food.
A. hungered B. made hungry C. had been hungry D. got hungry
6. James was ________ upset after being rejected in love.
A. strongly B. hardly C. deeply D. highly
7. The company have to _______ways of reducing costs.
A. take in B, think over C. look D. work out
A. notice B. view C. attention D. sight
ble to change anything
later.
A. hold B. bear C. retain D. reserve
10. Does that name _________ to you?
A. ring a bell B. break the ice C. foot the bill D. fall into
place
II. Complete the following passage with the correct forms of the given words.
ACCESS APPEAR COMMIT DENY EXCLUDE
IMMERSE INFANT INSTITUTE LONELY SEE
One of the most challenging aspects of the science anthropology comes from its
fieldwork. Certainly, in its (1)________ as a profession, anthropology was distinguished by its
concentration on so-called primary societies in which social (2)________ appear to be fairly
limited and social interaction to be conducted almost (3)_________ face to face. Such
societies, it was felt, provided anthropologists with a valuable (4)________into the workings of
society that contrasted with the many complexities of more highly developed societies. There
was also a sense that the way of life represented by these smaller societies were rapidly
(5)________and that preserving a record of them was a matter of some urgency.
The (6)________ of anthropologists to the first hand collection of data led them to
some of the most (7)________ places on earth. Most often they worked alone. Such lack of
contact with other people created feelings of intense (8)________ in some anthropologists,
especially in the early stages of fieldwork. Nevertheless, this process of (9)________ in a totally
alien culture continues to attract men and women to anthropology, and is (10)_________ the
most effective way of understanding in depth how other people see the world.
III. Complete the following sentences with one preposition/particle for each blank.
1. Kate fell _______ with her boyfriend and they stopped seeing each other.
2. She would just sit in her chair, dreaming her life ________.
4. I went to the library, but the book I wanted was out _______ loan.
7. Deborah is going to take extra lessons to catch up______ what she missed why she was away.
_______.
s.
10. Check the bottles carefully to make sure they have not been tampered________.
PART C. READING
I. Read the following passage and choose the options among A, B, C or D that best complete
the blanks.
Stressful situations that (1)________ almost every day in life seem to be unavoidable.
However, we can do little sometimes to avoid a misfortune or an unpleasant occurrence which
may (2)________ us unexpectedly as only it can. At such a moment, one may hit the
(3)_______, give in to the helplessness of the situation or, ideally, put a brave face on it trying to
(4)_________ the burden.
Can you (5)_________ in your mind an hour spent in a traffic jam, say, this morning? Do
you light one cigarette after another? Do you sound the horn every few seconds like the other
neurotics? Or do you take a different (6)________ and make good use of the time drawing up a
schedule for the days to come? To withstand the stressful moment you can also do a crossword
puzzle, listen to your favorite music or even compose a menu for your Sunday dinner.
In fact, whatever way you (7)________ to the annoying situation, you can exert no
impact on it as the traffic jam will only reduce in due (8)_________. Nevertheless, your reaction
might considerably influence your mood for the rest of the day. The inability to confront a
stressful occurrence like that with a deal of composure and sensibility adds much more strain to
your life and in this way puts your well being in (9)_________. Surprisingly, it is seemingly
negligible hardships we stumble on daily that run double the risk of developing serious health
disorders rather than our isolated tragedies however painful they may be. (10)_______that so
many of those wretched stresses and inducing troubles affect us in a day, we should, at best, try
to avoid them or possibly make radical alterations in the way we lead our daily lifestyles.
1. A. devise B. create C. originate D. emerge
2. A. arise B. happen C. befall D. occur
3. A. post B. roof C. bottom D. wall
4. A. subsist B. remain C. cow D. bear
5. A. envision B. observe C. picture D. image
6. A. manner B. stance C. practice D. mode
7. A. strike B. deal C. respond D. challege
8. A. term B. course C. timing D. period
9. A. risk B. weakness C. insecurity D. jeopardy
10. A. Providing B. Given C. Hence D. As much
II. Read the text and then answer the questions 1 – 5 by choosing A, B, C or D.
Federal Express is a company that specializes in rapid overnight delivery of high-priority
packages. The first company of its type, Federal Express was founded by the youthful Fred
Smith in 1971, when he was only 28 years old. Smith had actually developed the idea for the
rapid delivery service in a term paper for an economics class when he was a student at Yale
University. The term paper reputedly received a less than stellar grade because of the
infeasibility of the project that Smith had outlined. The model that Smith proposed had never
been tried; it was a model that was efficient to operate but at the same time was very difficult to
institute.
Smith achieved efficiency in his model by designing a system that was separate from the
passenger system and could, therefore, focus on how to deliver packages most efficiently. His
strategy was to own his own planes so that he could create his own schedules and to ship all
packages through the hug city of Memphis, a set up which resembles the spokes on the wheel
of a bicycle. With this combination of his own planes and hub set up, he could get packages
anywhere in the United States overnight.
created before the company could begin operations. He needed a fleet of aircraft to collect
packages from airports every night and deliver them to Memphis, where they were immediately
sorted and flown out to their new destinations; he needed a fleet of trucks to deliver packages to
and from the various airport; he needed facilities and trained staff all in place to handle the
operation. Smith had a $4 million inheritance from his father, and he managed to raise an
additional $91 million dollars from venture capitalists to get the company operating.
When Federal Express began service in 1973 in 25 cities, the company was not an
immediate success, but success did come within a relatively short period of time. The company
lost $29 million in the first 26 months of operations. However, the tide was to turn relatively
quickly. By late 1976, Federal Express was carrying an average of 19,000 packages per night and
had made a profit of $36 million.
1. The word developed in paragraph 1 could be replaced by
A. come up with B. come about C. come across D. come into
A. That he should focus on passenger service.
B. That package delivery should be separate from passenger service.
D. That passenger service had to be efficient.
3. A hug city in paragraph 2 is
A. a large city with small cities as destinations.
B. a city that is the final destination for many routes.
C. a city where many bicycle routes begin.
D. a centralized city with destinations emanating from it.
4. It can be inferred from the passage that Smith selected Memphis as his hub city because it
A. was near the middle of the country.
B. had a large number of passenger aircraft
C. already had a large package delivery service.
D. was a favorite passenger airport.
A. The first paragraph B. The second paragraph
C. The third paragraph D. The last paragraph
III. Complete the following passage by filling one word for each blank.
If there is just one single thing more astonishing than the ability of the adult human being
to talk, it is the process by which someone learns to do this. Some parts of the process are still
(1)________ much a closed book, but it is for the (2)_________ part possible to describe what
the child is doing at various stages in its development, even if we cannot account (3)________
how exactly it learns to do these things.
In fact, research carried out by various linguists has (4)_________ rise to as many
theories as there are differences in the rate of development. A baby actually makes sounds from
the moment it is born, but for some time these are rather far removed (5)_________ articulate
speech. In something like a year, a baby will probably be at a stage where one or two syllables
represent the peak of its achievement as a speaker; one more year and it will be (6)_______ out
with short phrases, and after this it seems (7)________ time at all before the child is capable of
uttering complete sentences.
Despite being a truly remarkable feat of learning, this is one that is performed by the vast
(8)_________ of human beings. Complex operations are brought (9)________ play in these
dealing with speech and language; the key (10)_______ in brain work, though tongue work and
ear work play a part in the whole process.
PART D. WRITING
I. Rewrite each sentence so that it contains the word/phrase in capitals, and so that the
meaning stays the same.
ALLOWANCES
2. This is the procedure. FOLLOWS
LOST
4. Alison bought the big house because she wanted to open a hotel. VIEW
5. We decided to spend the afternoon exploring the shop LOOKING
II. With 250-300 words, write about the following topic:
Increasing the price of petrol is the best way to solve growing traffic and pollution problems.
To what extent do you agree or disagree? What other measures do you think might be
effective?
Give reasons for your answer with relevant examples from your knowledge and experience.
------------THE END-------------
Keys – practice 26
PART A: PRONUNCIATION
Choose the word whose stress pattern is different from the others in the following question
1. A. argument B. enquiry C. medicine D. justify
2. A. convenience B. mechanic C. preference D. official
3. A. recently B. attitude C. octopus D. proposal
4. A. economy B. advisory C. peninsula D. economics
5. A. arithmetic B. agriculture C. contributor D. assassinate
6. A. magnificent B. appliances C. potentially D. preservation
7. A. computer B. property C. horizon D. imagine
8. A. architect B. electric C. mineral D. luxury
9. A. photochemical B. trigonometry C. dramatically D. alphabetical
10. A. popularity B. conscientious C. apprenticeship D. personality
PART B. LEXICO - GRAMMAR (30 PT)
I. 10 points (1 point/item)
1. B
2. B
3. A
4. D
5. D
6. C
7. D
8. A
9. B
10. A
II. 10 points (1 point/item)
1. infancy
2. institutions
3. exclusively
4. insight
5. disappearing
6. commitment
7. inaccessible
8. loneliness
9. immersion
10. undeniable
III. 10 points (1 point/item)
1. out
2. away
3. to
4. on
5. up
6. down
7. on
8. across
9. down
10. with
PART C. READING (30 POINTS)
I. 10 points (1 point/item)
1. D
2. C
3. B
4. D
5. A
6. B
7. C
8. B
9. D
10. B
II. 10 points (2 point/item)
1. A
2. B
3. D
4. A
5. B
III. 10 points (1 point/item)
1. very/pretty
2. most
3. for
4. given
5.. from
6. coming
7. no
8. majority
9. into
10. lies
PART D. WRITING (2.5 PT)
I. 5 points (1 point/item)
a month.
2. The procedure is as follows.
3. I was lost for words.
4. Alison bought a big house with a view to opening a hotel.
5. We decided to spend the afternoon looking around the shop.
XI. 2.0 pt.
- The writing passage should be well-organized: introduction, body and ending of the passage:
0.25 pt
- The ideas should be clarified with relevant and specific examples: 1 pt
- The writing passage is supposed to be free of grammatical and spelling errors: 0.75 pt
---------------THE END-----------------
ENGLISH TEST NO. 27
I. VOCABULARY AND GRAMMAR
Part 1: Choose the word or phrase which best completes each sentence. (15 points)
A. controlling B. handling C. managing D. maintaining
A. guide B. raise C. train D. learn
3. In tod
A. says B. admits C. expresses D. proposes
A. taxes B. rates C. fines D. duty
A. scarce B. rare C. slight D. few
A. hire B. price C. fees D. sum
ass to make a trip abroad.
A. arrangement B. organisation C. expense D. business
A. bad B. unhealthy C. unsuitable D. disagreeable
A. visit B. go away C. go out D. walk out
A. capable B. competent C. able D. suited
11. I bought these shoes in the sale. They were a re
A. cheap B. economy C. bargain D. purchase
A. investment B. profit C. deposit D. interest
A. family B. brothers C. members D. relations
A. divorced B. proposed C. engaged D. separated
A. row B. discussion C. argue D. dispute
Part 2: Read the text and use the word given in capitals at the end of each line to form a
word that fits in the space in the same line. (10 points)
INTRODUCE
entirely (2) SUCCESS
much enthusiasm and does not always pay (3) ATTEND
are often (4) READFAIL
check her work thoroughly. She failed to do any (6) REVISE
test, and had poor results. She seems to have the (7) MISTAKE
succeed without studying. She has also had many (8) ABSENT
arrived late for class. This has resulted in several (9) PUNISH
(10) GIFT
Part 3: Identify the one underlined word or phrase that must be changed in order for the
sentence to be correct. Circle your answers. (5 points)
1. We sent a present for the children living next door.
(A) (B) (C) (D)
2. Penny took three exams and managed to succeed them all.
(A) (B) (C) (D)
3. Items of luggage whose weight exceed 50 kilograms will not be allowed on the ferry.
(A) (B) (C) (D)
4. The unemployment rate has increased considerably since last year. Another two millions are
jobless.
(A) (B) (C) (D)
5. The President often contradicts himself. He often says something which with
what he says earlier.
(A) (B) (C)
(D)
Part 4: The following sentences are badly constructed. Rewrite them in better style and
correct any grammatical errors. (5 points)
1. All students must pay their fees, except foreigners, to the university bursar.
...........................................................................................................................................................
2. Swimming is a sport to any healthy person I would recommend.
...........................................................................................................................................................
3. The president said that the new education programme was essential addressing a large
audience in the provincial capital yesterday.
...........................................................................................................................................................
4. Talks have begun to plan a railway linking the provincial capitals between the
representatives of the provincial assemblies.
...........................................................................................................................................................
5. The advertisement said that they wished to employ a secretary for an expanding company
with good shorthand and typing speeds at their head office.
...........................................................................................................................................................
II. READING
Part 1: Read the passage and choose the correct answer for the following questions:
All at once Hazel was coming in through the French windows, pulling off gardening gloves,
and Bill was entering through the door, both at once. So I only had time to take one quick look at
her before I turned to face him. All very confusing. What that first glimpse showed me was that
had good skin and youthful outlines. She was holding a bunch of roses must have been cutting
them in the garden while waiting for me. The gardening gloves lent a delightfully informal
touch. It was quite an entrance, though Bill spoilt it a bit by making his at the same time.
Bill seemed longer and thinner. His tightly massed hair had a tinge of grey. Apart from that,
twenty years had done nothing to him, except deepen the lines of thoughtfulness that had
already, when I knew him, begun to spread across his face. Or was that all? I looked at him
again, more carefully, as
somehow? More inward looking than ever? Gazing in not merely at his thoughts, but at
something else, something he was keeping hidden or perhaps protecting.
Then we were chattering and taking glasses in our hands, and I came back to earth. For the
first ten minutes we were all so defensive, so carefully probing, that nobody learnt anything. Bill
had forgotten me altogether, that much was clear. He was engaged in getting to know me from
scratch, very cautiously so as not to hit a wrong note, with the object of getting me to contribute
a big subscription to his African project. I kept trying to absorb details about Hazel, but Bill was
talking earnestly about African education, and the strain of appearing to concentrate while
actually thinking about his wife proved so great that I decided it would be easier just to
concentrate. So I did. I let him hammer away for about ten more minutes, and then the daughter,
who seemed to be acting as parlourmaid, showed in another visitor. Evidently we were to be four
at lunch.
1. What effect had time had on Hazel and Bill?
A. They had both lost weight. B. They were more withdrawn.
D. They had changed in subtle ways.
2. When they all started talking, the writer
A. relaxed at last. B. stopped dreaming.
C. spoke most to Hazel. D. began to remember things.
3. The writer found the first part of their conversation
A. sentimental. B. irritating. C. uninformative. D.
trivial.
4. Why did Bill speak seriously?
A. He wanted some money from the writer. B. He did not remember the
writer.
C. His wife was present. D. He was talking about the
past.
A. monotonous B. convincing C. thought-provoking D.
instructive
Part 2: Read the following passage and choose the most suitable word for each space.
According to a magazine article I read recently, we (1) ......... live in an age of increasing
leisure. Not only are more and more people reaching (2) ......... age with their taste for enjoyment
and even adventure relatively (3) ......... but the working week is becoming shorter and the
opportunities for (4) ......... are becoming greater and greater all the time. Not to mention the fact
that people (5) .........to spend less time travelling to work or may even be working from home.
What I can't understand, however, is who these people are. As far as I can (6) ......... the whole
thing is another one of (7) ......... journalistic fictions. I admit that there are a lot of retired people
(8) ......... but I am not sure that all of them are dashing about learning hang-gliding or sailing
single-handed (9) ......... the world. My own parents seem to (10) ......... most of their time gazing
at the television. And as for the shorter working week, I wish someone (11) .........remind my
company about it. I seem to be working longer and longer hours (12) ......... the time. The little
leisure time I have is eaten into by sitting in the traffic jams or waiting for trains to (13) ......... up
at rain-swept platforms. I haven't noticed any dramatic improvements in my (14) ......... either,
but perhaps I just have to wait until I get my (15) .........
1. A. presently B. at the moment C. now D. at this time
2. A. retirement B. their C. later D. third
3. A. present B. survived C. free D. intact
4. A. this B. longer C. leisure D. people
5. A. use B. tend C. have D. demand
6. A. concern B. imagine C. expect D. tell
7. A. the B. those C. these D. some
8. A. in our days B. in these times C. nowadays D. now and again
9. A. round B. over C. through D. into
10. A. have B. use C. the D. spend
11. A. would B. to C. had D. might
12. A. at B. for C. take D. all
13. A. keep B. line C. show D. set
14. A. cost of living B. lifestyle C. lifeline D. livelihood
15. A. pension B. retirement C. insurance D. salary
Part 3: Read the text and fill in each blank with ONE suitable word.
Our classes take place for three hours every morning from Monday to Friday. The
maximum class size is twelve (1) .................... the average is ten. We use modern methods of (2)
.................... and learning, and the school has a language laboratory, a video camera and
recorders. You will only be successful in improving (3) .................... English, however, if you
work hard and (4) .................. speaking English as much as you can. You will take a short (5)
................... in English as soon as you arrive. In this way, we can put you in a (6) .................... at
the most suitable level.
There are two classes at the Elementary level; one is for complete (7) ..................... and
the other is for students who know only a little English, in both classes you will practise simple
conversations. In the class (8) ..................... the intermediate level you will have a lot of practice
in communication in real-life situation because we help you to use the English you have
previously (9) ................... in your own country, You will also have the chance to improve your
(10) ................... of English grammar and to build up your vocabulary...
III. PRONUNCIATION
Part 1: Choose the word whose underlined part is pronounced differently from that of the
others. (05 points)
1. a. technical b. change c. much d. exchange
2. a. weapon b. increase c. threat d. spread
3. a. requirements b. subject c. secondary d. levels
4. a. prohibit b. exhibit c. habit d. hunting
5. a. elephants b. decades c. poachers d. actions
Part 2: Choose the word whose main stress pattern is not the same as that of the others.
1. a. continent b. however c. elephant d. tropical
2. a. represent b. intensive c. domestic d. employment
3. a. social b. proportion c. industry d. easily
4. a. habitat b. century c. difficult d. prohibit
5. a. generally b. secondary c. education d. specialize
III. WRITING
Part 1: Finish each of the following sentences in such a way that it is as similar as possible
in meaning to the sentence printed before it. 1. It's a long time since we spoke to
your sister.
We ............................................................................................................................. .
2. "Why don't you leave now. That's what I'd do."
If ............................................................................................................................... .
3. Jill was the only person who came late.
Everyone ................................................................................................................... .
4. This matter is so complicated that we don't know how to deal with it.
So
.....................................................................................................................................................
......................................... .
5. It's a pity you didn't ask us to spend the time with you.
If only
.....................................................................................................................................................
............................... .
Part 2: For each of the sentences below, write a new sentence as similar as possible in
meaning to the original sentence, but using the word given. This word must not be
altered in any way.
1. I'm afraid that we haven't got any eggs left. (run)
................................................................................................................... .
2. Let me tell you what I think you should do. (advice)
................................................................................................................... .
3. The numbers of cars on the roads must be reduced. (down)
................................................................................................................... .
4. Come on Thursday or Friday. It' s all the same to me. (difference)
................................................................................................................... .
5. Amanda has improved a lot this term. (progress)
................................................................................................................... .
Part 3:
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- THE END -
KEYS – PRACTICE 27
I/ GRAMMAR AND VOCABULARY
Part 1.
Q #
1
2
3
4
5
6
7
8
9
10
11
12
13
14
15
Key
D
C
A
D
B
C
B
A
C
A
C
D
D
C
A
Part 2
1. introduction 2. successful 3. attention
4. unreadable 5. failure 6. revision
7. mistaken 8. absences 9. punishments 10. gifted
Part 3:
Q #
1
2
3
4
5
Key
B
C
C
D
D
Part 4
1. All students, except foreigners, must pay their fees to the university bursar.
2. Swimming is a sport I would recommend to any healthy person.
3. Addressing a large audience in the provincial capital yesterday, the president said that the new
education programme was essential.
4. Talks have begun between the representatives of the provincial assemblies to plan a railway
linking the provincial capitals.
5. The advertisement said that an expanding company wished to employ a secretary with good
shorthand and typing speeds at their head office.
II/ READING
Part 1:
Q #
1
2
3
4
5
Key
D
B
C
A
A
Part 2. one point for each correct answer
Q #
1
2
3
4
5
6
7
8
9
10
11
12
13
14
15
Key
C
A
D
C
B
D
B
C
A
D
A
D
C
B
A
Part 3.
1. and 3. your 5. test 7. beginners 9. learnt
2. teaching 4. practise 6. class 8. at 10. knowledge
III/ PRONOUNCIATION
Part 1
Q #
1
2
3
4
5
Key
A
B
D
B
A
Part 2
Q #
1
2
3
4
5
Key
B
A
B
D
C
IV WRITING
Part 1:
1. We haven't spoken to your sister for a long time.
2. If I were you, I'd leave now.
3. Everyone was on time except for Jill.
4. So complicated is this matter that we don't know how to deal with it.
5. If only you had asked us to spend the time with you.
Part 2:
1. I'm afraid we have run out of eggs.
2. Let me give you some advice on what you should do.
3. We must cut down on the numbers of cars on the roads.
The numbers of cars must be cut down on the roads.
4. Come on Thursday or Friday. It makes no difference to me.
5. Amanda has made good/great progress/ made a lot of progress this term.
ENGLISH TEST 28
PART A: PHONETICS (5 pts)
Question I: Choose the word whose underlined part is pronounced differently from the rest in
the same line. (2 pts)
1. A. genuine B. guy C. generate D. geneticist
2. A. breath B. spread C. break D. headline
Question II: Find the word with the stress pattern different from that of the other three words
in each question. (3 pts)
3. A. briefcase B. journalism C. calculate D. apply
4. A. redundant B. terrorism C. unique D. officer
5. A. bigoted B. perpetrate C. relativism D. picturesquely
Part B : LEXICAL AND GRAMMAR ( 45 pts )
Question I: Choose the most suitable word or phrase to complete each sentence. (15 pts)
6. They came to inspect the house _________ buying it.
A. in the event of B. with reference to C. with a view to D. on account of
7. The boy who failed the exam has to take another one, ?
A. did he
8. It is _______ knowledge in the village that Mr. and Mrs. Thorne quarrel violently several time
a week.
A. common B. complete C. normal D. usual
9. _________ passenger pigeon, one of several species of extinct birds, was hunted to extinction
over _________ few decades.
A. The / Ø B. Ø / the C. The / a D. A / the
A. hope B. belief C. idea D. faith
11. Mrs. Brown always ______ in a crowd because she wore large hats.
A. found against B. looked up C. stood out D. showed up
12. Mary bought______ hat yesterday.
A. a red big plastic hat B. a big red plastic hat
C. a plastic big red hat D. a bit plastic red hat
13. ______ the two sisters, Mary is _______.
A. Of/ the prettier B. Between/ the prettiest
C. Of/ prettier D. Between/ the prettier
14. Helen
Ingrid
A. had green fingers B. let nature take its course
C. made it down on my luck D. drawn the short straw
15. My old riding boots served me well for eleven years before they finally ________.
A. wore off B. broke down C. wore out D. broke up
16. _______ of birds over a city usually predict cold weather.
A. Herds B. Packs C. Flocks D. Groups
17.
soon as possible.
A. in case B. if so C. providing D. supposing
short.
A. aspect B. element C. feature D. factor
19. - - ____________.
A. Take it or forget it B. Get it or forget it
C. Take it or leave it D. Leave it or take it
20. He has been unable to find a job _______ with his ability as an accountant.
A. appropriate B. suitable C. requisite D. commensurate
Question II: The following passage contains 10 mistakes. Find and correct them (10 pts)
Too many parents have a tough time get clear and accessible
information about the public schools at their communities. That is why
President Clinton had announced an initiative requiring all states to
produce annual reports cards that are easily understood by and widely
distributing to parents and the public, for each school, school district
and the state as a whole. The report cards will include information to
student achievement, teacher professionally qualifications, class size,
school safety and other factors that will help parents judging the
help ensure which parents in every state have access to the information
they need to determine the quality of their schools and identity areas in
which improvement is needed.
21
22
23
24
25
26
27
28
29
30
Question III: Put each verb in brackets into an appropriate form. (10 pts)
31. It is essential that the plan (inform) ________to everyone in advance.
32-33. I realized that someone (steal) ___ my wallet when I (feel) ____ their hand in my
jacket pocket.
34-35. At school I (dislike) _______ the Chemistry teacher because she (always pick)
_______ on me.
36. Fortunately, the hospital's new air-conditioning system (install) _________ when the first
heat wave of the summer arrived.
37. The cake (make) _______________ by my mom tastes really delicious.
38. She was breathing fast and deep, as if she (run) _______.
39. I can't find my book anywhere. I (leave) ______ it on the train. I am not sure.
40. No wonder he was sacked! He seems (fiddle) ________ the accounts for years.
Question IV: Put each word in brackets into an appropriate form. (10 pts)
41. Many people make their living on theater. In essence the theater is not only for
entertainment, it is a _____ .
42. They never dare to leave their only child ________ for even a moment.
TV is that
they are so__________ at that age.
45. His ________ of his opponent led to his biggest failure.
46. The curriculum is ________developed; therefore, students benefit a great deal.
47. The mother is usually the homemaker and the father is the _______.
48. There was a donation of $100,000 made by an anonymous _________.
49. Being the hardest natural substance, diamond is practically_________.
________ approach has brought criticism.
LIVE
ATTEND
INDIVIDUAL
IMPRESS
ESTIMATE
SYSTEM
BREAD
BENEFIT
DESTROY
COMPROMISE
PART C: READING COMPREHENSION (30 pts)
Question I: Read the following passage and then choose the most suitable word or phrase for
each space. (10 pts)
The money that some professional sportsmen earn
into (51)__ __the fact that only a few of them manage to attain immortality and everlasting fame.
And once they reach their (52) __and display their talent at their best, they are fully conscious
that their brilliant
and subsequently replaced by someone who is younger, faster and more accomplished. For that
reason, objectives like retirement benefits and pensions are (54)_______great concern to all
professional athletes.
Some of the retired competitors go as far as to organize strikes and rallies to voice their
protest against any policy unresponsive to their demand (55)_____the younger professionals
seek more upgrading solutions to the problem as more and more of them attach a proper
significance to (56)___a solid education, even at university level. Such an approach should help
them find interesting and well-paid jobs (57)____their sports career is over.
A completely new strategy has been devised by the schools priding themselves
(58)_____supporting their own teams. Their authorities insist that the sports clubs members
achieve high academic standards or else they are debarred from partaking in certain sports
events, which may lead to further disruption in their professional careers.
By these practical and most effective (59)___, combining education with sports activity,
the (60)___of the professional athlete as being brainless and unintelligent may eventually be
changing to the sportsmen
51. A. reflection B. attention C. examination D. consideration
52. A. prime B. shape C. best D. capacity
53. A. outcast B. outshone C. outstayed D. outgrown
54. A. with B. in C. at D. of
55. A. whereby B. whereas C. whereupon D. wherein
56. A. mastering B. learning C. receiving D. attending
57. A. right away B. promptly C. barely D. once
58. A. with B. on C. for D. in
59. A. grounds B. results C. factors D. means
60. A. vision B. outlook C. image D. judgment
Question II: Supply the most suitable word for each blank. (10 pts)
In the 21
st
century food will (61)______ more than just you feed you. A new range of
products appearing on shelves in shops and supermarkets (62) ______ designed to give you
specific health benefits. The demands of modern life make these foods very attractive. Not only
do they provide proven ways to improve health, but they are also very attractive (63) ______ a
quick and convenient way of making sure we enjoy a healthy diet.
In some countries it is already possible to buy crisps that make you feel (64) ______
depressed, chewing gum that increases your brain power and tea that helps you (65) ______ over
the tiredness associated (66) ______ long-distance air travel. In the future, experts promise
biscuits that will keep you healthy, and hot chocolate drink to give you strong bones.
exercise, they can help the body perform at (67) ______ best a lot of the time. At (68) ______,
these foods are more expensive than other foods, but that is due to the ingredients they (69)
______ of and the way they are made. All the foods contain probiotics (70) ______ increase the
Question III: Read the passage and choose the best answers to questions below. (10 pts)
The Digital Divide
Information technology is influencing the way many of us live and work today. We use the
Internet to look and apply for jobs, shop, conduct research, make airline reservations, and
explore areas of interest. We use e-mail and the Internet to communicate instantaneously with
friends and business associates around the world. Computers are commonplace in homes and the
workplace.
Although the number of Internet users is growing exponentially each year, most of the
world‟s population does not have access to computers or the Internet. Only 6 percent of the
population in developing countries are connected to telephones. Although more than 94 percent
of U.S. households have a telephone, only 42 percent have personal computers at home and 26
percent have Internet access. The lack of what most of us would consider a basic
communications necessity the telephone does not occur just in developing nations. On some
Native American reservations only 60 percent of the residents have a telephone. The move to
wireless connections may eliminate the need for telephone lines, but it does not remove the
barrier to equipment costs.
Who has Internet access? Fifty percent of the children in urban households with an income
over $75,000 have Internet access, compared with 2 percent of the children in low-income, rural
households. Nearly half of college-educated people have Internet access, compared to 6 percent
of those with only some high school education. Forty percent of households with two parents
have access; 15 percent of female, single-parent households do. Thirty percent of white
households, 11 percent of black households, and 13 percent of Hispanic households have access.
Teens and children are the two fastest-growing segments of Internet users. The digital divide
between the populations who have access to the Internet and information technology tools is
based on income, race, education, household type, and geographic location. Only 16 percent of
the rural poor, rural and central city minorities, young householders, and single parent female
households are connected.
Another problem that exacerbates these disparities is that African-Americans, Hispanics, and
Native Americans hold few of the jobs in information technology. Women hold about 20 percent
of these jobs and are receiving fewer than 30 percent of the computer science degrees. The result
is that women and members of the most oppressed ethnic groups are not eligible for the jobs with
the highest salaries at graduation. Baccalaureate candidates with degrees in computer science
were offered the highest salaries of all new college graduates in 1998 at $44,949.
Do similar disparities exist in schools? More than 90 percent of all schools in the country are
wired with at least one Internet connection. The number of classrooms with Internet connections
differs by the income level of students. Using the percentage of students who are eligible for free
lunches at a school to determine income level, we see that nearly twice as many of the schools
with more affluent students have wired classrooms as those with high concentrations of low-
income students.
Access to computers and the Internet will be important in reducing disparities between
groups. It will require greater equality across diverse groups whose members develop knowledge
and skills in computer and information technologies. If computers and the Internet are to be used
to promote equality, they will have to become accessible to populations that cannot currently
afford the equipment which needs to be updated every three years or so. However, access alone
is not enough. Students will have to be interacting with the technology in authentic settings. As
technology becomes a tool for learning in almost all courses taken by students, it will be seen as
a means to an end rather than an end in itself. If it is used in culturally relevant ways, all students
can benefit from its power.
71. Why does the author mention the telephone in paragraph 2?
A. To demonstrate that even technology like the telephone is not available to all
B. To argue that basic telephone service is a first step to using the Internet
C. To contrast the absence of telephone usage with that of Internet usage
D. To describe the development of communications from telephone to Internet
Although the
number ............. or the Internet
A. Most of the people in the world use the Internet now because the number of computers has
been increasing every year.
B. The number of people who use computers and the Internet is increasing every year, but
most people in the world still do not have connections.
C. The number of computers that can make the Internet available to most of the people in the
world is not increasing fast enough.
D. The Internet is available to most of the people in the world, even though they don't have
their own computer terminals.
eliminatest in meaning to
A. accept B. dispute C. define D. remove
74. Based on information in paragraph 3, which of the following best explains the term "digital
divide?"
A. The number of Internet users in developing nations
B. The disparity in the opportunity to use the Internet
C. Differences in socioeconomic levels among Internet users
D. Segments of the population with Internet access
75. Why does the author give details about the percentages of Internet users in paragraph 3?
A. To prove that there are differences in opportunities among social groups
B. To argue for more Internet connections at all levels of society
C. To suggest that improvements in Internet access are beginning to take place
D. To explain why many people have Internet connections now
76. According to paragraph 3, which of the following households would be least likely to have
access to the Internet?
A. A household with one parent B. A black household
C. A Hispanic household D. A household with both parents
those
A. classrooms B. students C. schools D.
concentrations
78. According to paragraph 4, why are fewer women and minorities employed in the field of
computer technology?
A. They are not admitted to the degree programs.
B. They do not possess the educational qualifications.
C. They do not have an interest in technology.
D. They prefer training for jobs with higher salaries.
concentrations
A. protections B. numbers C. confidence D. support
80. What can be inferred from paragraph 6 about Internet access?
A. Better computers need to be designed.
B. Schools should provide newer computers for students.
C. The cost of replacing equipment is a problem.
D. Technology will be more helpful in three years.
PART D: WRITING (20 pts)
Question I: Finish each of the following sentences in such a way that it is as similar as
possible in meaning to the sentence printed before it. (5 pts)
81. There were not nearly as many people there as I had expected.
There were far ______________________________________________________.
82. People say that the plane of Germanwings crashed into the mountains.
The plane of Germanwings ____________________________________________.
83. It's nobody's fault that the meeting was cancelled.
Nobody ___________________________________________________________.
84. The President is the statesman I admire most of all.
There is ___________________________________________________________.
85. It was his lack of confidence that surprised me.
What ______________________________________________________________.
Question II: Finish each of the following sentences in such a way that it is as similar as
possible in meaning to the sentence printed before it. Do not change the form of the given
word. (5 pts)
86. The manager should think about experience when hiring new staff.
CONSIDERATION
__________________________________________________________________.
87. He is determined to become a doctor. HEART
__________________________________________________________________.
88. I expect the book to be far better because it had been written by such a good novelist.
SHORT
__________________________________________________________________.
89. He never felt so emotional when he looked at a picture. TIME
__________________________________________________________________.
90.
RATHER
__________________________________________________________________.
Question III. Essay writing (10 pts):
Do you agree or disagree with the following statement: “Children should begin learning
a foreign language as soon as they start school.”?
Write an essay ( about 250 to 300 words) to express your personal point of view.
---------- THE END ---------
KEYS PRACTICE 28
A- ĐÁP ÁN:
PART A: PHONETICS (5 điểm – Mỗi câu đúng 1 điểm)
1.B
2.C
3.D
4.A
5.D
PART B: VOCABULARY & GRAMMAR (45 điểm)
( Mỗi câu đúng 1 điểm, riêng bài sửa lỗi, nếu tìm được lỗi mà sửa không đúng thì cho 0.5
điểm)
Question I.
6.C
7.D
8.A
9.C
10.D
11.C
12.B
13.A
14.A
15.C
16.C
17.B
18.C
19.C
20.D
Question II.
MISTAKES
CORRECTIONS
MISTAKES
CORRECTIONS
21.
get
getting
26.
to
on/about
22.
at
in
27.
professionally
professional
23.
had
has
28.
judging
judge
24.
reports
report
29.
which
that
25.
distributing
distributed
30.
identity
identify
Question III
31. (should) be
informed
32. was stealing
33. felt
34. disliked
35. was always
picking
36. had been
installed
37. made
38. had been
running
39. might have
left
40. to have been
fiddling
Question IV
41. livelihood.
42. unattended
43. individuality
44.
impressionable
45.underestimation
46.
systematically
47. breadwiner
48. benefactor
49. indestructible
50.uncompromising
PART C: READING COMPREHENSION (30 pts)
( Mỗi câu đúng 1 điểm)
Question I
51. D
52. A
53. B
54. D
55. B
56. C
57. D
58. B
59. D
60. C
Question II.
51. do
52. is
53. as
54. less
55. get
56. with
57. its
58. present
59. consist
70. which/that
Question III.
71.A
72.B
73.D
74.B
75.A
76.B
77.C
78.B
79.B
80.C
PART D: WRITING (20 pts)
Question I (5 điểm- Mỗi câu đúng 1 điểm)
81.
There were far fewer people than I had expected
82.
The plane of Germanwings is said to have crashed into the mountains.
83.
Nobody is to blame for the fact that the meeting was cancelled.
84.
There is no statesman (that/who/whom) I admire more than the President.
85.
What surprised me was his lack of confidence.
Question II (5 điểm- Mỗi câu đúng 1 điểm)
86.
The manager should take experience into consideration when hiring new staff.
87.
His heart is set on becoming a doctor/ He has set his heart on becoming a doctor.
88.
The book fell short of my expectation even though it had been written by such a good
novelist.
89.
At no time did he feel so emotional when he looked at a picture.
90.
Question III. Essay: (10 điểm)
Marking criteria:
+ Task completion (4 điểm)
-
+ Grammatical accuracy and spelling 3 điểm:
- Coherence and cohesion (tính mạch lạc và sự liên kết câu, đoạn) – 3 điểm:
-
B- HƯỚNG DẪN CHẤM:
Bài thi chấm theo thang điểm: 20
Điểm bài thi làm tròn đến 0,25
Tổng số point thí sinh làm đúng
Điểm bài thi = ---------------------------------------
5
ENGLISH PRACTICE 29
PART 1: PRONUNCIATION
Choose the word whose underlined part is pronounced differently from the other three in
each of the following questions
31. A. contributed B. eradicated C. developed D. needed
32. A. approached B. unwrapped C. obliged D. sacrificed
33. A. brush B. crush C. rush D. push
34. A. breathe B. threaten C. healthy D. earth
35. A. said B. play C. lemonade D. plate
36. A. bother B. breakthrough C. thoughtful D. geothermal
37. A. leaves B. practices C. wishes D. introduces
38. A. dough B. doubt C. county D. blouse
39. A. fracture B. signature C. culture D. mature
40. A. pride B. life C. combine D. machine
PART II. GRAMMAR AND VOCABULARY
I. Complete the following sentences by choosing the correct answer among four options (A,
B, C or D).
1. I'm addicted ______ these sweets. I loved them!
A. on B. at C. to D. for
2. You are being thoroughly _________in refusing to allow this ceremony to take place.
A. unrequited B. unrepresentative C. unreliable D. unreasonable
3. Nylon, a synthetic _______ from a combination of water, air, and a by-product of coal, was
first introduced in 1938.
A. to make B. make C. made D. making
4. He ______ book the tickets, but he had no time to call at the Cinema.
A. would B. might C. could D. was going to
5. It is necessary that an employee _________ his work on time.
A. finish B. finished C. finishing D. finishes
6. This dress is eye-catching, and many people________ me on it.
A. complain B. complement C. compliment D. complementary
7. Bill is jealous ________ your promotion.
A. with B. of C. at D. about
8. _______ are sought by an elementary school.
A. Mentally retarded teachers B. Teachers retarded for mental cases
C. Teachers for the mentally retarded D. Mental retarded case teachers
9. Since I came in half an hour late this morning, I have to stay until 5:30 to _______ for it.
A. make up B. save up C. keep up D. hold up
10. Earthquake can damage a tree ______violently, and it can take several years for the tree to
heal.
A. to cause to shake it B. when shaking it causes
C. to cause shaking it D. by causing it to shake
II. In the following text, some of the lines are correct, and some have a word which should
not be there. If a line is correct, put a tick (√). If a line has a word which should not be
there, write the word. There are two examples at the beginning.
We can tend to think of poverty as the main cause of violent
crime. However, research from both sides of the Atlantic shows that
fathers may be the most important factor in preventing to children from
turning over to crime. In the United States, children from better-off
family were compared with ones who from families with lower
incomes. Children from both groups that lived with their fathers also
committed the same number of crimes. In the United Kingdom, a study
was carried out of comparing a group of boys who had never been
accused of not any crimes such as assault and stealing vehicles. All the
boys had difficulties at the school and came from large families that
didn't earn a lot of money. The biggest difference between from the
groups was that fifty-five percent of the "good boys" lived with their
fathers, while only four per cent of the "bad boys" did it. Eighty per cent
of the well behaved boys said how they felt close to their fathers even
if they didn't live in the same house. It seems that by having a father
who takes an interest in his children encourages youngsters not to break
the law.
0____ can ____
00___√_______
1. ___________
2. ___________
3. ___________
4. ___________
5. ___________
6. ___________
7. ___________
8. ___________
9. ___________
10. __________
11. __________
12. __________
13. __________
14. __________
15. __________
III. Complete the following passage by supplying the correct form of the word to fill in each
blank.
There is a saying that first impressions are generally correct and I would say that
(1) _______ throughout my entire life, I have found this to be true apart from one
notable exception of a good friend and neighbor with whom my first (2) ______ was
decidedly unfriendly.
At the time of our first meeting I was living in a (3) __________ area of London,
not far from the exit of a dual carriageway and this meant that although it was a (4)
____________ street, even with the (5) _______ will in the world, drivers would often
travel dangerously fast within inches of my front door. This used to really annoy me
and I have to admit I did often go a bit (6) ________ in expressing my anger even
though (or perhaps because) I knew I didn't stand a (7) ________ chance of being
taken notice of or even noticed at all. So when one day, I shouted my usual string of
swear words at a rapidly passing car and it immediately screamed to a halt, my first
reaction was an enormous sense of (8) ______. But then the driver of the car opened
his window and shouted a stream of swear words back at me.
So the next morning, I was more than a little surprised to find an apology note
ALL
CHANGE
DEPRIVE
RESIDENCE
GOOD
BOARD
REASON
ACHIEVE
FAR
CONSULT
from the same motorist in my mail box explaining that in an attempt to (9) _______
his career as an up and coming IT (10) ______, he had been driving too fast the
previous evening and inviting me to have dinner with him and his wife.
PART III. READING
I. Read the passage carefully, then choose the correct option (marked A, B, C or D) to
answer the questions.
The food we eat seems to have profound effects on our health. Although science have
made enormous steps in making food more fit to eat, it has, at the same time, made any foods
unfit to eat. Some research has shown that perhaps 80 percent of all human illness are related to
diet and 40 percent of cancer is related to diet as well, especially cancer of colon. People of
different cultures are more prone to contact certain illnesses because of the characteristics food
they consume.
That food is related to illness is not a new discovery. In 1945, government researchers
showed that nitrates and nitrites (commonly used to preserve color in meats) as well as other
food additives caused cancer. Yet, these carcinogenic additives remain in our food, and it
becomes more difficult all the time to know which ingredients on the packaging labels of
processed food are helpful or harmful.
The additives we eat are not all so direct. Farmers often give penicillin to cattle and
poultry, and because of this, penicillin has been found in the milk of treated cows. Sometimes
similar drugs are administered to animals not for medical purposes, but for financial reasons. The
farmers are simply trying to fatten the animals in order to obtain a higher price on the market.
Although the Food and Drug Administration (FDA) has tried repeatedly to control these
procedures, the practices continue.
A healthy diet is directly related to good health. Often we are unaware of detrimental
substances we ingest. Sometimes, well meaning farmers or others who do not realize the
consequences add these substances to food without our knowledge.
1. How has science done a disservice to people?
A. Because of science, disease caused by contaminated food has been virtually
eradicated.
B. It has caused a lack of information concerning the value of food.
C. As a result of scientific intervention, some potentially harmful substances have been
added to our food.
D. The scientists have preserved the color of meats, but not of vegetables.
2. The word "prone" is nearest in meaning to ______.
A. supine B. unlikely C. healthy D. predisposed
3. What are nitrates used for?
A. They preserve flavor in packaged foods. B. They preserve the color of meats.
C. They are the objects of research. D. They caused to animals to become fatter.
4. The word "these" refers to_______.
A. meats B. colors C. researchers D. nitrates and nitrites
5. All of the following statements are true EXCEPT_______.
A. drugs are always given to animals for medical reasons.
B. some of the additives in our food are added to the food itself and some are given to the
living animals.
C. researchers have known about the potential hazards of food additives for more than 60
years.
D. food may cause 40 percent of cancer in the world
II. Read the passage and fill in the blank a suitable word.
PEER PRESSURE
One of the strongest influences on children today (1) ______ that of their peers. What their
classmates think, how they dress and how they act in class and out of it (2) ________ the
behavior of nearly every child at school. In their efforts not to be different, some children go so
far as to hide their intelligence and ability in case they are made ( 3)_________ of. Generally,
children do not want to stand (4) _______ from the crowd. They want to fit in, to be accepted. In
psychological terms, the importance of (5)_________ pressure cannot be over emphasized.
There is a lot of evidence that it has great bearing on all aspects of children's lives, (6) ________
the clothes they wear, the music they listen to and their attitude to study to their ambitions
in life, their relationships and their sense. (7) _________, as children grow up into
adolescents, individuality becomes more acceptable, desirable even, and in their search for their
(8) _______ personal style, the teenager and young adult will begin to experiment and be more
willing to run the (9) _______ of rejection by the group. Concern about intellectual prowess and
achieving good exam results can dominate as the atmosphere of competition develops and
worries (10) ______ the future override any fears of appearing too brainy.
III. Complete the following passage by choosing A, B, C or D to fill in each blank.
Last year Gladys Kalema became the Ugandan Wildlife Service's chief and only vet after
(1) _____ for the Royal Veterinary College in London. She was the first person to fill the post
for 30 years and at the age of 26, easily the youngest.
If Gladys did nothing else, caring for the world's (2) ______ population of 650 gorillas
would alone justify her wages. Since the 1970s, gorillas have (3) ______ severely from war and
poaching. Now for $150 each, tourists can be led through the forest and come within five meters
of gorilla no closer, for (4) ______ of transmitting diseases such as measles and flu.
The gorillas here make a small but viable population. (5) ______ in the national parts the
usual animals, elephants, rhinos, giraffes, are either not there or present in insignificant numbers
which are dangerously out of (6) ______ with the creatures around them. If Uganda stays calm,
wildlife may, in (7) _______, return by itself. But Gladys believes the country cannot wait.
Animals must be brought in to swell tourism and provide (8) ______to expand her work.
Despite her difficulties, Gladys feels more useful and fulfilled than she would be
anywhere else. "At this moment, my friends from vet school are reading the best way to (9)
______ a cat or dog, and here am I planning to translocate elephants. In my small (10) _______ I
am part of the reconstruction and rehabilitation of my country."
1. A. leaving B. qualifying C. graduating D. passing
2. A. living B. surviving C. continuing D. lasting
3. A. endured B. harmed C. died D. suffered
4. A. risk B. fear C. fright D. danger
5. A. Somewhere B. Anywhere C. Elsewhere D. Nowhere
6. A. balance B. relation C. comparison D. equality
7. A. terms B. years C. ages D. time
8. A. figures B. funds C. accounts D. savings
9. A. treat B. prescribe C. heal D. operate
10. A. means B. manner C. method D. way
PART IV. WRITING
I. Write the new sentences using the word give. Do not change the word given in any way.
1. She felt she had achieved a lot in life, despite her disadvantaged background (SENSE)
2. I think you should try to be optimistic as you can. (SIDE)
3. In the end, it was quite a good sunny day after all. (OUT)
4. I hate watching late night films on TV. (STAND)
5. The principal was the first person who arrived at the meeting. (ARRIVE)
II. Writing a topic.
Computers can translate all kinds of languages well, so our children needn‟t learn
more languages in the future.
What is your opinion about this idea? Within 200-250 words, use evidence and examples
to write a passage to clarify your idea.
Keys – practice 29
PART 1: PRONUNCIATION
Choose the word whose underlined part is pronounced differently from the other three in
each of the following questions
1. A. contributed B. eradicated C. developed D.
needed
2. A. approached B. unwrapped C. obliged D.
sacrificed
3. A. brush B. crush C. rush D. push
4. A. breathe B. threaten C. healthy D. earth
5. A. said B. play C. lemonade D. plate
6. A. bother B. breakthrough C. thoughtful D.
geothermal
7. A. leaves B. practices C. wishes D.
introduces
8. A. dough B. doubt C. county D.
blouse
9. A. fracture B. signature C. culture D.
mature
10. A. pride B. life C. combine D.
machine
PART II. GRAMMAR AND VOCABULARY
I. (10 pts: 1pt/item)
1. C
2. D
3. C
4. D
5. A
6. C
7. B
8. C
9. A
10. D
II. (15 pts: 1/item)
1. to
2. over
3. who
4. √
5. also
6. of
7. not
8. the
9. √
10. from
11. √
12. it
13. how
14. by
15. √
III. (10pts: 1pt/item)
1. overall
6. overboard
2. interchange/ exchange
7. reasonable
3. deprived
8. achievement
4. residential
9. further
5. best
10. consultant
PART III. READING
I. (5 pts: 1/item)
1. C
2. D
3. B
4. D
5. A
II. (10pts: 1pt/item)
1. is
2. affect
3. fun
4. out
5. peer
6. from
7. However
8. own
9. risk
10. about
III. (10 pts: 1pt/item)
1. C
2. B
3. D
4. B
5. C
6. A
7. D
8. C
9. A
10. D
PART IV. WRITING
I. (5pts: 1pt/item)
1. Despite her disadvantaged background, she felt a sense of achievement about her life
2. I think you should look on the bright side.
3. The day turned out to be quite sunny after all/ It turned out to be quite a good sunny day after
all.
4. I can't stand watching late night films on TV.
5. The principal was the first person to arrive at the meeting
II. 20 pts
- development and closing parts, using
right linking words: 5 pts
- The paper has less than 5 mistakes (both grammar and spelling mistakes): 5 pts
- The paper has interesting, creative content: 10 pts
ENGLISH PRACTICE 30
PART A: PRONUNCIATION
Choose the word whose underlined part is pronounced differently from the other three in
each of the following questions
1. A. imagine B. discipline C. determine D. Valentine
2. A. purses B. blouses C. amuses D. Pleases
3. A. lie B. goalie C. society D. pie
4. A. finished B. jagged C. packed D. punched
5. A. accurate B. tale C. shape D. date
6. A. situations B. obstacles C. secrets D. Sounds
7. A. chasm B. phrase C. suitcase D. chase
8. A. vineyard B. Finland C. business D. ignite
9. A. touched B. crooked C. missed D. watched
10. A. dedicate B. private C. eliminate D. educate
PART B. LEXICO-GRAMMAR
I. Complete each of the following sentences with the correct answer (A, B, C or D). Identify your
answer by writing the corresponding letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet.
waste any more time.
A. were due to B. were going to C. were to D. were about
to
2. It is not until December 25
th
_________the exam results will be announced.
A. which B. what C. that D. when
3. I saw a ___________ scarf in a shop near my house.
A. sweet little green silk B. little green silk sweet
C. sweet green little silk D. green little sweet silk
4. There has been a recommendation that Peter ______ the president of the country.
A. will be elected B. be elected C. is elected D. was elected
5. He kept his marriage for years, but eventually the truth ________.
A. came out B. went out C. came through D. fell out
6. It was in this house ______.
A. I was born in B. in which I was born C. where I was born D. that I was
born
7. ______of half- starving wolves were roaming the snow- covered countryside.
A. Herds B. Flocks C. Packs D. Swarms
8. When ______ to explain his mistake, the new employee cleared his throat nervously.
A. asking B. to be asked C. to be askingD. being asked
9. ______, he felt so unhappy and lonely.
A. In spite of his being wealth B. Rich as was he
C. Rich as he was D. Despite his wealthy
10. According to the _______of the contract, tenants must give six months notice if they intend
to leave.
A. laws B. rules C. terms D.
details
A. inheritance B. heritage C. possessions D. legacy
12. A part-time job gives me the freedom to_______ my own interests.
A pursue B. chase C. seek D. catch
13. When his alarm went off, he shut it off and slept for_______15 minutes.
A. other B. others C. another D. the others
the music now.
A. Many a time B. Many the time C. Quite a time D. For a time
15. _______ in this national park declined from a few thousand to a few hundred in ten years.
A. For a number of tigers B. The number of tigers
C. A number of tigers D. That the number of tigers
16. _______ every industry in our modern world requires the work of engineers.
A. Wholly B. Hardly C. Most D. Virtually
17. Jane had a problem with her finances, so we talked _______ and now it's fine.
A. over B. it over C. over it D. over and over
18. When the electricity failed, he _______a match to find the candles.
A. rubbed B. scratched C. struck D. started
A. on the house B. off the peg C. in public D. on the shelf
20. She tried to _______.
A. talk out of me the plan B. talk me the plan out of
C. talk me out of the plan D. talk out me of the plan.
II. In most lines of this text there is one unnecessary word. It is either incorrect
grammatically, or does not fit the sense of the text. Write the unnecessary word in the space
beside the text. Tick (√) each correct line. There are two examples at the beginning.
Transfer your answers to your answer sheet.
potential. Lyndsey Mclntyre, a former model herself, recently opened one agenc
easy, as well Mclntyre discovered when she visited the Orma tribe of remote north- eastern
lntyre discovered this when one of
Western advertisers prefer far slimmer women. The Orma are not alone in believing fat it is
beautiful. In a recent Africa-wide beauty contest, all the Uganda contestants were
00
1
2
3
4
the girls to succeed and to see African models working internationally, we give the industry
5
6
7
8
9
III. Supply the correct form of the word in capital letter. Write your answers on your
answer sheet.
UK companies have received criticism from a business forum for what their report refers
to as a rather narrow-minded attitude towards the dress code for office workers. This follows a
case in which a male (1. EMPLOY) __________working in the post room of a large (2.
ORGANISE) __________in the United Kingdom received a (3. SUSPEND) __________ for
wearing jeans to work. Whilst the report accepts that there is a need for people dealing with (4.
CUSTOM) __________to look well dressed, it questions whether employees who work
behind the scenes necessarily need to dress formally. The authors of the report made a (5.
COMPARE) ___________ between the UK and other European nations where employers
seem (6. CONCERN)___________about the need for their workers to wear smart clothes in the
office. Their (7. ARGUE) ___________is based on research that claims workers are far more (8.
PRODUCT) _________ when they have the (9. FREE) _________to dress in a way that they
feel most (10. COMFORT) _______in.
IV. Complete the following sentences with one preposition/particle for each blank. Write
your answers on your answer sheet.
1. Kate fell _______ with her boyfriend and they stopped seeing each other.
4. Deborah is going to take extra lessons to catch up______ what she missed why she was away.
_______.
PART C. READING
I. Read the following passage and choose the options among A, B, C or D that best
complete the blanks. Write your answers on your answer sheet.
Stressful situations that (1)________ almost everyday in life seem to be unavoidable.
However, we can do little sometimes to avoid a misfortune or an unpleasant occurrence which
may (2)________ us unexpectedly as only it can. At such a moment, one may hit the
(3)_______, give in to the helplessness of the situation or, ideally, put a brave face on it trying to
(4)_________ the burden.
Can you (5)_________ in your mind an hour spent in a traffic jam, say, this morning? Do
you light one cigarette after another? Do you sound the horn every few seconds like the other
neurotics? Or do you take a different (6)________ and make good use of the time drawing up a
schedule for the days to come? To withstand the stressful moment you can also do a crossword
puzzle, listen to your favorite music or even compose a menu for your Sunday dinner.
In fact, whatever way you (7)________ to the annoying situation, you can exert no
impact on it as the traffic jam will only reduce in due (8)_________. Nevertheless, your reaction
might considerably influence your mood for the rest of the day. The inability to confront a
stressful occurrence like that with a deal of composure and sensibility adds much more strain to
your life and in this way puts your well being in (9)_________. Surprisingly, it is seemingly
negligible hardships we stumble on daily that run double the risk of developing serious health
disorders rather than our isolated tragedies however painful they may be. (10)_______that so
many of those wretched stresses and inducing troubles affect us in a day, we should, at best, try
to avoid them or possibly make radical alterations in the way we lead our daily lifestyles.
1. A. devise B. create C. originate D. emerge
2. A. arise B. happen C. befall D. occur
3. A. post B. roof C. bottom D. wall
4. A. subsist B. remain C. cow D. bear
5. A. envision B. observe C. picture D. image
6. A. manner B. stance C. practice D. mode
7. A. strike B. deal C. respond D. challenge
8. A. term B. course C. timing D. period
9. A. risk B. weakness C. insecurity D. jeopardy
10. A. Providing B. Given C. Hence D. As much
II. Read the text below and think of the word which best fits each space. Use only ONE
word in each space. Write your answers on your answer sheet.
Students frequently complain (1)___________ studying for hours on (2)________ and
then not doing well in their final exams. Many factors can (3) _________ in poor performances:
(4) _________illness or a personal problem. Getting high grades can also put a terrible strain on
_________exam? Certainly not! If we want
to be fair, students ought to be (7) _________on a regular basic. So does that mean more exams?
Yes, but (8) _________many written ones. In many countries, student do not have to take written
exams (9) _________ the
seems to be fairer way of assessing understanding, not just testing it.
III. Read the passage then choose the best answer to each question that follows. Identify your
answer by writing the corresponding letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet.
Quite different from storm surges are the giant sea waves called tsunamis, which derive
referred to by the general public as tidal waves, although they have relatively little to do with
tides. Scientists often referred to them as seismic sea waves, far more appropriate in that they do
result from undersea seismic activity.
Tsunamis are caused when the sea bottom suddenly moves, during an underwater
earthquake or volcano for example, and the water above the moving earth is suddenly displaced.
This sudden shift of water sets off a series of waves. These waves can travel great distances at
speeds close to 700 kilometers per hour. In the open ocean, tsunamis have little noticeable
amplitude, often no more than one or two meters. It is when they hit the shallow waters near the
coast that they increase in height, possibly up to 40 meters.
Tsunamis often occur in the Pacific because the Pacific is an area of heavy seismic
activity.Two areas of the Pacific well accustomed to the threat of tsunamis are Japan and Hawaii.
Because the seismic activity that causes tsunamis in Japan often occurs on the ocean bottom
quite close to the islands, the tsunamis that hit Japan often come with little warning and can,
therefore, prove disastrous. Most of the tsunamis that hit the Hawaiian Islands, however,
originate thousands of miles away near the coast of Alaska, so these tsunamis have a much
greater distance to travel and the inhabitants of Hawaii generally have time for warning of their
imminent arrival.
Tsunamis are certainly not limited to Japan and Hawaii. In 1755, Europe experienced a
calamitous tsunami, when movement along the fault lines near the Azores caused a massive
tsunami to sweep onto the Portuguese coast and flood the heavily populated area around Lisbon.
The greatest tsunami on record occurred on the other side of the world in 1883 when the
Krakatoa volcano underwent a massive explosion, sending waves more than 30 meters high onto
nearby Indonesian islands; the tsunami from this volcano actually traveled around the world and
was witnessed as far away as the English Channel.
1. The paragraph preceding this passage most probably discusses _______.
A. underwater earthquakes B. storm surges C. tides D. tidal waves
2. According to the passage, all of the following are true about tidal waves EXCEPT that
_______.
A. they are caused by sudden changes in high and low tides
B. this terminology is not used by the scientific community
C. they are the same as tsunamis
D. they refer to the same phenomenon as seismic sea waves
3. The word “displaced” is closest in meaning to _______.
A. moved B. filtered C. located D. not pleased
4. It can be inferred from the passage that tsunamis _______.
A. cause severe damage in the middle of the ocean
B. generally reach heights greater than 40 meters
C. are far more dangerous on the coast than in the open ocean
Dare often identified by ships on the ocean
shallow” is NOT _____________.
A. deep B. clear C. coastal D. tidal
6. A main difference between tsunamis in Japan and in Hawaii is that tsunamis in Japan are more
likely to ___________.
A. come from greater distances B. originate in Alaska
C. arrive without warning D. be less of a problem
7. The possessive “their” refers to ____________.
A. the Hawaiian Islands B. thousands of miles
C. these tsunamis D. the inhabitants of Hawaii
calamitous” tsunami is one that is _____________.
A. at fault B. disastrous C. extremely calm D. expected
9. From the expression “on record”, it can be inferred that the tsunami that accompanied the
Krakatoa volcano ____________.
A. was not as strong as the tsunami in Lisbon B. might not be the greatest tsunami ever
C. was filmed as it was happening D. occurred before efficient records were
kept
10. The passage suggests that the tsunami resulting from the Krakatoa volcano ___________.
A. was far more destructive close to the source than far away
B. resulted in little damage
C. was unobserved outside of the Indonesian islands
D. caused volcanic explosions in the English Channel
PART D. WRITING
I. Rewrite the following sentences without changing their meaning, using the words given.
These words must not be changed in any way. Write your answers on your answer sheet.
1. The reduction in the price of the magazines led to a growth in sales. (RESULT)
Sales of the magazines __________________________________________.
HEARD)
I ___________________________________________________________.
3. Dinner will be served immediately upon our arrival at the hotel. (SOON)
Dinner will be served ___________________________________________.
(UNABLE)
Besides ______________________________________________________.
5. It was careless of you to leave without locking the door. (OUGHT)
You _________________________________________________________.
II. Write an essay to express your opinion on the following statement. Use specific reasons
and details to support your idea.
“Face-to-face communication is better than other types of communication, such as letters,
email, or telephone calls”.
Keys – practice 30
PART A: PRONUNCIATION
Choose the word whose underlined part is pronounced differently from the other three in
each of the following questions
1. A. imagine B. discipline C. determine D.
Valentine
2. A. purses B. blouses C. amuses D.
Pleases
3. A. lie B. goalie C. society D. pie
4. A. finished B. jagged C. packed D.
punched
5. A. accurate B. tale C. shape D. date
6. A. situations B. obstacles C. secrets D.
Sounds
7. A. chasm B. phrase C. suitcase D. chase
8. A. vineyard B. Finland C. business D. ignite
9. A. touched B. crooked C. missed D.
watched
10. A. dedicate B. private C. eliminate D.
educate
PART B.LEXICO-GRAMMAR
I. Complete each of the following sentences with the correct answer (A, B, C or D). (10pts)
1. B
2. C
3. A
4. B
5. A
6. D
7. C
8. D
9. C
10. C
11. B
12. A
13. C
14. A
15. B
16. D
17. B
18. C
19. B
20. C
II. In most lines of this text there is one unnecessary word. It is either incorrect
grammatically, or does not fit the sense of the text. Write the unnecessary word in the space
beside the text. Tick (√) each correct line. (5pts)
1. being
2. to
3. well
4.
5.
6. be
7. the
8. of
9.
10. it
III. Supply the correct form of the word in capital letter. (10pts)
1.employee
2. organization/ organisation
3. suspension
4. customers
5. comparison
6. unconcerned
7. argument
8. productive
9. freedom
10. comfortable
IV. Complete the following sentences with one preposition/particle for each blank. (5pts)
1. out
2. to
3. down
4. on
5. across
PART C. READING
I. Read the following passage and choose the options among A, B, C or D that best
complete the blanks. (10pts)
1. D
2. C
3. B
4. D
5. A
6. B
7. C
8. B
9. D
10. B
II. Read the text below and think of the word which best fits each space. Use only ONE
word in each space. (10pts)
1. about
2. end
3. result
4. an
5. who/that
6. single
7. tested
8. not
9. if
10. allowed
III. Read the passage then choose the best answer to each question that follows. Identify your
answer by writing the corresponding letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet. (10pts)
1. B
2. A
3. A
4. C
5. A
6. C
7. C
8. B
9. B
10. A
PART D.WRITING
I. Rewrite the following sentences without changing their meaning, using the words given.
These words must not be changed in any way. (5pts)
1. Sales of the magazines grew/increased/went up as a result of the reduction in the price.
2. I haven’t heard /have heard nothing from Georgia for/in a while.
3. Dinner will be served as soon as we arrive at the hotel.
5. You ought not to have left without locking the door.
II. Write an essay to express your opinion on the following statement. Use specific reasons
and details to support your idea. (15pts)
“Face-to-face communication is better than other types of communication, such as letters,
email, or telephone calls”.
Marking scheme
The impression mark given is based on the following scheme:
1. Content: 50% of total mark: a provision of all main ideas and details as appropriate
2. Language: 30% of total mark: a variety of vocabulary and structures appropriate to the
level of English language gifted upper-secondary school students
3. Presentation: 20% of total mark: coherence, cohesion, and style appropriate to the level
of English language gifted upper-secondary school students.
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ENGLISH PRACTICE 31
PART A: PRONUNCIATION
Choose the word whose underlined part is pronounced differently from the other three in
each of the following questions
1. A. impaired B. performed C. produced D. designed
2. A. healthy B. whom C. honest D. heal
3. A. amuses B. repeats C. attacks D. coughs
4. A. stomach B. change C. watch D. Church
5. A. relax B. campus C. fashion D. locate
6. A. worthy B. together C. ethnic D. though
7. A. throw B. brow C. slow D. crow
8. A. pizza B. paparazzi C. seizure D. blitz
9. A. comb B. come C. something D. done
10. A. washed B. called C. talked D. passed
Choose the word whose stress is different from the other thres in each of the following
questions
11. A. psychology B. generative C. insurrance D. inheritance
12. A. extinguish B. fortunate C. technical D. resident
13. A. interference B. influential C. perception D. academic
14. A. adventure B. dimension C. commercial D. hygiene
15. A. preferential B. calculation C. conventional D.
apprehension
16. A. responsibility B. originality C. accommodation D.
mischievousness
17. A. appliance B. conscientious C.
independent D. confidential
18. A. psychology B. environmental C. impossible D.
photography
19. A. stimulate B. maximize C. interrupt D. register
20. A. appointment B. punishment C. publicity D. efficient
C. GRAMMAR – VOCABULARY – LANGUAGE FUNCTIONS:
I. Choose the word, phrase or expression which best completes each sentence: (15 points)
21. Tom: Laura:
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B. You must be kidding. It was not as good as I had expected.
C. I completely agree with you. It was terrific.
D. No doubt!
22. Boy: Girl:
A. I'm afraid not. B. Worms, definitely!
C. Probably people who smoke. D. I haven't made up my mind.
23. Jenny:
Mr. Robinson:
A. You can say that again. B. I see.
C. You are right. D. Delighted I was able to help.
A. as dry as rice B. as dry as a tile C. as dry as a bone D. as dry as
wood
A. left out B. turned out C. omitted out D. gone out
26. ity
is
A. well established extremely by the age of five
B. by the age of five it is extremely well established
C. by the age of five and well established extremely
D. extremely well established by the age of five
at some time in their lives.
A. Ø / Ø B. the / Ø C. Ø / the D. the / a
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you did.
A. would give / to repair B. gave / to repair
C. had given / to be repaired D. had given / repaired
questions.
A. him asking B. him to ask C. asking him D. his being asked
horse-drawn.
A. With reference B. Akin C. Prior to D. In
addition to
doubts.
A. had Carol agreed / than she began B. Carol has agreed / than she began
C. had Carol agreed / than she begins D. had Carol agreed / than she had begun
A. the problem was discussed by the members of the committee.
B. the committee members discussed the problem.C. it was discussed by the committee
members the problem.
D. a discussion of the problem was made by the members of the committee.
33.
pavement.
A. has been running / collapses B. were running / collapsed
C. had been running / collapsed D. ran / had been collapsing
34. Son:
Father:
A. industrialization B. pasteurization C. commercialization D. globalization
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A. portraying a child B. who portray a child C. he portrays a child D. portrayed a child
II. Give the correct form of the words in brackets: (10 points)
36. Deforestation and excessive farming have
37. The damage caused
the government. The real figures go up every minute.
38. Barack Obama is the first President of the United States with
background.
nyon.
40. The policeman examined the parcel
could be.
43. Before enrolling on a course, you should first ensure that it has been
44. Mr. John, who teaches us Latin, usually stresses the need for regular
(POOR)
(ESTIMATE)
(RACE)
(BREATH)
(SUSPECT)
(OBSERVE)
(FURIOUS)
(VALID)
(ATTEND)
(PRONOUNCE)
III. Choose the underlined word or phrase in each sentence that needs correcting (5
points):
46. Dictionaries frequently explain the origin of the defined word, state its part of speech and indication
its correct use. A B C
D
47. The rings of Saturn are so distant to be seen from the Earth without a telescope.
A B C D
48. Children subjected to violence, exploitation, abuse and neglect are in risk of death, poor
physical
A B
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and mental health, HIV/AIDS infection, and educational problems.
C D
49. It is important that cancer is diagnosed and treated as early as possible in order to assure a
successful cure. A B
C
D
50. Aten-thousand-dollars reward was offered for the capture of the escaped prisoner.
A B C D
D. READING:
I. Read the following passage and decide which option A, B, C or D best fits each space: (10
points)
Everyone has got two personalities - the one that is shown to the world and the other that is
because you can control yourself. But when you are asleep, your feeling position
position. The important position is the one you go to sleep in.
If you go to sleep on your back, you are
If you sleep on your stomach, you are a rather secret
and you always easily become sad. You usually live for today not tomorrow. This means that
opinion of you
your own. You are easily hurt.
51.
A.
important
B.
serious
C
.
secret
D.
particular
52.
A.
awake
B.
active
C
.
happy
D.
honest
53.
A.
makes
B.
understand
C
.
changes
D.
shows
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54.
A.
room
B.
bed
C
.
night
D.
body
55.
A.
independent
B.
open
C
.
talkative
D.
generous
56.
A.
real
B.
lonely
C
.
cheerful
D.
gentle
57.
A.
talk
B.
sleep
C
.
relax
D.
worry
58.
A.
regret
B.
enjoy
C
.
mind
D.
deny
59.
A.
strong
B.
healthy
C
.
nervous
D.
careful
60.
A.
pretend
B.
oppose
C
.
refuse
D.
prefer
II.There are 5 blanks in the passage below. From the words given in the box, choose the
most suitable for each blank. There are THREE extra words that you do not need to use: (5
points)
A. legal
B. community
C. responsibility
D. give back
E. serve
F. long-term
G. organizations
H. rare
society, break down barriers of misunderstanding or fear, explore personal issues and even have
fun. It also has a meaningful, positive impact on your ( u
know that it can have many benefits for you, too? You may have heard that volunteering helps
you get into college, but keep in mind they are not just looking for a list of
examples of your commitment, dedication and interests.
Volunteering brings together a variety of people. Both the recipients of your volunteer
efforts and your co-
center. Colleges pay attention to your life inside and outside the classroom. Your extracurricular
activities reveal a great deal about you, such as what your interests are, whether you can manage
important contribution to something.
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III. Read the passage and choose the correct answer: (10 points)
For many people who live in cities, parks are an important part of the landscape. They
provide a place for people to relax and play sports, as well as a refuge from the often harsh
environment of a city. What people often overlook is that parks also provide considerable
environmental benefits.
One benefit of parks is that plants absorb carbon dioxidea key pollutantand emit
oxygen, which humans need to breathe. According to one study, an acre of trees can absorb the
same amount of carbon dioxide that a typical car emits in 11,000 miles of driving. Parks also
make cities cooler. Scientists have long noted what is called the Urban Heat Island Effect:
release it much more quickly than organic surfaces like trees and grass. Because city landscapes
contain so much of these building materials, cities are usually warmer than surrounding rural
areas. Parks and other green spaces help to mitigate the Urban Heat Island Effect.
Unfortunately, many cities cannot easily create more parks because most land is already
being used for buildings, roads, parking lots, and other essential parts of the urban environment.
However, cities could benefit from many of the positive effects of parks by encouraging citizens
to create another type of green space: rooftop gardens. While most people would not think of
starting a garden on their roof, human beings have been planting gardens on rooftops for
thousands of years. Some rooftop gardens are very complex and require complicated
engineering, but others are simple container gardens that anyone can create with the investment
of a few hundred dollars and a few hours of work.
Rooftop gardens provide many of the same benefits as other urban park and garden spaces,
but without taking up the much-needed land. Like parks, rooftop gardens help to replace carbon
dioxide in the air with nourishing oxygen. They also help to lessen the Urban Heat Island Effect,
which can save people money. In the summer, rooftop gardens prevent buildings from absorbing
heat from the sun, which can significantly reduce cooling bills. In the winter, gardens help hold
in the heat that materials like brick and concrete radiate so quickly, leading to savings on heating
bills. Rooftop vegetable and herb gardens can also provide fresh food for city dwellers, saving
them money and making their diets healthier. Rooftop gardens are not only something everyone
can enjoy, they are also a smart environmental investment.
66.Based on its use in paragraph 2, it can be inferred that mitigatebelongs to which of the following
word groups?
A. exacerbate, aggravate, intensify B. obliterate, destroy, annihilate
C. allay, alleviate, reduce D. absorb, intake, consume
67. Using the information in paragraph 2 as a guide, it can be inferred that ..................................
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A. cities with rooftop gardens are cooler than those without rooftop gardens
B. some plants are not suitable for growth in rooftop gardens
C. most people prefer parks to rooftop gardens
D. most people prefer life in the country over life in the city
68. According to the passage, the Urban Heat Island Effect is caused by the fact(s) that
.........................
a. cities are warmer than nearby rural areas
b.
c.
A. a. only B. a. and b. only C. b. and c. only D. a., b., and c.
69.Based on the information in paragraph 3, which of the following best describes the main
difference between parks and rooftop gardens?
A. Parks are expensive to create while rooftop gardens are not.
B. Parks are public while rooftop gardens are private.
C. Parks absorb heat while rooftop gardens do not.
D. Parks require much space while rooftop gardens do not.
70. The author claims all of the following to be the benefits of rooftop gardens except
..................................
A. increased space for private relaxation
B. savings on heating and cooling costs
C. better food for city dwellers
D. improved air quality
71. According to the author, one advantage that rooftop gardens have over parks is that they
..................................
A. decrease the Urban Heat Island Effect
B. replenish the air with nourishing oxygen
C. do not require the use of valuable urban land
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D. are less expensive than traditional park spaces
A. descriptive B. passionate C. informative D. argumentative
73.Which of the following pieces of information would, if true, most weaken the author's claim
that rooftop gardens are good for the environment?
A. Parks have many benefits that rooftop gardens do not share.
B. More pollution is produced during rooftop garden construction than rooftop plants can
remove from the air.
C. Extremely high winds atop tall city buildings can severely damage some plants.
D. The overall environmental benefits that result from driving less exceed those of planting a
rooftop garden.
74.Which of the following best describes the organization of the passage?
A. A hypothesis is stated and then analyzed.
B. A proposal is evaluated and alternatives are explored.
C. A viewpoint is established and then defended.
D. A thesis is presented and then supported.
75.It can be inferred from the passage that the author would most likely endorse a program that
..................................
A. permitted the construction of buildings in city park land provided they have rooftop
gardens
B. extended discounts on plants to customers who use them to create rooftop gardens
C. offered free admission to schools willing to take their students on field trips to the city
park
D. promised vacation getaways to cooler destinations for those trapped in the city at the
peak of summer
E. WRITING:
I.Finish each of the following sentences in such a way that it means exactly the same as the
sentence printed before it: (5 points)
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76. Its lack of irregular verbs makes Esperanto a unique language.
77. Mr. Smith knew little about the Inter
....................
.............
78. The Board of Directors discussed the business in length, but came to no decision.
The Board of Directors had
.....................................................................................................................
79. When she got to the party, everyone was dancing and singing.
On...................................................................................................................................................
............
80. Barbara runs a successful company and she also manages to look after her five children.
Not
only....................................................................................................................................................
81. It is my opinion that you should spend more time practicing English.
If.....................................................................................................................................................
.............
82. Everyone was surprised that the famous actor had very little money when he died.
The famous
actor......................................................................................................................................
83. Success in the academic field depends on your ability to amass qualifications.
The
more...................................................................................................................................................
The woman
threatened............................................................................................................................
85. What mainly distinguishes man from other animals is the power of speech.
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......................................................................
.............
II. After having attended a course on computing at ABC Information Technology Center
for two weeks, you notice that many things are worse than what were advertised by the
Center. Write a letter of complaint of about 150 words to the Director of the Center: (10
points)
Your letter should include:
- the reason for writing
- the problems you have encountered
- your suggestions and the actions you wish to be taken to resolve the problems
362
III. Violence among school students seems to be increasing. Write a passage of about 150 –
170 words to suggest what should be done to help solve this problem: (10 points)
363
364
Keys – practice 31
PART A: PRONUNCIATION
Choose the word whose underlined part is pronounced differently from the other three in
each of the following questions
1. A. impaired B. performed C. produced D.
designed
2. A. healthy B. whom C. honest D. heal
3. A. amuses B. repeats C. attacks D.
coughs
4. A. stomach B. change C. watch D.
Church
5. A. relax B. campus C. fashion D. locate
6. A. worthy B. together C. ethnic D.
though
7. A. throw B. brow C. slow D. crow
8. A. pizza B. paparazzi C. seizure D. blitz
9. A. comb B. come C. something D. done
10. A. washed B. called C. talked D.
passed
Choose the word whose stress is different from the other thres in each of the following
questions
11. A. psychology B. generative C. insurrance D.
inheritance
12. A. extinguish B. fortunate C. technical D.
resident
13. A. interference B. influential C. perception D.
academic
14. A. adventure B. dimension C. commercial D.
hygiene
15. A. preferential B. calculation C. conventional D.
apprehension
16. D 17. A 18. B 19.C 20. B
C. GRAMMAR – VOCABULARY.
I. 10 points (1.0 point for each correct answer)
21. B 22. B 23. D 24. C 25. A
26. D 27. C 28. D 29. A 30. C
31. A 32. B 33.C 34.B 35. A
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II. 10 points (1.0 point for each correct word)
36. impoverished 37. underestimated 38. multiracial 39. breathtaking
40. suspiciously
41. observant 42. fury 43. validated 44. attendance
45. pronouncement
III. 5 points (1.0 point for each correct answer)
46. D 47. B 48.C 49.A 50. B
D. READING
I. 10 points (1.0 point for each correct answer)
51. C 52. A 53.D 54.C 55. B
56. A 57. D 58.B 59.C 60. D
II.5 points (1.0 point for each correct answer)
61. D 62. B 63.G 64.A 65. F
III. 10 points (1.0 points for each correct answer)
66. C 67. A 68.C 69.D 70. A
71. C 72. C 73.B 74.C 75. B
E. WRITING
I.5 points ( 0.5 point for each correct answer)
76. Unlike other languages, Esperanto has no irregular verbs.
77. Had Mr. Smith known something / more / a little more / some more about the Internet, he
would have invested into some computer companies.
78. The Board of Directors had a long discussion on / about the business, but come to / reached /
made no decision.
79. On her arrival at the party, everyone was dancing and singing.
80. Not only does Barbara run a successful company, but she also manages to look after her five
children.
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, but she manages to look after her five
children (as well)
, she also manages to look after her five
children.
81. If I were you I would spend more time practicing English.
82. The famous actor had very little money when he died, which surprised everyone.
, which made everyone surprised
83. The more qualifications you are able to / can amass, the more successful you become / are in
the academic field.
, the more success you can / will make / have in the academic field.
84. The woman threatened to shoot the strange man if he did not get out of her house.
85. Man is mainly distinguished from other animals by the power of speech.
II.10 points
Bài vit cn phù hp v hình thc, ngôn ng và ni dung.
Gợi ý cho điểm:
1. Form: - Form of the letter: Formal letter (1 point)
2. Content: (4 points)
- the reasons for writing (1 point)
- the problems the writer has encountered (2 points)
- suggestions for solutions (1 point)
3. Language: (4p)
- Appropriate vocabulary (1 point)
- Correct grammar (2 points)
- Punctuating/ Spelling (1 point)
III. 10 points
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Bài vit cn phù hp v hình thc, ngôn ng và ni dung.
Gợi ý cho điểm:
1. Form: passage (2 points)
- Easy to follow
- Coherent
2. Content: (4 points)
+Successful fulfillment of the task.
3. Language: (4 points)
+ Appropriate vocabulary (1 point)
+ Suitable connectors (0.5 point)
+ Correct grammar (2 points)
+ Punctuating / Spelling (0.5 point)
ENGLISH PRACTICE 32
SECTION I–PHONETICS
I.Choose the word whose underlined part is pronounced differently from the rest in the same
line.( 5p)
1.A.several B. suppose C. decisive D. sister
2.A. muddle B. struggle C. bush D. interrupt
3.A. ready B. measure C. steak D. stealth
4.A. wind B. behind C. mind D. find
5.A.chalice B. challenge C. choice D. chemist
II. Pick out the word that has the stress syllable differently from that of the other words.(5p)
1.A. application B. certificate C. biology D. security
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2. A. university B. punctuality C. agricultural
D.mathematician
3. A. identify B. secondary C. luxuriously D. majority
4. A. academic B. engineering C. availabe D.sympathetic
5.A. obligatory B. geographical C. international D.
undergraduate
SECTION II- VOCABULARY AND GRAMMAR
I. Choose the best option ( A, B, C or D) to complete sentence below and write your answers in
the answer sheet.( 10p)
A. circumstances B. occasion C. opportunity D. reason
A. feelings B. reaction C. capital D. opinion
3. Though badly damaged by fire, t
A. repaired B. renewed C. restored D. renovated
A. except B. other C. apart D. rather
5. When you are an old age pen
A. live on B. live up to C. live out D. live down
A. suggested B. considered C. accepted D. advised
7. He said that
A. must have B. had to C. should have D. was supposed to
A. to ask B. being asked C. to be asked D. asking
9.The restaurants on the
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A. take B. to take C. taking D. taken
A. down B. over C. up D. out
II.Put the verb in brackets into the correct tense.( 10p)
III. Give the correct forms of the words in brackets to complete the blank space. ( 10p)
criminal who was a danger to members of the public.
HARD
SURVIVE
ADVICE
INSTALL
5. T
SOCIETY
EDUCATION
ATTEND
COMPUTER
EXPECT
DEPEND
IV. Fill in each gap with a suitable preposition. (10 points)
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thank you all.
6.
SECTION III – READING
I.Read the following passage carefully and then answer the questions below.(10p)
Traditionally the United States has been described as a melting pot, a place where the
previous identities of each immigrant group are melted down to create an intergrated, uniform
society. Since the 1960s, many Americans have rejected the melting pot metaphor in favour of
the image of the mosaic, a picture created by assembling many small stones or tiles. In a mosaic,
each peace retains its own distinctive identity, while contributing to a larger design. Advocates of
the mosaic metaphor assert that it better represents the diverse multicultural society of the United
States. Today, may Americans value their immigrant heritage as an important part of their
identity. More recent immigrant groups from Asia, such as Vietnamese Americans and Korean
Americans, have established communities alongside those populated by the descendants of
European immigrants, such as French Americans, German Americans, Irish Americans and
Italian Americans.
1.Why has the United States often been described as a melting pot?
2. Why have people been in favour of the image of the “ mosaic”?
3. What does the word “mosaic” mean?
4. What have immigrant groups from Asia done to maintain their identity?
5. Name some recent immigrant groups from Asia in the United States?
II.Read the following passage and then choose the most suitable word for each space. (10 p)
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CAR CATCHES FIRE
a fire started under the
bonnet this morning. They were just able to rescue their possessions before the car burst into
noticed smoke coming into the car.
(6) to get fire extinguishers from a nearby
burned out.
1. A. into B. on C. out of D. over
2. A. flames B. petrol C. smoke D. sparks
3. A.drove B. has driven C. was driving D. was driven
4. A. to B. from C. at D. in
5.A. but B. because C. although D. so
6. A. wandered B. jumped C. walked D. ran
7.A. hospital B. garage C.library D. swimming pool
8. A. this B. those C. that D. these
9. A. At length B.Finally C. At the end D. Terminally
10. A. police car B. ambulance C. taxi D. fire engine
III.Read the passage below carefully. Then choose the correct answer: A, B, C or D that best
answers the question about the passage. (5p)
When we were in England last year, I went fishing with my friend, Peter. Early in the
morning we were sitting quietly by the side of the lake when we had an unpleasant surprise. We
saw a duck come along with three ducklings padding cheerfully behind her. As we watched
them, there was a sudden swirl in the water. We caught a glimpse of the vicious jaws of a pike- a
fish which is rather like a freshwater shark- and one of the ducklings was dragged below the
surface.
This incident made Peter furious. He vowed to catch the pike. On three successive
mornings we returned to the vicinity and used several different kinds of bait. On the third day
Peter was lucky. Using an artificial frog as bait, he managed to hook the monster. There was a
desperate fight but Peter was determined to capture the pike and succeeded. When he had got it
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ashore and killed it, he wieghed the fish and found that it scaled nearly thirty pounds- a record
for that district.
1.Why do you think Peter was sitting quietly by the lake ?
A. He was watching the ducks. C. He was waiting for the pike to appear.
D. He was fishing
2. To what does surprise in line 3 probably refer?
A. to the duck. B. to the ducklings.
C. to the action of the pike. D. to the time of the day.
A. He caught and killed the pike.
C. He vowed that he would catch the remaining ducklings
B. He remained determined to catch the pike.
D. He caught a frog and used it as bait for the pike.
4. How much was the pike worth?
A. about thirty pounds.
B. about two hundred and forty dollars.
C. the passage contains no information on this point.
D. the passage says that the fish scaled nearly thirty pound.
5. Which of the following titles best sums up the whole passage?
A. Mysterious disappearance of ducklings.
C. Record pike caught by an angry fisherman.
B. Revenge on a duck.
D. Huge pike caught by fisherman after desperate struggle at sea.
Section IV – writing
I. Finish each of the following sentences in such a way that it means exactly the same as the
sentence printed before it (5 points).
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1. But for your unsuspected talents as a mechanic, he would have been stranded there for hours.
- If
- He suggested
3. The only thing that prevented the passing of the bill was the death of the Prime Minister.
-
-known.
- That commentator,
5. I only recognised him when he came into the light.
- Not until
II. Using the word given and other words, complete the sencond sentence so that it has a
similar meaning to the first sentence. (5points)
elp. (WORTH)
-
2. The last time I saw him was when I lived in London. ( SINCE)
-
-
4. Nobody plays this piece as beautifully as he does. (MORE)
-
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-
III. Using the cues below to complete each sentence of the following passage. (5p)
1.Teacher/ Day/ Vietnam/ fall/ twenty/ November/ each year.
............................................................................................................................................................
............
2. General/ it / be/ mean/ schoolchildren/ show/ appreciation/ teacher/ who/ guide/ in/ study.
3. In / a/ time/ forget/ bad/ experience/ student/ have/ teacher/ scold/ punish.
4. Students/ give/ teacher/ flower/ small/ gift.
5. Small/ party/ hold/ and/ there/ be/ atmosphere/ fun/ amusement/ school.
IV. Writing an essay (10p)
Living in a tranditional family of three or four generations has both advantages and
disadvantages. What do you think of that matter? Write an essay of about 180- 200 words to
support your points.
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376
Keys – practice 32
SECTION I: Phonetics (10 POINTS)
I. A. (1p for 1 correct answer X 5 = 5 points)
1. B
2. C
3. C
4. A
5. D
B. (1p for 1 correct answer X 5 = 5 points)
1.A
2.D
3.B
4.C
5.A
SECTION II: VOCABULARY AND GRAMMAR (40 POINTS)
I . (1p for 1 correct answer X 10 = 10 points)
1.A
2. B
3. C
4. B
5. A
6. D
7. C
8. C
9. C
10. B
II .( 1p for 1 correct answer X 10 = 10 points)
5.
6.
7.
8. feel/ will bring
III .( 1p for 1 correct answer X 10 = 10 points)
6. hardened 6. eduacational
7. survivors 7. attendances
8. advisory 8. computerize
9. Installation 9. unexpected
10. socially 10. dependent
IV .( 1p for 1 correct answer X 10 = 10 points)
6. On 6. on
7. for 7. for
8. to 8. at
9. from 9. from
10. with 10. out
SECTION III.reading (25 POINTS)
I.(10 points): 2 pts/ each correct answer.
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1. Because the United States is a place where the previous identities of each immigrant group
are melted down to create an intergrated, uniform society.
2. Because it better represents the diverse multicultural society of the United States.
3.It means a picture create by assembling many small stones or tiles.
4. They have established communities alongside those populated by the descendants of
European immigrants.
5. They are Vietnamese Americans and Korean Americans.
II. (10 points): 1 pts/ each correct answer.
1.C
2. A
3. C
4. B
5. A
6. D
7. B
8. D
9. B
10. D
III.(5 points): 1 pts/ each correct answer.
1. D
2. C
3. B
4. C
5. C
SECTION IV : WRITING (25 POINTS)
I.( 1p for 1 correct answer X 5 = 5 points)
1.
there for hours.
2. He suggested inviting the Browns to the party on Sunday.
3. Had it not been for the death of the Prime Minister, the bill would have been passed.
-known.
5. Not until he came into the light did I recognise him.
II.( 1p for 1 correct answer X 5 = 5 points)
s worth asking George to help.
2. I haven’t seen him since I lived in London.
3. I am not used to going into town by car.
4. He plays this piece more beautifully than anybody/ anyone else.
5. I was prevented from going to work by transport strike.
III.( 1p for 1 correct answer X 5 = 5 points)
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twentieth of November each year.
2. Generally/ In general, it is meant for schoolchildren to show their appreciation to their
teachers who have guided them in their studies.
3. It is a time to forget the bad experiences students may have of their teachers scolding and
punishing them.
4. Students give their teachers flowers and small gifts.
5. Small parties are held and there is an atmosphere of fun and amazenment in the school.
II.10 points
Gm:
1. Form: an essay (2points)
+ Easy to read
+ Coherent
2. Content: ( 4 points)
+Successful fulfillment of the task.
3. Language: ( 4 points)
+ Appropriate vocabulary (1 point )
+ Suitable connectors (0.5 point )
+ Correct grammar (2 points )
+ Punctuating/ Spelling (0.5 point)
ENGLISH PRACTICE 33
I. PHONETICS
Part 1: Circle the word whose underlined part is pronounced differently from that of
the others in each group. Circle A, B, C or D to indicate your answer. (5 pts)
1. A. arrow B. loud C. moldy D. poultry
2. A. basilisk B. bison C. basic D. basin
3. A. subtlety B. indebtedness C. bombard D. combing
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4. A. benevolent B. content C. molecules D. technique
5. A. conscience B. bronchitis C. shuttle D. chauffeur
Part 2: Choose the word whose syllable is stressed differently from that of the others in
each line. Circle A, B, C or D to indicate your answer. (5 pts)
6. A. comic B. clementine C. climax D. thermonuclear
7. A. diligent B. dimension C. action D. innate
8. A. characterize B. absence C. datum D. charcoal
9. A. solicitor B. separately C. spacious D. sequence
10. A. parachute B. armchair C. accent D. accidentally
II. LEXICO – GRAMMAR
Part 1: Choose the word or phrase that best completes each sentence. Circle A, B, C or D to
indicate your answer. (20 pts)
11. Assembly lines are useful for producing a large _____ of identical products.
A. quality B. quantity C. quandary D. qualification
12. Only the _____ of the building is going to be remodeled.
A. insides B. interior C. indoors D. inner
13. Whether the sports club survives is a matter of complete _____ to me.
A. indifference B. disinterest C. importance D. interest
14. After years of neglect there was a huge _____ program to return the city to its former glory.
A. restoration B. preservation C. conservation D. refurbishment
15. The assistant suggested _____ the next day when the manager would be there.
A. we are coming back B. to come back
C. we will come back D. we came back
16. I never get a _____ of sleep after watching a horror film.
A. wink B. blink C. night D. ounce
17. As it was Christmas, the _____ at church was much larger than usual.
A. audience B. convention C. congregation D. grouping
18. The sheep were huddled into a _____ to protect them from overnight frosts.
A. cage B. kennel C. hutch D. pen
A. gave B. returned C. subscribed D. found
20. Many _____ crafts such as weaving are now being revived.
A. customary B. habitual C. traditional D. ordinary
21. He managed to finish his thesis under the _____ of his tutor.
A. guidance B. help C. aid D. assistance
22. Mr. Henry was given a medal in _____ of his service to his country.
A. gratitude B. knowledge C. recognition D. response
23. Everyone knows about pollution problems, but not many people have _____ any solutions.
A. thought over B. come up with C. looked into D. got round to
24. You _____ as well seek for a fish in the tree as try to do that.
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A. must B. would C. should D. might
next century.
A. Raw B. Rude C. Crude D. Blunt
26. By the time you receive this letter, I _____ for China.
A. will have left B. have left C. would have left D. will leave
27. Prizes are awarded _____ the number of points scored.
A. resulting from B. adding up C. presented to D. according to
28. The needs of gifted children in schools have long been _____ neglected.
A. dolefully B. woefully C. idly D. pathetically
29. I must take this watch to be repaired; it _____ over 20 minutes a day.
A. increases B. gains C. accelerates D. progresses
30. It had been
A. culminating B. leading C. arriving D. finalizing
Part 2: Write the correct FORM of each bracketed word in the numbered space
provided in the column on the right. (0) has been done as an example. (10 pts)
According to some (0) _____ (SCIENCE), high-risk sports can be particularly (31)
_____ (VALUE) for certain types of people. Such activities help them to learn that being
e to lose control. The recent fashion for
jumping from bridges attached to a (33) _____ (LONG) of elastic rope, known as
and interest in it is continuing to grow.
Before the special elastic rope (35) _____ (TIGHT) around them, jumpers reach speeds
of nearly 160kph. First-timers are usually too (36) _____ (TERROR) to open their
mouths, and when they are finally (37) _____ (LOW) safely to the ground, they walk
around with broad smiles on their faces, saying (38) _____ (REPEAT) how amazing it
was. However, for some people, it is only the (39) _____ (EMBARRASS) of refusing to
jump at the last minute that finally persuades them to conquer their fear of (40) _____
(HIGH) and push themselves off into space.
scientists
31. ________________
32. ________________
33. ________________
34. ________________
35. ________________
36. ________________
37. ________________
38. ________________
39. ________________
40. ________________
Part 3: The passage below contains 10 mistakes. Underline the mistakes and write their
correct forms in the space provided in the column on the right. (0) has been done as an
example. (10 pts)
Traditional, mental tests have been divided into two types. Achievement
tests are designed to measure acquiring skills and knowledge,
particularly those that have been explicitness taught. The proficiency
exams required by few states for high school graduation are
ac
ability to acquire new skills but knowledge. For example, vocation
aptitude tests can help you decide whether you would do better like a
mechanic or musician. However, all mental tests are in some sense
nally
41. _____________________
42. _____________________
43. _____________________
44. _____________________
45. _____________________
46. _____________________
47. _____________________
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achievement tests because they assumption some sort of past learning or
experience with certainly objects, words, or situations. The difference
between achievement and aptitude tests is the degree and intention use.
48. _____________________
49. _____________________
50. _____________________
Part 4: Fill in each of the gaps with the correct preposition or particle. Write your
answers in the numbered spaces provided below the passage. (10 pts)
The show was fully booked (51) _____ for weeks, and when it opened last night, the
public poured (52) _____ and very soon the London Arts Center was packed (53) _____. But
why? What did they come to see? They came to see human beings take (54) _____ circus
animals, men in cat suits who stood (55) _____ for real lions and tigers. The show was put (56)
_____ by its creators to protest (57) _____ traditional circuses and to send a message about
cruelty to animals. The show was timed to tie (58) _____ with the National Protection of
Animals Week. It was a good idea, but the standard of the performances was third-rate and an
embarrassing number of people simply walked (59) _____ before it ended. There were some
amusing moments when the performers sent (60) _____ typical circus folks, but overall it was a
dismal show. Despite the large turnout for the
people during the rest of its seven-day run.
Part 5: Complete each sentence with the correct form of ONE of the phrasal verbs
below. Write your answers in the numbered spaces provided below the passage. Each verb is
used only once. (10 pts)
try out
slip up
carry on
get by
put out
take after
get down
look up
go through
turn down
63. In many ways you _____ your father.
64. If you _____
65. I proposed to her but she _____ me _____.
re ____ you _____.
to buy,
Part 6: Insert A, AN, THE or Ø (zero article) where necessary. Write your answers in
the numbered spaces provided below the passage. (10 pts)
Suddenly (71) _____ blackbird flew to (72) _____ top of (73) _____ beach. She perched way up
on (74) _____ topmost twig that stuck up thin against (75) _____. Then she commenced to sing.
Her little black body seemed only (76) _____ tiny dark speck at that distance. She looked like
(77) _____ old dead leaf. But she poured out her song in (78) _____ great flood of rejoicing
through (79) _____ whole forest. And (80) _____ things began to stir.
III. READING COMPREHENSION
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Part 1: Read the following passage and decide which answer (A, B, C or D) best fits
each gap. Circle A, B, C or D to indicate your answer. (10 pts)
The ability to weep is a uniquely human form of emotional response. Some scientists
have suggested that human tears are (81) _____ of an aquatic past but this does not seem very
likely. We cry from the moment we enter this world, for a number of reasons. Helpless babies
cry to persuade their parents that they are ill, hungry or uncomfortable. As they (82) _____, they
will also cry just to attract parental attention and will often stop when they get it.
The idea that having a good cry do you (83) _____ is a very old one and now it has scientific
validity since recent research into tears has shown that they (84) _____ a natural painkiller called
enkaphalin. By fighting sorrow and pain this chemical helps you feel better. Weeping can
increase the quantities of enkaphalin you (85) _____.
Unfortunately, in our society we impose restrictions upon this naturally (86) _____ activity.
Because some people still regard it as a (87) _____ of weakness in men, boys in particular are
admonished when they cry. This kind of repression can only increase stress, both emotionally
and physically.
Tears of emotion also help the body (88) _____ itself of toxic chemical waste, for there is more
protein in them than in tears resulting from cold winds or other irritants. Crying comforts, calms
and can be very enjoyable (89) _____ the popularity of highly emotional films which are
laughing together.
81. A. witness B. evidence C. result D. display
82. A. evolve B. change C. develop D. alter
83. A. better B. fine C. good D. well
84. A. contain B. retain C. hold D. keep
85. A. construct B. achieve C. provide D. produce
86. A. curing B. treating C. healing D. improving
87. A. hint B. symbol C. feature D. sign
88. A. release B. rid C. loosen D. expel
89. A. consider B. remark C. distinguish D. regard
90. A. named B. entitled C. subtitled D. called
Part 2: Read the following passage and fill the blank with ONE suitable word. Write
your answer in the space provided below the passage. (10 pts)
New technologies, like all technologies, are morally neutral. (91) _____ their advent
makes the world a better place or not depends on the uses to which they are (92) _____. And
that, (93) _____ turn, depends upon the decisions of many people, especially of politicians,
managers, trade (94) _____ leaders, engineers and scientists. The new technologies, cheap,
flexible, dependent on knowledge and information as their main input, can (95) _____ human
being from many of their current constraints for example constraints of resources and geography.
(96) _____ the new technologies could also (97) _____ those with power to control their fellow
citizens even more effectively than in the (98) _____ efficient dictatorships of the past. The new
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technological society will (99) _____ colossal demands on our imagination and ingenuity and on
the capacity (100) _____ our institutions to respond to new challenges.
Part 3: Read the following passage and answer the questions from 101 to 110. (10 pts)
Legend has it that sometime toward the end of the Civil War (1861-1865) a government
train carrying oxen traveling through the northern plains of eastern Wyoming was caught in a
snowstorm and had to be abandoned. The driver returned the next spring to see what had become
of his cargo. Instead of the skeletons he had expected to find, he saw his oxen, living, fat, and
healthy. How had they survived?
The answer lay in a resource that unknowing Americans lands trampled underfoot in their haste
parts of the United States, the preferred grass for forage was a cultivated plant. It grew well with
enough rain, then when cut and stored it would cure and become nourishing hay for winter feed.
But in the dry grazing lands of the West that familiar bluejoint grass was often killed by drought.
To raise cattle out there seemed risky or even hopeless. Who could imagine a fairy-tale grass that
required no rain and somehow made it possible for cattle to feed themselves all winter? But the
surprising western wild grasses did just that. They had wonderfully convenient features that
made them superior to the cultivated eastern grasses. Variously known as buffalo grass, grama
grass, or mesquite grass, not only were they immune to drought; but they were actually preserved
by the lack of summer and autumn rains. They were not juicy like the cultivated eastern grasses,
but had short, hard stems. And they did not need to be cured in a barn, but dried right where they
grew on the ground. When they dried in this way, they remained naturally sweet and nourishing
through the winter. Cattle left outdoors to fend for themselves thrived on this hay. And the cattle
themselves helped plant the fresh grass year after year for they trampled the natural seeds firmly
into the soil to be watered by the melting snows of winter and the occasional rains of spring. The
dry summer air cured them much as storing in a barn cured the cultivated grasses.
101. What does the passage mainly discuss?
A. A type of wild vegetation B. Western migration after Civil War
C. The raising of cattle D. The climate of the Western United States
102. What can be inferred by the phrase “Legend has it” in line 1?
A. Most history book include the story of the train.
B. The story of the train is similar to other ones from that time period.
C. The driver of the train invented the story.
D. The story of the train may not be completed factual.
103. The word “they” in line 4 refers to _____.
A. plains B. skeletons C. oxen D. Americans
104. What can be inferred about the “Great American Desert” mentioned in line 7?
B. It was not originally assumed to be a fertile area.
C. It was a popular place to raise cattle before the Civil War.
D. It was
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105. The word “barren” in line 7 is closed in meaning to _____.
A. lonely B. uncomfortable C. infertile D. dangerous
____.
A. favored B. available C. ordinary D. required
107. Which of the following can be inferred about the cultivated grass mentioned in the second
paragraph?
A. Cattle raised in the Western United States refused to eat it.
B. It had to be imported into the United States.
C. It would probably not grow in the western United States.
D. It was difficult for cattle to digest.
108. Which of the following was NOT one of the names given to the western grasses?
A. Mesquite grass B. Bluejoint grass C. Buffalo grass
D. Grama grass
109. Which of the following was NOT mentioned as a characteristic of western grasses?
A. They contain little moisture B. They have tough stems
C. They can be grown indoors D. They are not affected by dry weather
110. According to the passage, the cattle help promote the growth of the wild grass by_____.
A. eating only small quantities of grass. B. continually moving from one grazing area to
another.
C. naturally fertilizing the soil. D. stepping on and pressing the seeds into the ground.
IV. WRITING (6/20 points)
Part 1: Finish the second sentence in such a way that it means exactly the same as the
sentence printed before it
111. Customs officials are stopping more travelers than usual this week.
________________
114. He never suspected that the bicycle had been stolen.
115. How could I help, except to offer to lend her some money?
Part 2: Use the word(s) given in the brackets and make any necessary additions to
complete a new sentence in such a way that it is as similar as possible in meaning to the
original sentence. Do NOT change the form of the given word(s).
116. To this day no one has equaled his achievements in the field of technology. (unsurpassed)
117. Peter grimaced as he swallowed the foul-tasting medicine. (pulled)
385
-tasting medicine.
planned. (longer)
unfortunate.
119. What he told me made me very curious to hear the rest of the history. (appetite)
story.
120. They chose not to drive because they thought there would be too much snow. (fear)
snow.
_____THE END_____
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Keys – practice 33
I. PHONETICS: 1/20 points
Part 1: (5 x 0.1 = 0.5)
1. B 2. A 3. C 4. C 5. B
Part 2: (5 x 0.1 = 0.5)
6. D 7. B 8. A 9. A 10. D
II. LEXICO – GRAMMAR: 6/20 points
Part 1: (20 x 0.05 = 1)
11. B 12. B 13. A 14. A 15. D
16. A 17. C 18. D 19. D 20. C
21. A 22. C 23. B 24. D 25. C
26. A 27. D 28. B 29. B 30. A
Part 2: (10 x 0.1 = 1)
34. world worldwide
40.
Part 3: (10 x 0.1 = 1)
Part 4: (10 x 0.1 = 1)
51. up 52. in 53. out 54. off 55. in
56. on 57. against 58. in 59. out 60. up
Part 5: (10 x 0.1 = 1)
61. get by 62. going through 63. take after 64. slip up 65. turned down
66. put out 67. carry on 68. get down 69. try out 70. look up
Part 6: (10 x 0.1 = 1)
71. a 72. the 73. a 74. the 75. the
76. a 77. an 78. a 79. the 80. Ø
III. READING COMPREHENSION: 4/20 points
Part 1: (10 x 0.1 = 1)
81. B 82. C 83. C 84. A 85. D
86. C 87. D 88. B 89. A 90. D
Part 2: (10 x 0.1 = 1)
91. whether 92. put 93. in 94. union 95. free
96. but 97. enable 98. most 99. make 100. of
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Part 3: (10 x 0.2 = 2)
101. A 102. B 103. C 104. D 105. C
106. A 107. C 108. B 109. D 110. B
IV. WRITING: 6/20 points
Part 1: (5 x 0.2 = 1)
111. An increased number of travellers is being stopped by customs officials this week.
112. Rather than disturb the meeting, I left without saying goodbye.
113. The moment I decided to get up to dance, the band decided to stop playing.
114. At no time did he suspect that the bicycle had been stolen.
115. Other than to offer to lend her some money, how could I help?
Part 2: (5 x 0.2 = 1)
116. his achievements are unsurpassed. 117. pulled a face as he swallowed.
118. will take longer than originally planned, which is. 119. whetted my appetite for the rest
of.
120. not to drive for fear of.
ENGLISH PRACTICE 34
PART I: VOCABULARY AND GRAMMAR. (7, 0 POINTS)
I. Choose the best option to complete each of the sentences. (2,0 points)
1. The strike was ___ owing to a last minute agreement with the management.
A. called off B. broken up C. set back D. put down
ather thin.
A. get B. turn C. wear D. go
3. ___ the people who come to this club are in their twenties and thirties.
A. By and large B. Altogether C. To a degree D. Virtually
4. My cousin was nervous about being interviewed on television, but she rose to the ___
wonderfully.
A. event B. performance C. incident D. occasion
5. The train service has been a ___ since they introduced the new schedules.
A. shambles B. rumpus C. chaos D. fracas
6. Is an inexperienced civil servant ___ to the task of running the company.
A. capable B. skilled C. eligible D. suited
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7. We ___ have been happier in those days.
C. might not D. must not
se.
A. apparently B. presumably C. allegedly D. predictably
9. The storm ripped our tent to ___
A. slices B. shreds C. strips D. specks
10. He ____ so much harm on the nation during his regime that it has never fully recovered.
A. indicted B. inferred C. induced D. inflicted
11. Hotel rooms must be ____ by 10 a. m, but luggage may be left with porters.
A. vacated B. evacuated C. abandoned D. left
12. I do not think there is so much as a ____ of truth in that rumor.
A. crumb B. speck C. grain D. pebble
A. get through B. get by C. get on D. get up
14. I have very ____ feelings about the plan it might possibly work or it could be a disaster.
A. certain B. mixed C. doubtful D. troubled
A. put B. pulled C. set D. took
16. The sixth time he called me at night was the ____
A. last cause B. last straw C. touch and go D. hot air
17. All three TV channels provide extensive ____ of sporting events.
A. broadcast B. network C. coverage D. vision
18. They seemed to be ____ to the criticism and just carried on as before.
A. disinterested B. sensitive C. uncaring D. indifferent
-
A. Yes, I can B. Yes, we are C. Yes, we go
20. It's no use ___ over ___ milk.
A. crying/ spilt B. to cry/ spilling C. crying/ spilling D. crying/ to
spill
Your answers:
1.
2.
3.
4.
5.
6.
7.
8.
9.
10.
11.
12.
13.
14.
15.
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16.
17.
18.
19.
20.
II. Read the passage below. Use the word given in bold to form a word that fits in the
numbered gap. (2, 5 points)
BLACK WIDOW SPIDER
exaggeration has led to certain ___ (1. CONCEPT) regarding its evil nature.
Firstly, this spider is not as dangerous as is often thought. While it is indeed one of the
most ___ (2. VENOM) species of spider, its venom being fifteen times stronger than that of the
prairie rattlesnake, its bite injects such as amount of venom by ___ (3. COMPARE) that it is
unlikely to kill humans. In fact, ___ (4. FATAL) are rare.
Black widows bite only if they are touched or their web is threatened. Furthermore, only
-
insects-and male black widow spiders. The latter are vulnerable as the female is ___ (5.
SOLITUDE) by nature, and has been known to kill and eat the male after mating. Such ___ (6.
OCCUR) are rare, but they explain how the spider got its name and its reputation.
Nevertheless, the ___ (7. PLEASE) be ___ (8.
ESTIMATE), and if you live in a temperate climate and have a fireplace in your home, it is
advisable to take ___ (9. CAUTION). Black widow spiders often inhabit wood piles, so you
should wear gloves when handling firewood. Furthermore, since black widow spiders are ___
(10. RESIST) to many insecticides, you should regularly clean out likely hiding places.
Your answers:
1.
2.
3.
4.
5.
6.
7.
8.
9.
10.
III. Complete each sentence with the correct form of ONE of the two-word verbs. (2, 0
point)
bring out do up slow down save up hang over
mix up grow up go with dress up run for
1. Silence ___the theatre as the audience awaited the opening curtain with expectation and
excitement.
2. Having seen a sharp bend ahead, Tim pressed hard on the brake pedal to ___.
3. Charles Dickens was born near Portsmouth, Hampshire on 7 February 1812, but relocated to
and ___ in Camden Town in London.
390
4. Barrack Obama has decided to ___ the American presidency in the election that will take
place next year.
5. Because I hate ___ my shoes, I have bought a pair of shoes without any laces.
6. Sarah wanted to buy some curtains that would ___ his furniture, so she had brought a photo of
her sofa with her to the store.
7. Kate had been ___ in order to buy a new laptop, but then she decided to use the money on the
guitar lessons instead.
8. Even t
___.
any formal clothes.
embarrassment for him.
Your answers:
1.
2.
3.
4.
5.
6.
7.
8.
9.
10.
IV. The passage below contains TEN mistakes. Underline them and write the correct forms
in the numbered boxes. (2, 5 points)
Large animals inhabit the desert have evolved adaptations for reducing the effects of
extreme hot. One adaptation is to be light in color, and to reflect the Sun's rays. Desert mammals
also depart from the normal mammalian practice of maintaining a constantly body temperature.
Instead of try to keep down the body temperature inside the body, what would involve the
expenditure of water and energy, desert mammals allow their temperatures rise to what would
normally be fever height, and temperatures as high as 46 degree Celsius have been measured in
Grant's gazelles. The overheated body cools down during the cold desert night, and indeed the
temperature may fall unusual low by dawn, as low as 34 degrees Celsius in the camel. This is a
advantage since the heat of the first few hours of daylight absorb in warming up the body.
Your answers:
1.
2.
3.
4.
5.
6.
7.
8.
9.
10.
PART II: READING COMPREHENSION. (6, 0 POINTS)
I. Read the passage and fill in each of the blanks with ONE suitable word. (2,0 points)
True relaxation is most certainly not a matter of flopping down in front of the television
with a welcome drink. Nor is it about drifting (1) ___ an exhausted sleep. Useful though these
391
responses to tension and over-tiredness (2) ___ be, we should distinguish between them and
conscious relaxation in (3) ___ of quality and effect. (4) ___ of the level of tiredness, real
relaxation is a state of alert yet at the same time passive awareness, in which our bodies are (5)
___ rest while our minds are awake.
Moreover, it is as natural for a healthy person to be relaxed when moving as resting. (6)
___ relaxed in action means we bring the appropriate energy to everything we do, so as to have a
feeling of healthy tiredness by the end of the day, (7) ___ than one of exhaustion. Unfortunately,
conscious relaxation. With (9) ___ in mind we must apply ourselves to understanding stress and
the nature of its causes (10) ___ deep-seated.
Your answers:
1.
2.
3.
4.
5.
6.
7.
8.
9.
10.
II. Read the text and do the tasks as follow. (2, 0 points) OUT OF THE ASHES
Paragraph A
On the afternoon of 30
th
August 1989, fire broke out at Uppark, a large eighteenth
century house in Sussex. For a year builders had been replacing the lead on the roof, and by a
stroke of irony, were due to finish the next day, on August 31
st
. Within fifteen minutes of the
alarm being sounded, the fire brigade had arrived on the scene, though nothing was to survive of
the priceless collection on the first floor apart from an oil painting of a dog which the firemen
swept up as they finally retreated from the blaze. But due to the courage and swift action of the
previous owners, the Meade-Featherstonhaugh family, and the staff, stewards and visitors to the
house, who formed human chains to pass the precious pieces of porcelain, furniture and paintings
out on to the lawn, 95 percent of the contents from the ground floor and the basement were
saved. As the fire continued to rage, the National Trust conservators were being mobilised, and
that evening local stationers were especially opened to provide the bulk supplies of blotting
paper so desperately needed in the salvage operation.
Paragraph B
The following morning, Uppark stood open to the sky. A sludge of wet charcoal covered
the ground floor and basement, and in every room charred and fallen timbers lay amongst the
smoke. It was a scene of utter devastation.
Paragraph C
After the initial sense of shock, the days which followed the fire were filled with
392
discoveries. Helped by volunteers, the National Trust archaeologists and conservators swung
into action, first of all marking the site out into a grid and then salvaging everything down to the
last door handle. The position of each fragment was recorded, and all the debris was stored in
countless dustbins before being sifted and categorised.
Paragraph D
There was great excitement as remnants of the lantern from the Staircase Hall were
pulled out from the debris of two fallen floors, and also three weeks later when the Red Room
carpet, thought to have been totally lost, was found wrapped around the remains of a piano.
There was a lucky reprieve for the State Bed too. Staff who had left the scene at 3 a.m on the
night of the fire had thought its loss was inevitable, but when they returned the next morning it
had escaped largely undamaged. Firemen, directed by the National Trust conservators from
outside the Tapestry Room window, dismantled the silk-hung bed and passed it out piece by
piece. Twenty minutes later the ceiling fell in.
Paragraph E
The scale of the task to repair Uppark was unprecedented in the National Trust. The
immediate question was whether it should be done at all. A decision had to be taken quickly, as
the building was unsound and whatever had not been damaged by the fire was exposed to the
elements. Within a month, after consulting many experts and with the agreement of the National
Trust Executive Committee, the restoration programme began. It was undertaken for three
main reasons. After the fire it had become apparent just how much remained of the structure with
its splendidly decorated interiors; to have pulled the house down, as one commentator suggested,
would have been vandalism. Also the property was covered by insurance, so the repairs would
not call upon the National Trust own funds. Lastly, much had been saved of the fine collection
acquired especially for Uppark from 1747 by Sir Matthew Featherstonhaugh and his son Harry.
These objects belonged nowhere else, and complete restoration of the house would allow them to
be seen and enjoyed again in their original setting.
Paragraph F
The search for craftsmen and women capable of doing the intricate restoration work was
nation-wide. Once the quality and skill of the individual or company had been ascertained, they
had to pass an economic test, as every job was competitively tendered. This has had enormous
benefits because not only have a number of highly skilled people come to the fore - woodcarvers
for example, following in the footsteps of Grinling Gibbons - but many of them, for example
plasterers, have relearnt the skills of the seventeenth and eighteenth centuries which can now be
of use to other country house owners when the need arises.
Paragraph G
393
In June 1994 the building programme was completed, on time and on budget. The total
cost of the work to repair the house and its contents came to be nearly £20 million, largely met
from insurance. In addition, it made economic sense for the National Trust to invest time and
money in upgrading water and heating systems, installing modern environmental controls, and
updating fire and security equipment.
Paragraph H
The final stages of restoration and the massive programme of reinstallation took eight
months. The family and the room stewards were visibly moved when returning to their old
haunts, perhaps the best testament that the spirit of Uppark had not died. But the debate will no
doubt continue as to whether or not it was right to repair the house after the fire. The National
Trust has done its best to remain true to Uppark; it is for others to judge the success of the
project. Note: The National Trust is a charitable organisation in Britain set up over a hundred
years ago to preserve the national heritage.
Questions 1–6. The text has eight paragraphs, A–H. Which paragraphs contain the
following information? Write the appropriate letters, A–H, in the boxes.
1. The procedure for sorting through the remains of the fire.
2. How Uppark looked after the fire.
3. Improvements made to the rebuilt Uppark.
4. The selection of people to carry out the repair work.
5. Why the National Trust chose to rebuild Uppark.
6. How people reacted to the rebuilt Uppark.
Questions 8–10. Answer the questions below. Choose NO MORE THAN THREE WORDS
from the text for each answer. Write your answers in the boxes.
7. On what date in 1989 should the original repairs to the roof have been completed?
8. By what method were things rescued immediately from the burning house?
9. After the fire, what did the conservators require large quantities of immediately?
10. Into what did the conservators put material recovered from the fire?
Your answers:
1.
2.
3.
4.
5.
394
6.
7.
8.
9.
10.
III. Read the following passage and choose the best answer (A, B, C or D) to each question.
Write your answer in the numbered box. (2, 0 points)
A recent survey of crime statistics shows that we are all more likely to be burgled now
than 20 years ago and the police advise everyone to take a few simple precautions to protect their
homes.
The first fact is that burglars and other intruders prefer easy opportunities, like a house
which is very obviously empty. This is much less of a challenge than an occupied house, and one
which is well-protected. A burglar will wonder if it is worth the bother.
There are some general tips on how to avoid your home becoming another crime statistic.
Avoid leaving signs that your house is empty. When you have to go out, leave at least one light
on as well as a radio or television, and do not leave any curtains wide open. The sight of your
latest music centre or computer is enough to tempt any burglar.
Never leave a spare key in a convenient hiding place. The first place a burglar will look is
under the doormat or in a flower pot and even somewhere more 'imaginative' could soon be
uncovered by the intruder. It is much safer to leave a key with a neighbour you can trust. But if
your house is in a quiet, desolate area be aware that this will be a burglar's dream, so deter any
potential criminal from approaching your house by fitting security lights to the outside of your
house.
But what could happen if, in spite of the aforementioned precautions, a burglar or
intruder has decided to target your home. Windows are usually the first point of entry for many
intruders. Downstairs windows provide easy access while upstairs windows can be reached with
a ladder or by climbing up the drainpipe. Before going to bed you should double-check that all
windows and shutters are locked. No matter how small your windows may be, it is surprising
what a narrow gap a determined burglar can manage to get through. For extra security, fit
window locks to the inside of the window.
What about entry via doors? Your back door and patio doors, which are easily forced
open, should have top quality security locks fitted. Even though this is expensive it will be
money well spent. Install a burglar alarm if you can afford it as another line of defence against
intruders.
A sobering fact is that not all intruders have to break and enter into a property. Why go to
the trouble of breaking in if you can just knock and be invited in? Beware of bogus officials or
workmen and, particularly if you are elderly, fit a chain and an eye hole so you can scrutinise
callers at your leisure. When you do have callers never let anybody into your home unless you
are absolutely sure they are genuine. Ask to see an identity card, for example.
If you are in the frightening position of waking in the middle of the night and think you
can hear an intruder, then on no account should you approach the intruder. It is far better to
telephone the police and wait for help.
1. A well-
395
A. is less likely to be burgled. B. is regarded as a challenge by most
criminals.
C. is a lot of bother to maintain. D. is very unlikely to be burgled.
A. avoid leaving our house empty. B. only go out when we have to.
C. always keep the curtains closed. D. give the impression that our house is
occupied when we go out.
A. is predictable. B. is useful.
C. is imaginative. D. is where you always find a spare key.
desolate
A. isolated B. populous C. dissatisfying D. depressing
aforementioned precautions” in paragraph 5 refers
A. will tell a burglar if your house is empty or not.
B. are the most important precautions to take to make your home safe. C. will stop a
potential burglar.
D. will not stop an intruder if he has decided to try and enter your home.
6.
A. is surprisingly difficult.
B. is not as difficult as people think.
C. is less likely to happen than gaining entry through a door.
D. is tried only by very determined burglars.
7. According to the
A. cost a lot of money but are worth it. B. are good value for money.
C. are luxury items. D. are absolutely essential items.
A. will prevent your home being burgled.
B. avoids you having to invite people into your home.
C. is only necessary for elderly people.
D. gives you time to check if the visitor is genuine.
scrutinise
A. glance B. gaze C. search D. examine
A. Increasing household crime. B. Protecting your home from intruders.
C. Burglary statistics. D. What to do if a burglar breaks into your
home.
Your answers:
1.
2.
3.
4.
5.
396
6.
7.
8.
9.
10.
PART III. WRITING. (4,0 POINTS)
I. Complete each of the sentences so that it has similar meaning to the given one, using the
word given in bold. Do NOT change the form of the word given. (1, 0 point)
1. Although Joe kept on attempting to contact his cousin, he didn't manage to speak to her until
the next day. Despite repeated ........................ TOUCH................... his cousin, Joe didn't
manage to speak to her until the next day.
2. When it comes to computer games, Jack is a real expert.
CONCERNED
As far ............................................................................., Jack is a real expert.
3. David said that the accident was his fault. TOOK
David .................................................................. the accident.
4.
KNOWING
plan. INGENUITY
But .......................................................... plan, the stranded climber would never have been
rescued.
II. Use the word given and make any necessary additions to complete a new sentence in
such a way that it is as similar as possible to the original one. Do NOT change the form of
the word given. (1, 0 point)
1. They will try John for murder at the High Court next week. (trial)
→ John
2. How do our sales compare with those of other firms?
(relation)
How do
3. The number of accidents has gone down steadily since the speed limit was imposed.
(decline)
→ There has
397
4. This new record is certain to sell a lot of copies. (doubt)
There
is
(question)
My changing
398
III. The charts below give information on the ages of the populations of Yemen and Italy in
2000 and projections for 2050. Summarize the information by selecting and reporting the
main features and make comparisons where relevant. (2, 0 points)
0-14 years
15-59 years
60+ years
50,1%
3,6%
46,3%
37,0%
5,7%
57,3%
24,1%
14,3%
61,6%
46,2%
42,3%
11,5%
2000
2000
2050
2050
YEMEN
ITALY
399
Keys – practice 34
PART
ANSWERS
MARK
PART I:
LEXICO-
GRAMMAR
(7,0/20
points)
I. Choose the best option
to complete each of the
sentences. (2,0 points)
1. A
0.1 p
2. C
0.1 p
3. A
0.1 p
4. D
0.1 p
5. A
0.1 p
6. D
0.1 p
7. B
0.1 p
8. B
0.1 p
9. B
0.1 p
10. C
0.1 p
11. A
0.1 p
12. C
0.1 p
13. B
0.1 p
14. B
0.1 p
15. A
0.1 p
16. B
0.1 p
17. C
0.1 p
18. D
0.1 p
19. D
0.1 p
20. A
0.1 p
II. Read the passage
below. Use the word given
in bold to form a word
that fits in the numbered
1. misconception
0.25 p
2. venomous
0.25 p
3. comparison
0.25 p
400
gap. (2,5 points)
4. fatalities
0.2 5p
5. solitary
0.2 5p
6. occurences
0.2 5p
7. unpleasant
0.25 p
8. underestimated
0.25 p
9. precautions
0.25 p
10. resistant
0.2 5p
III. Complete each
sentence with the correct
form of ONE of the two-
word verbs. (2,0 point)
1. hung over
0.2 p
2. slow down
0.2 p
3. grew up
0.2 p
4. run for
0.2 p
5. doing up
0.2 p
6. go with
0.2 p
7. saving up
0.2 p
8. brought out
0.2 p
9. dress up
0.2 p
10. mixed up
0.2 p
IV. The passage below
contains TEN mistakes.
Underline them and write
the correct forms in the
numbered boxes. (2,5
points)
1. inhabit inhabiting/which(that) inhabit
0.5 p
2. hot heat
0.5 p
3. constantly constant
0.5 p
4. try trying
0.5 p
5. what which
0.5 p
6. rise to rise
0.5 p
7. degree degrees
0.5 p
8. unusual unusually
0.5 p
9. a an
0.5 p
401
10. absorb absorbed
0.5 p
PART II:
READING:
(6,0/20
points)
I. Read the passage and fill
in each of the blanks with
ONE suitable word. (2,0
points)
1. into
0.2 p
2. might/may/can
0.2 p
3. terms
0.2 p
4. regardless/irrespective
0.2 p
5. at
0.2 p
6. Being
0.2 p
7. rather
0.2 p
8. let
0.2 p
9. that/this
0.2 p
10. how
0.2 p
II. Read the text and do
the tasks as follow. (2,0
points)
1. C
0.2 p
2. B
0.2 p
3. G
0.2 p
4. F
0.2 p
5. E
0.2 p
6. H
0.2 p
7. August 31
st
0.2 p
8. human chain
0.2 p
9. blotting paper
0.2 p
10. dustbins
0.2 p
III. Read the following
passage and choose the
best answer (A, B, C or D)
to each question. (2,0
points)
1. A
0.2 p
2. D
0.2 p
3. A
0.2 p
4. A
0.2 p
5. C
0.2 p
402
6. B
0.2 p
7. A
0.2 p
8. D
0.2 p
9. D
0.2 p
10. B
0.2 p
PART III:
WRITING:
(4,0/20
points)
I. Complete each of the
sentences. (1,0 point)
1. Despite repeated [attempts/efforts to get in touch
with] his cousin, Joe didn't manage to speak to her
until the next day.
0.2 p
2. As far [as computer games are concerned], Jack
is a real expert.
0.2 p
3. David took [the blame/responsibility for] the
accident.
0.2 p
there is no knowing]
0.2 p
5. But [for the ingenuity of his brother‟s] plan, the
stranded climber would never have been rescued.
0.2 p
II. Use the word given and
make any necessary
additions to complete a
new sentence . (1,0 point)
1. John will stand trial murder at the High Court
next week.
0.2 p
2. How do our sales stand in relation to those of
other firms?
0.2 p
3. There has been a steady decline in the number of
accidents since the speed limit was imposed.
0.2 p
4. There is no doubt that this new record will sell a
lot of copies.
0.2 p
5. My changing my mind about resigning is out of
question.
0.2 p
III. Summarize the
information by selecting
and reporting the main
features and make
comparisons where
relevant. (2,0 points)
1. Content:
a. Providing main ideas and details. (summarizing
the information, reporting the main features, and
make comparisons where relevant)
b. Communicating intentions sufficiently and
effectively.
1.0
403
2. Organization and presentation:
a. Ideas are well-organized and presented with
coherence, cohesion, and clarity.
b. The paragraph is well-structured.
3. Language:
a. Variety of appropriate vocabulary and structures.
b. Good use of grammatical structures.
4. Handwriting, punctuation, and spelling:
a. Intelligible handwriting.
b. Good punctuation and no spelling mistakes.
0.25
0.5
0.25
404
ENGLISH PRACTICE 35
PART I: PHONETICS. (1, 0 POINT)
Choose the word whose stress pattern is different from that of the other words in the same
group. Write your answer in the numbered box.
1. A. exposure B. terminal C. utterance D. discipline
2. A. economy B. elaborate C. assassinate D. fascinate
3. A. mountain B. sustain C. contain D. retain
4. A. fulltime B. farmhand C. bookshop D. tradesman
5. A. metropolitan B. entrepreneurial C. hippopotamus D. curiosity
6. A. company B. comfortable C. together D. business
7. A. associate B. formal C. movement D. militant
8. A. Important B. cigarette C. protection D. informal
9. A. introduce B. conversation C. independent D. welcome
10. A. expect B. alone C. liquor D. invite
Your answers:
1.
2.
3.
4.
5.
6.
7.
8.
9.
10.
PART II: VOCABULARY AND GRAMMAR. (8, 0 POINTS)
I. Choose the best answer to fill in each gap. Write your answer in the numbered box. (1, 5
point)
1. In the ___of security, personnel must wear their identity badges at all times.
A. requirement B. interests C. demands D. assistance
2. ___ how angry he was he would never resort to violence.
A. No matter B. No problem C. Although D. Because
3. We played the game ___ the rules.
405
A. on account of B. ahead of C. according to D. apart from
B. I had tried D. I tried
5. This is ___ the most difficult job I have ever tackled.
A. by rights B. by all means C. by far D. by the way
6. She ___till the early hours listening to pop music.
A. took me up B. kept me up C. caught me up D. held me up
A. let B. put C. leave D. take
8. The chairman requested that ___
A. the members studied more carefully the problem.
B. the problem was more carefully studied.
C. with more carefulness the problem could be studied.
D. the members study the problem more carefully.
9. Smoking is ___ in many companies in our country.
A. permitted B. taught C. banned D. stopped
10. After the battle, the ___ soldiers were helped by those who could walk.
A. injured B. wounded C. broken D. killed
A. turn up B. care for C. show off D. catch on
12. Their house is ___ near the Cathedral.
A. whereabouts B. anywhere C. somewhere D. any place
13. This young tree could not have been damaged by accident. I believe it was done ___
A. in fact B. on purpose C. by appointment D. by plan
14. There was hardly ___ money left in my bank account.
406
A. more B. no C. some D. any
15. It is wrongly believed that natural resources will never be used ___.
A. off B. out C. away D. up
Your answers:
1.
2.
3.
4.
5.
6.
7.
8.
9.
10.
11.
12.
13.
14.
15.
II. Give the correct tenses of the verbs in brackets. Write your answer in the box. (1, 5
point)
1. If he ____ (1. not drink) too much last night, he ____ (2. not - be) tired now.
(3. be) at home last night because the door was open when I ____ (4.
come).
3. At this time next week, they ____ (5. sit) in the train on their way to Paris.
(6. close) the window.
(7. act) funny since you ____ (8. be)
away.
6. On the first of next month, he ____ (9. be) in prison for five years.
7. His personal problems seem ____ (10. distract) him from his work lately.
8. He suggested that a final decision ____ (11. make).
____ (12. always - make) noise in class, Tom.
10. ____ (13. you/visit) many museums when you were in Paris?
11. The car looks very clean. ____ (14. you/wash) it?
12. My best friend, James, was no longer there. He ____ (15. go) away.
Your answers:
1.
2.
3.
4.
5.
6.
7.
8.
9.
10.
407
11.
12.
13.
14.
15.
III. Put the correct form of the words in brackets. Write your answer in the box. (2, 0
points)
AUTUMN COLORS
A new term is rapidly gaining recognition in the American language - a 'leaf peeper' is
someone who, in autumn, is on the ____ (1. LOOK) for areas where the leaves of deciduous
trees have changed colour. In New England, in the USA, 'leaf peeping' is big business,
generating millions of dollars annually. The first report that leaves are changing colour sets
off an ____ (2. INVADE) of 'peepers' thus causing serious obstruction on some roads.
Thousands of people log on to websites in their ____ (3. EAGER) to find the location of the
trees that have foliage in the most ____ (4. GLORY) colours. The popularity of 'leaf tourism' is
well established in New England, and the changing colours of autumn provide an annual ____
(5. TALK) point. The colours vary from year to year since the ____ (6. INTENSE) of the colour
is ____ (7. DEPEND) on the chemical composition of the dying leaves. After a long dry
summer, leaves often turn bright red, while cloudy autumn days will produce less spectacular
yellows. If climate change leads to ____ (8. INCREASE) hot, dry summers in the northern
hemisphere, then countries in Europe can expect summers not ____ (9. LIKE) those across the
Atlantic. They will then enjoy a kaleidoscope of ____ (10. SEASON) colour to rival the deep
reds and blazing oranges seen in New England.
1.
2.
3.
4.
5.
6.
7.
8.
9.
10.
IV. Find out and correct the mistake in each sentence. Write your answer in the box. (2, 0
points)
Example: Thirty hours a week are a heavy work schedule. Answer: C is
A B C D
1. A persimmon tastes best when it is such ripe that it looks wrinkled and almost spoiled.
A B C D
2. American pioneers did water systems from logs with holes bored through their centers.
A B C D
3. The pituitary gland is a small endocrine gland at the base of the brain that releases many
A B
408
hormones and regulates another endocrine glands.
C D
4. In America, the Indians used crude oil for fuel and medicine hundreds of years before the first
white settlers arrive. A B C
D
5. When radio programs became popular, approximately around 1925, many people stopped
attending movies.
A B C D
6. Musical comedies, as an American form of entertainment, often take its subjects from
or past.
A B C
D
7. Of all seashore plants, seaweeds are best able to tolerate long periods out of water, followed
by long periods covering by water. A B
C D
8. The fruit of the plantain looks much like a banana, and it is not so sweet or so pleasing in
flavor.
A B C D
9. The viceroy butterfly, an insect that birds like to eat, has a color pattern similar to that of the
monarch butterfly, whom birds do not like to eat. A
B C D
10. Behavior therapy uses rewards and punishments to encourage patients to act in a way
healthier.
A B C D
Your answers:
1.
2.
3.
4.
5.
6.
7.
8.
9.
10.
V. Complete these sentences with proper prepositions or adverbs. Write your answers in
the numbered box. (1, 0 point)
409
6. Don't use pencils. Please write the letter ___ ink.
7. My father made ____ his mind to settle in the South.
8.
9. Time is off now. Please hand ____ your papers.
10. We invited 40 people to the party but only 23 turned ____
6. That fish of yours has been in the fridge for weeks. It must have gone ____ by now.
7. He needed a model, someone to look ____
8. Uncle Tom is an idiot, but I only have to put ____ him once a year.
friends with the person who always runs ____ his old friends.
Your answers:
1.
2.
3.
4.
5.
6.
7.
8.
9.
10.
PART III: READING COMPREHENSION. (6,0 POINTS)
I. Read the passage below and decide which answer (A, B, C or D) best fits each gap. Write
your answer in the numbered box. (2, 0 points)
It is now extremely popular to take a gap year between school and university or
university and work and to spend it traveling. There are plenty of reasons to recommend it -
response: well, why not?
The idea may have its roots in the 18
th
century Grand tour once (3) ___ by the young, rich
and noble, but it is the middle classes who have turned it (4) ___ something that 200,000 British
youngsters do every year. (5) ___ has never been so easy and cheap, with more places open to
tourists than ever. Also, the gap year is now (6) ___ by many employers and universities.
The States, the Far East and Australia were among the original (7) ___ and although these
remain in the top five, young explorers are now going even further. The most far-flung corners of
the world are (8) ___ in popularity year by year. About $700 will buy a student ticket (9) ___ for
six months that will take you from London to Calcutta, Singapore, Bangkok, Perth, Sydney,
Auckland, Fiji, Tahiti, Los Angeles and (10) ___ again.
1. A. merely
B. only
C. slightly
D. simply
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2. A. occasion
B. moment
C. chance
D. luck
3. A. undertaken
B. gone
C. done
D. given
4. A. up
B. out
C. over
D. into
5. A. Voyage
B. Travel
C. Excursion
D. Tour
6. A. received
B. stood
C. accepted
D. admitted
7. A. destinations
B. endings
C. landings
D. terminals
8. A. spreading
B. expanding
C. enlarging
D. growing
9. A. genuine
B. valid
C. effective
D. legal
10. A. now
B. here
C. back
D. then
Your answers:
1.
2.
3.
4.
5.
6.
7.
8.
9.
10.
II. Read the passage and fill in each blank with ONE suitable word. Write your answer in
the numbered box. (2, 0 points)
THE LEGEND OF THE ROOT
its widespread use in oriental medicine has led to many myths and legends building up around
this remarkable plant. Ginseng has featured (1) ____ an active ingredient in oriental medical
literature for over 5,000 years. Its beneficial effects were, at one time, (2) ____ widely
recognized and praised that the root was said to be worth its weight in gold.
(3) ____ the long history of ginseng, no one fully knows how it works. The active part of
the ____ (4) is the root. Its full name is Panax Ginseng the word Panax, (5) ____ the word
stern scientists
in the study of ginseng. It is today believed that this remarkable plant may (6) ____ beneficial
effects in the treatment of many diseases which are difficult to treat with synthetic drug.
Today, ginseng is (7) ____ longer a myth or a legend. Throughout the world it is
becoming widely recognized that this ancient herb holds the answer to relieving the stresses and
ailments of modern living. It is widely used for the treatment of various ailments (8) ____ as
arthritis, diabetes, insomnia, hepatitis and anemia. However, the truth behind (9) ____ ginseng
411
works still remains a mystery. Yet its widespread effectiveness shows that the remarkable
properties are (10) ____ than just a legend.
1.
2.
3.
4.
5.
6.
7.
8.
9.
10.
III. Read the passage, then choose the correct options. Write your answer in the box. (2, 0
points)
One of the 7 wonders of the ancient world, the great pyramid of Giza was a monument of
wisdom and prophecy built as a tomb for Pharaoh Cheop in 1720 BC. Despite its antiquity,
certain aspects of this construction makes it truly one of the truly great wonders of the world.
The thirteen acre structure near the Nile river is a solid mass of stone blocks covered with
limestone. Inside are a number of hidden passageways and the burial chamber for the pharaoh. It
is the largest single structure in the world. The 4 sides of the pyramid are aligned almost exactly
on true north, south, east and west an incredible engineering feat. The ancient Egyptians were
sun worshipers and great astronomers, so computations for the great pyramid were based on
astronomical observations.
Explorations and detailed examinations of the base of the structure reveal many
intersecting lines. Further scientific study indicates that these represent type of timeline of events
past, present and future. Many of the events have been interpreted and found to coincide with
known facts of the past. Others are prophesied for future generations and currently under
investigation. Many believe that pyramids have supernatural powers, and this one is no
exception. Some researchers even associate with its extraterrestrial being of the ancient past.
Was it superstructure made by ordinary beings, or one built by a race far superior to any
known today.
1. What has research of the base reveal?
A. There are racks in the foundation.
C. The lines represent important events.
D. A superior race of people built it.
2. Extraterrestrial beings are ____.
A. very strong workers. B. astronomers in the ancient times.
C. researchers in Egyptology. D. living beings from other planets.
3. What was the most probable reason for providing so many hidden passages?
412
A. To allow the weight of the pyramid to settle evenly. B. To permit the high priests
to pray at night.
D. To keep grave robbers from finding the tomb and the treasure buried with the pharaoh.
intersectinge 9 is nearest in meaning to ____
A. crossing B. coming C. observing D. cutting
5. What do the intersecting lines in the base symbolize?
B. Pathways of the great solar body.
C. Astrological computation. D. Dates of important events taking place throughout time.
prophesied____
A. said B. armed C. terminated D. foretold
7. What is the best title for the passage?
A. Symbolism of the Great pyramid.
B. Problems with the construction of great pyramid.
C. Wonders of the Great pyramid of Giza.
D. Exploration of the burial chamber of Cheop.
8. On what did the ancient Egyptians based their calculation?
A. Observation of the celestial bodies. B. Advanced technology.
C. Advanced tools of measurements.
9. Why was the Great pyramid constructed?
A. As a solar observatory. B. As a religious temple.
C. As a tomb for the pharaoh. D. As an engineering feat.
10. Why is the Great pyramid of Giza considered one of the seven wonders of the world?
A. It is perfectly aligned with the 4 cardinal points of the compass and contains many
prophecies.
B. It was selected as the tomb of the pharaoh Cheop.
413
C. It was built a super race.
D. It is very old.
Your answers:
1.
2.
3.
4.
5.
6.
7.
8.
9.
10.
PART IV: WRITING. (5, 0 POINTS)
I. Rewrite each of the sentences without changing its meaning, using the cue given. (1, 0
point)
2. House prices have risen dramatically this year.
There has ...............................................................................................................
They stole ...............................................................................................................
He tried in vain ......................................................................................................
5. She started to clean up the house just after the guests had left.
No sooner ...............................................................................................................
6. The boy was about to cry when he was reprimanded by his mother.
............
7. People believe that the Chinese invented paper in 105 A.D.
..
8. As people use a lot of wood-pulp, many trees are cut down.
9. It takes six hours to drive from here to London.
414
.................................................................
10. He got so angry that no one dared to say anything.
....
II. Rewrite each of the sentences without changing its meanings, using the word given. (1, 0
point)
1. If you want to see me, come here by six a.m. (PROVIDED)
........................................
(OBJECTS)
.......
of the musical show yesterday. (OPINION)
.......
4. The concert was not as good as he had hoped.
(EXPECTATIONS)
..........................................................................................................................
5. We missed the beginning of the concert because we had overslept.
(CONSEQUENCE)
...................................................................................
III. Write an essay (3, 0 points).
Facebook dominates the free-time for too many people especially the students. It can
have negative effect on their study and the physical development.
Do you agree or disagree? Write an essay (250 - 300 words) to express your opinion.
415
416
Keys – practice 35
PART I: PHONETICS. (1, 0 POINT).
Choose the word whose stress pattern is different from that of the other words in the same
group. Write your answer in the numbered box.
1. A. exposure
2
B. Terminal
1
C. utterance
1
D. discipline
1
2. A. Economy
2
B. Elaborate
2
C. Assassinate
2
D. Fascinate
1
3. A. mountain
1
B. sustain
2
C. contain
2
D. retain
4. A. fulltime
2
B. farmhand
1
C. bookshop
1
D. tradesman
5. A. Metropolitan
3
B. Entrepreneurial
4
C. Hippopotamus
3
D. curiosity
6. A. company
1
B. comfortable
1
C. together
2
D. business
7. A. Associate
2
B. Formal
1
C. Movement
1
D. militant
8. A. Important
2
B. Cigarette
3
C. Protection
2
D. informal
9. A. introduce
3
B. conversation
3
C. independent D. welcome
1
10. A. expect B. alone
2
C. liquor
1
D. invite
2
PART II: VOCABULARY AND GRAMMAR. (8, 0 POINTS).
I. Choose the best answer to fill in each gap. Write your answer in the numbered box. (1, 5
point).
1. In the ___of security, personnel must wear their identity badges at all times.
A. requirement B. interests C. demands D. assistance
2. ___ how angry he was he would never resort to violence.
A. No matter B. No problem C. Although D. Because
3. We played the game ___ the rules.
A. on account of B. ahead of C. according to D. apart from
A. I‟ve been trying B. I had tried D. I tried
5. This is ___ the most difficult job I have ever tackled.
417
A. by rights B. by all means C. by far D. by the way
6. She ___till the early hours listening to pop music.
A. took me up B. kept me up C. caught me up D. held me up
A. let B. put C. leave D. take
8. The chairman requested that ___
A. the members studied more carefully the problem. B. the problem was more
carefully studied.
C. with more carefulness the problem could be studied. D. the members study the
problem more carefully.
9. Smoking is ___ in many companies in our country.
A. permitted B. taught C. banned D. stopped
10. After the battle, the ___ soldiers were helped by those who could walk.
A. injured B. wounded C. broken D. killed
A. turn up B. care for C. show off D. catch on
12. Their house is ___ near the Cathedral.
A. whereabouts B. anywhere C. somewhere D. any place
13. This young tree could not have been damaged by accident. I believe it was done ___
A. in fact B. on purpose C. by appointment D. by plan
14. There was hardly ___ money left in my bank account.
A. more B. no C. some D. any
15. It is wrongly believed that natural resources will never be used ___.
A. off B. out C. away D. up
II. Give the correct tenses of the verbs in brackets. Write your answer in the box. (1,5
point)
418
1. If he _ had not drunk _ (1. not drink) too much last night, he _ would not be _ (2. not - be)
tired now.
have been _ (3. be) at home last night because the door was open when I
_ came _ (4. come).
3. At this time next week, they _ will be sitting (5. sit) in the train on their way to Paris.
closed __ (6. close) the window.
has acted/has been acting _ funny since you
_ were _ (8. be) away.
6. On the first of next month, he _ will have been _ (9. be) in prison for five years.
7. His personal problems seem _ to have been distracting _ (10. distract) him from his work
lately.
8. He suggested that a final decision _ should be made/be made __ (11. make).
_ are always making _ (12. always - make) noise in class, Tom.
10. _ did you visit _ (13. you/visit) many museums when you were in Paris?
11. The car looks very clean. _ have you washed __ (14. you/wash) it?
12. My best friend, James, was no longer there. He __ had gone _ (15. go) away.
III. Put the correct form of the words in brackets. Write your answer in the box. (2,0
points) AUTUMN COLORS
A new term is rapidly gaining recognition in the American language - a 'leaf peeper' is
someone who, in autumn, is on the __ outlook _ (1. LOOK) for areas where the leaves
of deciduous trees have changed colour. In New England, in the USA, 'leaf peeping' is big
business, generating millions of dollars annually. The first report that leaves are changing colour
sets off an __ invasion _ (2. INVADE) of 'peepers' thus causing serious obstruction on some
roads. Thousands of people log on to websites in their _ eagerness _ (3. EAGER) to find the
location of the trees that have foliage in the most __ glorious _ (4. GLORY) colours. The
popularity of 'leaf tourism' is well established in New England, and the changing colours
of autumn provide an annual _ talking _ (5. TALK) point. The colours vary from year to
year since the _ intensity _ (6. INTENSE) of the colour is __ dependent (7. DEPEND) on the
chemical composition of the dying leaves. After a long dry summer, leaves often turn bright red,
while cloudy autumn days will produce less spectacular yellows. If climate change leads to _
increasingly _ (8. INCREASE) hot, dry summers in the northern hemisphere, then countries in
Europe can expect summers not _ unlike _ (9. LIKE) those across the Atlantic. They will then
419
enjoy a kaleidoscope of _ seasonal __ (10. SEASON) colour to rival the deep reds and blazing
oranges seen in New England.
IV. Find out and correct the mistake in each sentence. Write your answer in the box. (2,0
points)
Example: Thirty hours a week are a heavy work schedule. Answer: B is
A B C D
1. A persimmon tastes best when it is such ripe that it looks wrinkled and almost spoiled.
A B so C D
2. American pioneers did water systems from logs with holes bored through their centers.
A made B C D
3. The pituitary gland is a small endocrine gland at the base of the brain that releases many
hormones and regulates another endocrine glands. A B
C D other
4. In America, the Indians used crude oil for fuel and medicine hundreds of years before the first
white settlers arrive.
A B C D
arrived
5. When radio programs became popular, approximately around 1925, many people stopped
attending movies.
A B C bỏ D
6. Musical comedies, as an American form of entertainment, often take its subjects from
or past.
A B C their
D
7. Of all seashore plants, seaweeds are best able to tolerate long periods out of water, followed
by long periods covering by water. A B C
D covered
8. The fruit of the plantain looks much like a banana, and it is not so sweet or so pleasing in
flavor.
A B but C D
420
9. The viceroy butterfly, an insect that birds like to eat, has a color pattern similar to that of the
monarch butterfly, whom birds do not like to eat. A B
C D which
10. Behavior therapy uses rewards and punishments to encourage patients to act in a way
healthier.
A B C D
healthier way
V. Complete these sentences with proper prepositions or adverbs. Write your answers in
the numbered box. (1,0 point)
11. Don't use pencils. Please write the letter _ in _ ink.
12. My father made _ up _ his mind to settle in the South.
13. out of __ fuel.
14. Time is off now. Please hand _ in _ your papers.
15. We invited 40 people to the party but only 23 turned _ up __
6. That fish of yours has been in the fridge for weeks. It must have gone _ off _ by now.
7. He needed a model, someone to look _ up / up to _
8. Uncle Tom is an idiot, but I only have to put _ up with __ him once a year.
down _ his old friends.
to _ each other.
PART III: READING COMPREHENSION. (6,0 POINTS)
I. Read the passage below and decide which answer (A, B, C or D) best fits each gap. Write
your answer in the numbered box. (2,0 points)
It is now extremely popular to take a gap year between school and university or
university and work and to spend it traveling. There are plenty of reasons to recommend it -
only
chance __. In the end,
nly one response: well, why not?
The idea may have its roots in the 18
th
century Grand tour once (3) _ undertaken __ by
the young, rich and noble, but it is the middle classes who have turned it (4) _ into __ something
that 200,000 British youngsters do every year. (5) _ Travel __ has never been so easy and cheap,
with more places open to tourists than ever. Also, the gap year is now (6) _ accepted __ by
many employers and universities.
421
The States, the Far East and Australia were among the original (7) _ destinations __ and
although these remain in the top five, young explorers are now going even further. The most far-
flung corners of the world are (8) __ growing _ in popularity year by year. About $700 will buy
a student ticket (9) _ valid __ for six months that will take you from London to Calcutta,
Singapore, Bangkok, Perth, Sydney, Auckland, Fiji, Tahiti, Los Angeles and (10) __ back _
again.
1. A. merely
B. only
C. slightly
D. simply
2. A. occasion
B. moment
C. chance
D. luck
3. A. undertaken
B. gone
C. done
D. given
4. A. up
B. out
C. over
D. into
5. A. Voyage
B. Travel
C. Excursion
D. Tour
6. A. received
B. stood
C. accepted
D. admitted
7. A. destinations
B. endings
C. landings
D. terminals
8. A. spreading
B. expanding
C. enlarging
D. growing
9. A. genuine
B. valid
C. effective
D. legal
10. A. now
B. here
C. back
D. then
II. Read the passage and fill in each blank with ONE suitable word. Write your answer in
the numbered box. (2,0 points) THE LEGEND OF THE ROOT
its widespread use in oriental medicine has led to many myths and legends building up around
this remarkable plant. Ginseng has featured (1) _ as __ an active ingredient in oriental medical
literature for over 5,000 years. Its beneficial effects were, at one time, (2) _ so _ widely
recognized and praised that the root was said to be worth its weight in gold.
(3) _ despite _ the long history of ginseng, no one fully knows how it works. The active
part of the _ plant __ (4) is the root. Its full name is Panax Ginseng the word Panax, (5) _ like
_
western scientists in the study of ginseng. It is today believed that this remarkable plant may (6)
_ have/cause/produce __ beneficial effects in the treatment of many diseases which are difficult
to treat with synthetic drug.
Today, ginseng is (7) _ no _ longer a myth or a legend. Throughout the world it is
becoming widely recognized that this ancient herb holds the answer to relieving the stresses and
ailments of modern living. It is widely used for the treatment of various ailments (8) _ such _ as
422
arthritis, diabetes, insomnia, hepatitis and anemia. However, the truth behind (9) _ how _
ginseng works still remains a mystery. Yet its widespread effectiveness shows that the
remarkable properties are (10) __ more _ than just a legend.
III. Read the passage, then choose the correct options. Write your answer in the box. (2,0
points)
One of the 7 wonders of the ancient world, the great pyramid of Giza was a monument of
wisdom and prophecy built as a tomb for Pharaoh Cheop in 1720 BC. Despite its antiquity,
certain aspects of this construction makes it truly one of the truly great wonders of the world.
The thirteen acre structure near the Nile river is a solid mass of stone blocks covered with
limestone. Inside are a number of hidden passageways and the burial chamber for the pharaoh. It
is the largest single structure in the world. The 4 sides of the pyramid are aligned almost exactly
on true north, south, east and west an incredible engineering feat. The ancient Egyptians were
sun worshipers and great astronomers, so computations for the great pyramid were based on
astronomical observations.
Explorations and detailed examinations of the base of the structure reveal many
intersecting lines. Further scientific study indicates that these represent type of timeline of events
past, present and future. Many of the events have been interpreted and found to coincide with
known facts of the past. Others are prophesied for future generations and currently under
investigation. Many believe that pyramids have supernatural powers, and this one is no
exception. Some researchers even associate with its extraterrestrial being of the ancient past.
Was it superstructure made by ordinary beings, or one built by a race far superior to any
known today.
1. What has research of the base reveal?
A. There are racks in the foundation.
body.
C. The lines represent important events. D. A superior race of people built it.
2. Extraterrestrial beings are ____
A. very strong workers. B. astronomers in the ancient times.
C. researchers in Egyptology. D. living beings from other planets.
3. What was the most probable reason for providing so many hidden passages?
A. To allow the weight of the pyramid to settle evenly.
B. To permit the high priests to pray at night.
423
D. To keep grave robbers from finding the tomb and the treasure buried with the
pharaoh.
intersecting____
A. crossing B. coming C. observing D. cutting
5. What do the intersecting lines in the base symbolize?
s plans for the hidden passage. B. Pathways of the great solar body.
C. Astrological computation. D. Dates of important events taking place throughout
time.
prophesied____
A. said B. armed C. terminated D. foretold
7. What is the best title for the passage?
A. Symbolism of the Great pyramid. B. Problems with the construction of great
pyramid.
C. Wonders of the Great pyramid of Giza. D. Exploration of the burial chamber of
Cheop.
8. On what did the ancient Egyptians based their calculation?
A. Observation of the celestial bodies. B. Advanced technology.
C. Advanced tools of measurements.
9. Why was the Great pyramid constructed?
A. As a solar observatory. B. As a religious temple.
C. As a tomb for the pharaoh. D. As an engineering feat.
10. Why is the Great pyramid of Giza considered one of the seven wonders of the world?
A. It is perfectly aligned with the 4 cardinal points of the compass and contains many
prophecies.
B. It was selected as the tomb of the pharaoh Cheop. C. It was built a super race. D. It is
very old.
PART IV: WRITING. (5,0 POINTS)
424
I. Rewrite each of the sentences without changing its meaning, using the cue given. (1,0
point)
1
been for my father‟s money, we could not have managed.....
2. House prices have risen dramatically this year.
There has .... been a dramatic rise/increase in the house prices this year.
They stole ........ everything except for/but/apart from the television...
in searching for the stolen car.
He tried in vain ...... to search for the stolen car.
5. She started to clean up the house just after the guests had left.
No sooner ....... had the guests left than she started to clean up the house.
6. The boy was about to cry when he was reprimanded by his mother.
the point of crying when he was reprimanded by his mother.
7. People believe that the Chinese invented paper in 105 A.D.
is believed to have been invented by the Chinese in 105 A.D.
8. As people use a lot of wood-pulp, many trees are cut down.
wood-pulp is used, the more trees are cut down..........
9. It takes six hours to drive from here to London.
It is ........ a six-hour-drive from here to London..
10. He got so angry that no one dared to say anything.
So ...... angry did he get that no one dared to say anything.
II. Rewrite each of the sentences without changing its meanings, using the word given. (1,0
point)
1. If you want to see me, come here by six a.m. (PROVIDED)
Provided (that) you want to see me, come here by 6 a.m..................
(OBJECTS)
425
He objects to anyone (else) touching his records.................
(OPINION)
He had a low opinion of the musical show yesterday...............
4. The concert was not as good as he had hoped. (EXPECTATIONS)
The concert failed to come/live up to his expectations/The concert didn‟t come/live up
to .......
5. We missed the beginning of the concert because we had overslept. (CONSEQUENCE)
We missed the beginning of the concert as a consequence of (our) oversleeping/We had
overslept. As a consequence, we missed the beginning....
III. Write an essay (3, 0 points).
Face book dominates the free-time for too many people especially the students. It can
have negative effect on their study and the physical development.
Do you agree or disagree? Write an essay (250 - 300 words) to express your opinion.
Write an essay (250 - 300 words) to express your opinion. (3, 0 points).
1. Content:
a. Providing main ideas and details.
b. Communicating intentions sufficiently and effectively.
2. Organization and presentation:
a. Ideas are well-organized and presented with coherence, cohesion, and clarity.
b. The paragraph is well-structured.
3. Language:
a. Variety of appropriate vocabulary and structures.
b. Good use of grammatical structures.
4. Handwriting, punctuation, and spelling:
a. Intelligible handwriting.
b. Good punctuation and no spelling mistakes.
426
Markers should discuss the suggested answers and the marking scale thoroughly
and add more answers possible before marking the papers.
ENGLISH PRACTICE 36
I. Choose one word whose underlined part is pronounced differently from the others.
1. A. resume B. statistics C. position D. designer
2. A. criteria B. initiate C. certificate D. interactive
3. A. ginger B. gesture C. gymnasium D.
ghost
4. A. teammate B. reading C. seaside D. creating
5. A. crooked B. naked C. masked D.
needed
II. Choose one word whose stress pattern is different from the others.
6. A. oceanic B. argument C. temperature D. valuable
7. A. incredible B. fortunately C. astronomy D.
evaporate
8. A. committee B. expensive C. guarantee D. successful
9. A. vocabulary B. assistance C. develop D. evidence
10. A. applicant B. recognize C. yesterday D. curriculum
III. Complete the following sentences with the correct form of the verbs in brackets.
a. My father (11. work)_______ in Canada for the last year, so by the time he (12.
return)_______ the month after next, I (13. not see)_______ him for fourteen months.
b. We looked out of the window and saw it (14. rain)_______, so we stayed in.
c. TV chat shows (15. increase)_______ in number all the time.
d. The camera (16. disappear)_______ when we came in.
e. The woman (17. accuse)_______ of the killing said that she was at the cinema at the time.
f. Not until we (18. arrive)_______ at his house we (19. discover)_______ that he was on
holiday.
g. After (20. take)_______ to the hospital, the injured victim felt much better yesterday.
II. Choose the best answer to complete the sentences.
21. There is a rumour that the National Bank is going to________ the company I am working
for.
A. take on B. take out of C. take off D. take over
22. It would be lovely if the children could see and, ________, touch the animals.
427
A. eventually B. if possible C. at last D. finally
23. ________ he failed in the entrance exam caused his family much sadness.
A. Which B. That C. The thing D. What
24. Unless you return money immediately, you will risk being charged________ theft and getting
into serous trouble
A. on B. with C. of D. for
25. The old woman came in, ________ by a young man.
A. accompany B. to be accompanied C. accompanying D.
accompanied
A. advertised B. advertising C. be advertised D. being
advertised
A. otherwise B. so C. therefore D. unless
28. ________ the two sisters, Mary is________ .
A. Of/ the prettier B. Between/ the prettiest C. Of/ prettier D. Between/ the
prettier
29. A: Do you think it will rain tonight?
B: ________. I am attending the evening class.
B. I hope so C. I hope not D. I am not
hoping
30. Ninety________ the maximum length of time allowed for entrance exams to this school.
A. minute is B. minutes are C. minute are D. minutes is
III. Read the text below. Give the correct form of the words in brackets.
JUDO
Judo is a sport that has achieved great popularity in many parts of the world. It was (31.
origin)_______ developed in Japan in the late 19
th
century based on ancient methods of self-
defense. There are two (32. fight)_______ . Although they use physical (33. violent)_______
against each other, they are respectful to their (34. oppose)_______ and bow to each other before
and after each contest. Judo is an (35. expense)_______ sport to take up because the only
equipment you need is the special loose-fitting suit. It is very suitable for (36. young)_______ if
they join a club where the (37. instruct)_______ are properly qualified and pay enough attention
to safety. Although Judo is a physically (38. demand)_______ sport which requires a lot of (39.
strong)_______ practice, and skill, there are many people who find it (40. enjoy)_______ as a
means of relaxation in their spare time.
IV. Find one mistake in each sentence below by choosing the letter A, B, C or D.
41. Joel giving up smoking has caused him to gain weight and become irritable with his
acquaintances. A B C D
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42. There are many different ways of comparing the economy of one nation with those of
another.
A B C
D
43. George you any money as long as you promise to pay him back.
A B C D
44. Having worked hard during the summer, his result was very successful in the entrance
examination. A B C
D
45. Society will be having to change radically to keep pace with the technology available.
A B C
D
46. It is necessary that he goes to see a doctor as soon as he returns from taking the exam.
A B C D
47. The lion has long been a symbol of strength, power, and it is very cruel.
A B C D
48. The Nobel Prize winning candidate, together with his wife and children, are staying in
Sweden after the presentation. A B
C D
49. My brother composes not only the music, but also sings the songs for the major Broadway
musicals. A B C
D
50. After driving for twenty miles, he suddenly realized that he has been driving in the wrong
direction. A B C
D
V. Fill in each numbered space with ONE appropriate word.
TSUNAMI IN JAPAN
Japan's most powerful earthquake since records began has struck the north-east coast,
triggering a massive tsunami. Cars, ships and buildings were (51)_______ away by a wall of
water after the 8.9 - magnitude tremor, which struck about 400 kms (250 miles) north-east of
Tokyo. A state of emergency has been declared at a nuclear power plant, (52)_______ pressure
has exceeded normal levels. Officials say more than 10,000 people are dead and about 7,000
(53)_______, but it is feared the final death toll will be (54)_______ higher. In one ward alone in
fifth-largest in the world (55)_______ 1900 and nearly 8,000 (56)_______ stronger than the one
scientists. Thousands of people
(57)_______ near the Fukushima nuclear power plant have been ordered to evacuate. Japanese
nuclear officials said that pressure inside a boiling water reactor at the plant was running much
higher than normal after the cooling system failed. Officials said they might need to deliberately
(58)_______ some radioactive steam to relieve pressure, but that there would be no health risk.
429
US Secretary of State Hillary Clinton had earlier said the US Air Force had flown emergency
coolant to the site. But US officials later said (59)_______ coolant had been handed over because
the Japanese had decided to handle the situation (60)________.
The UN's nuclear agency said four nuclear power plants had been shut down safely.
VI. Read the passage below and then choose the correct answer A, B, C or D.
Women nowadays have more (61)________ than those in the past. For example, our
great grandmothers were not allowed to go to school or to work to earn their own living.
(62)________, they had to depend on their husbands financially. Modern women, on the
contrary, can get good education, have their own careers, and (63)________ their interests. They
can even take good positions in politics if they are competent (64)________ it. However, women
living in our modern society have their (65)________ too. Today women work harder than their
great grandmothers so that they can gain the (66)________ between working life and family life.
Many people predict that by 2032, most (67)________ positions at work will be taken by
women. Then, it is possible that women will have more (68)________ life because,
61. A. advances B. advantages C. benefits D.
conveniences
62. A. Therefore B. However C. As a result D. Although
63. A. pursue B. support C. promote D. stimulate
64. A. to B. at C. with D. of
65. A. obstacles B. disputes C. profits D. problems
66. A. equality B. stables C. balance D. steadiness
67. A. senior B. junior C. inferior D. superior
68. A. sheltered B. healthy C. strenuous D. active
69. A. though B. even C. ever D. never
70. A. perform B. adopt C. fulfill D. neglect
VII. Read the passage below and then choose the correct answer A, B, C or D.
Walt Disney was born in 1901 in Chicago, but soon moved to a small farm near
Marceline, Missouri. From this rural and rather humble beginning, he later became one of the
most famous and beloved motion-picture producers in history. Although he died in 1966, his
name and artistic legacy continue to influence the lives of millions of people throughout the
world.
After several years of barely making ends meet as a cartoon artist operating from his Los
Angeles garage, Disney had his first success in 1928, with his release of a Mickey Mouse
cartoon. Throughout the next decade, he continued to produce a number of cartoons, and develop
more of his highly profitable and enduring creations, such as Donald Duck and Pluto. In the late
1930s, he issued a full-length cartoon film. Snow White became an instant commercial and
critical success. This was only the first of many films, both animated and not, produced by
Disney and his studio.
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But as renowned as Disney name is for cartoons and movies, it is probably best known
1955 and culminating with the fantastically successful Disney World and EPCOT Center in
Florida, Disney became a household name. In recent years, the theme park concept became
international, with openings in Tokyo and Paris. With the continuing success of Disney, the
creation of future theme park is under discussion.
71. Which of the following is the title for the passage?
A. The history of Disney World and Disneyland.
C. Walt Disney and his Legacy.
D. Walt Disney and Animated Cartoons
humble
A. boring B. shy C. simple D. respectful
A. critical B. respectful C. ambivalent D. approving
barely making ends meet
A. meeting personal failure. B. producing only a few cartoons.
C. not making much money. D. trying new businesses.
enduring
A. lasting B. suffering C. famous D. difficult
renowned
A. possessed B. talked about C. useful D. well-known
77. It can be inferred from the passage that ________.
B. Disney created cartoon
C. the Tokyo theme park is in financial difficulty.
D. the California theme park is now closed.
concept
A. idea B. location C. birth D. demand
79. According to the passage, which of the following is TRUE?
C. Snow White was the first full-length cartoon film.
was always profitability.
80. In future years it is most likely that ___________.
A. the Disney name will stay wellknown.
B. Disney will produce only cartoons.
C. the Paris theme park will become successful
D. the remaining theme parks will also close
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IX. Finish the second sentence so that it means the same as the first one. (10 pts)
_______________________________________________.
82. I meant to post that letter before lunch.
What I meant _________________________________________.
83. People will only become aware of the problem if you increase the publicity.
_________________________________________________.
84. Scientists have tried very hard to find a cure for AIDS.
_____________________________________________.
85. Success depends on hard work.
____________________________________________.
X. Writing an essay.
“Increasing numbers of private transportations have put greater and greater pressure on the
roads”.
What do you think of that matter? Write an essay of about 280- 300 words to support your
solutions.
………………………………………………………………………………………………………
……………………………………
………………………………………………………………………………………………………
……………………………………
………………………………………………………………………………………………………
……………………………………
………………………………………………………………………………………………………
……………………………………
………………………………………………………………………………………………………
……………………………………
………………………………………………………………………………………………………
……………………………………
_____________THE END____________
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Keys – practice 36
I. (5pts) 1 point/correct answer.
II. (5pts) 1 point/correct answer.
1. B
2. B
3. D
4. D
5. C
6. A
7. B
8. C
9. D
10. D
III. (10pts) 1 point/correct answer.
11. has worked
12. returns
13. won’t (will not)have seen
14. was raining
15. are increasing
16. had disappeared
17. accused
18. arrived (had arrived)
19. did we discover
20. being taken
IV.
(20pts) 1 point/correct answer.
21. D
22. B
23. B
24. B
25. D
26. A
27. A
28. A
29. D
30. D
V.
(10pts) 1 point/correct answer.
31. originally
32. fighters
33. violence
34. opponent
35. inexpensive
36. youngsters/ youths
37. instructors
38. demanding
39. strength
40. ẹnjoyable
VI.
(10pts) 1 point/correct answer.
41. A
42. C
43. B
44. C
45. B
46. B
47. D
48. C
49. A
50. C
VII. (10pts) 1.5 point/correct answer.
51. swept
52. where
53. missing
54. much/ far
55. since
56. times
57. living
58. release
59. no
60. themselves
VIII. (10pts) 1.5 point/correct answer.
61. B
62. C
63. A
64. B
65. D
66. C
67. A
68. C
69. B
70. D
VIII. (15pts) 1.5 point/correct answer.
71. C
72. C
73. D
74. C
75. A
76. D
77. B
78. A
79. C
80. A
IX. (10pts) 2 points/correct answer.
81.
82.
83.
84.
85.
3 months since Peter (last) had his hair cut.
(to do) was to post that letter before lunch.
you increase the publicity will people become aware of the problem.
efforts/attempts have been made by scientists to find a cure for AIDS.
you work, the more successful you are/ will be.
433
VIII.
Content: accounts for 50% of the total mark. To be given the maximum of 50% for the
content, the candidates should provide all main ideas and details as appropriate.
Language: accounts for 30% of the total mark. To be given the maximum of 30% for
language, the candidates should use variety of vocabulary and structures appropriate to
the level of English language high school students.
Presentation: accounts for 20% of the total mark. To be given the maximum of 20% for
presentation, the candidates should write with coherence, cohesion and can use
appropriate styles and linking devices
ENGLISH PRACTICE 37
I. Choose one word whose stress pattern is different from the others. (5 pts)
1.
A. mathematics
B. biology
C. experiment
D. philosophy
2.
A. evolution
B. development
C. discovery
D. philosopher
3.
A. another
B. energy
C. centigrade
D. gravity
4.
A. evaporate
B. temperature
C. impossible
D. experiment
5.
A. gravity
B. professor
C. pyramid
D. remedy
II. Choose the best option to complete each of the sentences.
6. Is an inexperienced civil servant_________ to the task of running the company.
A. capable B. skilled C. eligible D. suited
7. We _________ have been happier in those days.
C. might not D. must not
A. apparently B. presumably C. allegedly D. predictably
9. The storm ripped our tent to _________.
A. slices B. shreds C. strips D. specks
10. He _________ so much harm on the nation during his regime that it has never fully
recovered.
A. indicted B. inferred C. induced D. inflicted
11. Hotel rooms must be _________ by 10 a. m, but luggage may be left with porters.
A. vacated B. evacuated C. abandoned D. left
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12. I do not think there is so much as a _________ of truth in that rumor.
A. crumb B. speck C. grain D. pebble
ich but he certainly earns enough money to _________.
A. get through B. get by C. get on D. get up
14. I have very _________ feelings about the plan it might possibly work or it could be a
disaster.
A. certain B. mixed C. doubtful D. troubled
A. put B. pulled C. set D. took
16. The sixth time he called me at night was the _________
A. last cause B. last straw C. touch and go D. hot air
17. All three TV channels provide extensive _________ of sporting events.
A. broadcast B. network C. coverage D. vision
18. They seemed to be _________ to the criticism and just carried on as before.
A. disinterested B. sensitive C. uncaring D. indifferent
-
A. Yes, I can B. Yes, we are C. Yes, we go
20. It's no use _________ over _________ milk.
A. crying/ spilt B. to cry/ spilling C. crying/ spilling D. crying/ to spill
21. The strike was _________ owing to a last minute agreement with the management.
A. called off B. broken up C. set back D. put down
A. get B. turn C. wear D. go
23. _________ the people who come to this club are in their twenties and thirties.
A. By and large B. Altogether C. To a degree D. Virtually
24. My cousin was nervous about being interviewed on television, but she rose to the
_________ wonderfully.
A. event B. performance C. incident D. occasion
25. The train service has been a _________ since they introduced the new schedules.
A. shambles B. rumpus C. chaos D. Fracas
III. Read the passage below. Use the word given in bold to form a word that fits in the
numbered gap.
BLACK WIDOW SPIDER
exaggeration has led to certain (26. CONCEPT)_______ regarding its evil nature.
Firstly, this spider is not as dangerous as is often thought. While it is indeed one of the
most (27. VENOM)_______ species of spider, its venom being fifteen times stronger than that of
the prairie rattlesnake, its bite injects such as amount of venom by (28. COMPARE)_______ that
it is unlikely to kill humans. In fact, (29. FATAL)_______ are rare.
435
Black widows bite only if they are touched or their web is threatened. Furthermore, only
-
insects-and male black widow spiders. The latter are vulnerable as the female is (30.
SOLITUDE)_______ by nature, and has been known to kill and eat the male after mating. Such
(31. OCCUR)_______ are rare, but they explain how the spider got its name and its reputation.
ESTIMATE)_______, and if you live in a temperate climate and have a fireplace in your home,
it is advisable to take (34. CAUTION)_______. Black widow spiders often inhabit wood piles,
so you should wear gloves when handling firewood. Furthermore, since black widow spiders are
(35. RESIST)_______ to many insecticides, you should regularly clean out likely hiding places.
IV. Complete each sentence with the correct form of ONE of the two-word verbs.
bring out do up slow down save up hang over
mix up grow up go with dress up run for
36. Silence_______ the theatre as the audience awaited the opening curtain with expectation and
excitement.
37. Having seen a sharp bend ahead, Tim pressed hard on the brake pedal to_______.
38. Charles Dickens was born near Portsmouth, Hampshire on 7 February 1812, but relocated to
and_______ in Camden Town in London.
39. Barrack Obama has decided to_______ the American presidency in the election that will
take place next year.
40. Because I hate_______ my shoes, I have bought a pair of shoes without any laces.
41. Sarah wanted to buy some curtains that would_______ his furniture, so she had brought a
photo of them.
42. Kate had been_______ in order to buy a new laptop, but then she decided to use the money
on the guitar.
43. Even though two of t
recently_______.
own any formal clothes.
embarrassment for him.
V. Read the passage and fill in each of the blanks with ONE suitable word.
True relaxation is most certainly not a matter of flopping down in front of the television with a
welcome drink. Nor is it about drifting (46)_______ an exhausted sleep. Useful though these
responses to tension and over-tiredness (47)_______ be, we should distinguish between them
and conscious relaxation in (48)_______ of quality and effect. (49)_______ of the level of
tiredness, real relaxation is a state of alert yet at the same time passive awareness, in which our
bodies are (50)_______ rest while our minds are awake.
436
Moreover, it is as natural for a healthy person to be relaxed when moving as resting.
(51)_______ relaxed in action means we bring the appropriate energy to everything we do, so as
to have a feeling of healthy tiredness by the end of the day, (52)_______ than one of exhaustion.
strain and
rediscovered is conscious relaxation. With (54)_______ in mind we must apply ourselves to
understanding stress and the nature of its causes (55)_______ deep-seated.
VI. Read the following passage and choose the best answer (A, B, C or D) to each question.
A recent survey of crime statistics shows that we are all more likely to be burgled now
than 20 years ago and the police advise everyone to take a few simple precautions to protect their
homes.
The first fact is that burglars and other intruders prefer easy opportunities, like a house
which is very obviously empty. This is much less of a challenge than an occupied house, and one
which is well-protected. A burglar will wonder if it is worth the bother.
There are some general tips on how to avoid your home becoming another crime statistic.
Avoid leaving signs that your house is empty. When you have to go out, leave at least one light
on as well as a radio or television, and do not leave any curtains wide open. The sight of your
latest music centre or computer is enough to tempt any burglar.
Never leave a spare key in a convenient hiding place. The first place a burglar will look is
under the doormat or in a flower pot and even somewhere more 'imaginative' could soon be
uncovered by the intruder. It is much safer to leave a key with a neighbour you can trust. But if
your house is in a quiet, desolate area be aware that this will be a burglar's dream, so deter any
potential criminal from approaching your house by fitting security lights to the outside of your
house.
But what could happen if, in spite of the aforementioned precautions, a burglar or
intruder has decided to target your home. Windows are usually the first point of entry for many
intruders. Downstairs windows provide easy access while upstairs windows can be reached with
a ladder or by climbing up the drainpipe. Before going to bed you should double-check that all
windows and shutters are locked. No matter how small your windows may be, it is surprising
what a narrow gap a determined burglar can manage to get through. For extra security, fit
window locks to the inside of the window.
What about entry via doors? Your back door and patio doors, which are easily forced
open, should have top quality security locks fitted. Even though this is expensive it will be
money well spent. Install a burglar alarm if you can afford it as another line of defense against
intruders.
A sobering fact is that not all intruders have to break and enter into a property. Why go to
the trouble of breaking in if you can just knock and be invited in? Beware of bogus officials or
workmen and, particularly if you are elderly, fit a chain and an eye hole so you can scrutinise
437
callers at your leisure. When you do have callers never let anybody into your home unless you
are absolutely sure they are genuine. Ask to see an identity card, for example.
If you are in the frightening position of waking in the middle of the night and think you
can hear an intruder, then on no account should you approach the intruder. It is far better to
telephone the police and wait for help.
56. A well-protected house________.
A. is less likely to be burgled. B. is regarded as a challenge by most
criminals.
C. is a lot of bother to maintain. D. is very unlikely to be burgled.
57. According to the writer, we should________.
A. avoid leaving our house empty.
B. only go out when we have to.
C. always keep the curtains closed.
D. give the impression that our house is occupied when we go out.
58. The writer thinks that hiding a key under a doormat or flower pot________.
A. is predictable. B. is useful.
C. is imaginative. D. is where you always find a spare key.
59. What word best replaces desolate
A. isolated B. populous C. dissatisfying D. depressing
aforementioned precautionsin paragraph 5 refers to steps that________.
A. will tell a burglar if your house is empty or not.
B. are the most important precautions to take to make your home safe.
C. will stop a potential burglar.
D. will not stop an intruder if he has decided to try and enter your home.
61. Gaining entry to a house through a small window________.
A. is surprisingly difficult.
B. is not as difficult as people think.
C. is less likely to happen than gaining entry through a door.
D. is tried only by very determined burglars.
62. According to the writer, window locks, security locks and burglar alarms________.
A. cost a lot of money but are worth it. B. are good value for money.
C. are luxury items. D. are absolutely essential items.
63. The writer argues that fitting a chain and an eye hole________.
A. will prevent your home being burgled.
B. avoids you having to invite people into your home.
C. is only necessary for elderly people.
D. gives you time to check if the visitor is genuine.
scrutinise
A. glance B. gaze C. search D. examine
65. The best title for the text is________.
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A. Increasing household crime. B. Protecting your home from intruders.
C. Burglary statistics. D. What to do if a burglar breaks into your
home.
VII. Complete each of the sentences so that it has similar meaning to the given one, using the
word given in bold. Do NOT change the form of the word given.
66. They will try John for murder at the High Court next week.
(trial)
John____________________________________________________________.
67. How do our sales compare with those of other firms? (relation)
68. The number of accidents has gone down steadily since the speed limit was imposed.
(decline)
69. This new record is certain to sell a lot of copies.
(doubt)
________.
(question)
VIII. Writing an essay.
“Recycling is saving up our lives”.
What do you think of that matter? Write an essay of about 280- 300 words to support your
points.
439
440
Keys – practice 37
I.
(5pts) 1 point/correct answer.
1. A
2. A
3. A
4. B
5. B
II.
(20pts) 1 point/correct answer.
6. D
7. B
8. B
9. B
10. C
11. A
12. C
13. C
14. B
15. A
16. B
17. C
18. D
19. D
20. A
21. A
22. C
23. A
24. D
25. A
III.
(10pts) 1 point/correct answer.
26. misconception
27. venomous
28. comparison
29. fatalities
30. solitary
31. occurrences
32. unpleasant
33. underestimated
34. precautions
35. resistant
IV. (15pts) 1.5 point/correct answer.
36. hung over
37. slow down
38. grew up
39. run for
40. doing up
41. go with
42. saving up
43. brought out
44. dress up
45. mixed up
V.
(10pts) 1 point/correct answer.
46. into
47. might/may/can
48. terms
49. regardless/irrespective
50. at
51. Being
52. rather
53. let
54. this/that
55. how
VI. (15pts) 1.5 point/correct answer.
56. A
57. D
58. A
59. A
60. C
61. B
62. A
63. D
64. D
65. B
VII. (10pts) 2 points/correct answer.
VIII.
66.
67.
68.
69.
70.
will stand trial murder at the High Court next week.
our sales stand in relation to those of other firms?
been a steady decline in the number of accidents since the speed limit was
imposed.
no doubt that this new record will sell a lot of copies.
my mind about resigning is out of question.
n answers
Content: accounts for 50% of the total mark. To be given the maximum of 50% for the
content, the candidates should provide all main ideas and details as appropriate.
Language: accounts for 30% of the total mark. To be given the maximum of 30% for
441
language, the candidates should use variety of vocabulary and structures appropriate to
the level of English language high school students.
Presentation: accounts for 20% of the total mark. To be given the maximum of 20% for
presentation, the candidates should write with coherence, cohesion and can use
appropriate styles and linking devices
ENGLISH PRACTICE 38
PART A: PHONETICS (5 pts)
Question I: Choose the word whose underlined part is pronounced differently from the rest in
the same line. (2 pts)
1. A. famous B. nervous C. favourite D.
mountain
2. A. through B. enough C. rough D.
tough
Question II: Find the word with the stress pattern different from that of the other three words
in each question. (3 pts)
3. A. passion B. encourage C. occasion D.
depend
4. A. participant B. publicity C. competitive D.
Individual
5. A. limitation B. documentary C. government D.
interactive
PART B: VOCABULARY AND GRAMMAR (45 pts)
Question I: Choose the most suitable word or phrase to complete each sentence. (15 pts)
6. ..............1915 that the cinema really became an industry.
A. It is not until B. It was not until C. Not until D.
Until in
by myself.
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A. you to offer B. you are offering C. your offering D. that
you offer
A. a B. an C. the D. Ø
9. - Daisy: - Mary
A. Lovely, I think so B. No problem
D. Thank you. Hope you will drop in
10. My new glasses cost me _______ the last pair I bought last month.
A. more than three times C. more three times than
B. three times as much as D. as much three times as
11. We bought some ________.
A. German lovely old glasses B. German old lovely glasses
C. lovely old German glasses D. old lovely German glasses
12. After years of neglect, there was a huge _____ program to return the city to its former glory.
A. restoration B. preservation C. conservation D.
Refurbishment
13. We all have to follow the rules, and none of us is_____ the law.
A. beyond B. over C. above D. Onto
14. On the_____, optimists believe that life will be much better than it is today.
A. contrary B. contrast C. opposition D.
opponent
15. You had your house decorated, .............. ?
16. A part
A. pursue B. chase C. seek D.
catch
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17. The type of plant and animal life living in and around a pond depends on the soil of the pond,
A. what the quality of the water is B. how is the water quality
C. the quality of water D. what is the water quality
18. __________ its accuracy, laser is very useful in medicine.
A. In view of B. As a result of C. Thanks to D.
Despite
19. ______ for their strong fiber include flax and hemp.
A. Plants are grown B. Plants grown
C. Plants that grow D. To grow plants
20. ______ appears considerably larger at the horizon than it does overhead is merely an optical
illusion.
A. What the Moon B. The Moon which
C. When the Moon D. That the Moon
Question II: The following passage contains 10 unnecessary words. Find and write the
word(s) on your answer sheet (10 pts) (Questions 21-30).
line
1
5
As you will see from my curriculum vitae, I have attended university, where I studied
English and Law. After finishing my course, I took a job in a travel agency in Paris and
now I organise few hours for people who wanting to go to Australia and the United
States. Although I enjoy this very much, I feel I need to get more experience and it
would seems to me that working as a specialised tour guide in England would help me
for do that. I would rather work in an English-speaking country, as I need to practise my
English. I spend one year at London University, which it was most useful. I did much
conversation classes and at first I thought that I would find them difficult. However,
they turned out to be very enjoyable. I will have no any difficulty in coming to England
for an interview if you will let me know in plenty of the time. I enclose details of my
present employer who will be too pleased to send you a reference.
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10
11
Question III: Put each verb in brackets into an appropriate form. (10 pts)
31. By the time the war is over, thousands of innocent people ( kill)_________.
32. Tom will never forget ( send)______ to a boarding school when he was just 8 years old.
33-34. The accident ( report)_______(cause)________ by a reckless motorist.
35. Many people (invite)
36. In her report, she mentioned (treat) ______ at a hospital abroad last year
37. Hardly our teacher (enter) ________the classroom when it started to rain.
38. Bi Rain, together with 58 members of the South Korean National Military Symphony
Orchestra and 17 traditional musicians, (come) _________to Vietnam since yesterday.
39. The police are stopping all the cars. They (look) _______ for the escaped prisoner.
40. My uncle would rather that I ( not leave) _________ yesterday.
Question IV: Put each word in brackets into an appropriate form. (10 pts)
41. Different conservation efforts have been made in order to save _______ species. (DANGER)
42.There are some ______ and differences between the New Year in Japan and that in Vietnam.
(SIMILAR)
43. He resigned for a ___________________ of reasons.
(VARIOUS)
44. We have to decide to interview only the best six __________ for the job. (APPLY)
45. Her son is always mischievous and ______, which annoys her very much. (OBEY)
46. Sugar is the_________ of healthy teeth.
(DESTRUCTION)
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(HOUSE)
48. When confronted with a mass of red tape, many people feel a sense of _________________
(POWER)
49. Mr. Pike has_________ his wife by three years.
(LIVE)
50. I was a bit_______ by my performance in the first exam, but I decided (MORAL)
to make an extra effort in the ones left.
PART C: READING COMPREHENSION (30 pts)
Question I: Read the following passage and then choose the most suitable word or phrase for
each space. (10 pts)
Childhood is the time when there are (51)_________ responsibilities to make life
difficult. If a child has good parents, he is (52) _________ , looked after and loved, whatever he
may do. It is improbable that he will ever again in his life be given so much without having to do
anything in return. In (53) _________, life is always presenting new things to the child- things
that have lost their interest for older people because they are too well- known. A child finds
pleasure playing in the rain , or in the snow. His first visit to the seaside is a marvellous
adventure. But a child has his (54) _________ .He is not so free to do as he wishes as he thinks
older people are: he is continually told not to do things, or being punished (55) _________ what
he has do
When a young man starts to (56) _________his own living, he becomes free from the
discipline of school and parents, but at the same time he is forced to accept responsibilities. He
can no longer expect (57) _________ to pay for his food, his clothes and his room, but he has to
work if he wants to live comfortably. If he spends most time playing about in a day he used to as
a child, he will be hungry. And if he breaks the laws of society as he used to break the laws of his
parents, he may go to prison. If, however, he works hard, keeps out of trouble and has good
health, he can have the greatest happiness of seeing himself make steady (58) _________ in his
job and of building up for himself his own position in society.
Old age has always been thought of as the worst age to be, but it is not necessary for the
old to be unhappy. With old age (59) _________wisdom and the ability to help others with
advice wisely given. The old can have the joy of seeing their children making progress in life:
they can watch their grandchildren growing up around them, and perhaps best of all, they can, if
their life has been a useful one, feel the happiness of having come (60) _________ the battle of
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life safely and of having reached a time when they can lie back and rest, leaving others to
continue the fight.
51. A. little B. a few C. a little D. few
52. A. eaten B. fed C. feeded D.
fetched
53. A. short B. term C. addition D. reality
54. A. injury B. difficulty C. problem D. pain
55. A. because B. by C. at D. for
56. A. take B. have C. create D. earn
57. A. other B. another C. others D.
someone
58. A. progress B. achievement C. improvements D.
accomplishments
59. A. coming B. come C. came D. had
come
60. A. out B. across C. through D. back
Question II: Supply the most suitable word for each blank. (10 pts)
THE THREAT TO THE ENVIRONMENT
Nowadays people are more aware that wildlife all over the world is in___61___.Many
species of animals are threatened, and could easily become ____62__ if we do not make an
___63___ to protect them. There are many reasons for this. In some cases, animals are hunted for
their fur or for other valuable ___64___ of their bodies. Some birds, such as parrots, are caught
___65___ and sold as pets. For many animals and birds, the problem is that their habitat - the
place ___66____ they live - is disappearing. More ___67___ is used for farms, for houses or
industry, and there are fewer open spaces ___68___ there once were. Farmers use powerful
chemicals to help them grow better crops but these chemicals ___69__ the environment and
harm wildlife. The most successful animals on earth - human beings - will soon be the only ones
___70___ unless we can solve this problem.
Question III: Read the passage and choose the best answers to questions below. (10 pts)
For many people who live in cities, parks are an important part of the landscape.
They provide a place for people to relax and play sports, as well as a refuge from the
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Line 5
Line 10
Line 15
Line 20
often harsh environment of a city. What people often overlook is that parks also provide
considerable environmental benefits.
One benefit of parks is that plants absorb carbon dioxidea key pollutantand
emit oxygen, which humans need to breathe. According to one study, an acre of trees
can absorb the same amount of carbon dioxide that a typical car emits in 11,000 miles of
driving. Parks also make cities cooler. Scientists have long noted what is called the
Urban Heat Island Effect: building materials such as metal, concrete, and asphalt absorb
e it much more quickly than organic surfaces like
trees and grass. Because city landscapes contain so much of these building materials,
cities are usually warmer than surrounding rural areas. Parks and other green spaces help
to mitigate the Urban Heat Island Effect.
Unfortunately, many cities cannot easily create more parks because most land is
already being used for buildings, roads, parking lots, and other essential parts of the
urban environment. However, cities could benefit from many of the positive effects of
parks by encouraging citizens to create another type of green space: rooftop gardens.
While most people would not think of starting a garden on their roof, human beings
have been planting gardens on rooftops for thousands of years. Some rooftop gardens
are very complex and require complicated engineering, but others are simple container
gardens that anyone can create with the investment of a few hundred dollars and a few
hours of work.
Rooftop gardens provide many of the same benefits as other urban park and garden
spaces, but without taking up the much-needed land. Like parks, rooftop gardens help to
replace carbon dioxide in the air with nourishing oxygen. They also help to lessen the
Urban Heat Island Effect, which can save people money. In the summer, rooftop gardens
prevent buildings from absorbing heat from the sun, which can significantly reduce
cooling bills. In the winter, gardens help hold in the heat that materials like brick and
concrete radiate so quickly, leading to savings on heating bills. Rooftop vegetable and
herb gardens can also provide fresh food for city dwellers, saving them money and
making their diets healthier. Rooftop gardens are not only something everyone can
enjoy, they are also a smart environmental investment.
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Line 30
Line 33
71. Based on its use in paragraph 2, it can be inferred that mitigate belongs to which of the following
word groups?
A. exacerbate, aggravate, intensify B. obliterate, destroy, annihilate
C. allay, alleviate, reduce D. absorb, intake, consume
72. Using the information in paragraph 2 as a guide, it can be inferred that ........................
A. cities with rooftop gardens are cooler than those without rooftop gardens
B. some plants are not suitable for growth in rooftop gardens
C. most people prefer parks to rooftop gardens
D. most people prefer life in the country over life in the city
73. According to the passage, the Urban Heat Island Effect is caused by the fact(s) that
..................
a. cities are warmer than nearby rural areas
b.
c.
A. b and c B. a and b C. a D. a, b,
and c
74. Based on the information in paragraph 3, which of the following best describes the main
difference between parks and rooftop gardens?
A. Parks are expensive to create while rooftop gardens are not.
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B. Parks are public while rooftop gardens are private.
C. Parks absorb heat while rooftop gardens do not.
D. Parks require much space while rooftop gardens do not.
75. The author claims all of the following to be the benefits of rooftop gardens except
........................
A. increased space for private relaxation
B. savings on heating and cooling costs
C. better food for city dwellers
D. improved air quality
76. According to the author, one advantage that rooftop gardens have over parks is that they
........................
A. decrease the Urban Heat Island Effect
B. replenish the air with nourishing oxygen
C. do not require the use of valuable urban land
D. are less expensive than traditional park spaces
77s................................
A. descriptive B. passionate C. informative D. argumentative
78. Which of the following pieces of information would, if true, most weaken the author's claim
that rooftop gardens are good for the environment?
A. Parks have many benefits that rooftop gardens do not share.
B. More pollution is produced during rooftop garden construction than rooftop plants can
remove from the air.
C. Extremely high winds atop tall city buildings can severely damage some plants.
D. The overall environmental benefits that result from driving less exceed those of planting a
rooftop garden.
79. Which of the following best describes the organization of the passage?
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A. A hypothesis is stated and then analyzed.
B. A proposal is evaluated and alternatives are explored.
C. A viewpoint is established and then defended.
D. A thesis is presented and then supported.
80. It can be inferred from the passage that the author would most likely endorse a program that
..................
A. permitted the construction of buildings in city park land provided they have rooftop
gardens.
B. extended discounts on plants to customers who use them to create rooftop gardens.
C. offered free admission to schools willing to take their students on field trips to the city
park.
D. promised vacation getaways to cooler destinations for those trapped in the city at the
peak of summer.
PART D: WRITING (20 pts)
Question I: Finish each of the following sentences in such a way that it is as similar as
possible in meaning to the sentence printed before it. (5 pts)
81. The heavy rain made it impossible for us to have our picnic.
Had ___________________________________________________
82. People no longer smoke so many cigarettes as they used to.
The ___________________________________________________
The moment ___________________________________________
84. If anyone succeeds in solving the problem, it will probably be him.
He is the most __________________________________________
85. We were all shocked by his reaction.
His reaction came_________________________________________
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Question II: Finish each of the following sentences in such a way that it is as similar as
possible in meaning to the sentence printed before it. Do not change the form of the given
word. (5 pts)
EYE)
I left my last job because I_______________________ with my manager.
87. All the witnesses said that the accident was my fault. ( BLAME)
All the witnesses said that___________________________ the accident.
88. It was childish of him not to accept my apologies. ( REFUSED)
He _________________________________________________ of him.
89. No one listened to what the politician was saying last night. (EARS)
What ____________________________________________ last night.
90. She thought it was too difficult for her to come to the class on time. (FOUND)
She _______________________________________ the class on time.
Question III. Essay writing (10 pts):
Some people say that cell phones have improved modern life. Others believe that cell
phones have caused many problems to people. What is your opinion? In about 150 - 200 words,
write an essay to assert your point of view on this problem.
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---------- THE END ---------
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Keys – practice 38
PART A: PHONETICS (5 điểm – Mỗi câu đúng 1 điểm)
1.D
2.A
3.A
4.D
5.C
PART B: VOCABULARY & GRAMMAR (45 điểm - Mỗi câu đúng 1 điểm)
Question I.
6.B
7.C
8.B
9.D
10.B
11.C
12.A
13.C
14.A
15.B
16.A
17.C
18.C
19.B
20.D
Question II.
WORD
LINE
WORD
LINE
21.
few
3
26.
much
8
22.
who
3
27.
any
9
23.
would
5
28.
will
10
24.
for
6
29.
the
10
25.
it
7
30.
too
11
Question III
31.
will have been killed
36.
having been treated
32.
being sent
37.
had our teacher entered
33.
was reported
38.
has come
34.
to have been caused
39
must be looking
35.
invited
40.
Question IV
41.endangered
42. similarities
43. variety
44. applicants
45. disobedient
46. destroyer
47.households
48. powerlessness
49. outlived
50. demoralised/
demoralized
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PART C: READING COMPREHENSION (30 pts)
( Mỗi câu đúng 1 điểm)
Question I
51.D
52.B
53.C
54.D
55.D
56.D
57.C
58.A
59.B
60.C
Question II.
61. danger
62. extinct
63. effort
64. parts
65. alive
66. where
67. land
68. than
69. pollute
70. left
Question III.
71. C
72. A
73. A
74. D
75. A
76. C
77. C
78. B
79. C
80. B
PART D: WRITING (20 pts)
Question I (5 điểm- Mỗi câu đúng 1 điểm)
81.
- Had it not been for the heavy rain, we could have had our picnic.
- Had it not rained heavily, we could have had our picnic.
82.
The smoking of cigarettes is no longer as popular as it used to be.
83.
The moment I decided to get up to dance, the band decided to stop playing.
84.
He is the most likely person to succeed in solving the problem
85.
His reaction came as a shock to us all
Question II (5 điểm- Mỗi câu đúng 1 điểm)
86.
I left my last job
87.
All the witnesses said that I was to blame for the accident.
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88.
He refused to accept my apologies, which was childish of him
89.
What the politician was saying fell on deaf ears last night.
90.
She found it too diffcult to come to the class on time.
Question III. Essay: (10 điểm)
Marking criteria:
+ Task completion (4 điểm)
-
+ Grammatical accuracy and spelling 3 điểm:
- Coherence and cohesion (tính mạch lạc và sự liên kết câu, đoạn) – 3 điểm:
-
B- HƯỚNG DẪN CHẤM
Bài thi chm: 20
n 0,25
Tng s
m bài thi = ---------------------------------------
ENGLISH PRACTICE 39
PART A. PRONUNCIATION
Choose the word whose stress pattern is different from the other three in the following
question
1. A. imagine B. discipline C. determine D.
Valentines
2. A. purses B. blouses C. amuses D.
Pleases
3. A. lie B. goalie C. society D. pie
4. A. finished B. jagged C. packed D.
punched
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5. A. accurate B. tale C. shape D. date
6. A. situations B. obstacles C. secrets D.
Sounds
7. A. chasm B. phrase C. suitcase D. chase
8. A. vineyard B. Finland C. business D. ignite
9. A. touched B. crooked C. missed D.
watched
10. A. dedicate B. private C. eliminate D.
educate
PART B. GRAMMAR AND VOCABULARY (5.0 points)
Circle the letter A, B, C, or D to indicate the correct answer to each of the following
questions.
1. The singer and actor____________ coming now.
A. is B. are C. was D. were
2. Tom_________ things around the house, which is annoying.
A. always leaves B. has always left C. is leaving D. is always leaving
3. Up_________ when it saw its master.
A. jumped the dog B. did the dog jump C. the dog jump D. does the dog
jump
A. How come B. Why C. What for D. A and B are
correct
6. The couple _________in that castle for several months before they noticed anything odd.
A. have been living B. have lived C. had been living D. were living
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7. That is the librarian _________ I got the information.
A. whom B. from who C. from him D. from whom
8. Part- time workers at the company are the first_________.
A. that is laid off B. who lay off C. being laid off D. to be laid off
9. Noise pollution generally receives less attention than_________ air pollution.
A. does B. it does C. is D. it is
attention to what I was saying.
A. I am trying B. having tried C. I try D. trying
11. After he left _________ University of Massachusetts, he went to_________ Indiana State
University.
A. the - ø B. the the C. ø - the D. ø - ø
12. If Mary_________ me she was going, I could have asked her for a lift.
A. tells B. had told
13. The salesperson says that there_________ many quality items on sale from next Monday.
A. was B. will be C. would be D. were
14. There is a small number involved, possibly___________ a hundred.
A. as many as B. as little as C. as few as D. as much as
15. I can never understand why quite a few city dwellers have no ideas of _________.
A. that their neighbor B. who are their neighbors
C. whose neighbor is D. who their neighbors are
16. His pale face suggested that he _________ not well.
A. should be B. be C. were D. was
17. Corporations have been donating more and more to _________.
A. the needy B. the need C. the needy people D. the needed
the equipment in a minute. _________ give you a hand?
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A. Shall I B. Will I C. Would I D. Do I
A. made B. taken C. done D. had
20. She nearly lost her own life _________ attempting to save the child from drowning.
A. at B. with C. for D. in
21. The success of the party was mainly due to the presence of several _________ .
A. celebrations B. celebrated C. celebrities D. celebrates
. Actually they are _________ funny.
A. rather B. quite C. completely D. totally
23. She_________ me a nice compliment yesterday.
A. brought B. made C. took D. paid
24. Over the last few months garages_________ the price of petrol three times.
A. have risen B. have put up C. raised D. have gone up
A. survivor B. survive C. surviving D. survival
26. It was _________ that I bought those books.
A. this shop B. this shop where C. at this shop D. the shop
A. Oh, pretty good, actually .
D. I was not very good at it.
28. _________, the young woman was visibly very happy after the birth of her child.
A. Despite tired B. Though tired
C. Tired although she was D. She was tired
29. Our school _________ about 600 new students every year.
A. admits B. accepts C. allows D. gets
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30. The kind- hearted woman _________ all her life to helping the disabled and the poor.
A. wasted B. spent C. dedicated D. lived
31. The teacher asked a difficult question, but finally Ted _________ a good answer.
A. came up to B. came up for C. came up with D. came out of
A. on the same importance B. of the same importance as
C. the same importance as D. as the same importance as
A. No problem. B. Yes, he is not at all
34. As its sales have increased, that computer company is going to _________ more staff.
A. take in B. take on C. take over D. take up
35. It is a good idea for them to exchange _________ before the visits.
A. correspond B. corresponds C. correspondence D. correspondingly
Circle the letter A, B, C, or D to indicate the word or phrase that is CLOSEST in meaning to
the underlined part in each of the following questions.
36. For a decade, Barzilai has studied centenarians, looking for genes that contribute to
longervity.
A. who are vegetarians B. who want to be fruitarians
C. who are extraordinary D. who live to be 100 or older
37. The high mountain climate is cold and inhospitable.
A. rainy B. stormy C. uninviting D. intense
38. After the bottom fell out of the market, he was virtually bankrupt.
A. completely B. finally C. practically D. dishonestly
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39. . My uncle, who is an accomplished guitarist, taught me how to play.
A. skillful B. famous C. perfect D. modest
40. New members will be issued with a temporary identity card.
A. of a long time B. of a short time
C. of great attempt D. of prime importance
Circle the letter A, B, C, or D to show the underlined part that needs correction in each
of the following questions.
41. My laptop is very slow and unreliable. If you use it, please save your files frequently if you
do A B C
not want to loose it.
D
42. It took a ship approximately eight hours to complete the trip through the canal and cost an
A B C
average of fifteen thousands dollars.
D
43. If they took their language lesson seriously, they would be able to communicate
A B C
with the locals now.
D
44. Neither of the men arresting as terrorists would reveal information about his group.
A B C D
45. Many places of history, scientific, cultural, or scenic importance have been designated
A B C
national monuments.
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D
Circle the letter A, B, C, or D to indicate the correct answer to each of the following
questions.
46. Hillary changed her major from linguistics to business, ______.
A. hoping she can easier get a job
B. with the hope for being able finding a better job
C. hoping to find a job more easily
D. with hopes to be able easier to get employment
47. _________, I was pleased it was over.
A. Though strange it was
B. Despite it may sound strange
C. Strange though it may sound
D. Even though being very strange
48. Most psychologists agree that th
A. well established extremely by the age of five
B. by the age of five it is extremely well established
C. extremely well established by the age of five
D. by the age of five and extremely well established
49. Having been served lunch, _________.
A. the problem was discussed by the members of the committee
B. the committee members discussed the problem
C. it was discussed by the committee members the problem
D. a discussion of the problem was made by the committee
50. He objected to____________________________.
A. his mistakes being laughed at B. laughing his mistakes at
C. his mistakes laughing at D. his mistakes at laughing
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PART C. READING (6.0 points)
I. Read the following passage and circle the most suitable answer ( A,B,C or D ) for each
space: (2 points)
According (0)______ a magazine article I read recently, we (1)______ live in an age of
increasing leisure. Not only are more and more people reaching retirement age with their taste
for enjoyment and even adventure relatively (2)________ but the working week is becoming
shorter and the opportunities for leisure are becoming greater and greater all the time. Not to
mention the fact that people (3)_________ to spend less time traveling to work or may even be
working from home. What I can't understand, however, is who these people are. As far as I can
(4)________ the whole thing is another one of the journalistic fictions. I admit that there are a
lot of retired people nowadays but I am not sure that all of them are dashing about learning hang-
gliding or sailing single-handed (5)_________ the world. My own parents seem to (6)_______
most of their time gazing at the television. And as for the shorter working week, I wish someone
(7)________ remind my company about it. I seem to be working longer and longer hours all the
time. The little leisure time I have is eaten into by sitting in the traffic jams or waiting for trains
to (8)_______ up at rain-swept platforms. I haven't noticed any dramatic improvements in my
(9)_________ either, but perhaps I just have to wait until I get my (10)__________ .
0. A. to B. for C. of D. into
1. A. present B. at the moment C. now D. at this time
2. A. present B. survived C. free D. intact
3. A. use B. tend C. have D. demand
4. A. concern B. imagine C. expect D. tell
5. A. round B. over C. through D. into
6. A. have B. use C. save D. spend
7. A. would B. to C. had D. might
8. A. keep B. line C. show D. set
9. A. cost of living B. lifestyle C. lifeline D. livelihood
10. A. pension B. retirement C. insurance D. salary
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II. Read the following passage and circle the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to
indicate the correct answer to each of the following questions.(2 points)
The history of clinical nutrition, or the study of the relationship between health and how the
body takes in and utilizes food substances, can be divided into four distinct eras: the first began
in the nineteenth century and extended into the early twentieth century when it was recognized
for the first time that food contained constituents that were essential for human function and that
different foods provided different amounts of these essential agents. Near the end of this era,
research studies demonstrated that rapid weight loss was associated with nitrogen imbalance and
could only be rectified by providing adequate dietary protein associated with certain foods.
The second era was initiated in the early decades of the twentieth century and might be
called "the vitamin period. " Vitamins came to be recognized in foods, and deficiency
syndromes were described. As vitamins became recognized as essential food constituents
necessary for health, it became tempting to suggest that every disease and condition for which
there had been no previous effective treatment might be responsive to vitamin therapy. At that
point in time, medical schools started to become more interested in having their curricula
integrate nutritional concepts into the basic sciences. Much of the focus of this education was on
the recognition of deficiency symptoms. Herein lay the beginning of what
ultimately turned from ignorance to denial of the value of nutritional therapies in medicine.
Reckless claims were made for effects of vitamins that went far beyond what could actually be
achieved from the use of them.
In the third era of nutritional history in the early 1950's to mid-1960's, vitamin therapy
began to fall into disrepute. Concomitant with this, nutrition education in medical schools also
became less popular. It was just a decade before this that many drug companies had found their
vitamin sales skyrocketing and were quick to supply practicing physicians with generous
samples of vitamins and literature extolling the virtue of supplementation for a variety of health-
related conditions. Expectations as to the success of vitamins in disease control were
exaggerated. As is known in retrospect, vitamin and mineral therapies are much less effective
when applied to health-crisis conditions than when applied to long-term problems of under
nutrition that lead to chronic health problems.
1. What does the passage mainly discuss?
A. The stages of development of clinical nutrition as a field of study
B. The history of food preferences from the nineteenth century to the present
C. The effects of vitamins on the human body
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D. Nutritional practices of the nineteenth century
2. It can be inferred from the passage that which of the following discoveries was made during
the first era in the history of nutrition?
A. Certain foods were found to be harmful to good health.
B. Vitamins were synthesized from foods.
C. Effective techniques of weight loss were determined.
D. Protein was recognized as an essential component of diet.
3. The word "tempting" is closest in meaning to.
A. realistic B. necessary C. correct D. attractive
4. It can be inferred from the passage that medical schools began to teach concepts of nutrition in
order to
A. encourage medical doctors to apply concepts of nutrition in the treatment of disease
B. support the creation of artificial vitamins
C. convince doctors to conduct experimental vitamin therapies on their patients
D. convince medical doctors to participate in research studies on nutrition
5. The word "Reckless" is closest in meaning to?
A. recorded B. irresponsible C. informative D. urgent
6. The word "them" refers to
A. effects B. vitamins C. claims D. therapies
7. Why did vitamin therapy begin losing favor in the 1950's ?
A. Medical schools stopped teaching nutritional concepts
B. Nutritional research was of poor quality
C. The public lost interest in vitamins
D. Claims for the effectiveness of vitamin therapy were seen to be exaggerated.
8. The phrase "concomitant with" is closest in meaning to
A. in dispute with B. prior to C. in conjunction with D. in regard to
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9. The word "skyrocketing" is closest in meaning to
A. internationally popular B. increasing rapidly C. surprising D. acceptable
10. The paragraph following the passage most probably discusses
A. Why nutrition education lost its appeal B. Problems associated with undernutrition
C. The fourth era of nutrition history D. How drug companies became
successful
III. Read the passage and circle the letter A, B, C or D to indicate the correct answer to each
of the questions .(2 points )
Choosing a career may be one of the hardest jobs you ever have, and it must be done
with care. View a career as an opportunity to do something you love, not simply as a way to earn
a living. Investing the time and effort to thoroughly explore your options can mean the difference
between finding a stimulating and rewarding career and move from job to unsatisfying job in an
attempt to find the right one. Work influences virtually every aspect of your life, from your
choice of friends to where you live. Here are just a few of the factors to consider.
Deciding what matters most to you is essential to making the right decision. You may
want to begin by assessing your likes, dislikes, strengths, and weaknesses. Think about the
classes, hobbies, and surroundings that you find most appealing. Ask yourself questions, such as
There are no right or wrong answers ; only you know what is
important to you. Determine which job features you require, which ones you would prefer, and
which ones you cannot accept. Then rank them in order of importance to you.
The setting of the job is one factor to take into account. You may not want to sit at a desk
all day. If not, there are diversity occupation building inspector, supervisor, real estate agent
that involve a great deal of time away from the office. Geographical location may be a concern,
and employment in some fields in concentrated in certain regions. Advertising job can generally
be found only in large cities. On the other hand, many industries such as hospitality, law
education, and retail sales are found in all regions of the country.
If a high salary is important to you, do not judge a career by its starting wages. Many
jobs, such as insurance sales, offers relatively low starting salaries; however, pay substantially
increases along with your experience, additional training, promotions and commission.
arning more about it. Some industries evoke
positive or negative associations. The traveling life of a flight attendant appears glamorous,
while that of a plumber does not. Remember that many jobs are not what they appear to be at
first, and may have merits or demerits that are less obvious. Flight attendants must work long,
grueling hours without sleeps, whereas plumbers can be as highly paid as some doctors.
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Another point to consider is that as you mature, you will likely develop new interests and skills
that may point the way to new opportunities. The choice you make today need not be your final
one.
1. The word “assessing” in paragraph 2 could best be replaced by
A. discovering B. considering C. measuring D. disposing
2. The author states that “There are no right or wrong answers” in order to ____
B. show that answering the questions is a long and difficult process.
C. indicate that the answers are not really important.
3. The word “them” in paragraph 2 refers to
A. questions B. answers C. features D. jobs
4. According to paragraph 3, which of the following fields is NOT suitable for a person who
does not want to live in a big city ?
A. plumbing B. law C. retail sales D. advertising
5. It can be inferred from the paragraph 4 that
A. jobs in insurance sales are generally not well-paid.
B. insurance sales people can earn high salary later in their career.
C. people should constantly work toward the next promotion.
D. a starting salary should be an important consideration in choosing a career.
6. The word “evoke” in paragraph 5 is closest in meaning to
A. agree on B. bring to mind C. be related to D. differ from
7. The word “that” in paragraph 5 refers to
A. occupation B. the traveling life
C. a flight attendant D. commission
8. Why does the author mention “long, grueling hours without sleeps” in paragraph 5 ?
A. To emphasize the difficulty of working as a plumber.
B. To contrast the r
C. To show that people must work hard for the career they have chosen.
D. To discourage readers from choosing a career as a flight attendant.
9. In paragraph 5, the author suggests that
A. you may want to change careers at some time in the future.
B. as you get older, your career will probably less fulfilling.
C. you will be at your job for a lifetime, so choose carefully.
D. you will probably jobless at some time in the future.
10. According to the passage, which of the following is true ?
A. To make a lot of money, you should not take a job with a low starting salary.
B. To make lots of money, you should rule out all factory jobs.
467
C. If you want an easy and glamorous lifestyle, you should consider becoming flight
attendant
D. Your initial view of certain careers may not be accurate.
PART D. WRITING (5.0 points)
I. Finish each second sentence so that it has similar meaning to the first sentence, using the
clues at the beginning of each sentence. There‟s an example at the beginning (0). (2.0 points)
0. She was not used to driving on the left.
She found it strange to drive on the left.
1. I was very shocked when I knew that I had failed that important test.
It came _______________________________________________________________ .
2. The third time he asked her to marry him, she accepted.
Only on ________________________________________________________________ .
3. As he grew older, he became more and more forgetful.
The____________________________________________________________________ .
4. It was wrong of you to allow a 4- year-old child to walk home alone.
You should______________________________________________________________.
5. She thought it was too difficult for her to finish the job by lunchtime.
She found_______________________________________________________________ .
6. They thought that the thief was still in the house.
The thief________________________________________________________________ .
Nam said that if__________________________________________________________.
8. Nick told one of the detectives that he had taken the cashbox.
Nick admitted __________________________________________________________ .
9. While I strongly disapprove of your behaviour, I will help you this time.
Despite my _____________________________________________________________ .
468
10. It was essential for her to be relieved of her duties.
It was essential that _______________________________________________________.
II. Finish each second sentence so that it has similar meaning to the first sentence, using the
words given in the brackets. There‟s an example at the beginning (0). (1.0 points)
0. The last Olympic Games were held in Seoul. (TOOK)
The last Olympic Games took place in Seoul.
1. No messages have come for me, have they? ( THERE)
______________________________________________________________________.
2. He drove so carelessly that he had an accident last month. (SUCH)
_______________________________________________________________________ .
3. They are letting John out of hospital next week. (RELEASED)
_______________________________________________________________________ .
you get an optician to test your eyes? (TESTED)
_______________________________________________________________________ .
5. I bought a magazine whose title is Sun Flowers. (OF)
_______________________________________________________________________
III. Write a passage (about 200 words) on the following topic: (2.0 points)
In order to help save endangered species from extinction, a number of wildlife habitat
reserves have been established. What are the advantages and disadvantages of these reserves?
Use your specific ideas and examples to support your answer.
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………………
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…………………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………………
-------THE END-------
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Keys – practice 39
PART A. PRONUNCIATION
Choose the word whose stress pattern is different from the other three in the following
question
1. A. imagine B. discipline C. determine D.
Valentines
2. A. purses B. blouses C. amuses D.
Pleases
3. A. lie B. goalie C. society D. pie
4. A. finished B. jagged C. packed D.
punched
5. A. accurate B. tale C. shape D. date
6. A. situations B. obstacles C. secrets D.
Sounds
7. A. chasm B. phrase C. suitcase D. chase
8. A. vineyard B. Finland C. business D. ignite
9. A. touched B. crooked C. missed D.
watched
10. A. dedicate B. private C. eliminate D.
educate
PART B. VOCABULARY AND GRAMMAR (5.0 points)
0.1 point for each correct answer.
1. A
2. D
3. A
4. B
5. A
6. C
7. D
8. D
9. A
10. D
11. A
12. B
13. B
14. C
15. D
16. D
17. A
18. A
19. C
20. D
21. C
22. A
23. D
24. B
25. D
26. C
27. A
28. B
29. A
30. C
31. C
32. B
33. D
34. B
35. C
36. D
37. C
38. C
39. A
40. B
41. D
42. D
43. A
44. B
45. A
46. C
47. C
48. C
49. B
50. A
PART C. READING (6.0 points)
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I. Closing reading. (2.0 points)
0.2 point for each correct answer.
1. C 2. D 3. B 4. D 5. A 6. D 7. A 8. C 9. B 10. A
II. MCQ reading. (2.0 points)
0.2 point for each correct answer.
1. A 2. D 3. D 4. A 5. B 6. B 7. D 8. C 9. B 10. C
III. MCQ reading. (2.0 points)
0.2 point for each correct answer.
1. B 2. D 3. C 4. D 5. B 6. B 7. B 8. B 9. A 10. D
PART D. WRITING (5.0 points)
I. Finish second sentences. (2.0 points)
0.2 point for each correct answer.
1. It came as a shock to me/ when I knew that I had failed that important test.
2. Only on his third proposal did she agree to marry him.
3. The older he grew, the more forgetful he became.
4. You should not have allowed a 4- year-old child to walk home alone.
5. She found it too difficult to finish the job by lunch time.
6. The thief was thought to be still in the house.
7. the next day/ the following day/ the day after,
he would phone her.
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8. Nick admitted to one of the detectives that he had taken the cashbox.
9. Despite my strong disapproval of your behaviour, I will help you this time.
10. It was essential that she be relieved of her duties.
II. Finish second sentences. (1.0 point)
0.2 point for each correct answer.
1. There have been no messages/ haven’t been any messages for me, have there?
2. He was such a careless driver that he had an accident last month.
3. John is being released from hospital next week.
4. get/ have your eyes tested by an optician?
5. I bought a magazine the title of which is Sun Flowers.
III. (2.0 points)
Marking scheme
The impression mark is based on the following scheme:
1. Format. (0.2 point) - the passage has 3 parts: the Introduction (01 para), the body (01 or 02
para) and the conclusion (01 para).
2. Content. (1.0 point): a provision of main ideas and details as appropriate.
Note: Students need to mention the advantages and disadvantages of wildlife habitat
reserves
3. Language. (0.5 point): a variety of vocabulary and structures appropriate to the level of
secondary gifted students
4. Presentation. (0.3 point): coherence, cohesion, and style appropriate to the level of
secondary gifted students.
--------- THE END --------
ENGLISH PRACTICE 40
PART A. PRONUNCIATION
Choose the word whose stress pattern is different from the other three in the following
question
473
1. A. appropriate B. opposite C. economic D.
technology
2. A. dykes B. mins C. pesticides D.
nowadays
3. A. cooked B. practised C. laughed D.
decided
4. A. application B. identify C. chemistry D.
indicate
5. A. managed B. played C. penalized D.
marked
6. A. style B. typical C. pretty D.
penalty
7. A. mature B. century C. future D.
puncture
8. A. lie B. pie C. tie D.
believe
9. A. mastery B. baggy C. deny D.
symbol
10. A. organization B. capital C. dictation D. co-
operation
PART II. GRAMMAR AND VOCABULARY
I. Complete the following sentences by choosing the correct answer among four options (A, B,
C or D). (1,5 points).
1. He's really shy _______ girl.
A. by B. at C. for D. with
2. The teacher _______ her to improve her drawing.
A. insisted B. encouraged C. made D. persisted
3. I couldn't quite ______ what they were doing because they were so far away.
A. bear out B. make out C. think out D. try out
4. The meal Mary cooked tastes_______.
A. well B. nice C. good D. worse
5. ______ at the party, we saw Ruth standing alone.
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A. Arriving B. We arrived C. Arrived D. We were
arriving
6. The people who______ the survey said that they had examined over 1,000 accidents.
A. gave B. proceed C. set D.
conducted
7. The judge found him ______ of stealing and sent him to prison.
A. evil B. innocent C. guilty D. wicked
8. The house we have rented is______. So we will have to buy some beds, chairs, tables, etc.
A. unrestored B. unrepaired C. unfurnished D. undecorated
9. He was turned down for the job because he is ________.
A. qualified B. qualifying C. unqualified D.
qualification
10. The trouble started only______ the other man came into the room.
A. when B. until C. and then D. too
soon
11. _______, the disaster would not have happened.
A. Had you have obeyed the orders B. You had obeyed the orders
C. You obeyed the orders D. Had you obeyed the orders
12. _______ had booked in advance were allowed in.
A. Only who B. Only those who
C. Only who were those D. Only were those who
13. Traveling alone to a jungle is adventurous, ________.
A. if not impossible B. if it not impossible
C. when not impossible D. when it not impossible
14. I ______ the hot weather in the south.
A. use to B. used to C. am use to D. am used to
15. The meat looked very _______ to the dog.
475
A. invited B. invite C. inviting D. invitingly
YOUR ANSWERS:
1.
2.
3.
4.
5.
6.
7.
8.
9.
10.
11.
12.
13.
14.
15.
II. Use the correct form of each word on the right to complete the numbered spaces provided
in the passage. Write your answers on your answer sheet. (1,5 point)
Three hundred and fifty years before the first men looked down on the amazingly
(1)_______ him to look at the edge of the hitherto mysterious sphere. He saw that the
apparently (2)_______ surface was not divinely smooth and round, but bumpy and
imperfect. He realized that although the moon might appear (3)_____, resembling a still
life painted by the hand of a cosmic (4)_____, it was a real world, perhaps not very
different from our own. This amounted to a great (5)______ hardly to be expected in his
day and age, although nowadays his (6)______ may appear to some to be trivial and
(7)________.
(8)________ revealed more of their extraordinary mysteries. Casting around for further
wonders, Galileo focused his lens on the (9)_______ planet of Jupiter. Nestling next to
it, he saw four little points of light circling the distant planet. Our moon it appeared,
perhaps (10)_______ in the eyes of those fearful of what the discovery might mean, was
not alone!
YOUR ANSWERS:
1. ABLE
2. LIVE
3. ACT
4. ART
5. ACHIEVE
6. CONCLUDE
7. SIGNIFY
8. ELUDE
9. STRIKE
10. FORTUNE
1.
2.
3.
4.
5.
6.
7.
8.
9.
10.
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III. In the following passage, some numbered lines contain a word that shouldn‟t be there.
Tick (√) the sentences that are correct and write the words that shouldn‟t be there in the
numbered space. (1.0 point)
KEEPING YOUR DISTANCE
Personal space is a term that refers to the distance we like to
keep between ourselves and other people. When someone we do not
know well gets too close that we usually begin to feel uncomfortable. If
such a business colleague comes closer than 1.2 meters, the most
common response is to move away. Some interesting studies have been
done in libraries. If strangers will come too close, many people get up
and leave the building, others use to different methods such as turning
their back on the intruder. Living in cities has made people to develop
new skills for dealing with situations where they are very close to
strangers. Most people on so crowded trains try not to look at strangers;
they avoid skin contract, and apologize if hands touch by a mistake.
People use newspapers as a barrier between themselves and other
people, and if they do not have one, they stare into the distance, making
YOUR ANSWERS:
0 someone
1..................
2 ..................
3 ..................
4 ..................
5 ..................
6 ..................
7 ..................
8 ..................
9 ..................
10 .................
PART III. READING
I. Complete the following passage by choosing A, B, C or D to fill in each blank. (1,0 point)
In recent years, there has been a remarkable increase into happiness. The researchers
have come up a number of factors which contribute to a definition of happiness.
First of all, there is, in some people, a moderate genetic predisposition to be happy, in
other words, happiness (1)_______ in families. And happiness seems to correlate quite strongly
with the main dimensions of personalities: extroverts are generally happier, neurotics are less so.
Second, people often report good social relations as a reason for their happiness. In
particular, friends are a great (2)______ of joy, partly because of the agreeable things they do
together, partly because of the way friends use positive non-verbal (3)______ such as caressing
and touching, to affirm their friendship. Marriage and similar (4)______ relationships can also
form the basis of lasting happiness.
Third, job satisfaction undoubtedly (5)______ overall satisfaction, and vice versa -
perhaps this is why some people are happy in boring jobs: it (6)______ both ways. Job
satisfaction is caused not only by the essential nature of the work, but (7)_____ by social
477
interactions with co-workers. Unemployment, on the contrary, can be a serious cause of
unhappiness.
Fourth, leisure is important because it is more under individual (8)______ than most
other causes of happiness. Activities (9)_____ sport and music, and participation in voluntary
work and social clubs of various kinds, can give great joy. This is partly because of the
(10)______ themselves, but also because of the social support of other group members it is
very strong in the case of religious groups.
1. A. runs B. arrives C. goes D.
descends
2. A. source B. origin C. base D. meaning
3. A. movements B. signals C. slogans D. motions
4. A. near B. tight C. close D. heavy
5. A. consists of B. applies to C. counts on D. contributes
to
6. A. works B. effects C. makes D. turns
7. A. too B. as well C. also D. plus
8. A. check B. power C. choice D. control
9. A. so B. such C. like D. thus
10. A. facilities B. activities C. exercises D. Amenities
YOUR ANSWERS:
1.
2.
3.
4.
5.
6.
7.
8.
9.
10.
II. Read the passage carefully, then choose the correct option (marked A, B, C or D) to answer
the questions. (0,5 point)
Scientists have established that influenza viruses taken from man can cause disease in
animals. In addition, man can catch the disease from animals. In fact, a greater numbers of wild
birds seem to carry the virus without showing any evidences of illness. Some scientists conclude
that a large family of influenza virus may have evolved in the bird kingdom, a group that has
been on earth 100 million years and is able to carry the virus without contracting the disease.
There is even convincing evidence to show that virus strain are transmitted from place to place
and from continent to continent by migrating birds.
478
It is known that two influenza viruses can recombine when both are present in an animal
at the same time. The result of such recombination is a great variety of strains containing
different H and N spikes. This raises the possibility that a human influenza virus can recombine
with an influenza virus from a lower animal to produce an entirely new spike. Research is
underway to determine if that is the way major new strains come into being. Another possibility
is that two animal influenza strains may recombine in a pig, for example, to produce a new strain
which is transmitted to man.
1. According to the passage, scientists have discovered that influenza viruses______.
A. cause ill health in wild animals B. do not always cause symptoms in birds
C. are rarely present in wild birds D. change when transmitted from animals to
man
2. What is known about the influenza virus?
A. It was first found in a group of very old birds.
B. All the different strains can be found in wild birds.
C. It existed over 100 million years ago.
D. It can survive in many different places.
3. According to the passage, a great variety of influenza strains can appear when______.
A. H and N spikes are produced
B. animal and bird viruses are combined
C. dissimilar types of viruses recombine
D. two viruses of the same type are contracted
4. New strains of viruses are transmitted to man by_______.
A. a type of wild pig B. diseased lower animals
C. a group of migrating birds D. a variety of means
5. It can be inferred from the passage that all of the following are ways of producing new strains
of influenza EXCEPT_______.
A. two influenza viruses in the same animal recombining
B. animal viruses recombining with human viruses
479
C. two animal viruses recombining
D. two animal viruses recombining in a human
YOUR ANSWERS:
1.
2.
3.
4.
5.
III. Read the passage and choose the best answer from the four options marked A, B, C or D
in the following questions. Identify your answer by writing the corresponding letter A, B, C or
D on your answer sheet. (0,5 point)
Several hundred million years ago, plants similar to modern ferns covered vast stretches
of the land. Some were as large as trees, with giant fronds bunched at the top of trunks as straight
as pillars. Others were the size of bushes and formed thickets of undergrowth. Still others lived
in the shade of giant club mosses and horsetails along the edges of swampy lagoons where giant
amphibians swam.
A great number of these plants were true ferns, reproducing themselves without fruits or
seeds. Others had only the appearance of ferns. Their leaves had organs of sexual reproduction
these false ferns (today
completely extinct) ushered in the era of flowering plants. Traces of these floras of the earliest
times have been preserved in the form of fossils. Such traces are most commonly found in shale
and sandstone rocks wedged between coal beds.
Today only tropical forests bear living proof of the ancient greatness of ferns. The species
that grow there are no longer those of the Carboniferous period, but their variety and vast
numbers, and the great size of some, remind us of the time when ferns ruled the plant kingdom.
1. What does the passage mainly discuss?
A. Plant reproduction B. How to locate fossils
C. An ancient form of plant life D. Tropical plant life
Others
A. plants B. pillars C. trees D. fronds
3. Which of the following is NOT mentioned as a characteristic of the plants described in the
passage?
A. They once spread over large areas of land.
480
B. They varied greatly in size.
C. They coexisted with amphibians, mosses, and horsetails.
D. They clung to tree trunks and bushes for support.
true
A. accurate B. genuine C. straight D. dependable
5. The author states that fossils of early plant life are usually found in rocks located between
deposits of _______.
A. coal B. shale C. sandstone D. corollas
YOUR ANSWERS:
1.
2.
3.
4.
5.
PART IV: WRITING
I. Write the new sentences using the given word. Do not change the word given in any way.
(0,5 point)
1. They have discovered some interesting new information. (LIGHT)
............................
2. They suspended Jack for the next two matches. (BANNED)
............................
3. I really want to see her again. (DYING)
..............................................................................................................................
4. She was so beautiful that I couldn't stop looking at her. (EYES)
..............................................................................................
5. We are looking forward to watching the program. (WAIT)
....................................................
II. Rewrite each of the following sentences so that it has a similar meaning to the original one.
(0,5 point)
1. If you changed your mind, you would be welcomed to join our class.
.........................................................................................................................
2. I'd rather not go out this afternoon.
481
...................................................
3. Adeles tries hard, but she doesn't get anywhere.
.............
4. It is thought that the boss is considering raising wages.
...............
5. His disabilities did not prevent him from sailing around the world.
............
III. Topic writing. (1,0 point)
Computers can translate all kinds of languages well, we needn‟t learn more languages
in the future.
What is your opinion about this idea? Within 200-250 words, use evidence and examples
to write a passage to clarify your idea.
482
Keys – practice 40
PART A. PRONUNCIATION
Choose the word whose stress pattern is different from the other three in the following
question
1. A. appropriate B. opposite C. economic D.
technology
2. A. dykes B. mins C. pesticides D.
nowadays
3. A. cooked B. practised C. laughed D.
decided
4. A. application B. identify C. chemistry D.
indicate
5. A. managed B. played C. penalized D.
marked
6. A. style B. typical C. pretty D.
penalty
7. A. mature B. century C. future D.
puncture
8. A. lie B. pie C. tie D.
believe
9. A. mastery B. baggy C. deny D.
symbol
10. A. organization B. capital C. dictation D. co-
operation
PART II. GRAMMAR AND VOCABULARY
I. Complete the following sentences by choosing the correct answer among four options (A, B,
C or D). (1,5 points; 0,1 point a correct answer)
1. D
2. B
3. B
4. C
5. A
6. D
7. C
8. C
9. C
10. A
11. D
12. B
13. A
14. D
15. C
II. Use the correct form of each word on the right to complete the numbered spaces provided
in the passage. Write your answers on your answer sheet. (1,5 points; 0,15 point a correct
answer)
1. ENABLED
2. LÌELESS
3. INACTIVE
4. ARTIST
5. ACHIEVEMENT
483
6.
CONCLUSION
7. INSIGNIFICANT
8. ELUSIVE
9. STRIKING
10.
UNFORTUNATELY
III. In the following passage, some numbered lines contain a word that shouldn‟t be there.
Tick (√) the sentences that are correct and write the words that shouldn‟t be there in the
numbered space. (1,0 point; 0,1 point a correct answer)
1. that
2. such
3. √
4. will
5. to
6. to
7. √
8. so
9. a
10. √
PART III. READING
I. Complete the following passage by choosing A, B, C or D to fill in each blank. (1,0 point;
0,1 point a correct answer)
1. A
2. A
3. B
4. C
5. D
6. A
7. C
8. D
9. C
10. B
II. Read the passage carefully, then choose the correct option (marked A, B, C or D) to answer
the questions. (0,5 point; 0,1 point a correct answer)
1. B
2. D
3. C
4. D
5. D
III. Read the passage and choose the best answer from the four options marked A, B, C or D
in the following questions. Identify your answer by writing the corresponding letter A, B, C or
D on your answer sheet. (0,5 point; 0,1 point a correct answer)
1. C
2. A
3. D
4. B
5. A
PART IV: WRITING
I. Write the new sentences using the given word. Do not change the word given in any way.
(0,5 point; 0,1 point a correct answer)
Some interesting new information has come to light.
Jack was banned from playing in the next two matches.
I'm dying to see her again.
She was so beautiful that I couldn't take my eyes off her.
484
We can't wait to watch the program.
II. Rewrite each of the following sentences so that it has a similar meaning to the original one.
(10 pts)
to change your mind, you would be welcomed to join our class.
like going out this afternoon.
hard Adeles tries, she doesn't get anywhere/gets nowhere.
is thought to be considering raising wages.
that he was disabled, he sailed/managed to sail around the world.
III. Topic writing
Correct form of essay
writing
(0,6 point)
- Contents: a provision of all main reasons and appropriate supporting
ideas and relevant examples (0,2 point)
- Language: a variety of vocabulary and appropriate structures (0,2 point)
- Presentation: coherence, cohesion, and appropriate style (0,2 point)
Incorrect form of essay
writing
(0,4 point)
- Contents: a provision of all main reasons and appropriate supporting
ideas and relevant examples (0,2 point)
- Language: a variety of vocabulary and appropriate structures (0,1 point)
- Presentation: coherence, cohesion, and appropriate style (0,2 point)
485
ENGLISH PRACTICE 41
Question 1:
a. Choose the word whose underlined part is pronounced differently from the rest in the
same line.
( 5points)
1. A. tomb B. combatant C. comber D. subtlety
2. A. trustworthy B. theory C. theses D. width
3. A. naked B. beloved C. walked D. hatred
4. A. resource B. encourage C. toward D. horse
5. A. heart B. heard C. church D. circle
b. Pick out the word that has the stress syllable differently fromthat of the other
words.(5points)
6. A. sentimental B. commonplace C. mathematics D. information
7. A. distraction B. considerable C. description D. recommend
8. A. confidence B. minimize C. complaint D. immitate
9. A. soldier B. American C. pronounce D. prefer
10. A . generous B. pagoda C. address D. control
Question 2: Choose the correct word or phrase to complete each sentence ( 10points)
A. available B. capable C. acceptable D. accessible
A. to try to B. trying and C. trying to D. to trying to
education at some time in their lives.
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A. Ø / Ø B. Ø / the C. the / Ø D. the / a
u did.
A. would give / to repair B. gave / to repair
C. had given / to be repaired D. had given / repaired
A. come into B. come by C. come to D. come at
16
A. little student B. few students C. a few students D. a little
students
horse-drawn.
A. With reference B. Akin C. Prior to D. In addition
to
18.I have had some summer jobs but I have never been.........employed.
A. ever B. occasionally C. rarely D.
permanently
A. After/ like B. Before/ like C. After/ with D. Before/
with
A. as dry as rice B. as dry as a tile C. as dry as a bone D. as dry as
wood
Question 3: Use the correct forms of the verbs in brackets (10points)
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26.
so many times before.
Question 4: Fill each blank with the correct form of the words given. (10points)
(PROSPER)
(PRECISE)
(NUMBER)
(APPLY)
the government. The real figures go up every minute.
33. Barack Obama is the first President of the United States with
background.
34. Tom
35. Before enrolling on a course, you should first ensure that it has been
and wrong
(ESTIMATE)
(RACE)
(BREATH)
(VALID)
(BRING)
(FERTILE)
Question 5: Read the following passage and then choose the most suitable word for each
space.
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(10 points)
When you are driving abroad you should make sure that you have all documents with you.
These (38)____
your passport, your driving licence and insurace papers. It (39) ____ be very inconvinient if you
(40) ____ any of these or if you cannot find (41) ____ quickly. You must also make sure that
your car has a nationality plate which showthe country where the car is registered; for (42) ____,
GB for Great Britain, F for France, N for Norway. And so on
can
sometimes cost you a lot of money. For instance, you may have to pay immediately if you are
stopped by a police officer for taking no notice of the traffic lights, speed (45) ____ or if you
allow children (46) ____ the age of twelve to (47) ____ in the fron seat of the vehicle.
38. A. include B. make C. mean D. contain
39. A. should B. can C. is D. has
40. A. miss B. hide C. lose D. pass
41. A. that B. those C. their D. them
42. A. once B. example C. general D. fact
43. A. countries B. positions C. ways D. routes
44. A. do B. allow C. obey D. continue
45. A. marks B. spots C. limits D. numbers
46. A. under B. lower C. over D. behind
47. A. follow B. pass C. travel D. wait
Question 6: Supply the most suitable word for each blank (10 points)
Mr. Brown lived his entire life in a small town in the north of England. He never left the
house ____(48) he had been born, never married, never went on holiday and had no friends. He
worked in a local factory for ___-(49) forty years but even the people who had worked with him
for years ____(50) very little about him. He wore the same clothes year in year out, and ___(51)
he shopped regularly at the local store he bought only the most basic foodstuffs, never changing
his purchases from one week to the next. So when he died last month, neighbors and local people
were ___(52) to learn that Mr. Brown was not just a rich man, he was in fact ___(53) millionaire!
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He had no bank, no account, no money invested anywhere but in the various drawers,
cupboards and boxes in the house there were hundreds and thousands of bank ___(54) and
coins.It took police over two weeks to clear the house and the bank clerks took just as long to __-
that he had been hiding his money over the
poor old man unable to ___(57)
Question 7: You are going to read a magazine article about learning how to fly a plane. Eight
paragraphs have been removed from the article. Choose from paragraphs A-I the one that fits
each gap (58-65). There is one extra paragraph that you do not need to use. Write your
answers in the numbered table below. (10 points)
Learning to Fly
terribly exciting and, in any case, new cars were beginning to look identical and drive similarly.
What I needed was a new challenge.
58
unless they had perfect eyesight. Halfway through an aptitude test, they realised that my eyes
59
It was an obv
the £90 per hour for the training is spent flying in the air, not waiting on the ground for other
planes to take off.
60
license. It started well, with my first solo flight
coming after just seven hours. Then came all the studying, the exams, the hard work. I never
61
Then came last winter and the end of the course was in sight. For weeks, the weather was so
terrible that for most of the time it was impossible to fly. Strong winds, heavy rain and even
snow and ice made flying conditions extremely hazardous.
490
62
But finally the first of three practical exams arrived the navigation test. The examiner sets you
a course that you have to plan according to the weather, and then fly with him sitting beside you.
63
-country to two
other airports, which you can choose, and landing at both. The important thing is to give the right
messages to the air-traffic control people and understand their replies.
64
After this alarming episode, the exercises in the flight-handling test were simple. As we complete
the sixth
65
realised straight away: we were being followed by a British Airways jumbo jet!
A. A week which we had set aside for finishing the course came and went with no possibility of
getting in the air at all. And besides the problems with the weather, my second son was born, and
that made it even more difficult to find the time for lessons and studying.
B. But the real reason I chose this club was that a friend of mine, Andrew Wilkins, is the chief
instructor there. He impressed me by taking me out for a free flight just so that I could see what
it was like.
C. Unfortunately, I got myself lost this time and flew too far east. I completely missed the first
airport. However, I flew over a car factory I recognised and managed to get back on course.
D.
back the control to you and expect you to find your way home.
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E. One day I was asked by an air-traffic controller if I could see another aircraft ahead. I said
F. At the time, taking private lessons to learn how to fly was financially beyond me. So I had to
delay my plans to become a pilot for quite a while. It was twenty years, in fact, before I finally
enrolled at a flying club in Hertfordshire.
G. Since gett
flying up to Birmingham International Airport for a motor show with Andrew beside me. As we
approached the way, the air-traffic controller came on the radio asking for as much speed as our
little plane could manage.
H. For months, my head was always in a book and my head hurt from all the facts, figures and
flying instructions.
I. This feeling of needing a change coincided with my 40
th
birthday, which started me thinking
fly.
Write your answers here:
58.
59.
60.
61.
62.
63.
64.
65.
Question 8: There is ten mistakes in following sentences. Find and correct them.(10points)
0. ..
00. will
Cars became popular as a quick and comfortable way of getting around. This is still true when you
will drive along a quiet country road or a modern motorway. As far as getting from one place to
another in the city is concerned, it is a different story. Whenever I want to get up anywhere in a
hurry, I leave the car at home and go on foot. It often turns out to be much more quicker. I still
make the mistake now and again of thinking the car is an efficient means of a transport. The other
day my wife was feeling a bit under the weather. She had been having terrible headaches for
some long time and she decided she couldn’t take it any more and asked from me to give her a lift
to the doctor, whose surgery is in the center part of a town. We live in a suburb in the old quarter
of the city and it is twenty minutes away on foot. On the way back, however, it is all up hill and I
must to admit it can be exhausting, especially on a hot day. Reluctantly I got the car out of the
garage and we set it off, muttering about the wonders of taxis. My heart sank as we hit the first
traffic jam - I knew we were beginning a long journey.
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Question 9:
a.Complete each of the following sentences in such a way that it means exactly the same as
the sentence printed before it. ( 5 points )
76. Return the product to the shop if you have any complaints about it.
77. Both of the lifts were out of order.
78.I had only just put the phone down when the boss rang back.
79.While I strongly disapprove of your behaviour, I will help you this time.
80.They were seasoned travelers, which we hadn't expected them to be!
b.Complete the second sentence so that it has a similar meaning to the first sentence, using
the word given. Do not change the word given. You must use between two and five words,
including the word given. (5 points)
(NEED)
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What I really .................................... new computer.
(BETTER)
83. It was easy for us to get tickets for the concert. (NO)
We ............................................. tickets for the concert.
84. The two theories appear to be completely different. (COMMON)
87. Money is of little value on a desert island. (COUNTS)
Questions 10: Writing an essay about 200 words ( 10 points)
the money a person earns.
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Keys – practice 41
Question 1:
a. 1.B 2.A 3.C 4. B 5. A
b. 6.B 7.D 8. C 9. A 10. A
Question 2:
11. A 12. C 13. B 14. D 15.B
16.A 17. C 18. D 19. B 20. C
Question 3:
21. should go(go)
22. will have forgotten - am 26.paid had phoned
23. were not invented 27. is being delivered- has not been damaged
24. being taught
Question 4:
28. prosperity 33. multiracial
29. precision 34. breathlessly
30. outnumber 35. validated
31. applicants 36. upbringing
32. underestimated 37. fertilization
Question 5:
38. A 39. B 40. C 41. D 42.B
43. A 44. C 45. C 46. A 47. C
Question 6:
48. where 49. over 50. knew 51. regularly 52. when
53. a 54. notes 55. count 56. said 57.
afford
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Question 7:
58. I 59. F 60. B 61.H
62. A 63. D 64. C 65. G
Question 8:
66. V 67. up 68. more 69. a 70. long
71. from 72. part 73. v 74. to 75. it
Question 9:
a.
76. Should you have any complaints about the product, return it to the shop.
77. Neither of the lists was working.
78. Hardly had I put the phone down when the boss rang back.
79. Despite my strong disapproval of your behaviour, I will help you this time
80. Contrary to what we had expected/ our expectation, they were seasoned travellers.
b.
81. What I really need to get is a new computer.
82.
83. We have no difficulty in getting tickets for the concert.
84. The two theories have nothing in common.
85. Money counts for little on a desert island
Question 10Marking scheme: The impression mark should be based on the following scheme:
1.Format: 2 pts ( coherence , cohesion , style )
clearly
b. Body: should consist of at least 2 paragraphs to show your strong defence with reason and
evidence about the importance of money or other aspects of a job.
497
2. Content : 5pts
3. Language : 3pts ( grammatical accuracy , wide range of vocabularies and structures )
498
ENGLISH PRACTICE 42
PART A. PRONUNCIATION
Choose the word whose stress pattern is different from the other three in the following
question
1. A. that B. mother C. this D. think
2. A. physics B. hesitate C. basic D. reserve
3. A. finished B. developed C. defeated D. looked
4. A. tough B. rough C. through D. enough
5. A. exhibition B. holiday C. childhood D. hilarious
6. A. laughed B. watched C. lived D. cooked
7. A. Christmas B. switch C. character D. chemical
8. A. honest B. exhaust C. heir D. height
9. A. handcraft B. handkerchief C. handbag D. handbook
10. A. called B. prepared C. expressed D. raised
PART B. LEXICO-GRAMMAR
I. Complete each of the following sentences with the correct answer (A, B, C or D). Identify your
answer by writing the corresponding letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet.
waste any more time.
A. were due to B. were going to C. were to D. were about
to
2. It is not until December 25
th
_________the exam results will be announced.
A. which B. what C. that D. when
3. I saw a ___________ scarf in a shop near my house.
A. sweet little green silk B. little green silk sweet
C. sweet green little silk D. green little sweet silk
4. There has been a recommendation that Peter ______ the president of the country.
A. will be elected B. be elected C. is elected D. was elected
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5. He kept his marriage for years, but eventually the truth ________.
A. came out B. went out C. came through D. fell out
6. It was in this house ______.
A. I was born in B. in which I was born C. where I was born D. that I was
born
7. ______of half- starving wolves were roaming the snow- covered countryside.
A. Herds B. Flocks C. Packs D. Swarms
8. When ______ to explain his mistake, the new employee cleared his throat nervously.
A. asking B. to be asked C. to be askingD. being asked
9. ______, he felt so unhappy and lonely.
A. In spite of his being wealth B. Rich as was he
C. Rich as he was D. Despite his wealthy
10. According to the _______of the contract, tenants must give six months notice if they intend
to leave.
A. laws B. rules C. terms D. details
11. It is difficult for mus
A. inheritance B. heritage C. possessions D. legacy
12. A part-time job gives me the freedom to_______ my own interests.
A pursue B. chase C. seek D. catch
13. When his alarm went off, he shut it off and slept for_______15 minutes.
A. other B. others C. another D. the others
the music now.
A. Many a time B. Many the time C. Quite a time D. For a time
15. _______ in this national park declined from a few thousand to a few hundred in ten years.
A. For a number of tigers B. The number of tigers
C. A number of tigers D. That the number of tigers
16. _______ every industry in our modern world requires the work of engineers.
500
A. Wholly B. Hardly C. Most D. Virtually
17. Jane had a problem with her finances, so we talked _______ and now it's fine.
A. over B. it over C. over it D. over and over
18. When the electricity failed, he _______a match to find the candles.
A. rubbed B. scratched C. struck D. started
A. on the house B. off the peg C. in public D. on the shelf
20. She tried to _______.
A. talk out of me the plan B. talk me the plan out of
C. talk me out of the plan D. talk out me of the plan.
II. In most lines of this text there is one unnecessary word. It is either incorrect
grammatically, or does not fit the sense of the text. Write the unnecessary word in the space
beside the text. Tick (√) each correct line. There are two examples at the beginning.
Transfer your answers to your answer sheet.
Talent scouts are looking for the next generation of supermodels have realized
potential. Lyndsey Mclntyre, a former model herself, recently opened
s is rarely easy, as well Mclntyre
discovered when she visited the Orma tribe of remote north- eastern Kenya,
heaviest ones. She had to explain that Western advertisers prefer far slimmer
women. The Orma are not alone in believing fat it is beautiful. In a recent
Africa-wide beauty contest, all the Uganda contestants were disqualified for
because we want the girls to succeed and to see African models working
501
III. Supply the correct form of the word in capital letter. Write your answers on your
answer sheet.
UK companies have received criticism from a business forum for what their report refers
to as a rather narrow-minded attitude towards the dress code for office workers. This follows a
case in which a male (1. EMPLOY) __________working in the post room of a large (2.
ORGANISE) __________in the United Kingdom received a (3. SUSPEND) __________ for
wearing jeans to work. Whilst the report accepts that there is a need for people dealing with (4.
CUSTOM) __________to look well dressed, it questions whether employees who work
behind the scenes necessarily need to dress formally. The authors of the report made a (5.
COMPARE) ___________ between the UK and other European nations where employers
seem (6. CONCERN)___________about the need for their workers to wear smart clothes in the
office. Their (7. ARGUE) ___________is based on research that claims workers are far more (8.
PRODUCT) _________ when they have the (9. FREE) _________to dress in a way that they
feel most (10. COMFORT) _______in.
IV. Complete the following sentences with one preposition/particle for each blank. Write
your answers on your answer sheet.
1. Kate fell _______ with her boyfriend and they stopped seeing each other.
never get married because he hates the feeling of being tied _____.
4. Deborah is going to take extra lessons to catch up______ what she missed why she was away.
oint
_______.
PART C. READING
I. Read the following passage and choose the options among A, B, C or D that best
complete the blanks. Write your answers on your answer sheet.
Stressful situations that (1)________ almost everyday in life seem to be unavoidable.
However, we can do little sometimes to avoid a misfortune or an unpleasant occurrence which
may (2)________ us unexpectedly as only it can. At such a moment, one may hit the
(3)_______, give in to the helplessness of the situation or, ideally, put a brave face on it trying to
(4)_________ the burden.
Can you (5)_________ in your mind an hour spent in a traffic jam, say, this morning? Do
you light one cigarette after another? Do you sound the horn every few seconds like the other
502
neurotics? Or do you take a different (6)________ and make good use of the time drawing up a
schedule for the days to come? To withstand the stressful moment you can also do a crossword
puzzle, listen to your favorite music or even compose a menu for your Sunday dinner.
In fact, whatever way you (7)________ to the annoying situation, you can exert no
impact on it as the traffic jam will only reduce in due (8)_________. Nevertheless, your reaction
might considerably influence your mood for the rest of the day. The inability to confront a
stressful occurrence like that with a deal of composure and sensibility adds much more strain to
your life and in this way puts your well being in (9)_________. Surprisingly, it is seemingly
negligible hardships we stumble on daily that run double the risk of developing serious health
disorders rather than our isolated tragedies however painful they may be. (10)_______that so
many of those wretched stresses and inducing troubles affect us in a day, we should, at best, try
to avoid them or possibly make radical alterations in the way we lead our daily lifestyles.
1. A. devise B. create C. originate D. emerge
2. A. arise B. happen C. befall D. occur
3. A. post B. roof C. bottom D. wall
4. A. subsist B. remain C. cow D. bear
5. A. envision B. observe C. picture D. image
6. A. manner B. stance C. practice D. mode
7. A. strike B. deal C. respond D. challenge
8. A. term B. course C. timing D. period
9. A. risk B. weakness C. insecurity D. jeopardy
10. A. Providing B. Given C. Hence D. As much
II. Read the text below and think of the word which best fits each space. Use only ONE
word in each space. Write your answers on your answer sheet.
Students frequently complain (1)___________ studying for hours on (2)________ and
then not doing well in their final exams. Many factors can (3) _________ in poor performances:
(4) _________illness or a personal problem. Getting high grades can also put a terrible strain on
to let their parents down.
to be fair, students ought to be (7) _________on a regular basic. So does that mean more exams?
Yes, but (8) _________many written ones. In many countries, student do not have to take written
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seems to be fairer way of assessing understanding, not just testing it.
III. Read the passage then choose the best answer to each question that follows. Identify your
answer by writing the corresponding letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet.
Quite different from storm surges are the giant sea waves called tsunamis, which derive
their name from the Japanese express
referred to by the general public as tidal waves, although they have relatively little to do with
tides. Scientists often referred to them as seismic sea waves, far more appropriate in that they do
result from undersea seismic activity.
Tsunamis are caused when the sea bottom suddenly moves, during an underwater
earthquake or volcano for example, and the water above the moving earth is suddenly displaced.
This sudden shift of water sets off a series of waves. These waves can travel great distances at
speeds close to 700 kilometers per hour. In the open ocean, tsunamis have little noticeable
amplitude, often no more than one or two meters. It is when they hit the shallow waters near the
coast that they increase in height, possibly up to 40 meters.
Tsunamis often occur in the Pacific because the Pacific is an area of heavy seismic
activity.Two areas of the Pacific well accustomed to the threat of tsunamis are Japan and Hawaii.
Because the seismic activity that causes tsunamis in Japan often occurs on the ocean bottom
quite close to the islands, the tsunamis that hit Japan often come with little warning and can,
therefore, prove disastrous. Most of the tsunamis that hit the Hawaiian Islands, however,
originate thousands of miles away near the coast of Alaska, so these tsunamis have a much
greater distance to travel and the inhabitants of Hawaii generally have time for warning of their
imminent arrival.
Tsunamis are certainly not limited to Japan and Hawaii. In 1755, Europe experienced a
calamitous tsunami, when movement along the fault lines near the Azores caused a massive
tsunami to sweep onto the Portuguese coast and flood the heavily populated area around Lisbon.
The greatest tsunami on record occurred on the other side of the world in 1883 when the
Krakatoa volcano underwent a massive explosion, sending waves more than 30 meters high onto
nearby Indonesian islands; the tsunami from this volcano actually traveled around the world and
was witnessed as far away as the English Channel.
1. The paragraph preceding this passage most probably discusses _______.
A. underwater earthquakes B. storm surges C. tides D. tidal waves
2. According to the passage, all of the following are true about tidal waves EXCEPT that
_______.
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A. they are caused by sudden changes in high and low tides
B. this terminology is not used by the scientific community
C. they are the same as tsunamis
D. they refer to the same phenomenon as seismic sea waves
3. The word “displaced” is closest in meaning to _______.
A. moved B. filtered C. located D. not pleased
4. It can be inferred from the passage that tsunamis _______.
A. cause severe damage in the middle of the ocean
B. generally reach heights greater than 40 meters
C. are far more dangerous on the coast than in the open ocean
Dare often identified by ships on the ocean
shallow” is NOT _____________.
A. deep B. clear C. coastal D. tidal
6. A main difference between tsunamis in Japan and in Hawaii is that tsunamis in Japan are more
likely to ___________.
A. come from greater distances B. originate in Alaska
C. arrive without warning D. be less of a problem
7. The possessive “their” refers to ____________.
A. the Hawaiian Islands B. thousands of miles
C. these tsunamis D. the inhabitants of Hawaii
calamitous” tsunami is one that is _____________.
A. at fault B. disastrous C. extremely calm D. expected
9. From the expression “on record”, it can be inferred that the tsunami that accompanied the
Krakatoa volcano ____________.
A. was not as strong as the tsunami in Lisbon
B. might not be the greatest tsunami ever
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C. was filmed as it was happening
D. occurred before efficient records were kept
10. The passage suggests that the tsunami resulting from the Krakatoa volcano ___________.
A. was far more destructive close to the source than far away
B. resulted in little damage
C. was unobserved outside of the Indonesian islands
D. caused volcanic explosions in the English Channel
PART D. WRITING
I. Rewrite the following sentences without changing their meaning, using the words given.
These words must not be changed in any way. Write your answers on your answer sheet.
1. The reduction in the price of the magazines led to a growth in sales. (RESULT)
Sales of the magazines __________________________________________.
HEARD)
I ___________________________________________________________.
3. Dinner will be served immediately upon our arrival at the hotel. (SOON)
Dinner will be served ___________________________________________.
(UNABLE)
Besides ______________________________________________________.
5. It was careless of you to leave without locking the door. (OUGHT)
You _________________________________________________________.
II. Write an essay to express your opinion on the following statement. Use specific reasons
and details to support your idea.
“Face-to-face communication is better than other types of communication, such as letters,
email, or telephone calls”.
506
------------THE END-------------
507
Keys – practice 42
PART A. PRONUNCIATION
Choose the word whose stress pattern is different from the other three in the following
question
1. A. that B. mother C. this D. think
2. A. physics B. hesitate C. basic D.
reserve
3. A. finished B. developed C. defeated D.
looked
4. A. tough B. rough C. through D.
enough
5. A. exhibition B. holiday C. childhood D.
hilarious
6. A. laughed B. watched C. lived D.
cooked
7. A. Christmas B. switch C. character D.
chemical
8. A. honest B. exhaust C. heir D. height
9. A. handcraft B. handkerchief C. handbag D.
handbook
10. A. called B. prepared C. expressed D. raised
PART B.LEXICO-GRAMMAR
I. Complete each of the following sentences with the correct answer (A, B, C or D). (10pts)
1. B
2. C
3. A
4. B
5. A
6. D
7. C
8. D
9. C
10. C
11. B
12. A
13. C
14. A
15. B
16. D
17. B
18. C
19. B
20. C
II. In most lines of this text there is one unnecessary word. It is either incorrect
grammatically, or does not fit the sense of the text. Write the unnecessary word in the space
beside the text. Tick (√) each correct line. (5pts)
1. being
2. to
3. well
4.
5.
6. be
7. the
8. of
9.
10. it
III. Supply the correct form of the word in capital letter. (10pts)
508
1.employee
2. organization/ organisation
3. suspension
4. customers
5. comparison
6. unconcerned
7. argument
8. productive
9. freedom
10. comfortable
IV. Complete the following sentences with one preposition/particle for each blank. (5pts)
1. out
2. to
3. down
4. on
5. across
PART C. READING
I. Read the following passage and choose the options among A, B, C or D that best
complete the blanks. (10pts)
1. D
2. C
3. B
4. D
5. A
6. B
7. C
8. B
9. D
10. B
II. Read the text below and think of the word which best fits each space. Use only ONE
word in each space. (10pts)
1. about
2. end
3. result
4. an
5. who/that
6. single
7. tested
8. not
9. if
10. allowed
III. Read the passage then choose the best answer to each question that follows. Identify your
answer by writing the corresponding letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet. (10pts)
1. B
2. A
3. A
4. C
5. A
6. C
7. C
8. B
9. B
10. A
PART D.WRITING
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I. Rewrite the following sentences without changing their meaning, using the words given.
These words must not be changed in any way. (5pts)
1. Sales of the magazines grew/increased/went up as a result of the reduction in the price.
2. I haven’t heard /have heard nothing from Georgia for/in a while.
3. Dinner will be served as soon as we arrive at the hotel.
5. You ought not to have left without locking the door.
II. Write an essay to express your opinion on the following statement. Use specific reasons
and details to support your idea. (15pts)
“Face-to-face communication is better than other types of communication, such as letters,
email, or telephone calls”.
Marking scheme
The impression mark given is based on the following scheme:
1. Content: 50% of total mark: a provision of all main ideas and details as appropriate
2. Language: 30% of total mark: a variety of vocabulary and structures appropriate to the
level of English language gifted upper-secondary school students
3. Presentation: 20% of total mark: coherence, cohesion, and style appropriate to the level
of English language gifted upper-secondary school students.
------------------THE END-----------------
510
ENGLISH PRACTICE 43
PART I PRONUNCIATION
Choose the word whose stress pattern is different from the other three in the following
question
1. A. exchange B. technology C. mischievious D. challenge
2. A. finished B. declared C. linked D. developed
3. A. accept B. succeed C. account D. accident
4. A. compulsory B. curriculum C. substantial D. supportive
5. A. committed B. daunted C. confided D. installed
6. A. much B. autumn C. sunny D. summer
7. A. dedicated B. hatched C. stopped D. influenced
8. A. spectrum B. special C. species D. specify
9. A. wrong B. two C. windy D. wrist
10. A. picked B. naked C. booked D. worked
PART II. GRAMMAR AND VOCABULARY
I. Complete the following sentences by choosing the correct answer among four options (A, B,
C or D).
1. He's really shy _______ girl.
A. by B. at C. for D. with
2. The teacher _______ her to improve her drawing.
A. insisted B. encouraged C. made D. persisted
3. I couldn't quite ______ what they were doing because they were so far away.
A. bear out B. make out C. think out D. try out
4. The meal Mary cooked tastes_______.
A. well B. nice C. good D. worse
5. ______ at the party, we saw Ruth standing alone.
A. Arriving B. We arrived C. Arrived D. We were arriving
6. The people who______ the survey said that they had examined over 1,000 accidents.
A. gave B. proceed C. set D. conducted
511
7. The judge found him ______ of stealing and sent him to prison.
A. evil B. innocent C. guilty D. wicked
8. The house we have rented is______. So we will have to buy some beds, chairs, tables, etc.
A. unrestored B. unrepaired C. unfurnished D. undecorated
9. He was turned down for the job because he is ________.
A. qualified B. qualifying C. unqualified D. qualification
10. The trouble started only______ the other man came into the room.
A. when B. until C. and then D. too soon
11. _______, the disaster would not have happened.
A. Had you have obeyed the orders B. You had obeyed the orders
C. You obeyed the orders D. Had you obeyed the orders
12. _______ had booked in advance were allowed in.
A. Only who B. Only those who C. Only who were those D. Only were
those who
13. Traveling alone to a jungle is adventurous, ________.
A. if not impossible B. if it not impossible
C. when not impossible D. when it not impossible
14. I ______ the hot weather in the south.
A. use to B. used to C. am use to D. am used to
15. The meat looked very _______ to the dog.
A. invited B. invite C. inviting D. invitingly
II. Use the correct form of each word on the right to complete the numbered spaces.
The mysteries of the skies
Three hundred and fifty years before the first men looked down on the
amazingly
telescope (1) _________ him to look at the edge of the hitherto mysterious sphere.
512
He saw that the apparently (2) _________ surface was not divinely smooth and
round, but bumpy and imperfect. He realized that although the moon might appear
(3) _______, resembling a still life painted by the hand of a cosmic (4)
____________, it was a real world, perhaps not very different from our own. This
amounted to a great (5) _________ hardly to be expected in his day and age,
although nowadays his (6) _________ may appear to some to be trivial and (7)
_____________.
the skies which had previously been
so (8) _____________ revealed more of their extraordinary mysteries. Casting
around for further wonders, Galileo focused his lens on the (9) _____________
planet of Jupiter. Nestling next to it, he saw four little points of light circling the
distant planet. Our moon it appeared, perhaps (10) ____________ in the eyes of
those fearful of what the discovery might mean, was not alone!
1. ABLE
2. LIVE
3. ACT
4. ART
5. ACHIEVE
6. CONCLUDE
7. SIGNIFY
8. ELUDE
9. STRIKE
10. FORTUNE
III. In the following passage, some numbered lines contain a word that shouldn‟t be there.
Tick (√) the sentences that are correct and write the words that shouldn‟t be there in the
numbered space.
KEEPING YOUR DISTANCE
Personal space is a term that refers to the distance we like to keep between
ourselves and other people. When someone we do not know well gets too close that
we usually begin to feel uncomfortable. If such a business colleague comes closer
than 1.2 meters, the most common response is to move away. Some interesting
studies have been done in libraries. If strangers will come too close, many people get
up and leave the building, others use to different methods such as turning their back
on the intruder. Living in cities has made people to develop new skills for dealing
with situations where they are very close to strangers. Most people on so crowded
trains try not to look at strangers; they avoid skin contract, and apologize if hands
touch by a mistake. People use newspapers as a barrier between themselves and other
people, and if they do not have one, they stare into the distance, making sure they are
0 ___√___
00 someone
1________
2 ________
3 __√____
4 ________
5 ________
6 ________
513
7 ___√___
8 ________
9 ________
10 __√___
PART III. READING
I. Complete the following passage by choosing A, B, C or D to fill in each blank.
In recent years, there has been a remarkable increase into happiness. The researchers
have come up a number of factors which contribute to a definition of happiness.
First of all, there is, in some people, a moderate genetic predisposition to be happy, in
other words, happiness (1)_______ in families. And happiness seems to correlate quite strongly
with the main dimensions of personalities: extroverts are generally happier, neurotics are less so.
Second, people often report good social relations as a reason for their happiness. In
particular, friends are a great (2) ______ of joy, partly because of the agreeable things they do
together, partly because of the way friends use positive non-verbal (3) ______ such as caressing
and touching, to affirm their friendship. Marriage and similar (4) ______ relationships can also
form the basis of lasting happiness.
Third, job satisfaction undoubtedly (5) ______ overall satisfaction, and vice versa -
perhaps this is why some people are happy in boring jobs: it (6) ______ both ways. Job
satisfaction is caused not only by the essential nature of the work, but (7)_____ by social
interactions with co-workers. Unemployment, on the contrary, can be a serious cause of
unhappiness.
Fourth, leisure is important because it is more under individual (8) ______ than most
other causes of happiness. Activities (9) _____ sport and music, and participation in voluntary
work and social clubs of various kinds, can give great joy. This is partly because of the (10)
______themselves, but also because of the social support of other group members it is very
strong in the case of religious groups.
1. A. runs B. arrives C. goes D.
descends
2. A. source B. origin C. base D. meaning
3. A. movements B. signals C. slogans D. motions
4. A. near B. tight C. close D. heavy
5. A. consists of B. applies to C. counts on D. contributes
to
6. A. works B. effects C. makes D. turns
514
7. A. too B. as well C. also D. plus
8. A. check B. power C. choice D. control
9. A. so B. such C. like D. thus
10. A. facilities B. activities C. exercises D. amenities
II. Read the passage carefully, then choose the correct option.
Scientists have established that influenza viruses taken from man can cause disease in
animals. In addition, man can catch the disease from animals. In fact, a greater numbers of wild
birds seem to carry the virus without showing any evidences of illness. Some scientists conclude
that a large family of influenza virus may have evolved in the bird kingdom, a group that has
been on earth 100 million years and is able to carry the virus without contracting the disease.
There is even convincing evidence to show that virus strain are transmitted from place to place
and from continent to continent by migrating birds.
It is known that two influenza viruses can recombine when both are present in an animal
at the same time. The result of such recombination is a great variety of strains containing
different H and N spikes. This raises the possibility that a human influenza virus can recombine
with an influenza virus from a lower animal to produce an entirely new spike. Research is
underway to determine if that is the way major new strains come into being. Another possibility
is that two animal influenza strains may recombine in a pig, for example, to produce a new strain
which is transmitted to man.
1. According to the passage, scientists have discovered that influenza viruses ______.
A. cause ill health in wild animals B. do not always cause symptoms in birds
C. are rarely present in wild birds D. change when transmitted from animals to
man
2. What is known about the influenza virus?
A. It was first found in a group of very old birds. B. All the different strains can be found in
wild birds.
C. It existed over 100 million years ago. D. It can survive in many different places.
3. According to the passage, a great variety of influenza strains can appear when______.
A. H and N spikes are produced B. animal and bird viruses are combined
C. dissimilar types of viruses recombine D. two viruses of the same type are
contracted
515
4. New strains of viruses are transmitted to man by_______.
A. a type of wild pig B. diseased lower animals
C. a group of migrating birds D. a variety of means
5. It can be inferred from the passage that all of the following are ways of producing new strains
of influenza EXCEPT_______.
A. two influenza viruses in the same animal recombining
B. animal viruses recombining with human viruses
C. two animal viruses recombining
D. two animal viruses recombining in a human
III. Read the passage and choose the best answer from the four options marked A, B, C or D.
Several hundred million years ago, plants similar to modern ferns covered vast stretches
of the land. Some were as large as trees, with giant fronds bunched at the top of trunks as straight
as pillars. Others were the size of bushes and formed thickets of undergrowth. Still others lived
in the shade of giant club mosses and horsetails along the edges of swampy lagoons where giant
amphibians swam.
A great number of these plants were true ferns, reproducing themselves without fruits or
seeds. Others had only the appearance of ferns. Their leaves had organs of sexual reproduction
completely extinct) ushered in the era of flowering plants. Traces of these floras of the earliest
times have been preserved in the form of fossils. Such traces are most commonly found in shale
and sandstone rocks wedged between coal beds.
Today only tropical forests bear living proof of the ancient greatness of ferns. The species
that grow there are no longer those of the Carboniferous period, but their variety and vast
numbers, and the great size of some, remind us of the time when ferns ruled the plant kingdom.
1. What does the passage mainly discuss?
A. Plant reproduction B. How to locate fossils
C. An ancient form of plant life D. Tropical plant life
Others
A. plants B. pillars C. trees D. fronds
516
3. Which of the following is NOT mentioned as a characteristic of the plants described in the
passage?
A. They once spread over large areas of land.
C. They coexisted with amphibians, mosses, and horsetails.
B. They varied greatly in size.
D. They clung to tree trunks and bushes for support.
trueto which of the following?
A. accurate B. genuine C. straight D. dependable
5. The author states that fossils of early plant life are usually found in rocks located between
deposits of _______. A. coal B. shale C. sandstone D. corollas
IV. Read the passage carefully then fill in the blank a suitable word.
As swimming became a popular recreation in England during the 1860s and 1870s,
several (1) ______ sports developed, roughly patterned after land sports. (2) ______ them were
water football (or soccer), water rugby, water handball, and water polo, in which players rode on
floating barrels, painted to look (3) ______ horses, and struck the ball with a stick.
Water rugby became most popular of these sports, but somehow the water polo name
became attached to it, and it's been attached (4) ______ since.
As played in England, the object of the sport was for a player to touch the ball, with both
(5) ______, at the goal end of the pool. The goaltender stood on the pool deck, ready to dive on
any opponent who was about to score.
Water polo quickly became a very rough sport, filled (6) ______ underwater fights away
from the ball, and it wasn't unusual for players to pass out for lack of air.
In 1877, the sport was tamed in Scotland by the addiction of goalposts. The Scots also
replaced (7) ______ original small, hard rubber ball with a soccer ball and adopted (8) ______
that prohibited taking the ball under the surface or, "tackling" a player unless he had the ball.
The Scottish game, which emphasized swimming speed, passing, and (9) ______ work,
spread to England during the early 1880s, to Hungary in 1889, to Austria and Germany in 1894,
to France in 1895, and (10) ______ Belgium in 1900.
Water polo was the first team sport added to the Olympic program, in 1900.
PART IV: WRITING
517
I. Write the new sentences using the given word. Do not change the word given in any way.
1. They have discovered some interesting new information. (LIGHT)
2. They suspended Jack for the next two matches. (BANNED)
3. I really want to see her again. (DYING)
4. She was so beautiful that I couldn't stop looking at her. (EYES)
5. We are looking forward to watching the program. (WAIT)
II. Rewrite each of the following sentences so that it has a similar meaning to the original one.
1. If you changed your mind, you would be welcomed to join our class.
2. I'd rather not go out this afternoon.
3. Adeles tries hard, but she doesn't get anywhere.
4. It is thought that the boss is considering raising wages.
5. His disabilities did not prevent him from sailing around the world.
6. I didn't arrive in time to see her.
7. I'd prefer you not to smoke.
8. The mother smiled happily. She took the baby in her arms.
9. The noise next door did not stop until after midnight.
10. You can ring this number whenever there is any difficulty.
Should ____________
-------------------------------THE END---------------------------------
518
Keys – practice 43
PART I PRONUNCIATION
Choose the word whose stress pattern is different from the other three in the following
question
1. A. exchange B. technology C. mischievious D.
challenge
2. A. finished B. declared C. linked D.
developed
3. A. accept B. succeed C. account D.
accident
4. A. compulsory B. curriculum C. substantial D.
supportive
5. A. committed B. daunted C. confided D.
installed
6. A. much B. autumn C. sunny D.
summer
7. A. dedicated B. hatched C. stopped D.
influenced
8. A. spectrum B. special C. species D.
specify
9. A. wrong B. two C. windy D. wrist
10. A. picked B. naked C. booked D.
worked
PART II. GRAMMAR AND VOCABULARY (35pts)
I. Complete the following sentences by choosing the correct answer among four options (A,
B, C or D). (15pts: 1pt/item)
1. He's really shy _______ girl.
A. by B. at C. for D. with
2. The teacher _______ her to improve her drawing.
A. insisted B. encouraged C. made D. persisted
3. I couldn't quite ______ what they were doing because they were so far away.
A. bear out B. make out C. think out D. try out
4. The meal Mary cooked tastes_______.
519
A. well B. nice C. good D. worse
5. ______ at the party, we saw Ruth standing alone.
A. Arriving B. We arrived C. Arrived D. We were arriving
6. The people who______ the survey said that they had examined over 1,000 accidents.
A. gave B. proceed C. set D. conducted
7. The judge found him ______ of stealing and sent him to prison.
A. evil B. innocent C. guilty D. wicked
8. The house we have rented is______. So we will have to buy some beds, chairs, tables, etc.
A. unrestored B. unrepaired C. unfurnished D. undecorated
9. He was turned down for the job because he is ________.
A. qualified B. qualifying C. unqualified D. qualification
10. The trouble started only______ the other man came into the room.
A. when B. until C. and then D. too soon
11. _______, the disaster would not have happened.
A. Had you have obeyed the orders B. You had obeyed the orders
C. You obeyed the orders D. Had you obeyed the orders
12. _______ had booked in advance were allowed in.
A. Only who B. Only those who
C. Only who were those D. Only were those who
13. Traveling alone to a jungle is adventurous, ________.
A. if not impossible B. if it not impossible
C. when not impossible D. when it not impossible
14. I ______ the hot weather in the south.
A. use to B. used to C. am use to D. am used to
15. The meat looked very _______ to the dog.
520
A. invited B. invite C. inviting D. invitingly
II. Use the correct form of each word on the right to complete the numbered spaces
provided in the passage. Write your answers on your answer sheet. (10pts: 1pt/item)
The mysteries of the skies
Three hundred and fifty years before the first men looked down on the
amazingly
telescope (1) enabled __ him to look at the edge of the hitherto mysterious sphere.
He saw that the apparently (2) lifeless ___ surface was not divinely smooth and
round, but bumpy and imperfect. He realized that although the moon might appear
(3) inactive ____, resembling a still life painted by the hand of a cosmic (4) artist
____, it was a real world, perhaps not very different from our own. This amounted
to a great (5) achievement _____ hardly to be expected in his day and age,
although nowadays his (6) conclusion ____ may appear to some to be trivial and
(7) insignificant _____.
so (8) elusive ____ revealed more of their extraordinary mysteries. Casting around
for further wonders, Galileo focused his lens on the (9) striking _____ planet of
Jupiter. Nestling next to it, he saw four little points of light circling the distant
planet. Our moon it appeared, perhaps (10) unfortunately _____ in the eyes of
those fearful of what the discovery might mean, was not alone!
1. ABLE
2. LIVE
3. ACT
4. ART
5. ACHIEVE
6. CONCLUDE
7. SIGNIFY
8. ELUDE
9. STRIKE
10. FORTUNE
III. In the following passage, some numbered lines contain a word that shouldn’t be there.
Tick (√) the sentences that are correct and write the words that shouldn’t be there in the
numbered space.
KEEPING YOUR DISTANCE (10pts: 1pt/item)
Personal space is a term that refers to the distance we like to
keep between ourselves and other people. When someone we do not
know well gets too close that we usually begin to feel uncomfortable. If
0 ___√___
00 someone
521
such a business colleague comes closer than 1.2 meters, the most
common response is to move away. Some interesting studies have been
done in libraries. If strangers will come too close, many people get up
and leave the building, others use to different methods such as turning
their back on the intruder. Living in cities has made people to develop
new skills for dealing with situations where they are very close to
strangers. Most people on so crowded trains try not to look at strangers;
they avoid skin contract, and apologize if hands touch by a mistake.
People use newspapers as a barrier between themselves and other
people, and if they do not have one, they stare into the distance, making
1________
2 ________
3 __√____
4 ________
5 ________
6 ________
7 ___√___
8 ________
9 ________
10 __√___
PART III. READING
I. Complete the following passage by choosing A, B, C or D to fill in each blank. (10pts:
1pt/item)
In recent years, there has been a remarkable increase into happiness. The researchers
have come up a number of factors which contribute to a definition of happiness.
First of all, there is, in some people, a moderate genetic predisposition to be happy, in
other words, happiness (1)_______ in families. And happiness seems to correlate quite strongly
with the main dimensions of personalities: extroverts are generally happier, neurotics are less so.
Second, people often report good social relations as a reason for their happiness. In
particular, friends are a great (2) ______ of joy, partly because of the agreeable things they do
together, partly because of the way friends use positive non-verbal (3) ______ such as caressing
and touching, to affirm their friendship. Marriage and similar (4) ______ relationships can also
form the basis of lasting happiness.
Third, job satisfaction undoubtedly (5) ______ overall satisfaction, and vice versa -
perhaps this is why some people are happy in boring jobs: it (6) ______ both ways. Job
satisfaction is caused not only by the essential nature of the work, but (7)_____ by social
interactions with co-workers. Unemployment, on the contrary, can be a serious cause of
unhappiness.
Fourth, leisure is important because it is more under individual (8) ______ than most
other causes of happiness. Activities (9) _____ sport and music, and participation in voluntary
work and social clubs of various kinds, can give great joy. This is partly because of the (10)
522
______themselves, but also because of the social support of other group members it is very
strong in the case of religious groups.
1. A. runs B. arrives C. goes D. descends
2. A. source B. origin C. base D. meaning
3. A. movements B. signals C. slogans D. motions
4. A. near B. tight C. close D. heavy
5. A. consists of B. applies to C. counts on D. contributes
to
6. A. works B. effects C. makes D. turns
7. A. too B. as well C. also D. plus
8. A. check B. power C. choice D. control
9. A. so B. such C. like D. thus
10. A. facilities B. activities C. exercises D. amenities
II. Read the passage carefully, then choose the correct option (marked A, B, C or D) to
answer the questions. (5pts: 1pt/item)
Scientists have established that influenza viruses taken from man can cause disease in
animals. In addition, man can catch the disease from animals. In fact, a greater numbers of wild
birds seem to carry the virus without showing any evidences of illness. Some scientists conclude
that a large family of influenza virus may have evolved in the bird kingdom, a group that has
been on earth 100 million years and is able to carry the virus without contracting the disease.
There is even convincing evidence to show that virus strain are transmitted from place to place
and from continent to continent by migrating birds.
It is known that two influenza viruses can recombine when both are present in an animal
at the same time. The result of such recombination is a great variety of strains containing
different H and N spikes. This raises the possibility that a human influenza virus can recombine
with an influenza virus from a lower animal to produce an entirely new spike. Research is
underway to determine if that is the way major new strains come into being. Another possibility
is that two animal influenza strains may recombine in a pig, for example, to produce a new strain
which is transmitted to man.
1. According to the passage, scientists have discovered that influenza viruses ______.
523
A. cause ill health in wild animals B. do not always cause symptoms in birds
C. are rarely present in wild birds D. change when transmitted from animals to
man
2. What is known about the influenza virus?
A. It was first found in a group of very old birds. B. All the different strains can be found in
wild birds.
C. It existed over 100 million years ago. D. It can survive in many different places.
3. According to the passage, a great variety of influenza strains can appear when______.
A. H and N spikes are produced B. animal and bird viruses are combined
C. dissimilar types of viruses recombine D. two viruses of the same type are
contracted
4. New strains of viruses are transmitted to man by_______.
A. a type of wild pig B. diseased lower animals
C. a group of migrating birds D. a variety of means
5. It can be inferred from the passage that all of the following are ways of producing new strains
of influenza EXCEPT_______.
A. two influenza viruses in the same animal recombining B. animal viruses recombining with
human viruses
C. two animal viruses recombining D. two animal viruses recombining in a human
III. Read the passage and choose the best answer from the four options marked A, B, C or
D in the following questions. Identify your answer by writing the corresponding letter A, B,
C or D on your answer sheet. (5pts: 1pt/item)
Several hundred million years ago, plants similar to modern ferns covered vast stretches
of the land. Some were as large as trees, with giant fronds bunched at the top of trunks as straight
as pillars. Others were the size of bushes and formed thickets of undergrowth. Still others lived
in the shade of giant club mosses and horsetails along the edges of swampy lagoons where giant
amphibians swam.
A great number of these plants were true ferns, reproducing themselves without fruits or
seeds. Others had only the appearance of ferns. Their leaves had organs of sexual reproduction
524
completely extinct) ushered in the era of flowering plants. Traces of these floras of the earliest
times have been preserved in the form of fossils. Such traces are most commonly found in shale
and sandstone rocks wedged between coal beds.
Today only tropical forests bear living proof of the ancient greatness of ferns. The species
that grow there are no longer those of the Carboniferous period, but their variety and vast
numbers, and the great size of some, remind us of the time when ferns ruled the plant kingdom.
1. What does the passage mainly discuss?
A. Plant reproduction B. How to locate fossils
C. An ancient form of plant life D. Tropical plant life
Others
A. plants B. pillars C. trees D. fronds
3. Which of the following is NOT mentioned as a characteristic of the plants described in the
passage?
A. They once spread over large areas of land.
B. They varied greatly in size.
C. They coexisted with amphibians, mosses, and horsetails.
D. They clung to tree trunks and bushes for support.
true to which of the following?
A. accurate B. genuine C. straight D. dependable
5. The author states that fossils of early plant life are usually found in rocks located between
deposits of _______. A. coal B. shale C. sandstone D. corollas
IV. Read the passage carefully then fill in the blank a suitable word. (10pts: 1pt/item)
As swimming became a popular recreation in England during the 1860s and 1870s,
several (1) water _ sports developed, roughly patterned after land sports. (2) Among __ them
were water football (or soccer), water rugby, water handball, and water polo, in which players
rode on floating barrels, painted to look (3) like __ horses, and struck the ball with a stick.
Water rugby became most popular of these sports, but somehow the water polo name
became attached to it, and it's been attached (4) ever __ since.
525
As played in England, the object of the sport was for a player to touch the ball, with both
(5) hands __, at the goal end of the pool. The goaltender stood on the pool deck, ready to dive on
any opponent who was about to score.
Water polo quickly became a very rough sport, filled (6) with __ underwater fights away
from the ball, and it wasn't unusual for players to pass out for lack of air.
In 1877, the sport was tamed in Scotland by the addiction of goalposts. The Scots also
replaced (7) the _ original small, hard rubber ball with a soccer ball and adopted (8) rules __
that prohibited taking the ball under the surface or, "tackling" a player unless he had the ball.
The Scottish game, which emphasized swimming speed, passing, and (9) team __ work,
spread to England during the early 1880s, to Hungary in 1889, to Austria and Germany in 1894,
to France in 1895, and (10) to __ Belgium in 1900.
Water polo was the first team sport added to the Olympic program, in 1900.
PART IV: WRITING
I. Write the new sentences using the given word. Do not change the word given in any way.
(10 pts: 1pt/item)
1. They have discovered some interesting new information. (LIGHT)
Some interesting new information has come to light.
2. They suspended Jack for the next two matches. (BANNED)
Jack was banned from playing in the next two matches.
3. I really want to see her again. (DYING)
I'm dying to see her again.
4. She was so beautiful that I couldn't stop looking at her. (EYES)
She was so beautiful that I couldn't take my eyes off her.
5. We are looking forward to watching the program. (WAIT)
We can't wait to watch the program.
II. Rewrite each of the following sentences so that it has a similar meaning to the original
one. (10 pts: 1pt/item)
1. If you changed your mind, you would be welcomed to join our class.
to change your mind, you would be welcomed to join our class.
2. I'd rather not go out this afternoon.
like going out this afternoon.
3. Adeles tries hard, but she doesn't get anywhere.
hard Adeles tries, she doesn't get anywhere/gets nowhere.
4. It is thought that the boss is considering raising wages.
is thought to be considering raising wages.
526
5. His disabilities did not prevent him from sailing around the world.
that he was disabled, he sailed/managed to sail around the world.
6. I didn't arrive in time to see her.
early enough to see her.
7. I'd prefer you not to smoke.
you didn't smoke.
8. The mother smiled happily. She took the baby in her arms.
happily, the mother took the baby in her arms.
9. The noise next door did not stop until after midnight.
until after midnight that the noise next door stopped.
10. You can ring this number whenever there is any difficulty.
Should there is any difficulty, you can ring this number.
-------------------------------THE END---------------------------------
ENGLISH PRACTICE 44
PART A PRONUNCIATION
Choose the word whose stress pattern is different from the other three in the following
question
1. A. plays B. works C. lives D. buys
2. A. frogs B. villagers C. fields D. insects
3. A. page B. village C. damage D. luggage
4. A. safety B. ready C. entry D. occupy
5. A. league B. equal C. creature D. menace
6. A. food B. school C. root D. wood
7. A. facility B. society C. necessity D. economy
8. A. stamped B. indulged C. accomplished D. practised
9. A. friends B. clubs C. tunes D. stamps
10. A. nowadays B. ruins C. pesticides D. dykes
PART B: LEXICO - GRAMMAR
I. Choose the best answer from the four options (marked A, B, C, or D) to complete each
sentence
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below. Identify your answers by writing the corresponding letter A, B, C, or D on the answer
sheet.
1. The park __________ hundreds of species of endangered animals.
A. contains B. consists C. composes D. holds
take the __________ cut.
A. narrow B. by C. short D. half
3. There are fast-growing __________ of fir tree here in this park.
A. varieties B. variances C. variants D. variations
A. No B. Neither C. None D. Nothing
5. I like listen to sweet __________ in my free time.
A. guitar B. ballads C. pops D. jazz
6. These pills will __________ your pain.
A. prevent B. ease C. simplify D. avoid
7. He was a(n) __________ man who was determined to be rich by any means.
A. ambitious B. mature C. brilliant D. romantic
8. She study hard and got a degree with __________ colors.
A. scarlet B. red C. soaring D. flying
9. The old manager has just retired, so Jack takes __________ his position.
A. on B. out C. in D. up
10. It is __________ for you to stay in New York with just a few dollars in your pocket.
A. incapable B. unable C. impossible D. irresponsible
II. Put the words in capitals in the right forms.
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SCHOOL REPORT
Margaret started English Literature this term, and I am afraid that her
(1)__________ to the subject has not been entirely (2)__________. She
has not shown much enthusiasm, and does not always pay (3)__________
in class. Her assignments are often (4)__________, because she is so
untidy, and because of her (5)__________ to check her work thoroughly.
She failed to do any (6)__________ before the end of term test, and had
poor results. She seems to have the (7)__________ idea that she can
succeed without studying. She has also had many (8)__________ and has
frequently arrived late for class. This has resulted in several
(9)__________. Although Margaret is a (10)__________ student in some
respects, she has not had a satisfactory term.
1. INTRODUCE
2. SUCCESS
3. ATTEND
4. READ
5. FAIL
6. REVISE
7. MISTAKE
8. ABSENT
9. PUNISH
10. GIFT
III. Look carefully at each line. Some of the lines are correct, and some have a word which
should not be there. Tick each correct line. If a line has a word which should not be there,
write the word in the space.
Supermarkets
The every time I go to a supermarket I ask myself
why I go shopping there so often. Last time I ended
up buying all the kinds of things when the all I really
wanted was a packet of rice and a small loaf, but
could find neither of them. I looked in every one
corner of the shop but there was simply no a sign of
these products. I looked carefully on either side of
the aisles but it was no any good. I ought to confess
here that I had forgotten my glasses! All of I could
see was rows of colorful shapes of all sizes. I
decided to ask an assistant. They were all a busy of
course and none of them was anywhere nearby in
any case. Meanwhile I had been filling my basket
with all the kinds of things I thought I wanted. After
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I had paid, I had no money left for the weekend, but
PART C: READING
I. Complete the following passage by filling in each blank with the correct answer. Identify
your
choice by writing the corresponding letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet.
SPORT IN PRISON
For all the arguments about prison, there is no getting (1)__________ from the fact that it exists.
Once the judge and (2)__________ have done their job, we have to (3)__________ thousands of
men and women occupied until they are (4)__________.
Sport is ideal (5)__________ prisoners for many reasons. Being (6)__________ punishes people
by taking away their freedom; just because someone gets in (7)__________ with the law, we
have no (8)__________ to take away their health as well. Secondly, the (9)__________ that you
feel when you are (10)__________ up for a long prison (11)__________ can make you very
anti-social and aggressive. The (12)__________ thing we want is for people to come out
(13)__________ ten years, or even ten months, and (14)__________up the first person they see.
Sport provides a way of controlling that (15) __________.
1. A. away B. out C. back D. far
2. A. panel B. team C. jury D. board
3. A. hold B. store C. preserve D. keep
4. A. abandoned B. remanded C. released D. charged
5. A. to B. for C. in D. with
6. A. inwards B. indoors C. internal D. inside
7. A. mess B. trouble C. worry D. trial
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8. A. right B. fairness C. justice D. demand
9. A. uniqueness B. remoteness C. isolation D. individuality
10. A. keyed B. broken C. closed D. locked
11. A. contract B. experience C. sentence D. course
12. A. best B. last C. final D. terminal
13. A. after B. before C. during D. over
14. A. hit B. beat C. mug D. fight
15. A. crime B. guilt C. assault D. violence
II. Read the passages below and choose the best answer from the four options marked A, B, C
or D. Identify your answer by writing the corresponding letter A, B, C or D on the answer
sheet.
Several hundred million years ago, plants similar to modern ferns covered vast stretches
of the land. Some were as large as trees, with giant fronds bunched at the top of trunks as straight
as pillars. Others were the size of bushes and formed thickets of undergrowth. Still others lived
in the shade of giant club mosses and horsetails along the edges of swampy lagoons where giant
amphibians swan.
A great number of these plants were true ferns, reproducing themselves without fruits or
seeds. Others had only the appearance of ferns. Their leaves had organs of sexual reproduction
completely extinct) ushered in the era of flowering plants. Traces of these flora of the earliest
times have been preserved in the form of fossils. Such traces are most commonly found in shale
and sandstone rocks wedged between coal beds.
Today only tropical forests bear living proof of the ancient greatness of ferns. The
species that grow there are no longer those of the Carboniferous period, but their variety and vast
numbers, and the great size of some, remind us of the time when ferns ruled the plant kingdom.
1. What does the passage mainly discuss?
A. Plant reproduction B. How to locate fossils
C. An ancient form of plant life D. Tropical plant life
2. The word “others” in bold refers to
A. plants B. pillars C. trees D. fronds
3. Which of the following is NOT mentioned as a characteristic of the plants described in
the passage?
A. They once spread over large areas of land.
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B. They varied greatly in size.
C. They coexisted with amphibians, mosses, and horsetails.
D. They clung to tree trunks and bushes for support.
4. The author states that fossils of early plant life are usually found in rocks located
between
deposits of
A. coal B. shale C. sandstone D. corollas
5. The word “bear” in bold could best be replaced by which of the following?
A. call for B. provide C. tolerate D. suffer
III. Read the passages below and choose the best answer from the four options marked A, B, C
or D.
Identify your answer by writing the corresponding letter A, B, C or D on the answer sheet.
Most of us tend to think of production when we think of mass media industries. After all,
it is the output of this production the papers we read, the cable TV shows we watch that grab
our attention, make us happy or angry, interested or bored. Moreover, most public discussion
about mass communication tends to be about production. The latest gossip about that actor will
be in what film, the angry comments a mayor makes about the violence on local TV news, the
newest CDs by an up-and-coming group these are the kinds of topics that focus our attention
on the making of content, not its distribution or exhibition.
Media executives know, however, that production is only one step in the arduous and
risky process of getting a mass media idea to an audience. Distribution is the delivery of the
produced material to the point where it will be shown to its intended audience. The activity takes
place out of public view. We have already mentioned the NBC acts as a distributor when it
disseminates television programming via satellite to TV stations. When Philadelphia Newspapers
Inc. delivers its Philadelphia Inquirer to city newsstands, when Twentieth Century Fox moves
its Musicland stores, they are involved in distribution to exhibitions.
1. In this passage, “arduous” means________.
A. difficult B. lucrative C. lengthy D. free
2. The passage states that people tend to focus on production because _______.
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A. it takes place out of public view
B. mass media companies do not own production divisions
C. the output of mass media is intended to grab our attention
D. companies can function as both producers and distributors
3. In this passage, to “disseminate” means to _______.
A. create B. send out C. take in D. fertilize
4. This passage states that distribution is_______.
A. the first step in mass media production
B. the most talked-about step in mass media production
C. at least as important as production
D. not as important as exhibition
5. The author’s purpose in writing this passage is to ________.
A. tell an interesting story B. define a concept clearly
C. describe a scene vividly D. argue with the reader
IV. WRITING
I. Rewrite the following sentences using the given words so that they have the same meaning
as the
given sentences. Do not change the words given in any way.
1. Be careful of thieves if you go to that part of town. (Watch)
_____________________________________________________________________________
2. Please behave in my house as you would in your own house. (make)
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_____________________________________________________________________________
3. Nobody helped me to build this. (own)
_____________________________________________________________________________
(keen)
_____________________________________________________________________________
5. Most university students need the financial support of their parents. (depend)
_____________________________________________________________________________
II. Wring a topic
“There are some advantages and disadvantages of the cinema. ”
Do you agree with this statement? Write an essay about 250 300 words to an educated non
specialist audience on this topic. You should give reasons for your answers and include any
relevant examples from your own knowledge and experience.
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Keys – practice 44
PART A PRONUNCIATION
Choose the word whose stress pattern is different from the other three in the following
question
1. A. plays B. works C. lives D. buys
2. A. frogs B. villagers C. fields D.
insects
3. A. page B. village C. damage D.
luggage
4. A. safety B. ready C. entry D.
occupy
5. A. league B. equal C. creature D.
menace
6. A. food B. school C. root D. wood
7. A. facility B. society C. necessity D.
economy
8. A. stamped B. indulged C. accomplished D.
practised
9. A. friends B. clubs C. tunes D.
stamps
10. A. nowadays B. ruins C. pesticides D. dykes
PART B: LEXICO – GRAMMAR: 2.5 point
I. 10 pts: 1 pt/item
1. A
2. C
3. A
4. D
5. B
6. B
7. A
8. D
9. D
10. C
II. 10pts: 1pt/ item
1. introduction
3. attention
5. failure
7. mistaken
9. punishments
2. successful
4. unreadable
6. revision
8. absences
10. gifted
III. 15 pts: 1pt/item
1. the
4. one
7. any
10. a
13. the
2. the
5. a
8. of
15. the
PART C. READING
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I. 15 point: 1 pt/item
1.A
4. C
7. B
10. D
13. A
2. B
5.B
8. A
11. C
14. B
3. D
6. D
9. C
12. B
15. D
II. 5 points: 1 pt/ item
1. C
2. A
3. D
4. A
5. B
III. 5 points: 1 pt /item
1. A
2. C
3. B
4. C
5. B
PART D.
I. 5 points: 1pt/ item
1. Watch thieves if you go to that part of town.
2. Please make yourself at home.
3. I built this on my own.
keen on this kind of music.
5 Most university students depend on the financial support of their parents.
II. 20 points
The candidate‟s essay should include the following points:
- The writing passage should be well-organized: introduction, body and ending of the
passage: 2.5 pts
- The ideas should be clarified with relevant and specific examples: 12.5 pts
- The writing passage is supposed to be free of grammatical and spelling errors: 5.0 pts
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ENGLISH PRACTICE 45
SECTIONI–PHONETICS
I.Choose the word whose underlined part is pronounced differently from the rest in the same
line.( 5p)
1.A.several B. suppose C. decisive D. sister
2.A. muddle B. struggle C. bush D. interrupt
3.A. ready B. measure C. steak D. stealth
4.A. wind B. behind C. mind D. find
5.A.chalice B. challenge C. choice D. chemist
II. Pick out the word that has the stress syllable differently from that of the other words.(5p)
1.A. application B. certificate C. biology D. security
2. A. university B. punctuality C. agricultural D.mathematician
3. A. identify B. secondary C. luxuriously D. majority
4. A. academic B. engineering C. availabe D.sympathetic
5.A. obligatory B. geographical C. international D. undergraduate
SECTION II- VOCABULARY AND GRAMMAR
I. Choose the best option ( A, B, C or D) to complete sentence below and write your answers in
the answer sheet.( 10p)
A. circumstances B. occasion C. opportunity D. reason
A. feelings B. reaction C. capital D. opinion
ur.
A. repaired B. renewed C. restored D. renovated
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A. except B. other C. apart D. rather
me.
A. live on B. live up to C. live out D. live down
A. suggested B. considered C. accepted D. advised
d an hour earlier.
A. must have B. had to C. should have D. was supposed to
A. to ask B. being asked C. to be asked D. asking
d lunch.
A. take B. to take C. taking D. taken
A. down B. over C. up D. out
II.Put the verb in brackets into the correct tense.( 10p)
4. Whe
III. Give the correct forms of the words in brackets to complete the blank space. ( 10p)
.
HARD
SURVIVE
ADVICE
538
INSTALL
acceptable.
SOCIETY
EDUCATION
ATTEND
COMPUTER
9.The breakdown of the negotiati
EXPECT
DEPEND
IV. Fill in each gap with a suitable preposition. (10 points)
2. Many people
exellent German.
SECTION III – READING
I.Read the following passage carefully and then answer the questions below.(10p)
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Traditionally the United States has been described as a melting pot, a place where the
previous identities of each immigrant group are melted down to create an intergrated, uniform
society. Since the 1960s, many Americans have rejected the melting pot metaphor in favour of
the image of the mosaic, a picture created by assembling many small stones or tiles. In a mosaic,
each peace retains its own distinctive identity, while contributing to a larger design. Advocates of
the mosaic metaphor assert that it better represents the diverse multicultural society of the United
States. Today, may Americans value their immigrant heritage as an important part of their
identity. More recent immigrant groups from Asia, such as Vietnamese Americans and Korean
Americans, have established communities alongside those populated by the descendants of
European immigrants, such as French Americans, German Americans, Irish Americans and
Italian Americans.
1.Why has the United States often been described as a melting pot?
2. Why have people been in favour of the image of the “ mosaic”?
3. What does the word “mosaic” mean?
4. What have immigrant groups from Asia done to maintain their identity?
5. Name some recent immigrant groups from Asia in the United States?
II.Read the following passage and then choose the most suitable word for each space. (10 p)
CAR CATCHES FIRE
bonnet this morning. They were just able to rescue their possessions before the car burst into
He
have any
burned out.
1. A. into B. on C. out of D. over
2. A. flames B. petrol C. smoke D. sparks
3. A.drove B. has driven C. was driving D. was driven
4. A. to B. from C. at D. in
5.A. but B. because C. although D. so
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6. A. wandered B. jumped C. walked D. ran
7.A. hospital B. garage C.library D. swimming pool
8. A. this B. those C. that D. these
9. A. At length B.Finally C. At the end D. Terminally
10. A. police car B. ambulance C. taxi D. fire engine
III.Read the passage below carefully. Then choose the correct answer: A, B, C or D that best
answers the question about the passage. (5p)
When we were in England last year, I went fishing with my friend, Peter. Early in the
morning we were sitting quietly by the side of the lake when we had an unpleasant surprise. We
saw a duck come along with three ducklings padding cheerfully behind her. As we watched
them, there was a sudden swirl in the water. We caught a glimpse of the vicious jaws of a pike- a
fish which is rather like a freshwater shark- and one of the ducklings was dragged below the
surface.
This incident made Peter furious. He vowed to catch the pike. On three successive
mornings we returned to the vicinity and used several different kinds of bait. On the third day
Peter was lucky. Using an artificial frog as bait, he managed to hook the monster. There was a
desperate fight but Peter was determined to capture the pike and succeeded. When he had got it
ashore and killed it, he wieghed the fish and found that it scaled nearly thirty pounds- a record
for that district.
1.Why do you think Peter was sitting quietly by the lake ?
A. He was watching the ducks. C. He was waiting for the pike to appear.
D. He was fishing
2. To what does surprise in line 3 probably refer?
A. to the duck. B. to the ducklings. C. to the action of the pike. D. to the time of the
day.
ut the incident two days later?
A. He caught and killed the pike. C. He vowed that he would catch the remaining
ducklings
B. He remained determined to catch the pike.D. He caught a frog and used it as bait for the pike.
4. How much was the pike worth?
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A. about thirty pounds. B. about two hundred and forty
dollars.
C. the passage contains no information on this point. D. the passage says that the fish
scaled nearly thirty pound.
5. Which of the following titles best sums up the whole passage?
A. Mysterious disappearance of ducklings. C. Record pike caught by an angry fisherman.
B. Revenge on a duck. D. Huge pike caught by fisherman after desperate
struggle at sea.
Section IV – writing
I. Finish each of the following sentences in such a way that it means exactly the same as the
sentence printed before it (5 points).
1. But for your unsuspected talents as a mechanic, he would have been stranded there for hours.
-
ay.
-
3. The only thing that prevented the passing of the bill was the death of the Prime Minister.
-
-known.
-
5. I only recognised him when he came into the light.
-
II. Using the word given and other words, complete the sencond sentence so that it has a
similar meaning to the first sentence. (5points)
-
2. The last time I saw him was when I lived in London. ( SINCE)
-
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ally go into town by car. ( USED)
-
4. Nobody plays this piece as beautifully as he does. (MORE)
-
- I
III. Using the cues below to complete each sentence of the following passage. (5p)
1.Teacher/ Day/ Vietnam/ fall/ twenty/ November/ each year.
............................................................................................................................................................
............
2. General/ it / be/ mean/ schoolchildren/ show/ appreciation/ teacher/ who/ guide/ in/ study.
3. In / a/ time/ forget/ bad/ experience/ student/ have/ teacher/ scold/ punish.
4. Students/ give/ teacher/ flower/ small/ gift.
5. Small/ party/ hold/ and/ there/ be/ atmosphere/ fun/ amusement/ school.
IV. Writing an essay (10p)
Living in a tranditional family of three or four generations has both advantages and
disadvantages. What do you think of that matter? Write an essay of about 180- 200 words to
support your points.
-----------THE END-------------
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544
Keys – practice 45
SECTION I: Phonetics (10 POINTS)
I. A. (1p for 1 correct answer X 5 = 5 points)
1. B
2. C
3. C
4. A
5. D
B. (1p for 1 correct answer X 5 = 5 points)
1.A
2.D
3.B
4.C
5.A
SECTION II: VOCABULARY AND GRAMMAR (40 POINTS)
I . (1p for 1 correct answer X 10 = 10 points)
1.A
2. B
3. C
4. B
5. A
6. D
7. C
8. C
9. C
10. B
II .( 1p for 1 correct answer X 10 = 10 points)
9.
10. tells/
11.
12. feel/ will bring
III .( 1p for 1 correct answer X 10 = 10 points)
11. hardened 6. eduacational
12. survivors 7. attendances
13. advisory 8. computerize
14. Installation 9. unexpected
15. socially 10. dependent
IV .( 1p for 1 correct answer X 10 = 10 points)
11. On 6. on
12. for 7. for
13. to 8. at
14. from 9. from
15. with 10. out
SECTION III.reading (25 POINTS)
I.(10 points): 2 pts/ each correct answer.
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1. Because the United States is a place where the previous identities of each immigrant group
are melted down to create an intergrated, uniform society.
2. Because it better represents the diverse multicultural society of the United States.
3.It means a picture create by assembling many small stones or tiles.
4. They have established communities alongside those populated by the descendants of
European immigrants.
5. They are Vietnamese Americans and Korean Americans.
II. (10 points): 1 pts/ each correct answer.
1.C
2. A
3. C
4. B
5. A
6. D
7. B
8. D
9. B
10. D
III.(5 points): 1 pts/ each correct answer.
1. D
2. C
3. B
4. C
5. C
SECTION IV : WRITING (25 POINTS)
I.( 1p for 1 correct answer X 5 = 5 points)
stranded
there for hours.
2. He suggested inviting the Browns to the party on Sunday.
3. Had it not been for the death of the Prime Minister, the bill would have been passed.
-known.
5. Not until he came into the light did I recognise him.
II.( 1p for 1 correct answer X 5 = 5 points)
s worth asking George to help.
2. I haven’t seen him since I lived in London.
3. I am not used to going into town by car.
4. He plays this piece more beautifully than anybody/ anyone else.
5. I was prevented from going to work by transport strike.
III.( 1p for 1 correct answer X 5 = 5 points)
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2. Generally/ In general, it is meant for schoolchildren to show their appreciation to their
teachers who have guided them in their studies.
3. It is a time to forget the bad experiences students may have of their teachers scolding and
punishing them.
4. Students give their teachers flowers and small gifts.
5. Small parties are held and there is an atmosphere of fun and amazenment in the school.
II.10 points
Gm:
1. Form: an essay (2points)
+ Easy to read
+ Coherent
2. Content: ( 4 points)
+Successful fulfillment of the task.
3. Language: ( 4 points)
+ Appropriate vocabulary (1 point )
+ Suitable connectors (0.5 point )
+ Correct grammar (2 points )
+ Punctuating/ Spelling (0.5 point)
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ENGLISH PRACTICE 46
I. Choose one word whose underlined part is pronounced differently from the others.
1.
A. candy
B. sandy
C. many
D. handy
2.
A. earning
B. learning
C. searching
D. clearing
3.
A. pays
B. stays
C. says
D. plays
4.
A. given
B. risen
C. ridden
D. whiten
5.
A. cough
B. tough
C. rough
D. enough
II. Choose one word whose stress pattern is different from the others.
6.
A. eleven
B. elephant
C. energy
D. envelope
7.
A. preparation
B. decoration
C. television
D. exhibition
8.
A. leather
B. paper
C. iron
D. ceramics
9.
A. mirror
B. invent
C. wallet
D. engine
10.
A. discovery
B. calculator
C. aero-plane
D. difficulty
III. Fill each blank with a suitable word or phrase.
11. The car can't have broken down. I_________ serviced last week.
12. If I_________ in that situation, I certainly wouldn't have had the courage to do what you did.
13. Although he had a difficult time during the war, it_________ harm.
14. It's no_________ the cold and wet, you'll just have to put up with it.
15. I won't have_________ their cars in the street outside the entrance to my house!
16. In times of hardship we have to learn to do_________ some basic necessities.
17. I'm_________ death of spiders!
18. I heard the thunder_________ in the distance.
19. He's been_________ weather for ages and still isn't back at work.
20. We made the uniforms ourselves as we couldn't_________ made.
IV. Find one underlined part marked A, B, C, or D that needs correcting.
21. Musical comedies, as an American form of entertainment, often take its subjects from
or past. A B C
D
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22. Of all seashore plants, seaweeds are best able to tolerate long periods out of water, followed
by long periods covering by water. A B C D
23. The fruit of the plantain looks much like a banana, and it is not so sweet or so pleasing in
flavor.
A B C D
24. The viceroy butterfly, an insect that birds like to eat, has a color pattern similar to that of the
monarch butterfly, whom birds do not like to eat. A B C
D
25. Behavior therapy uses rewards and punishments to encourage patients to act in a way
healthier.
A B C D
V. Give the right form of the word in each blanket in the following passage.
From what we had read in the (26. ADVERTISE)________, it promise to be the holiday
of a lifetime not only a quality hotel in a top (27. SEA)_________ resort, but also (28.
SURPRISE)_________ cheap with it! We should have known it was too good to be true! We
arrived at the airport to discover we only had (29. STAND)_________ tickets and there was no
guarantee we would be flying. Luckily, two places became free at the last minute and we took
off. The flight lasted at least (30. TWO)_________ as long as it should have and by the time we
arrived, we were both feeling rather (31. POOR)_________ , probably because of the dubious in-
flight meal we had had. We were met by our guide, who seemed (32. LANGUAGE)_________
incompetent and understood very little of what we said to him. Instead of the hotel we had seen
in the photograph back home, he took us to a squalid little guesthouse much (33.
FAR)_________ away from the resort than we were expecting. We wanted to explain that there
had been a (34. DREAD)_________ mistake but it was (35. USE)_________ trying to complain
nobody could understand us.
VI. Choose among A, B, C, or D the one that best fits each of the blanks.
36. The child was told to__________ for being rude to his uncle.
A. forgive B. apologize C. excuse D. confess
37. This is the__________ of the bicycle which was stolen.
A. information B. detail C. example D. description
38. Some drives, after__________ annoy their fellow-motorists by slowing down again
immediately.
A. passing along B. passing by C. overtaking D. taking over
39. It is__________ unlikely that the Queen agree to open the new Town Hall.
A. greatly B. highly C. mainly D. largely
40. I don't think he'll ever__________ the shock of his wife's death.
A. get by B. get over C. get off D. get through
41. Some school have very__________ rules of behavior which must be obeyed.
A. strict B. strong C. straight D. solid
42. It was difficult to__________ a date which was convenient for everyone.
A. organize B. arrange C. elect D. provide
43. It's difficult to pay one's bills when prices keep__________.
A. growing B. raising C. rising D. gaining
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44. You may not have to stay the night but take a toothbrush just in__________.
A. preparation B. case C. time D. order
45. She remembered the correct address only__________ she had posted the letter.
A. since B. following C. after D. afterwards
VII. Choose from A, B, C, or D the one that best fits each of the blanks in the following
passage.
The Internet bus
In the desert areas that surround Tucson city, USA, students spend hundreds of hours on
yellow buses each year getting to and from their schools. But when mobile internet equipment
was (46)____________ on a yellow school bus, the bored, often noisy, teens were transformed
into quiet, studious individuals.
District officials got the idea during (47)____________ drives on school business to
Phoenix, two hours each way, when they (48)____________ that, when they went in pairs, one
person could drive and the other could work using a laptop and a wireless card. They
academic productivity, too.
chief information officer (51)____________ across an article about having internet across in
The officials have been delighted to see the (52)____________ of homework getting
done, morning and evening, as the internet bus (53)____________ up and drops off students
along the 70-minute drive. (54)____________ some students spend their time playing games or
visiting social networking sites, most students do make (55)____________ their travel time to
study.
46. A. installed B. set C. included D. structured
47. A. extraordinary B. occasional C. exceptional D. few
48. A. believed B. acknowledged C. estimated D. realised
49. A. thought B. imagined C. suspected D. wondered
50. A. increase B. enlarge C. rise D. heighten
51. A. got B. looked C. came D. put
52. A. total B. amount C. number D. measure
53. A. brings B. picks C. rides D.
catches
54. A. Since B. Despite C. Although D. However
55. A. progress B. work C. use D. part
VIII. Fill in each blank with ONE suitable word.
TRAVEL INSURANCE
When going on holiday, it is always a good idea to take out travel insurance. This is just
in case something goes (56)________ along the way. You could lose your luggage, you could be
robbed, or even become ill and need expensive medical treatment. For millions of holiday
makers, travel insurance is just a precaution (57)________ will help them have an enjoyable and
worry-free holiday. But for (58)________, travel insurance is a way of earning money
(59)________ making false claims against insurance companies. For (60)________ some people
pretend that they have had expensive equipment stolen which in (61)________ never even
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existed, and then claim large sums in compensation. Such claims cost insurance company a total
(62)________ ________.
(64)________ to a new computer system, companies will be able to tell at a glance
(65)________ someone has made a claim within the last three years. Honest travelers will no
IX. Choose from A, B, C, or D the one that best answers each of the questions in the following
passage.
A pilot cannot fly by sight alone. In many conditions, such as flying at night and landing
in dense fog, a pilot must use radar, an alternative way of navigating. Since human eyes are not
very good at determining speeds of approaching objects, radar can show a pilot how fast nearby
planes are moving. The basic principle of radar is exemplified by what happens when one shouts
in a cave. The echo of the sounds against the walls helps a person determine the size of the cave.
With radar, however, the waves are radio waves instead of sound waves. Radio waves travel at
the speed of light, about 300,000 kilometers in one second. A radar set sends out a short burst of
radio waves. Then it receives the echoes produced when the waves bounce off objects. By
determining the time it takes for the echoes to return to the radar set, a trained technician can
he
distance between an object and the radar set. Besides being of critical importance to pilots, radar
is essential for air traffic control, tracking ships at sea, and for tracking weather systems and
storms.
66. What is the main topic of this passage?
A. The nature of radar. B. History of radar.
C. Alternatives to radar. D. Types of ranging.
67. According to the passage, what can radar detect besides location of objects?
A. Shape B. Size C. Speed D. Weight
exemplified
shouts
70. Which of the following words best describes the tone of this passage?
A. argumentative B. explanatory C. humorous D. imaginative
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71. According to the passage, the distance between a radar set and an object can be determined
by_________.
A. the time it takes for a burst of radio waves to produce echoes when the waves bounce
off the object
set
C. the time it takes for the radio waves to produce echoes and bounce off the object
D. the time it takes for the echoes produced by the radio waves to return to the radar set
72. Which type of waves does radar use?
A. tidal B. sound C. heat D. radio
trackingpassage most closely means_________.
A. sending B. searching for C. ranging D. repairing
74. Which of the following would most likely be the topic of the next paragraph?
A. A history of flying. B. Other uses of radar.
C. The technology used by pilots. D. Uses of some technology.
75. What might be inferred about radar?
A. It takes the place of a radio. B. It has improved navigational safety.
C. It was developed from a study of sound waves.
D. It gave birth to the invention of the airplane.
X. Finish the second sentence so that it means the same as the first one, using the word in
capital letters which must not be altered in any way.
76. You should think about the price before you decide whether to buy it or not.
(consideration)
(call)
78. Twenty years ago this region produced twice as much coal as it does now. (halved)
79. The prime minister in unlikely to call an early general election. (likelihood)
80. The policeman acted quickly and averted an accident. (prompt)
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XI. Rewrite each of the sentences without changing its meaning, using the cue given.
81
________________________________________.
82. House prices have risen dramatically this year.
_______________________________________________.
85. She started to clean up the house just after the guests had left.
_______________________________________________.
XII. Writing an essay.
“Soft-skills are more and more needed for future jobs”.
What do you think of that matter? Write an essay of about 280- 300 words to support your
points.
____________THE END____________
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KEYS PRACTICE 46
I.
(5pts) 1 pt/correct answer.
II. (5pts) 1 pt/correct answer.
1. C
2. D
3. C
4. D
5. A
6. D
7. C
8. D
9. B
10. A
III.
(10pts) 1 pt/correct answer.
11. only had it
12. had been
13. did him no/ did not
(seem to) do him any
14. good/ use grumbling/
complaining about
15. people parking
16. without
17. frightened/ scared to
18. rumbling
19. under the
20. afford to have them
IV.
(5pts) 1 pt/correct answer.
21. C
22. D
23. B
24. D
25. D
V.
(10pts) 1 pt/correct answer.
26. advertisement
27. seaside
28. surprisingly
29. standby
30. twice
31. poorly
32. linguistically
33. farther/ further
34. dreadful
35. useless
VI.
(10pts) 1 pt/correct answer.
36. B
37. D
38. C
39. B
40. B
41. A
42. B
43. C
44. B
45. C
VII.
(10pts) 1 pt/correct answer.
46. A
47. B
48. D
49. D
50. A
51. C
52. B
53. B
54. C
55. C
VIII.
(10pts) 1 pt/correct answer.
56. wrong
57. which
58. other/ some
59. by
60. example/ instance
61. fact
62. of
63. out
64. Thanks
65. whether/ if
IX.
(10pts) 1 pt/correct answer.
66. A
67. C
68. C
69. B
70. B
71. D
72. D
73. B
74. B
75. B
X. (5pts) 1 point/correct answer.
76.
You should take the price into consideration before you decide whether to buy it or not.
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XI.
XII.
77.
78.
79.
80.
81.
82.
83.
84.
85.
much call for cars with large engines any more.
The coal produced in this region has been halved in the 20 years.
The likelihood is small of the PM calling an early general election.
prompt action averted an accident.
(5pts) 1 point/correct answer.
been for my father’s money, we could not have managed.
been a dramatic rise/increase in the house prices this year.
everything except for/but/apart from the television.
to search for the stolen car.
had the guests left than she started to clean up the house.
Content: accounts for 50% of the total mark. To be given the maximum of 50% for the
content, the candidates should provide all main ideas and details as appropriate.
Language: accounts for 30% of the total mark. To be given the maximum of 30% for
language, the candidates should use variety of vocabulary and structures appropriate to the
level of English language high school students.
Presentation: accounts for 20% of the total mark. To be given the maximum of 20% for
presentation, the candidates should write with coherence, cohesion and can use
appropriate styles and linking devices
ENGLISH PRACTICE 47
I. Circle the word whose underlined part is pronounced differently from that of the others.
1. A. arrow B. loud C. moldy D. poultry
2. A. basilisk B. bison C. basic D. basin
3. A. subtlety B. indebtedness C. bombard D. combing
4. A. benevolent B. content C. molecules D. technique
5. A. conscience B. bronchitis C. shuttle D. chauffeur
II. Choose the word whose syllable is stressed differently from that of the others in each line.
6. A. comic B. clementine C. climax D. thermonuclear
7. A. diligent B. dimension C. action D. innate
8. A. characterize B. absence C. datum D. charcoal
9. A. solicitor B. separately C. spacious D. sequence
10. A. parachute B. armchair C. accent D. accidentally
III. Choose the word or phrase that best completes each sentence.
11. Assembly lines are useful for producing a large _______ of identical products.
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A. quality B. quantity C. quandary D. qualification
12. Only the _______ of the building is going to be remodeled.
A. insides B. interior C. indoors D. inner
13. Whether the sports club survives is a matter of complete _______ to me.
A. indifference B. disinterest C. importance D. interest
14. After years of neglect there was a huge _______ program to return the city to its former
glory.
A. restoration B. preservation C. conservation D. refurbishment
15. The assistant suggested _______ the next day when the manager would be there.
A. we are coming back B. to come back C. we will come back D. we came
back
16. I never get a _______ of sleep after watching a horror film.
A. wink B. blink C. night D. ounce
17. As it was Christmas, the _______ at church was much larger than usual.
A. audience B. convention C. congregation D. grouping
18. The sheep were huddled into a _______ to protect them from overnight frosts.
A. cage B. kennel C. hutch D. pen
A. gave B. returned C. subscribed D. found
20. Many _______ crafts such as weaving are now being revived.
A. customary B. habitual C. traditional D. ordinary
21. He managed to finish his thesis under the _______ of his tutor.
A. guidance B. help C. aid D. assistance
22. Mr. Henry was given a medal in _______ of his service to his country.
A. gratitude B. knowledge C. recognition D. response
23. Everyone knows about pollution problems, but not many people have _______ any solutions.
A. thought over B. come up with C. looked into D. got round to
24. You _______ as well seek for a fish in the tree as try to do that.
A. must B. would C. should D. might
next century.
A. Raw B. Rude C. Crude D. Blunt
26. By the time you receive this letter, I _______ for China.
A. will have left B. have left C. would have left D. will leave
27. Prizes are awarded _______ the number of points scored.
A. resulting from B. adding up C. presented to D. according to
28. The needs of gifted children in schools have long been _______ neglected.
A. dolefully B. woefully C. idly D. pathetically
29. I must take this watch to be repaired; it _______ over 20 minutes a day.
A. increases B. gains C. accelerates D. progresses
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A. culminating B. leading C. arriving D. finalizing
IV. Write the correct FORM of each bracketed (0) has been done as an example.
V. The passage below contains 10 mistakes. (0) has been done as an example.
VI. Read the following passage and decide which answer (A, B, C or D) best fits each gap.
The ability to weep is a uniquely human form of emotional response. Some scientists
have suggested that human tears are (51)_______ of an aquatic past but this does not seem
very likely. We cry from the moment we enter this world, for a number of reasons. Helpless
babies cry to persuade their parents that they are ill, hungry or uncomfortable. As they
(52)_______, they will also cry just to attract parental attention and will often stop when they get
it.
The idea that having a good cry do you (53)_______ is a very old one and now it has scientific
validity since recent research into tears has shown that they (54)_______ a natural painkiller
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called enkaphalin. By fighting sorrow and pain this chemical helps you feel better. Weeping can
increase the quantities of enkaphalin you (55)_______.
Unfortunately, in our society we impose restrictions upon this naturally (56)_______ activity.
Because some people still regard it as a (57)_______ of weakness in men, boys in particular are
admonished when they cry. This kind of repression can only increase stress, both emotionally
and physically.
Tears of emotion also help the body (58)_______ itself of toxic chemical waste, for there is more
protein in them than in tears resulting from cold winds or other irritants. Crying comforts, calms
and can be very enjoyable (59)_______ the popularity of highly emotional films which are
laughing together.
51. A. witness B. evidence C. result D. display
52. A. evolve B. change C. develop D. alter
53. A. better B. fine C. good D. well
54. A. contain B. retain C. hold D. keep
55. A. construct B. achieve C. provide D. produce
56. A. curing B. treating C. healing D. improving
57. A. hint B. symbol C. feature D. sign
58. A. release B. rid C. loosen D. expel
59. A. consider B. remark C. distinguish D. regard
60. A. named B. entitled C. subtitled D. called
VII. Read the following passage and answer the questions.
Legend has it that sometime toward the end of the Civil War (1861-1865) a
government train carrying oxen traveling through the northern plains of eastern Wyoming was
caught in a snowstorm and had to be abandoned. The driver returned the next spring to see what
had become of his cargo. Instead of the skeletons he had expected to find, he saw his oxen,
living, fat, and healthy. How had they survived?
The answer lay in a resource that unknowing Americans lands trampled underfoot in their
haGreat American Desertbarren. In the
eastern parts of the United States, the preferred grass for forage was a cultivated plant. It grew
well with enough rain, then when cut and stored it would cure and become nourishing hay for
winter feed. But in the dry grazing lands of the West that familiar bluejoint grass was often killed
by drought. To raise cattle out there seemed risky or even hopeless. Who could imagine a fairy-
tale grass that required no rain and somehow made it possible for cattle to feed themselves all
winter? But the surprising western wild grasses did just that. They had wonderfully convenient
features that made them superior to the cultivated eastern grasses. Variously known as buffalo
grass, grama grass, or mesquite grass, not only were they immune to drought; but they were
actually preserved by the lack of summer and autumn rains. They were not juicy like the
cultivated eastern grasses, but had short, hard stems. And they did not need to be cured in a barn,
558
but dried right where they grew on the ground. When they dried in this way, they remained
naturally sweet and nourishing through the winter. Cattle left outdoors to fend for themselves
thrived on this hay. And the cattle themselves helped plant the fresh grass year after year for they
trampled the natural seeds firmly into the soil to be watered by the melting snows of winter and
the occasional rains of spring. The dry summer air cured them much as storing in a barn cured
the cultivated grasses.
61. What does the passage mainly discuss?
A. A type of wild vegetation B. Western migration after Civil War
C. The raising of cattle D. The climate of the Western
United States
62. What Legend has it
A. Most history book include the story of the train.
B. The story of the train is similar to other ones from that time period.
C. The driver of the train invented the story.
D. The story of the train may not be completed factual.
they
A. plains B. skeletons C. oxen D. Americans
Great American Desert in line 7?
B. It was not originally assumed to be a fertile area.
C. It was a popular place to raise cattle before the Civil War.
65. barren
A. lonely B. uncomfortable C. infertile D. dangerous
preferred
A. favored B. available C. ordinary D. required
67. Which of the following can be inferred about the cultivated grass mentioned in the second
paragraph?
A. Cattle raised in the Western United States refused to eat it.
B. It had to be imported into the United States.
C. It would probably not grow in the western United States.
D. It was difficult for cattle to digest.
68. Which of the following was NOT one of the names given to the western grasses?
A. Mesquite grass B. Bluejoint grass C. Buffalo grass D. Grama grass
69. Which of the following was NOT mentioned as a characteristic of western grasses?
A. They contain little moisture B. They have tough stems
C. They can be grown indoors D. They are not affected by dry weather
70. According to the passage, the cattle help promote the growth of the wild grass by________.
A. eating only small quantities of grass.
B. continually moving from one grazing area to another.
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C. naturally fertilizing the soil.
D. stepping on and pressing the seeds into the ground.
VIII. Finish the second sentence in such a way that it means exactly the same as the sentence
printed before it
71. Customs officials are stopping more travelers than usual this week.
_________________________________________.
to stop playing.
74. He never suspected that the bicycle had been stolen.
75. How could I help, except to offer to lend her some money?
IX. Use the word(s) given in the brackets and make any necessary additions to complete a new
sentence in such a way that it is as similar as possible in meaning to the original sentence. Do
NOT change the form of the given word(s).
76. To this day no one has equaled his achievements in the field of technology. (unsurpassed)
77. Peter grimaced as he swallowed the foul-tasting medicine.
(pulled)
-tasting medicine.
planned.
(longer)
79. What he told me made me very curious to hear the rest of the history. (appetite)
80. They chose not to drive because they thought there would be too much snow. (fear)
_ too much snow.
______________THE END_______________
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Keys – practice 47
I.
(5pts) 1 point/correct answer.
II.
(5pts) 1 point/correct answer.
1. B
2. A
3. C
4. C
5. B
6. D
7. B
8. A
9. A
10. D
III.
(20pts) 1 point/correct answer.
11. B
12. B
13. A
14. A
15. D
16. A
17. C
18. D
19. D
20. C
21. A
22. C
23. B
24. D
25. C
26. A
27. D
28. B
29. B
30. A
IV.
(10pts) 1 point/correct answer.
31. valuable
32. frightened
33. length
34. worldwide
35. tightened
36. terrified
37. lowered
38. repeatedly
39. embarrassment
40. heights
V.
(10pts) 1 point/correct answer.
41. acquired
42. explicitly
43. a few
44. to
45. to
46. vocational
47. as
48. assume
49. certain
50. intended
VI.
(10pts) 1 point/correct answer.
51. B
52. C
53. C
54. A
55. D
56. C
57. D
58. B
59. A
60. D
VII.
(20pts) 2 points/correct answer.
61. A
62. B
63. C
64. D
65. C
66. A
67. C
68. B
69. D
70. B
VIII. (20pts) 2 points/correct answer.
IX.
71.
72.
73.
74.
75.
76.
77.
78.
79.
number of travelers is being stopped by customs officials this week.
than disturb the meeting, I left without saying goodbye.
I decided to get up to dance, the band decided to stop playing.
did he suspect that the bicycle had been stolen.
than to offer to lend her some money, how could I help?
his achievements are unsurpassed in the field of technology.
pulled a face as he swallowed the foul-tasting medicine.
will take longer than originally planned, which is
unfortunate.
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80.
whetted my appetite for the rest of the story.
not to drive for fear of too much snow.
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ENGLISH PRACTICE 48
I. Pick out the word whose underlined part is pronounced differently from those of the other
words.
1. A. latter B. label C. ladder D. latitude
2. A. pour B. roar C. flour D. soar
3. A. chase B. purchase C. bookcase D. suitcase
4. A. thread B. feather C. bread D. bead
5. A. prepare B. preface C. preparation D. prejudice
II. Choose the word whose stress pattern is differently from those of the other words.
6. A. amphibian B. champagne C. cathedral D. creature
7. A. accommodation B. antibiotic C. counterclockwise D.
deforestation
8. A. consciousness B. ecotourism C. biosphere D. confirm
9. A. architectural B. cosmopolitan C. appreciative D.
archeologist
10. A. consolidate B. context C. conference D. confidence
III. Read the sentences carefully and choose the best answers to make complete ones.
A. her permanent residence was B. where her permanent residence
C. permanent residence for her D. her permanent residence
12. Just as remote-controlled satellites can be employed to explore outer space, _________
employed to investigate the deep sea.
A. can be robots B. robots can be C. can robots D. can robots that are
13. _________ is not clear to researchers.
A. Why dinosaurs having become extinct. B. Why dinosaurs became extinct
C. Did dinosaurs become extinct D. Dinosaurs became extinct
14. The first transatlantic telephone cable system was not established _______ 1956.
A. while B. until C. on D. when
15. Drinking water ___________ excessive amounts of fluorides may leave a stained or mottled
effect on the enamel of teeth.
A. containing B. in which containing C. contains D. that contain
culum of Harvard and Yale
Universities.
A. to be part B. which was part C. was part D part
17. If you can win his attention ___________ for you.
A. the so much better B. the better so much
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C. so much the better D. so the much better
18. The President resigned; the whiff of scandal remained ____________.
A. otherwise B. therefore C. immediately D. nevertheless
19. Which __________ agency do you work for?
A. ads B. advertised C. advertising D. advertisement
20. Van Gogh suffered from depression ____________ by overwork and ill-health.
A. brought on B. coming about C. taken up D. put through
IV. Each sentence below contains 1 mistake. IDENTIFY the mistakes and WRITE THEIR
CORRECT FORMS.
21. Had the committee members considered the alternatives more carefully, they would have
realized that the second was superior than the first:
22. Malnutrition is a major cause of death in those countries where the cultivation of rice have
been impeded by recurrent drought.
23. Because the residents had worked so diligent to renovate the old building, the manager had a
party.
them pull.
25. Time spends very slowly when you are waiting for a bus to arrive
26. Judy decided to wait until after she had taken her exams before having her wisdom teeth pull.
27. Hardly the plane had landed when Adam realized that he had left the file that he needed at his
office.
28. When she was asked for her opinion on the course, she said it had been a waist of time.
29. I try to remember your name but I am afraid I cannot remember it.
V. Fill in each blank with a suitable PREPOSITION or PARTICLE.
31. I know ________ experience that I do my best work early in the morning.
32. I am astonished ________ the way my students can spend all night at the disco and still
remember their prepositions next morning.
33. Is it possible to insure yourself ________ nuclear attack?
34. At school today, we had a long discussion _______ the best way to learn a foreign language.
36. Raise the gun to your shoulder, aim _______ the target, and try not to kill anyone.
37. Small children should be watched ____________ carefully.
38. Would you give up your country cottage __________ a town flat?
40. The performance on the first night came ______________ pretty.
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VI. Write the correct FORM of each bracketed word.
41. (ADAPT)__________ to a new environment is a difficult thing for old people.
42. Police asked (PASS) ______________ if they had seen the accident happen.
43. What a (WORRY) ______________pair of children. They have to be watched every minute
of the day.
44. Children are taught from young to be (RESPECT) _____________ to their elders.
45. They frequently (MOBILE) _________________ the traffic as they march through the
streets.
46. He shook his head in _____________ (APPROVE)
47. He fought the illness with courage and ________________ (DETERMINE)
48. She seems (REASON) __________happy in her new job.
49. Can we (ARRANGE) _____________the meeting for next Monday at 7?
VII. Read the text & decide which word best fits each space by choosing A, B, C or D.
Action scenes in films
Modern cinema audiences expect to see plenty of thrilling scenes in action films. These
scenes, which are (51)_________ as stunts, are usually performed by stuntmen who are specially
trained to do dangerous things safely. (52) ________ can crash a car, but if you are shooting a
film, you have to be extremely (53)_________ sometimes stopping right in front of the camera
and film crew. At an early (54)_________ in the production, an expert stuntman is
(55)_________ in to work out the action scenes and form a team. He is the only person who can
go (56)__________ the wishes of the director, although he will usually only do this in the
(57)_________ of safety.
Many famous actors like to do the dangerous parts themselves, which produces better shots,
(59)________ in all the important aspects of the character they are playing, but without the
recent progress in safety equipment, insurance companies would never let them take the risk. To
do their own stunts, actors need to be good athletes, but they must also be sensible and know
their (60)_________.If they were to be hurt, the film would come to a sudden halt.
51. A. remarked B. known C. referred D. named
52. A. Everyone B. Someone C. Anyone D. No one
53. A. detailed B. plain C. straight D. precise
54. A. period B. minute C. part D. stage
55. A. led B. taken C. drawn D. called
56. A. over B. against C. through D. across
57. A. interests B. needs C. purposes D. regards
58. A. work B. get C. put D. stand
59. A. connected B. arranged C. involved D. affected
60. A. limits B. ends C. frontiers D. borders
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VIII. Fill in each blank space with an appropriate word.
THE BIRTH OF THE T-SHIRT
The T-shirt, or at least the T-shirt as we know it, was born in the theatre. When
Tennessee William's play A Streetcar Named Oesire opened in New York in December 1947, a
young actor (61)________ Marlon Brando went (62)________ stage wearing a (63)________ of
blue jeans and a bright, white, capped-sleeve T-shirt. It was the first time the T-shirt had been
seen publicly as anything (64)________ an item of underwear and it set a fashion trend that was
to last through (65)________ the end of the century. The idea for the T-shirt came (66)________
Brando himself. He had worn one at rehearsals for the play. The director was so impressed by
the look that was created that he asked Brando to wear the shirt in the play itself. Brando may
have seen the shirt being advertised by the American company Sears Roebuck. They had decided
to market the shirt (67)________ a fashionable garment in its (68)________ right, rather than
just something to be worn (69)________ warmth beneath a denim work shirt (70)________ an
army uniform. It was Brando, however, who popularized it, especially with the release of the
film version of Streetcar in 1951. A short leather jacket completed the look that was to be
adopted by teenage rebels in many countries for decades afterwards.
IX. Read the following passage and choose the best answer.
Since the world became industrialized, the number of animal species that have either
become extinct or have neared extinction has increased. Bengal tigers, for instance, which once
roamed the jungles in vast numbers, now number only about 2,300. By the year 2025, it is
estimated that they will become extinct. What is alarming about the case of the Bengal tiger is
that this extinction will have been caused almost entirely by poachers who, according to some
sources, are not always interested in material gain but in personal gratification. This is an
example of the callousness that is contributing to the problem of extinction. Animals, such as
Bengal tiger, as well as other endangered species, are valuable parts
International laws protecting these animals must be enacted to ensure their survival and the
survival of our planet.
Countries around the world have begun to deal with the problem in various ways. Some
countries, in an effort to circumvent the problem, have allocated large amounts of land to animal
reserves. They then charge admission prices to help defray the costs of maintaining the parks,
and they often must also depend on world organizations for support. This money enables them to
invest in equipment and patrols to protect the animals. Another response to the increase in animal
extinction is an international boycott of products made from endangered species. This has had
some effect, but by itself it will not prevent animals from being hunted and killed.
71. What is the main topic of the passage?
A. the Bengal tiger B. international boycott
C. endangered species D. problems with industrialization
alarminge first paragraph?
566
A. dangerous B. serious C. gripping D. distressing
poachers
following?
A. illegal hunters B. enterprising researchers
C. concerned scientists D. trained hunters
callousness
following?
A. indirectnessB. independence C. incompetence D. insensitivity
75. The above passage is divided into two paragraphs in order to contrast.
A. a problem and a solution B. a statement and an illustration
C. a comparison and contrast D. specific and general information
this
A. Bengal tigers B. Interest in material gain
C. Killing animals for personal satisfaction D. The decrease in the Bengal tiger
population
allocated
A. set aside B. combined C. organized D. taken off
78. Tdefray
A. lower B. raise C. make a payment on D. make an investment
toward
international boycott
A. buying and selling of animal products overseas
B. a refusal to buy animal products worldwide
C. a global increase in animal survival
D. defraying the cost of maintaining national parks
A. forgiving B. concerned C. vindictive D. surprised
X. Finish each of the sentences in such a way that it means exactly the same as the sentence
printed before it.
81. She never seems to succeed even though she works hard.
82. Do all the washing, please!
83. I regret not going to the airport to say good bye to him.
_________________________.
84. Mick thought that we were married.
85. The only thing that kept us out of prison was the way he spoke the local dialect.
But for his command __________________________________.
567
XI. Write an essay (about 250 words) about the following topic:
Some people say that traffic accidents are caused by the increasing number of motorbikes.
Others blame for man’s fault. Which point of view do you agree? State at least three
relevant evidences.
_____________THE END____________
568
Keys – practice 48
I.
(5pts) 1 point/correct answer.
II.
(5pts) 1 point/correct answer.
1. B
2. C
3. B
4. D
5. D
6. D
7. C
8. D
9. C
10. D
III.
(10pts) 1 point/correct answer.
11. D
12. B
13. B
14. B
15. A
16. D
17. C
18. D
19. C
20. A
IV.
(10pts) 1 point/correct answer.
21. to the first
22. has
23. diligently
24. them pulled
25. Time passes
26. pulled
27. had the plane
28. waste of time
29. am trying
30. by myself
V.
(10pts) 1 point/correct answer.
31. from
32. at/by
33. against
34. about
35. from
36. at
37. over
38. for
39. of
40. off
VI.
(10pts) 1 point/correct answer.
41. Adaptation
42. passers-by
43. worrisome
44. respectful
45. immobilize
46. disapproval
47. determination
48. reasonably
49. rearrange
50. inactive
VII.
(10pts) 1 point/correct answer.
51. B
52. C
53. D
54. D
55. D
56. B
57. A
58. D
59. C
60. A
VIII.
(10pts) 1 point/correct answer.
61. named/called
62. on
63. pair
64. but/ except
65. to/until
66. from
67. as
68. own
69. for
70. or
IX.
(10pts) 1 point/correct answer.
71. C
72. D
73. A
74. D
75. A
76. C
77. A
78. C
79. B
80. B
569
X. (5pts) 1 point/correct answer.
XI.
81.
82.
83.
84.
85.
as/ though she works, she never seems to succeed.
all the washing be done.
I had gone to the airport to say good bye to him.
the impression that we were married
of the local dialect, we could have been put into prison/ jail.
(15pts) S
Content: accounts for 50% of the total mark. To be given the maximum of 50% for the
content, the candidates should provide all main ideas and details as appropriate.
Language: accounts for 30% of the total mark. To be given the maximum of 30% for
language, the candidates should use variety of vocabulary and structures appropriate to the
level of English language high school students.
Presentation: accounts for 20% of the total mark. To be given the maximum of 20% for
presentation, the candidates should write with coherence, cohesion and can use
appropriate styles and linking devices
570
ENGLISH PRACTICE 49
A. LEXICO-GRAMMAR
I. Mark the letter A, B, C, or D to indicate the best answer in each of the following questions.
(15 pts)
01: They had meals together in the school______.
A. café B. restaurant C. canteen D. bar
02: You should______ your pounds for dollars before going to New York.
A. change B. convert C. turn D. exchange
03: Who is the______ of this company?
A. top B. head C. leader D. minister
04: His sister's marriage has been arranged by her family. She is marrying a man______.
A. she hardly knows him B. whom she hardly know
C. she hardly knows D. that she hardly know
05: Instead of ______ about the good news, Peter seemed to be indifferent.
A. exciting B. being excited C. to excite D. to be
excited
06: She nearly lost her own life______ attempting to save the child from drowning.
A. at B. with C. in D. for
07: If I could speak German, I______ next year studying in Berlin.
A. will spend B. had spent C. would spend D. would have
spent
08: There are several means of mass communication. The newspaper is one. Television
is______.
A. another B. other C. the another D. the other
09: The police are______ an incident which took place this afternoon.
A. inspecting B. searching C. looking out D.
investigating
10: Someone wanted to______ Belle Vue Hotel to us.
A. introduce B. direct C. recommend D. tell
11: Tony never comes to class on time and______.
A. neither does Pedro B. so does Pedro D. neither
12: Tom Mary
A. With all my heart C. Never mind me D. No
problem
13: We______ won the
A. have B. will C. had D. could have
14: Mr. Ba is intelligent but he______ common sense.
A. fails B. lacks C. misses D. wants
15
A. after B. then C. so D.
immediately
571
II: Use the word in capitals at the end of these sentences to form a word that fits in the blank
space. (5 pts)
1. How much does______ of this club cost? (MEMBER) MEMBERSHIP
2. She is extremely______ about the history of art. (KNOW) KNOWLEDGEABLE
3. Traveling in big cities is becoming more and more______ every day. (TROUBLE)
TROUBLESOME
4. He is completely______! Not only is he lazy but he is dishonest too. (EMPLOY)
UNEMPLOYABLE
5. His boss told him off because he had behaved______. (RESPONSIIBLE) IRRESPONSIBLY
III: Complete each sentence with one of the idiomatic phrases given. Use each phrase once
only. (6 pts)
made her blood boil jumped out of her skin had a lump in her throat
lost her head gave me the cold shoulder took her breath away
1. Pauline completely ignored me this morning. She______.
2. It really______ to see her friend copy a poem she had written and then present it to her
boyfriend as one that she had written for him.
3. Saying goodbye to her son was a very emotional occasion for her and she______ as she
watched him get on the train.
4. The view from the top of the mountain was absolutely fantastic. It really______.
5. Susan panicked when the fire broke out. She______.
6. When I dropped that tray behind her, she got a shock. She almost______.
IV: Put each verb given in brackets into an appropriate tense or form. (14 pts)
1. Mr. Pike, who is supposed______ (witness) the accident, has left the town.
2. At this time next week they______ (sit) in the train on their way to Paris.
3. He said that he watered the plants every day. He______ (water) them. If he had, they
4. No sooner the announcement______ (make) than everyone started complaining.
5.
6. We______ (watch) the play for nearly thirty minutes when he came.
7. The pop star who______ (take) part in over 25 films always avoids______ (recognize) by
wearing dark glasses.
8.
9. Not until John______ (receive) the offer of promotion in writing he______ (celebrate)
572
10. He______ (have) trouble with the second-hand car since he bought it. He wishes he______
(not / buy) it.
V. Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the underlined part that need
correction in each of the following questions. (5 pts)
01: She asked why did I look so embarrassed when I saw her.
A B C D
02: There was a very interesting news on the radio this morning about the earthquake in Mexico.
A B C D
03: Could you mind telling me the way to the nearest post office?
A B C D
04: The children were playing last night outdoors when it began to rain very hard.
A B C D
d prefer to do it on myself, because other people make me nervous.
A B C D
B. READING
I: Read the text below and choose the correct word for each space. For each question, circle
letter A, B, C or D next to the answer you choose. (10 pts)
has become a symbol of our wasteful, throw-way society. But there seems little (1)______ it is
here to stay, and the truth is, of course, that plastic has brought enormous (2)______ even
and abuse them.
Almost all the 50 or so different kinds of modern plastic are made from oil, gas or coal
non-renewable natural (4)______. We import well over three million tons of the stuff in Britain
each year and, sooner or later, most of it is thrown away. A high proportion of our annual
consumption is in the (5)______ of packaging, and this (6)______ about seven per cent by
weight of our domestic refuse. Almost all of it could be recycled, but very little of it is, though
the plastic recycling (7)______ is growing fast.
The plastics themselves are extremely energy-rich they have a higher calorific
manufacturers is the (10)______ of waste plastic into a fuel.
1. A. evidence B. concern C. doubt D. likelihood
2. A. pleasures B. benefits C. savings D. profits
3. A. poison B. disaster C. disadvantage D. evil
573
4. A. resources B. processes C. products D. fuels
5. A. way B. kind C form D. type
6. A. takes B. makes C. carries D. constitutes
7. A. manufacture B. plant C. factory D. industry
8. A. degree B. value C. demand D. effect
9. A. measure B. mechanism C. method D. medium
10. A. conversion B. melting C. change D.
replacement
II: Read the following text and then fill in each gap with ONE suitable word. (10 pts)
I was reading an article last week in (1)______ the writer described how her children has
changed as they grow up. When they were small she had to (2)______ up with noisy games in
the house, or join in interminable games of football in the garden which wore her out. If the
house went quiet, she wondered what the monsters were getting up to, or what crisis she would
have to (3)______ with next. She dreaded the fact that they might take after her husband, who
admitted having (4)_____ an uncontrollable child who (5)______ most of the time showing off
to his friends by breaking things or getting into fights. What was worse was that (6)______ else
thought he was a sweet child, and he got away with the most terrible things! However, she had
experienced an even greater shocked with her children. They had (7)______ out of all their
naughty behavior, and (12)______ up serious hobbies (8)______ as chess and playing the piano.
They never did anything without (9)______ it over first, and coming to a serious decision. She
had to face up to the fact that they made her feel rather childish as they got (10)______, and that
in some ways she preferred them when they were young and noisy.
III. Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to
indicate the best answer to each of the questions. (10 pts)
car of the future will be far more pollution-free than those on the road today. Several new types
of automobile engines have already been developed than run on alternative sources of power,
such as electricity, compressed natural gas, methanol, steam, hydrogen, and propane. Electricity,
however, is the only zero-emission option presently available.
Although electric vehicles will not be truly practical until a powerful, compact battery or other
dependable source of current is available, transport experts foresee a new assortment of electric
vehicles entering everyday life: shorter-range commuter electric cars, three-wheeled
neighborhood cars, electric delivery vans, bikes and trolleys.
574
As automakers work to develop practical electrical vehicles, urban planners and utility
engineers are focusing on infrastructure systems to support and make the best use of the new
cars. Public charging
spots on the street or in commercial lots will need to be equipped with devices that allow drivers
to charge their batteries while they stop, dine, or attend a concert. To encourage the use of
electric vehicles, the most convenient parking in transportation centres might be reserved for
electric cars.
Planners foresee electric shuttle buses, trains, buses and neighborhood vehicles all meeting at
transit centres that would have facilities for charging and renting. Commuters will be able to
rent a variety of electric cars to suit their needs: light trucks, one-person three-wheelers, small
cars, or electric/gasoline hybrid cars for longer trips, which will no doubt take place on
automated freeways capable of handling five times the number of vehicles that can be carried by
freeway today.
01pose in the passage is to______.
A. criticize conventional vehicles C. narrate a story about alternative energy
vehicles
B. support the invention of electric cars D. describe the possibilities for transportation
in the future
02: The following electrical vehicles are all mentioned in the passage EXCEPT______.
A. planes B. trolleys C. vans D. trains
03: The passage would most likely be followed by details about______.
A. the neighborhood of the fixture C. electric shuttle buses
B. automated freeways D. pollution restrictions in the future
04compact’ in the second paragraph is closest in meaning to______.
A. squared B. long-range C. inexpensive D.
concentrated
05: In the second paragraph, the author implies that______.
A. everyday life will stay much the same in our fixture.
B. a single electric vehicle will eventually replace several modes of transportation
C. a dependable source of electric energy will eventually be developed.
D. electric vehicles are not practical for the future
06: According to the passage, public parking lots of the future will be______.
A. much larger than they are today C.
B. more convenient than they are today D. equipped with charging devices
07charging’ in this passage refers to______.
A. aggression B. lightning C. electricity D. credit cards
08foresee’ in this passage could best be replaced with______.
A. imagine B. count on C. rely on D. invent
09commuters’ in paragraph 4 refers to______.
A. visitors B. cab drivers C. shoppers D. daily
travelers
10hybrid' in paragraph 4 is closest in meaning to______.
A. hazardous B. futuristic C. automated D.
combination
575
C. WRITING
I: Finish each of the following sentences in such a way that it means exactly the same as the
sentence printed before it. (5 pts)
1. Immediately after his appointment to the post, the new editor fell ill.
Scarcely .........................................................................................................................................
rb the meeting.
Rather ............................................................................................................................................
3. The value of sterling has fallen considerably in the past week.
There has .......................................................................................................................................
4. The only reason the party was a success was that a famous film star attended.
Had it not .......................................................................................................................................
5. Harriet was upset because she saw Peter with another woman.
It was .............................................................................................................................................
II: Topic: Media are said to affect us different ways. Discuss the matter in a composition. (20
pts)
-------------Hết-----------
Thí sinh không được sử dụng tài liệu. Cán bộ coi thi không giải thích gì thêm.
H và tên thí báo
576
577
KEYS- PRACTICE 49
A. LEXICO-GRAMMAR
I. Mark the letter A, B, C, or D to indicate the best answer in each of the following questions.
(15 pts)
01: They had meals together in the school______.
A. café B. restaurant C. canteen D. bar
02: You should______ your pounds for dollars before going to New York.
A. change B. convert C. turn D. exchange
03: Who is the______ of this company?
A. top B. head C. leader D. minister
04: His sister's marriage has been arranged by her family. She is marrying a man______.
A. she hardly knows him B. whom she hardly know
C. she hardly knows D. that she hardly know
05: Instead of ______ about the good news, Peter seemed to be indifferent.
A. exciting B. being excited C. to excite D. to be
excited
06: She nearly lost her own life______ attempting to save the child from drowning.
A. at B. with C. in D. for
07: If I could speak German, I______ next year studying in Berlin.
A. will spend B. had spent C. would spend D. would have
spent
08: There are several means of mass communication. The newspaper is one. Television
is______.
A. another B. other C. the another D. the other
09: The police are______ an incident which took place this afternoon.
A. inspecting B. searching C. looking out D.
investigating
10: Someone wanted to______ Belle Vue Hotel to us.
A. introduce B. direct C. recommend D. tell
11: Tony never comes to class on time and______.
A. neither does Pedro B. so does Pedro D. neither
12: Tom Mary
A. With all my heart B. It‟s my pleasure C. Never mind me D. No
problem
13
A. have B. will C. had D. could have
14: Mr. Ba is intelligent but he______ common sense.
A. fails B. lacks C. misses D. wants
15
A. after B. then C. so D.
immediately
578
II: Use the word in capitals at the end of these sentences to form a word that fits in the blank
space. (5 pts)
1. How much does_ membership_ of this club cost?(MEMBER) MEMBERSHIP
2. She is extremely__ knowledgeable _ about the history of art.(KNOW) KNOWLEDGEABLE
3. Traveling in big cities is becoming more and more_ troublesome__ every day. (TROUBLE)
4. He is completely_ unemployable _! Not only is he lazy but he is dishonest too.(EMPLOY)
5. His boss told him off because he had behaved _irresponsibly__. (RESPONSIIBLE)
IRRESPONSIBLY
III: Complete each sentence with one of the idiomatic phrases given. Use each phrase once
only. (6 pts)
1. gave me the cold shoulder
3. had a lump in her throat
5. lost her head
2. made her blood boil
4. took her breath away
6. jumped out of her skin
1. Pauline completely ignored me this morning. She______.
2. It really______ to see her friend copy a poem she had written and then present it to her
boyfriend as one that she had written for him.
3. Saying goodbye to her son was a very emotional occasion for her and she______ as she
watched him get on the train.
4. The view from the top of the mountain was absolutely fantastic. It really______.
5. Susan panicked when the fire broke out. She______.
6. When I dropped that tray behind her, she got a shock. She almost______.
IV: Put each verb given in brackets into an appropriate tense or form. (14 pts)
1. Mr. Pike, who is supposed__ to have witnessed _ (witness) the accident, has left the town.
2. At this time next week they_ will be sitting __ (sit) in the train on their way to Paris.
3. He said that he watered the plants every day. He_ couldn‟t have watered _ (water) them. If
4. No sooner the announcement_ had …. been made _ (make) than everyone started
complaining.
5. They said they never_ had never been made
before.
6. We_ had been watching _ (watch) the play for nearly thirty minutes when he came.
7. The pop star who_ has taken __ (take) part in over 25 films always avoids_ being
recognised _ (recognize) by wearing dark glasses.
8. trying _ (try) to get Tim_ to lend __ (lend) you his car.
579
9. Not until John_(had) received __ (receive) the offer of promotion in writing he_ did he
celebrate _ (celebrate)
10. He__ has had _ (have) trouble with the second-hand car since he bought it. He wishes he_
hadn‟t bought _ (not / buy) it.
V. Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the underlined part that need
correction in each of the following questions. (5 pts)
01: She asked why did I look so embarrassed when I saw her.
A B C D
02: There was a very interesting news on the radio this morning about the earthquake in Mexico.
A B C D
03: Could you mind telling me the way to the nearest post office?
A B C D
04: The children were playing last night outdoors when it began to rain very hard.
A B C D
05d prefer to do it on myself, because other people make me nervous.
A B C D
B. READING
I: Read the text below and choose the correct word for each space. For each question, circle
letter A, B, C or D next to the answer you choose. (10 pts)
or a snarl. It
has become a symbol of our wasteful, throw-way society. But there seems little (1)______ it is
here to stay, and the truth is, of course, that plastic has brought enormous (2)______ even
mselves that are the environmental (3)______
Almost all the 50 or so different kinds of modern plastic are made from oil, gas or coal
non-renewable natural (4)______. We import well over three million tons of the stuff in Britain
each year and, sooner or later, most of it is thrown away. A high proportion of our annual
consumption is in the (5)______ of packaging, and this (6)______ about seven per cent by
weight of our domestic refuse. Almost all of it could be recycled, but very little of it is, though
the plastic recycling (7)______ is growing fast.
The plastics themselves are extremely energy-rich they have a higher calorific
the plastic
manufacturers is the (10)______ of waste plastic into a fuel.
1. A. evidence B. concern C. doubt D. likelihood
2. A. pleasures B. benefits C. savings D. profits
580
3. A. poison B. disaster C. disadvantage D. evil
4. A. resources B. processes C. products D. fuels
5. A. way B. kind C form D. type
6. A. takes B. makes C. carries D. constitutes
7. A. manufacture B. plant C. factory D. industry
8. A. degree B. value C. demand D. effect
9. A. measure B. mechanism C. method D. medium
10. A. conversion B. melting C. change D.
replacement
II: Read the following text and then fill in each gap with ONE suitable word. (10 pts)
I was reading an article last week in (1)_ which _ the writer described how her children
has changed as they grow up. When they were small she had to (2)_put__ up with noisy games
in the house, or join in interminable games of football in the garden which wore her out. If the
house went quiet, she wondered what the monsters were getting up to, or what crisis she would
have to (3)_deal_ with next. She dreaded the fact that they might took after her husband, who
admitted having (4)_been_ an uncontrollable child who (5)_spent__ most of the time showing
off to his friends by breaking things or getting into fights. What was worse was that
(6)_everyone__ else thought he was a sweet child, and he got away with the most terrible
things! However, she had experienced an even greater shocked with her children. They had
(7)_grown__ out of all their naughty behavior, and taken up serious hobbies (8)_such__ as chess
and playing the piano. They never did anything without (9)__taking__ it over first, and coming
to a serious decision. She had to face up to the fact that they made her feel rather childish as they
got (10)_older__, and that in some ways she preferred them when they were young and noisy.
III. Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to
indicate the best answer to each of the questions. (10 pts)
car of the future will be far more pollution-free than those on the road today. Several new types
of automobile engines have already been developed than run on alternative sources of power,
such as electricity, compressed natural gas, methanol, steam, hydrogen, and propane. Electricity,
however, is the only zero-emission option presently available.
Although electric vehicles will not be truly practical until a powerful, compact battery or other
dependable source of current is available, transport experts foresee a new assortment of electric
581
vehicles entering everyday life: shorter-range commuter electric cars, three-wheeled
neighborhood cars, electric delivery vans, bikes and trolleys.
As automakers work to develop practical electrical vehicles, urban planners and utility
engineers are focusing on infrastructure systems to support and make the best use of the new
cars. Public charging facilities will need t
spots on the street or in commercial lots will need to be equipped with devices that allow drivers
to charge their batteries while they stop, dine, or attend a concert. To encourage the use of
electric vehicles, the most convenient parking in transportation centres might be reserved for
electric cars.
Planners foresee electric shuttle buses, trains, buses and neighborhood vehicles all meeting at
transit centres that would have facilities for charging and renting. Commuters will be able to
rent a variety of electric cars to suit their needs: light trucks, one-person three-wheelers, small
cars, or electric/gasoline hybrid cars for longer trips, which will no doubt take place on
automated freeways capable of handling five times the number of vehicles that can be carried by
freeway today.
01
A. criticize conventional vehicles C. narrate a story about alternative energy
vehicles
B. support the invention of electric cars D. describe the possibilities for transportation
in the future
02: The following electrical vehicles are all mentioned in the passage EXCEPT______.
A. planes B. trolleys C. vans D.
trains
03: The passage would most likely be followed by details about______.
A. the neighborhood of the fixture C. electric shuttle buses
B. automated freeways D. pollution restrictions in the future
04compact’ in the second paragraph is closest in meaning to______.
A. squared B. long-range C. inexpensive D.
concentrated
05: In the second paragraph, the author implies that______.
A. everyday life will stay much the same in our fixture.
B. a single electric vehicle will eventually replace several modes of transportation
C. a dependable source of electric energy will eventually be developed.
D. electric vehicles are not practical for the future
06: According to the passage, public parking lots of the future will be______.
A. much larger than they are today C.
B. more convenient than they are today D. equipped with charging devices
07charging’ in this passage refers to______.
A. aggression B. lightning C. electricity D. credit cards
08foresee’ in this passage could best be replaced with______.
A. imagine B. count on C. rely on D. invent
09commuters’ in paragraph 4 refers to______.
A. visitors B. cab drivers C. shoppers D. daily
travelers
10hybrid' in paragraph 4 is closest in meaning to______.
582
A. hazardous B. futuristic C. automated D.
combination
C. WRITING
I: Finish each of the following sentences in such a way that it means exactly the same as the
sentence printed before it. (5 pts)
1. Immediately after his appointment to the post, the new editor fell ill.
Scarcely had he been appointed to the post when the new editor fell ill.
ting.
Rather than disturb the meeting, I left without saying goodbye.
3. The value of sterling has fallen considerably in the past week.
There has been a considerable fall in the value of sterling in the past week.
4. The only reason the party was a success was that a famous film star attended.
Had it not been for the attendance of a famous film star the party would not have been a
success.
5. Harriet was upset because she saw Peter with another woman.
It was because she saw Peter with another woman that Harriet was upset / that upset
Harriet.
II: Topic: Media are said to affect us different ways. Discuss the matter in a composition. (20
pts)
I think the media pay too much attention to the private lives of famous people. Television,
newspapers, magazines and web sites dig up all kinds of past bad actions. They say that these
are true reflections of a person's character. This may be true if they occurred only a few years
before, but some of these are things people did as teenagers. People in their forties are expected
to explain something they did when they were fifteen. If they killed someone, obviously that's
more than a youthful mistake. Usually, though, these incidents involve experiments with drugs or
being reckless in a car. They're not something that the public needs to know.
The media love to say that the public has a right to know. That's not true. We don't need
to know if a movie star or politician has had an extramarital affair. That is something of concern
only to the people involved. We do need to know if someone we're electing to public office has
been involved in shady business deals, but we don't need to know if he or she defaulted on a loan
twenty years ago.
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It seems the media dig up these facts without giving thoughtful consideration to what
might happen. It has an effect on the celebrity's family, especially the children. A celebrity's good
name and credibility may be ruined before he or she can prove that rumors are false. If a case
goes to court, paying a lawyer can use up all their money. Even if it doesn't come to that, they
may find their career ruined.
When are we, the public, going to make it clear to the media that we're tired of having to
watch this kind of thing on the news? Wouldn't it be better if they would concentrate on more
important issues?
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ENGLISH PRACTICE 50
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I. Choose one word whose underlined part is pronounced differently from the others.
11.
A. geology
B. psychology
C. classify
D. photography
12.
A. idiom
B. ideal
C. item
D. identical
13.
A. children
B. child
C. mild
D. wild
14.
A. both
B. myth
C. with
D. sixth
15.
A. helped
B. booked
C. hoped
D. waited
II. Choose one word whose stress pattern is different from the others.
16.
A. difference
B. suburban
C. internet
D. character
17.
A. beautiful
B. effective
C. favorite
D. popular
18.
A. attraction
B. government
C. borrowing
D. visit
19.
A. difficulty
B. individual
C. population
D. unemployment
20.
A. biology
B. redundancy
C. interviewer
D. comparative
III. Each of the numbered lines in the passage contains a mistake, find and correct it.
IV. Choose among A, B, C, or D the one that best fits each of the blanks.
21. You shouldn't have criticized him in front of his friends. It was extremely__________ of
you.
A. unfortunate B. insensitive C. unconscious D. insensible
22. The job was more difficult than I__________ expected it to be.
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A. might B. would C. have D. had
23. We had so many problems with the car that__________ we sold it and bought a new one.
A. to the end B. by the end C. at the end D. in the end
24. His parents think it's time he__________ married.
A. gets B. would get C. will get D. got
25. He__________ me to buy my air ticket immediately or it would be too late.
A. suggested B. convinced C. insisted D. advised
26. You will become ill__________ you stop working so hard.
A. until B. if C. unless D. when
27.__________ I ask him for the money he owes me, he says he will bring it in a few days, but I
don't think he has got it at all.
A. However B. Wherever C. Whatever D. Whenever
28. It was impossible for her to tell the truth so she had to__________ a story.
A. combine B. invent C. lie D. manager
29. He is very stubborn, so it will be difficult to__________ him to go.
A. make B. suggest C. persuade D. prevent
30. I hope he's__________ to buy some bread; there's hardly any left.
A. reminded B. proposed C. remembered D. suggested
V. Circle the option A, B, C, or D that needs correcting.
31. Antarctica, which is largely covered by ice, receive hardly any rainfall.
A. largely B. rainfall C. receive D. hardly any
32. Jessica is only an amateur, but she sings sweeter than most professionals.
A. than B. sweeter C. is only D. an
33. Mrs. Adams was surprising that her son and his friend had gone to the mountains to ski.
A. her B. to ski C. surprising D. had
gone
34. A cure for the common cold, causing by a virus, has not been found.
A. causing B. for C. a virus D. has not been
found
35. Amelia Earhart, that was one of the pioneers in aviation, attempted to fly the world in 1937,
but she and her plane mysteriously disappeared over the Pacific Ocean.
A. over B. that C. in aviation D. attempted
to fly
VI. Use the word in capitals at the end of these sentences to form a word that fits in the blank
space.
One (36. CHARACTER)________ of the modern world is that people increasingly find
themselves living side by side with people from other cultures. While in the past people with
different cultures were able to live quite (37. SEPARATE)________ , high mobility and freedom
of movement mean that we are more likely today to be confronted with people whose way the
life is (38. FAMILIAR)________ to us. In such circumstances, (39. RACE)________ is a real
danger.
People feel a tremendous (40. LOYAL)________ to their own culture, and are often unwilling to
develop an (41. APPRECIATE)________ of the positive aspects of other cultures. They may
feel that another culture presents a threat to their own (42. INHERIT)________, one that could
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even lead to the (43. APPEAR)________ of certain aspects of their way of life. Often, however,
this threat is more a matter of (44. PERCEIVE)________ than reality and different groups live in
(45. RELATE)________ harmony in many parts of the world.
VII. Read the text below and choose the correct word for each space. For each question, circle
letter A, B, C or D next to the answer you choose.
Dolphins communicate mainly by (46)________ of sounds. These sounds not only
(47)________ whistles, but also so-called pulsed sounds, which are often described as squawks,
barks, rasps, etc. However, they also use breaching (jumping and falling back into the
(48)________ with a loud splash) and pectoral fin (or flipper) and tail (or fluke) slaps (hitting the
flipper or fluke on the water surface). Body posturing and jaw popping also have a role in
(49)________. As for language, we do not know (50)________ they have one. Several studies
have demonstrated that dolphins can understand a structured language like (51)________. This
has been demonstrated for a number of other animal species as well (gorilla, California sea lion,
and parrot). Some studies also indicate that dolphin vocalizations are complex (52)________ to
support some form of language. (53)________, it has not been demonstrated (54)________ that
they can undoubtedly communicate (55)________ themselves.
46. A. way B. mean C. using D. means
47. A. have B. include C. contain D. combine
48. A. water B. sea C. ocean D. river
49. A. reaction B. chewing C. speaking D. communication
50. A. why B. if C. when D. how
51. A. your B. ours C. our D. yours
52. A. too B. as C. enough D. so
53. A. Whenever B. Wherever C. However D. Whoever
54. A. yet B. still C. though D. neither
55. A. together B. each other C. between D. among
VIII. Read the following passage and fill the blank with ONE suitable word.
Enjoyment is what drinking wine is all about. However, the more you know,
(56)________ easier it becomes to select the right wines for you or your guests. Wine is
basically grape juice to (57)________ yeast has been added causing it to ferment and produce
alcohol. Alcohol is flavourless, so there must be something more (58)________ wine than this.
Many of the secrets of wine lie within the grape. Its pulp is a sugar solution which contains the
things that give a wine its fruity flavour. In a dry
converted (59)________ alcohol. In a sweet one, more sugar is left. This can be felt on the
(60)________ of the tongue. The pulp also contains acidity which gives the wine "crispn
that makes the mouth water.
Too much (61)________ it can make you wince, too little and the wine could taste dull.
The skin contains flavour and tannin. Tannin produces a tingling sensation in the gums and gives
a wine firmness. White grapes (62)________ their skins removed before fermentation so tannin
is only really found in red wines. The pulp of black and white grapes is (63)________ same pale
colour. The fact that the skins of black grapes are left on (64)________ the wine is fermented
gives red wine its colour.
The wines which are often considered to be the best are (65)________ where all the
elements balance one another. There are many grape varieties grown in many climates which
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influence the emphasis given to these features and this is why wines can be so wonderfully
different.
IX. Choose from A, B, C, or D the one that best answers each of the questions in the following
passage.
Every drop of water in the ocean, even in the deepest parts, responds to the forces that
create the tides. No other force that affects the sea is so strong. Compared with the tides, the
waves created by the wind are surface movements felt no more than a hundred fathoms below
the surface. The currents also seldom involve more than the upper several hundred fathoms
despite their impressive sweep.
The tides are a response of the waters of the ocean to the pull of the Moon and the more
distant Sun. In theory, there is a gravitational attraction between the water and even the
outermost star of the universe. In reality, however, the pull of remote stars is so slight as to be
obliterated by the control of the Moon and, to a lesser extent, the Sun. Just as the Moon rises
later each day by fifty minutes, on the average, so, in most places, the time of high tide is
correspondingly later each day. And as the Moon waxes and wanes in its monthly cycle, so the
height of the tide varies. The tidal movements are strongest when the Moon is a sliver in the sky,
and when it is full. These are the highest flood tides and the lowest ebb tides of the lunar month
and are called the spring tides. At these times the Sun, Moon, and Earth are nearly in line and the
pull of the two heavenly bodies is added together to bring the water high on the beaches, to send
its surf upward against the sea cliffs, and to draw a high tide into the harbors. Twice each month,
at the quarters of the Moon, when the Sun, Moon and Earth lie at the apexes of a triangular
configuration and the pull of the Sun and Moon are opposed, the moderate tidal movements
called neap tides occur. Then the difference between high and low water is less than at any other
time during the month.
66. What is the main point of the first paragraph?
A. The waves created by ocean currents are very large.
B. Despite the strength of the wind, it only moves surface water.
C. Deep ocean water is seldom affected by forces that move water.
D. The tides are the most powerful force to affect the movement of ocean water.
67. The words "In reality" in the passage is closest in meaning to_________.
A. surprisingly B. actually C. characteristically D. similarly
68. It can be inferred from the passage that the most important factor in determining how much
gravitational effect one object in space has on the tides is_________.
A. size B. distance C. temperature D. density
69. The word "configuration" in the passage is closest in meaning to_________.
A. unit B. center C. surface D. arrangement
70. Neap tides occur when_________.
A. the Sun counteracts the Moon's gravitational attraction
B. the Moon is full
C. the Moon is farthest from the Sun
D. waves created by the wind combine with the Moon's gravitational attraction
X. Finish each of the following sentences in such a way that it means exactly the same as the
sentence printed before it.
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______________________________________________________.
__________________________________________________________.
_________________________________________________.
74. House prices have risen dramatically this year.
____________________________________________________.
75. This affair does not concern you.
______________________________________________.
76. You must submit articles for the magazine by June 18
th
.
_________________________________________________.
77. Although Jimmy was the stronger of the two, his attacker soon overpowered him.
____________________________________________________.
78. What a surprise to see you here!
__________________________________________________________.
_________________________________________________________.
80. It was only when I left home that I realized how much my father meant to me.
_______________________________________________________.
XI. Writing an essay.
“Stable development (development without harming the environment) is essential for the
present time as well as the future”.
What do you think of that matter? Write an essay of about 280- 300 words to support your
points.
____________THE END____________
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KEYS – PRACTICE 50
I. (5pts) 1 point/correct answer.
II. (5pts) 1 point/correct answer.
1. C
2. A
3. A
4. C
5. D
6. B
7. B
8. A
9. A
10. C
III.
(10pts) 1 point/correct answer.
11. losed → lost
12. are → is
13. endanger → endangering
14. so → such
15. on → in
16. nature → natural
17. With → Without
18. Not → No
19. produce → produced
20. by → in
IV.
(10pts) 1 point/correct answer.
21. B
22. D
23. D
24. D
25. D
26. C
27. D
28. B
29. C
30. C
V. (10pts) 1.5 point/correct answer.
31. C
32. B
33. C
34. A
35. B
VI. (10pts) 1 point/correct answer.
36. characteristic
37. separately
38. unfamiliar
39. racism
40. loyalty
41. appreciation
42. heritage
43. disappearance
44. perception
45. relative
VII.
(15pts) 1 point/correct answer.
46. D
47. B
48. A
49. D
50. B
51. B
52. C
53. C
54. A
55. D
VIII.
(10pts) 1 point/correct answer.
56. the
57. which
58. to
59. into
60. tip
61. of
62. have
63. the
64. while
65. those/ones
IX.
(10pts) 1 point/correct answer.
66. D
67. B
68. B
69. D
70. A
X. (10pts) 2 points/correct answer.
71.
72.
73.
74.
75.
76.
77.
John (had) received the offer of promotion in writing did he celebrate.
as I admire her achievements, I don’t really like her.
is thought/ believed to have been caused by human error.
been a dramatic increase in (the) house prices this year.
concern/business of yours.
for you to submit articles for the magazine is June 18
th
.
(superior) strength Jimmy was (soon) overpowered by his attacker.
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XI.
78.
79.
80.
seeing you here.
no intention of apologizing to either of them.
(after) I (had) left home did I realize how much my father meant to me.
(15pts) St
Content: accounts for 50% of the total mark. To be given the maximum of 50% for the
content, the candidates should provide all main ideas and details as appropriate.
Language: accounts for 30% of the total mark. To be given the maximum of 30% for
language, the candidates should use variety of vocabulary and structures appropriate to the
level of English language high school students.
Presentation: accounts for 20% of the total mark. To be given the maximum of 20% for
presentation, the candidates should write with coherence, cohesion and can use
appropriate styles and linking devices
________THE END________
ENGLISH PRACTICE 51
PART I: PRONUNCIATION
Mark the word whose underlined part differs from the other three in pronunciation
1. A. forged B. appalled C.composed D. noticed
2. A. resort B. aisle C. hesitate D. desert
3. A. rough B. tough C. cough D. though
4: A. amuses B. purses C. blouses D. pleases
5. A. theatre B. bathing C. breathe D. southern
6. A. break B. meant C. breakfast D. head
7. A. admission B. decision C. revision D. provision
8. A. change B. hungry C. stronger D. Single
9.A. intention B. material C. mature D. Intensity
10. A. birthday B. mouth C. athletics D. gather
Mark the the word that differs from the other three in the position of primary stress
1. A. reasonable B. cigarette C. comfortable D. implement
2. A. validity B. tremendous C. flexible D. commercial
3. A. purchase B. ignorant C. tuition D. vigorous
4. A. overlook B. influential C. furniture D. oceanic
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5: A. Success B. conflict C. author D. figure
6: A. surpass B. moment C. exchange D. Persuade
7. A. argumentative B. Psychological C. Contributory D. hypersensitive
8. A. sandals B. dental C. canal D. rental
9. A. familiar B. impatient C. uncertain D. arrogant
10. A. forgettable B. philosophy C. humanism D. objectively
PART II: VOCABULARY AND GRAMMAR.
J. Choose the best option to complete each of the sentences. (2,0 points)
1. The strike was______ owing to a last minute agreement with the management.
A. called off B. broken up C. set back D. put down
A. get B. turn C. wear D. go
3. ______ the people who come to this club are in their twenties and thirties.
A. By and large B. Altogether C. To a degree D. Virtually
4. My cousin was nervous about being interviewed on television, but she rose to the______
wonderfully.
A. event B. performance C. incident D. occasion
5. The train service has been a______ since they introduced the new schedules.
A. shambles B. rumpus C. chaos D. fracas
6. Is an inexperienced civil servant______ to the task of running the company.
A. capable B. skilled C. eligible D. suited
7. We______ have been happier in those days.
C. might not D. must not
A. apparently B. presumably C. allegedly D. predictably
9. The storm ripped our tent to______.
A. slices B. shreds C. strips D. specks
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10. He______ so much harm on the nation during his regime that it has never fully recovered.
A. indicted B. inferred C. induced D. inflicted
11. Hotel rooms must be______ by 10 a. m, but luggage may be left with porters.
A. vacated B. evacuated C. abandoned D. left
12. I do not think there is so much as a______ of truth in that rumor.
A. crumb B. speck C. grain D. pebble
ot exactly rich but he certainly earns enough money to______.
A. get through B. get by C. get on D. get up
14. I have very______ feelings about the plan it might possibly work or it could be a disaster.
A. certain B. mixed C. doubtful D. troubled
A. put B. pulled C. set D. took
16. The sixth time he called me at night was the______.
A. last cause B. last straw C. touch and go D. hot air
17. All three TV channels provide extensive______ of sporting events.
A. broadcast B. network C. coverage D. vision
18. They seemed to be______ to the criticism and just carried on as before.
A. disinterested B. sensitive C. uncaring D. indifferent
-
A. Yes, I can B. Yes, we are C. Yes, we go
20. It's no use______ over______ milk.
A. crying/ spilt B. to cry/ spilling C. crying/ spilling D. crying/ to spill
Your answers:
1.
2.
3.
4.
5.
6.
7.
8.
9.
10.
11.
12.
13.
14.
15.
16.
17.
18.
19.
20.
II. Read the passage below. Use the word given in bold to form a word that fits in the
numbered gap. (1,0 point)
BLACK WIDOW SPIDER
exaggeration has led to certain______ (1. CONCEPT) regarding its evil nature.
Firstly, this spider is not as dangerous as is often thought. While it is indeed one of the
most______ (2. VENOM) species of spider, its venom being fifteen times stronger than that of
the prairie rattlesnake, its bite injects such as amount of venom by______ (3. COMPARE) that
it is unlikely to kill humans. In fact, ______ (4. FATAL) are rare.
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Black widows bite only if they are touched or their web is threatened. Furthermore, only
-
insects-and male black widow spiders. The latter are vulnerable as the female is______ (5.
SOLITUDE) by nature, and has been known to kill and eat the male after mating. Such______
(6. OCCUR) are rare, but they explain how the spider got its name and its reputation.
Nevertheless, the______ (7. PLEASE) bite should not be______
(8. ESTIMATE), and if you live in a temperate climate and have a fireplace in your home, it is
advisable to take______ (9. CAUTION). Black widow spiders often inhabit wood piles, so you
should wear gloves when handling firewood. Furthermore, since black widow spiders are______
(10. RESIST) to many insecticides, you should regularly clean out likely hiding places.
Your answers:
1.
2.
3.
4.
5.
6.
7.
8.
9.
10.
III. Complete each sentence with the correct form of ONE of the two-word verbs. (1,0
point)
bring out do up slow down save up hang over
mix up grow up go with dress up run for
1. Silence______ the theatre as the audience awaited the opening curtain with expectation and
excitement.
2. Having seen a sharp bend ahead, Tim pressed hard on the brake pedal to______.
3. Charles Dickens was born near Portsmouth, Hampshire on 7 February 1812, but relocated to
and ______ in Camden Town in London.
4. Barrack Obama has decided to______ the American presidency in the election that will take
place next year.
5. Because I hate______ my shoes, I have bought a pair of shoes without any laces.
6. Sarah wanted to buy some curtains that would______ his furniture, so she had brought a
photo of her sofa with her to the store.
7. Kate had been______ in order to buy a new laptop, but then she decided to use the money on
the guitar lessons instead.
recently______.
any formal clothes.
embarrassment for him.
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Your answers:
1.
2.
3.
4.
5.
6.
7.
8.
9.
10.
IV. The passage below contains TEN mistakes. Underline them and write the correct forms
in the numbered boxes. (1,0 point)
Large animals inhabit the desert have evolved adaptations for reducing the effects of
extreme hot. One adaptation is to be light in color, and to reflect the Sun's rays. Desert mammals
also depart from the normal mammalian practice of maintaining a constantly body temperature.
Instead of try to keep down the body temperature inside the body, what would involve the
expenditure of water and energy, desert mammals allow their temperatures rise to what would
normally be fever height, and temperatures as high as 46 degree Celsius have been measured in
Grant's gazelles. The overheated body cools down during the cold desert night, and indeed the
temperature may fall unusual low by dawn, as low as 34 degrees Celsius in the camel. This is a
advantage since the heat of the first few hours of daylight absorb in warming up the body.
Your answers:
1.
2.
3.
4.
5.
6.
7.
8.
9.
10.
PART III: READING COMPREHENSION.
I. Read the passage and fill in each of the blanks with ONE suitable word. (1,0 point)
True relaxation is most certainly not a matter of flopping down in front of the television
with a welcome drink. Nor is it about drifting (1)______ an exhausted sleep. Useful though these
responses to tension and over-tiredness (2)______ be, we should distinguish between them and
conscious relaxation in (3)______ of quality and effect. (4)______ of the level of tiredness, real
relaxation is a state of alert yet at the same time passive awareness, in which our bodies are
(5)______ rest while our minds are awake.
Moreover, it is as natural for a healthy person to be relaxed when moving as resting.
(6)______ relaxed in action means we bring the appropriate energy to everything we do, so as to
have a feeling of healthy tiredness by the end of the day, (7)______ than one of exhaustion.
rediscovered is conscious relaxation. With (9)______ in mind we must apply ourselves to
understanding stress and the nature of its causes (10)______ deep-seated.
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Your answers:
1.
2.
3.
4.
5.
6.
7.
8.
9.
10.
II. Read the following passage and choose the best answer (A, B, C or D) to each question.
Write your answer in the numbered box. (1,0 point)
A recent survey of crime statistics shows that we are all more likely to be burgled now
than 20 years ago and the police advise everyone to take a few simple precautions to protect their
homes.
The first fact is that burglars and other intruders prefer easy opportunities, like a house
which is very obviously empty. This is much less of a challenge than an occupied house, and one
which is well-protected. A burglar will wonder if it is worth the bother.
There are some general tips on how to avoid your home becoming another crime statistic.
Avoid leaving signs that your house is empty. When you have to go out, leave at least one light
on as well as a radio or television, and do not leave any curtains wide open. The sight of your
latest music centre or computer is enough to tempt any burglar.
Never leave a spare key in a convenient hiding place. The first place a burglar will look is
under the doormat or in a flower pot and even somewhere more 'imaginative' could soon be
uncovered by the intruder. It is much safer to leave a key with a neighbour you can trust. But if
your house is in a quiet, desolate area be aware that this will be a burglar's dream, so deter any
potential criminal from approaching your house by fitting security lights to the outside of your
house.
But what could happen if, in spite of the aforementioned precautions, a burglar or
intruder has decided to target your home. Windows are usually the first point of entry for many
intruders. Downstairs windows provide easy access while upstairs windows can be reached with
a ladder or by climbing up the drainpipe. Before going to bed you should double-check that all
windows and shutters are locked. No matter how small your windows may be, it is surprising
what a narrow gap a determined burglar can manage to get through. For extra security, fit
window locks to the inside of the window.
What about entry via doors? Your back door and patio doors, which are easily forced
open, should have top quality security locks fitted. Even though this is expensive it will be
money well spent. Install a burglar alarm if you can afford it as another line of defence against
intruders.
A sobering fact is that not all intruders have to break and enter into a property. Why go to
the trouble of breaking in if you can just knock and be invited in? Beware of bogus officials or
workmen and, particularly if you are elderly, fit a chain and an eye hole so you can scrutinise
callers at your leisure. When you do have callers never let anybody into your home unless you
are absolutely sure they are genuine. Ask to see an identity card, for example.
If you are in the frightening position of waking in the middle of the night and think you
can hear an intruder, then on no account should you approach the intruder. It is far better to
telephone the police and wait for help.
1. A well-protected house______.
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A. is less likely to be burgled. B. is regarded as a challenge by most
criminals.
C. is a lot of bother to maintain. D. is very unlikely to be burgled.
2. According to the writer, we should______.
A. avoid leaving our house empty.
B. only go out when we have to.
C. always keep the curtains closed.
D. give the impression that our house is occupied when we go out.
3. The writer thinks that hiding a key under a doormat or flower pot______.
A. is predictable. B. is useful.
C. is imaginative. D. is where you always find a spare key.
desolate
A. isolated B. populous C. dissatisfying D. depressing
aforementioned precautions” in paragraph 5 refers to steps that______.
A. will tell a burglar if your house is empty or not.
B. are the most important precautions to take to make your home safe.
C. will stop a potential burglar.
D. will not stop an intruder if he has decided to try and enter your home.
6. Gaining entry to a house through a small window______.
A. is surprisingly difficult.
B. is not as difficult as people think.
C. is less likely to happen than gaining entry through a door.
D. is tried only by very determined burglars.
7. According to the writer, window locks, security locks and burglar alarms______.
A. cost a lot of money but are worth it. B. are good value for money.
C. are luxury items. D. are absolutely essential items.
8. The writer argues that fitting a chain and an eye hole______.
A. will prevent your home being burgled.
B. avoids you having to invite people into your home.
C. is only necessary for elderly people.
D. gives you time to check if the visitor is genuine.
scrutinise
A. glance B. gaze C. search D. examine
10. The best title for the text is______.
A. Increasing household crime.
B. Protecting your home from intruders.
C. Burglary statistics.
D. What to do if a burglar breaks into your home.
Your answers:
1.
2.
3.
4.
5.
6.
7.
8.
9.
10.
PART IV. WRITING.
599
I. Complete each of the sentences so that it has similar meaning to the given one, using the
words given (0,5 point)
1. It is extremely difficult for us to make ends meet these days.
....................................................................................................................................
2. Alice and Charles did not decide to move to a bigger house until after the birth of their second
child.
................................................................................................................................
3. While mending the road, they accidentally blocked our water pipes.
........................................................................................................
4. He brought the umbrella along but it didn't rain.
..............................................................................................................................
5. While I strongly disapprove of your behaviour, I will help you this time.
..................................................................................................................................
II. Use the word given in brackets and make any necessary additions to write a new sentence
in such a way that it is as similar as possible in meaning to the original sentence. Do NOT
change the form of the given word(s).(0,5 point)
........................................................................................................................................................
2. Sandra said that she was willing to work late. (MIND)
........................................................................................................................................................
........................................................................................................................................................
4. I can't lift this table on my own. (UNLESS)
........................................................................................................................................................
5. The coins are believed to have been buried for safe-keeping. (IT)
........................................................................................................................................................
III. Writing a topic. (1,0 point)
The mass media, including television, radio and newspapers, have great influence in
shaping people‟s ideas. To what extent do you agree or disagree with this statement? Give
reasons for your answer. You should write about 250 words.
600
THE END
601
KEYS – PRACTICE 51
PART I: PRONUNCIATION
Mark the word whose underlined part differs from the other three in pronunciation
1. A. forged B. appalled C.composed D. noticed
2. A. resort B. aisle C. hesitate D. desert
3. A. rough B. tough C. cough D. though
4: A. amuses B. purses C. blouses D. pleases
5. A. theatre B. bathing C. breathe D. southern
6. A. break B. meant C. breakfast D. head
7. A. admission B. decision C. revision D. provision
8. A. change B. hungry C. stronger D. Single
9.A. intention B. material C. mature D. Intensity
10. A. birthday B. mouth C. athletics D. gather
Mark the the word that differs from the other three in the position of primary stress
1. A. reasonable B. cigarette C. comfortable D. implement
2. A. validity B. tremendous C. flexible D. commercial
3. A. purchase B. ignorant C. tuition D. vigorous
4. A. overlook B. influential C. furniture D. oceanic
5: A. Success B. conflict C. author D. figure
6: A. surpass B. moment C. exchange D. Persuade
7. A. argumentative B. Psychological C. Contributory D.
hypersensitive
8. A. sandals B. dental C. canal D. rental
9. A. familiar B. impatient C. uncertain D. arrogant
10. A. forgettable B. philosophy C. humanism D. objectively
PART I: LISTENING. (1,0 point; 0,1 point a correct answer)
602
You will hear a conversation at the customs in Gatwick Airport. As you listen, fill in the
form below. (write your answers in capital letters)
1. BUTCHER
2. ANTHONY
3. MALE
4. A STUDENT
5. 14 APRIL 1966
6. ITALIAN
7. TO STUDY
ENGLISH
8. A BROTHER
9. 35
10. LONDON
PART II: VOCABULARY AND GRAMMAR.
I. Choose the best option to complete each of the sentences. (2,0 points; 0,1 point a correct
answer)
1. A
2. C
3. A
4. D
5. A
6. D
7. B
8. B
9. B
10. C
11. A
12. C
13. B
14. B
15. A
16. B
17. C
18. D
19. D
20. A
II. Read the passage below. Use the word given in bold to form a word that fits in the
numbered gap. (1,0 point; 0,1 point a correct answer)
1. misconception
2. venomous
3. comparison
4. fatalities
5. solitary
6. occurences
7. unpleasant
8. underestimated
9. precautions
10. resistant
III. Complete each sentence with the correct form of ONE of the two-word verbs. (1,0
point; 0,1 point a correct answer)
1. hung over
2. slow down
3. grew up
4. run for
5. doing up
6. go with
7. saving up
8. brought out
9. dress up
10. mixed up
IV. The passage below contains TEN mistakes. Underline them and write the correct forms
in the numbered boxes. (1,0 point; 0,1 point a correct answer)
1. inhabit inhabiting/which(that) inhabit
6. rise to rise
2. hot heat
7. degree degrees
3. constantly constant
8. unusual unusually
4. try trying
9. a an
5. what which
10. absorb absorbed
PART III: READING COMPREHENSION.
I. Read the passage and fill in each of the blanks with ONE suitable word. (1,0 point; 0,1
point a correct answer)
1. into
2. might/may/can
3. terms
4.
regardless/irrespective
5. at
603
6. Being
7. rather
8. let
9. that/this
10. how
II. Read the following passage and choose the best answer (A, B, C or D) to each question.
Write your answer in the numbered box. (1,0 point; 0,1 point a correct answer)
1. A
2. D
3. A
4. A
5. C
6. B
7. A
8. D
9. D
10. B
PART IV. WRITING.
I. Complete each of the sentences so that it has similar meaning to the given one, using the
words given (0,5 point; 0,1 point a correct answer)
1. We find it difficult to make ends meet these days.
2. Only when Alice and Charles had their second child, did they decide to move to a bigger
house.
3. They accidentally cut off our water supplying while mending the road.
4. He needn't have brought the umbrella along (because it didn't rain anyway).
5. Despite my strong disapproval of your behaviour/ the fact that I strongly disapprove of your
behaviour, I will help you this time.
II. Use the word given in brackets and make any necessary additions to write a new sentence
in such a way that it is as similar as possible in meaning to the original sentence. Do NOT
change the form of the given word(s).(1,0 point; 0,1 point a correct answer)
1. While I was driving, I realized that there was something wrong with the car.
2. Sandra said that she didn’t mind working late.
3. They acted as if they were enjoying themselves, but they weren’t really.
4. I can't lift this table unless you help me/ someone helps me.
5. It is believed that the coins were buried for safe-keeping.
III. Writing a topic. (1,0 point)
Correct form of essay
writing
(0,6 point)
- Contents: a provision of all main reasons and appropriate supporting
ideas and relevant examples (0,2 point)
- Language: a variety of vocabulary and appropriate structures (0,2 point)
- Presentation: coherence, cohesion, and appropriate style (0,2 point)
Incorrect form of essay
writing
(0,4 point)
- Contents: a provision of all main reasons and appropriate supporting
ideas and relevant examples (0,2 point)
- Language: a variety of vocabulary and appropriate structures (0,1 point)
- Presentation: coherence, cohesion, and appropriate style (0,2 point)
604
--------------------------HT--------------------------
ENGLISH PRACTICE 52
PART A: PHONETICS (5 pts)
Question I: Choose the word whose underlined part is pronounced differently from the rest in
the same line. (2 pts)
1. A. chamber B. ancient
C. danger D. ancester
2. A. looked B. learned C.
stopped D. laughed
Question II: Find the word with the stress pattern different from that of the other three words
in each question. (3 pts)
3. A. appropriate B. expectation C. accomplished
D. invaluable
4. A. prohibit B. separate C.
president D. elephant
5. A. assimilate B. committee C. tomorrow
D. relative
PART B: VOCABULARY AND GRAMMAR (45 pts)
Question I: Choose the most suitable word or phrase to complete each sentence. (15 pts)
6. Never ______ till tomorrow what you can do today .
A. put out B. put off C. put
away D. put down
A. he should study last night B. he should have
studied last night
C. he must have studied last night D. he must have to study last
night
8. The company received______complaints about the quality of its products.
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A. continual B. continued C. continuous
D. continuing
9. Mai is______of the two sisters.
A. as beautiful as B. more beautiful
C. the more beautiful D. the most beautiful
A. said to be existed B. are said to
exist
C. said to exist
D. are said to have existed
11. The weather is going to change soon; I feel it in my ______.
A. body B. legs
C. skin D. bones
12.The workers have gone on strike. ______, all production has ceased.
A. So that B. Therefore C.
Because D. Now that
13.Do you expect there will be a lot of _______ to the project from the local community?
A. rejections B. disapproval C. disagreement
D. objections
14. _________ handball is fast becoming ________ popular sport worldwide.
A. The/ the B. C. A/
15. The size and shape of a nail depend primarily on the function ______ intended.
A. which it is B. for which it C. which it is for
D. for which is
16. But for the fog, we_________ our destination ages ago.
A. would have reached B. would reach
C. reached
D. had reached
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17. Nam:
Huong:
A. Can I take a rain check? B. Come on. It's your
turn.
C. Thanks, but I musn't D. As a matter of fact,
I do.
A. Yes, he wasn't
B. It's out of question
C. I haven't a clue D. It's
not my favourite
19. Water polo is played in a pool. It is played ____a ball and people play it ___a team.
A. by/ in B. in/with C.
within/ by D. with/in
20. I wonder if they have that dress in my size. I ______ a size 10.
A. make B. have C. take
D. get
Question II: The following passage contains 10 mistakes. Find and correct them (10 pts)
(Questions 21-30)
line
1
5
Once when I was a teenager, I had gone
collected pottery, and when I got there, she told me that she wants to show me her
new bowl. She told she has just bought it. It was beautiful. When Aunt Leah went to
answer the door; I picked up the bowl. It slipped from my hands and smashed to
pieces on the floor.When Aunt came back, I screamed and said what the cat had just
broken your new bowl. Aunt Leah got this funny look on her face and told me that it
morning, I called my aunt
and confessed that I have broken her bowl. She said I had known that all along. I
promised that I am going to buy her a new one someday. We still laugh at the story
today.
607
10
Question III: Put each verb in brackets into an appropriate form. (10 pts)
31. It is crucial that English (teach) ______ in a more practical way.
(not,be) _____ so successful now.
33. My children enjoy (allow) ______ to stay up late when there is something special on
television.
(prepare) _______ it very carefully at home.
35. The cowboy (wound) ______ by an arrow fell of the horse.
36. Nam: "The maintenance people didn't remove the chairs from the ballroom."
Huong: "Don't worry. They (move) ______ them before the dance begins."
37-(do) _______something about the sewage system
which (not upgrade) ________ for years.
39- 40. Come on, Hoa. I want to show you something. - Oh how nice of you! I (never think)
______ you (bring) ______ me a gift.
Question IV: Put each word in brackets into an appropriate form. (10 pts)
41. All those foreign visitors can speak Vietnamese very well.
There will be a big ______to have a translator here. USEFUL
42. Katherine Curtis's water ballet club attracted both national and
international ________ .
PUBLIC
43. The _____ of books were the hand-written books since centuries
BC, including clay tablets, wood or bamboo tablets tied with cord.
RUN
608
44. The doctor gave him an injection to _______ the pain.
DIE
45. According to Dr. Davis, the ______ population is mushrooming
as our general health improves.
CENTENARY
46. A century ago average life ______ in Europe was 45, today it is 70. EXPECT
47. Because of the nuclear leakage, a large area of land needs _____ .
CONTAMINATE
WEIGH
49. If your terms are _______, we may consider placing regular orders. SATISFY
50. He talked ______ of the past and his youth.
ROMANTIC
PART C: READING COMPREHENSION (30 pts)
Question I: Read the following passage and then choose the most suitable word or phrase for
each space. (10 pts)
Reference books are not designed to be read from the first page to the last but rather to be
consulted to answer the questions and provide both general and specific pieces of information.
One of the most (51. _____ ) -used reference books is a dictionary, which provides information
about words. It lists meanings and spellings, (52. ____ ) how a word is pronounced, gives (53.
____ ) of how it is used, may reveal its origins and also lists synonyms and (54. ____ ). To
help you find the words faster, there are guide words at the top of each page showing the first
and last words on that page - and of course it (55. ____ ) to know the alphabet!
There may be numerous special sections at the back with (56. ____ ) about famous people and
places, lists of dates and scientific names, etc. There is usually a section at the front (57. ____ )
how to use the dictionary, which includes the special abbreviations or signs.
An atlas is also a reference book and (58. ____ ) charts, tables and geographical facts, as well
as maps. Political maps locate countries and cities, physical maps show the formation of the
land with its mountains and valleys, and economic maps show industries and agriculture. To
find a specific place, you need to look in the (59. ____ ) at the back of the atlas and the exact
position on the map. There are numerous map (60. ____ ) that you need to know in order to be
able to read a m ap-almost like a special language-and these are explained at the front of the
atlas.
609
51. A. greatly
B. widely
C. mainly
D. largely
52. A. speaks
B. tells
C. says
D. gives
53. A. evidence
B. roof
C. examples
D. cases
54. A. antonyms
B. closest
C. oposite
D. controversies
55. A. assists
B. pays
C. helps
D. works
56. A. events
B. stories
C. facts
D. materials
57. A. explaining
B. interpreting
C. suggesting
D. presenting
58. A. includes
B. contains
C. consists
D. composes
59. A. index
B. preface
C. complement
D. foreword
60. A. marks
B. signs
C. signals
D. symbols
Question II: Supply the most suitable word for each blank. (10 pts)
I was reading an article last week in which the writer described ___61___ her children has
changed as they grow up. When they were small she had to ___62____ up with noisy games in
the house or join in interminable games of football in the garden which wore her out. If the
house went quiet, she wondered what the monsters were getting up to, or what crisis she would
have to ____63_____ with next. She dreaded the fact that they might ____64____ after her
husband, who admitted having ___65____ an uncontrollable child who ____66_____ most of
time showing off to his friends by breaking things or getting into fights. What was worse was
that everyone else thought he was ___ 67____sweet child, and he got away with the most
terrible things. However, she had experienced an even greater shocked with her children. They
had ___68____ out as chess and playing the piano. They never did anything ___69____ talking
it over first, and coming to a serious decision. She had to face up to the fact that they made her
feel rather childish as they got ___70____, and that in some ways she preferred them when
they were young and noisy
Question III: Read the passage and choose the best answers to questions below. (10 pts)
Line 5
There is a common expression in English language referring to a blue moon. When people say that
something happens “only once in a blue moon”, they mean that it happens only very rarely, once
in a great while. This expression has been around for at least a century and a half. There are
references to this expressions that date from the second half of the nineteenth century.
The expression “a blue moon” has come to refer to the second full moon occurring in any given
calendar month. A second full moon is not called a blue moon because it is particularly blue or is
any different in the hue from the first full moon of the month. In stead, it is called a blue moon
because it is so rare. The moon needs a little more than 29 days to complete the cycle from full
610
Line 10
Line 15
Line 20
Line 25
moon to full moon. Because every month except February has more than 29 days, every month
will have at least one full moon (except February, which will have a full moon unless there is a
full moon at the very end of January and another full moon at the very beginning of March). It is
on the occasion when a given calendar month has a second full moon that a blue moon occurs.
This does not happen very often, only three or four times a decade.
The blue moons of today are called blue moons because of their rarity and not because of their
color; however, the expression “blue moon” may have come into existence in reference to unusual
circumstances in which the moon actually appeared blue. Certain natural phenomena of gigantic
proportions can actually change the appearance of the moon from the Earth. The eruption of the
Krakatao volcano in 1883 left dust particles in the atmosphere, which clouded the sun and gave
the moon a bluish tint. This particular occurrence of the blue moon may have given rise to the
expression that we use today. Another example occurred more than a century later. When Mount
Pinatubo erupted in the Philippines in 1991, the moon again took on a blue tint.
71. This passage is about_________________ .
A. an idiomatic expression
B. an unusual color
C. a month on the calendar
D. a phase of the moon
611
A. For around 50 years
B. For less than 100 years
C. For more than 100 years
D. For 200 years.
73. A blue moon could best be described as _________________ .
A. a full moon that is not blue in color B. a new moon that is blue in
color
C. a full moon that is blue in color D. a new moon that is
not blue in color
74. The word “hue” in line 8 is closest in meaning to _____________________ .
A. shape B. date
C. color D. size
75. Which of the following might be the date of a blue moon?
A. January 1
st
B. February 28
th
C.
April 15
th
D. December 31
st
76. How many blue moons would there most likely be in a century?
A. 4 B. 35
C. 70 D. 100
77. According to the passage, the moon actually looked blue ______________ .
A. after large volcanic eruptions B.
when it occurred late in the month
C. several times a year
D. during the month of February
78. The expression “given rise to” in line 24 could be best replaced by ___________ .
A. created a need for
B. elevated the level of
C. spurred the creation of
D. brighten the color of
79. Where in the passage does the author describe the duration of a lunar cycle?
612
A. line 1- 3 B. line 6-7
C. line 9-10 D. line 13 15
80. In which paragraph does the author mention the two blue moons which were blue in color?
A. Paragraph 1 B. Paragraph 2 C. Paragraph 3
D. Paragraph 1 and 3.
PART D: WRITING (20 pts)
Question I: Finish each of the following sentences in such a way that it is as similar as
possible in meaning to the sentence printed before it. (5 pts)
81. If I were you, I
You had ___________________________________________.
82. It is thought that the Prime Minister is considering raising taxes.
The Prime Minister __________________________________.
83. I was very annoyed by his refusal to listen to reason.
What _____________________________________________.
84. The company have been reviewing their recruitment policy for the last three months.
85. I realy like her voice but not her choice of songs.
Much _____________________________________________.
Question II: Finish each of the following sentences in such a way that it is as similar as
possible in meaning to the sentence printed before it. Do not change the form of the given
word. (5 pts)
86. I am telling you this for you not to make a mistake.
FEAR
__________________________________________.
87. I'd rather you didn't stay long at the party.
BETTER
_________________________________________.
88. I now think differently about this matter.
MIND
613
__________________________________________.
89. I am going to write and complain to the council.
COMPLAINT
__________________________________________.
90. She was just as good as they had thought.
CAME
__________________________________________.
Question III. Essay writing (10 pts):
Do you agree or disagree with the following statement: “All children should learn at least
one foreign language at school”?
Write an essay ( about 150 to 200 words) to express your personal point of view.
---------- THE END ---------
614
KEYS PRACTICE 52
PART A: PHONETICS (5 điểm – Mỗi câu đúng 1 điểm)
1.D
2.B
3.B
4.A
5.D
PART B: VOCABULARY & GRAMMAR (45 điểm)
( Mỗi câu đúng 1 điểm, riêng bài sửa lỗi, nếu tìm được lỗi mà sửa không đúng thì cho 0.5
điểm)
Question I.
6.B
7.C
8.A
9.C
10.D
11.D
12.B
13.D
14.B
15.B
16.A
17.A
18.C
19.D
20.C
Question II.
MISTAKES
CORRECTIONS
MISTAKES
CORRECTIONS
21.
had gone
went
26.
22.
wants
wanted
27.
have broken
had broken
23.
has
had
28.
I
she
24.
what
that
29.
am
was
25.
your
her
30.
at
about
Question III
31.
be taught/ should be taught
36.
will have moved
32.
would not be.
37.
did
33.
being allowed
38.
has not been upgraded
34.
should have prepared
39
never thought
35.
wounded
40.
were going to bring/would bring
Question IV
615
41. uselessness
42. publicity
43. forerunners
44. deaden
45. centenarian
46. expectancy
47.decontaminating
48. overweight
49. satisfactory
50. romantically
PART C: READING COMPREHENSION (30 pts)
( Mỗi câu đúng 1 điểm)
Question I
51.B
52.B
53.C
54.A
55.C
56.C
57.A
58.B
59.A
60.D
Question II.
61. how
62. put
63. deal
64. take
65. been
66. spent
67. a
68. grown
69. without
70. older
Question III.
71.A
72.C
73.A
74.C
75.D
76.B
77.A
78.C
79.C
80.C
PART D: WRITING (20 pts)
Question I (5 điểm- Mỗi câu đúng 1 điểm)
81.
You had better not tell anybody about the discovery.
82.
The Prime Minister is thought to be considering raising taxes.
83.
What really annoyed me was his refusal to listen to reason.
84.
months.
616
85.
Question II (5 điểm- Mỗi câu đúng 1 điểm)
86.
I am telling you this for fear that you might make a mistake.
87.
It would be better if you didn't stay long at the party.
88.
I've changed my mind about this matter.
89.
I intend to make a written complaint to the council.
90.
She came up to their expectations.
Question III. Essay: (10 điểm)
Marking criteria:
+ Task completion (4 điểm)
-
+ Grammatical accuracy and spelling 3 điểm:
- Coherence and cohesion (tính mạch lạc và sự liên kết câu, đoạn) – 3 điểm:
-
B- HƯỚNG DẪN CHẤM:
Bài thi chấm theo thang điểm: 20
Điểm bài thi làm tròn đến 0,25
Tổng số point thí sinh làm đúng
Điểm bài thi = ---------------------------------------
5
ENGLISH PRACTICE 53
PART I – PRONUNCIATION
Mark the word whose underlined part differs from the other three in pronunciation
1. A. purpose B. consumer C. comprise D. collapse
2. A. battle B. magic C. nag D. dismayed
617
3. A. sound B. doubt C. Count D. Would
4. A. honest B. home C. vehicles D. heiress
5. A. apple B. absent C. applicant D. Any
6: A. confine B. conceal C. convention D. concentrate
7. A. four B. journey C. pour D. Your
8 A. fool B. bamboo C. food D. flood
9. A. worked B. laughed C. hoped D. naked
10: A. measure B. pleasure C. ensure D. leisure
Mark the the word that differs from the other three in the position of primary stress
1. A. Commit B. index C. preview D. open
2. A. enrichment B. advantage C. sovereignty. D. edition
3: A. innocent B. nevertheless C. contents D. supermarket
4. A. forgettable B. philosophy C. humanism D. objectively
5: A. inaccurate B. pupivorous C. profitable D. reiterate
6: A. bibliophile B. inheritance C. illustrate D. judicature
7. A. dangerous B. conspicuous C. marvelous D. numerous
8. A. pioneer B. engineer C. reindeer D. referee
9: A. sociable B. vacancy C. opponent D. habitat
10: A. discourage B. document C. general D. politics
PART II - LEXICO-GRAMMAR
I. Complete each of the following sentences with the correct answer (A, B, C or D). Identify your
answer by writing the corresponding letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet.
41.
A. though B. although C. as though D. even though
42. I kept out of the conversation because it _________ me.
ncerning
618
43. The entire city was _________ electricity last night- it was chaotic.
A. no B. almost no C. hardly any D. without
44. Henry was overweight, so he went on s strict diet and _________ twenty kilos.
A. missed B. lost C. failed D. fell
45. He was arrested because he answered to the description of the _________ man.
A. searched B. pursued C. wanted D. hunted
46. Humanity has done great damage to the environment in its search for _________
materials.
A. live B. raw C. crude D. rude
47. _________, the balcony chairs will be ruined in this weather.
A. Leaving uncovered B. Having left uncovered
C. Left uncovered D. Been left uncovered
48. One way to let off _________ after a stressful day is to take some vigorous exercise.
A. cloud B. tension C. steam D. sweat
49. Their research into the causes of cancer promises to break the new _________ in the field
and possibly lead to a cure.
A. earth B. ground C. soil D. land
50. After three days in the desert, his mind began to play _________ on him.
A. games B. jokes C. tricks D. fun
51. The match will be screened on ITV with _________ commentary by Any Gray.
A. lively B. live C. alive D. living
52. whole truth
yesterday.
A. could have told B. told C. have told D. had told
53. As the drug took _________, the patient became quieter.
A. effect B. force C. influence D. action
54. The dawn redwood appears ____ some 100 million years ago in northern forests around
the world.
A. was flourished B. having to flourish
C. to have flourished D. have flourished
55. His comments _________ little or no relation to the facts and the figures of the case.
A. reflect B. bear C. give D. possess
56. All _____ is a continuous supply of the basic necessities of life.
619
A. what is needed B. for our needs C. the thing needed D. that is needed
57. It is urgent that this letter _____ immediately.
A. was posted B. posted C. be posted D. be post
58. John: This grammar test is t
59. It is only recently that ballets have been based on the themes _____ American life.
A. reflecting B. reflects C. is reflecting D. reflected
60.
A. a head B. a mind C. the heart D. the nerve
II. Supply the correct form of the word in capital letter. Write your answers on your
answer sheet.
SKIING HOLIDAYS IN COLORADO
To ski or snowboard in Colorado is to experience the pinnacle of winter sports. The state
of Colorado is known for its spectacular scenery and (1. BREATH) ____ views, which inspire
today's travelers as much as they spurred on the (2. SETTLE) ____ who first arrived in this part
of the US over a century ago. And whether you're seeking the outdoor adventure of a (3. LIFE)
____ exciting nightlife or a great family getaway, Colorado has everything you need.
November through April, snow conditions are (4. CONSIST) ____ and reliable,
featuring Colorado's (5. LEGEND) ____ snow making
and grooming operations always keep trails in top shape.
The mountain destinations in the Colorado Rockies can turn your wildest ski dreams
into thrilling (6. REAL) ______.There, you'll find the best skiing and snowboarding on (7.
PICTURE) ____ slopes, as well as the finest ski schools in the US. Together, they present an (8.
PARALLEL) ____ winter paradise. And the best part is that you'll enjoy friendly, (9. CARE)
____ service in resorts that are (10. COMMIT) ____ to delivering the highest quality amenities.
III. Complete the following sentences with one appropriate preposition for each blank.
21.
freedom groups.
22. I was ________the impression that you like Indian food.
23. This is one of the exceptions ________the rule.
24. The factory paid ________nearly a million pounds to their employees who were injured
in the explosion.
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25. Before they open the new factory, a lot of the young people round here were
________the dole.
26. Mr. Horrid was a terrible teacher and obviously not cut ________for teaching.
27. cancel my arrangements ________such short notice.
28.
29. The farmhouse we stayed in was completely ________the beaten track.
30.
PART III: READING COMPREHENSION
I. Read the passage then choose the best answer to each question that follows. Identify your
answer by writing the corresponding letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet.
THE ATMOSPHERE OF VENUS
Venus, also called the Morning Star and Evening Star, is the second-closest planet to the
sun and the brightest object in the night sky. The planet orbits the sun every two hundred and
twenty four Earth-
share both a similar size and bulk. Wh
The atmosphere on Venus is much heavier and has a higher density than that of Earth.
gh a thick
cloud cover makes the surface of Venus nearly impossible to see unless observed through radar
mapping.
of Earth, the heat and pressure of the lower atmospher
atmosphere is very thick due to a composition consisting mainly of carbon dioxide, and a small
amount of nitrogen. If man could survive the extreme heat of Venus’s surface (400 degrees
Celsius), then he would have to contend with a surface pressure that is more than 90 times
that of Earth.
infrared radiation is more readily absorbed by the atmosphere. Just like in a real greenhouse used
to grow plants years round, the proliferation of carbon dioxide traps radiation and warms
emperature
than Mercury, even though Venus is twice the distance from the sun.
[A] Studies
ation of
all the water caused the runaway greenhouse effect which regulates the planet today. [B] Thus
struggle with the early stages of the greenhouse effect. [C] Our problems do not stem from
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evaporated water supplies but from a propagation of carbon dioxide and other greenhouse gases
due to industrial and automobile emissions. [D]
its
daytime temperatures and nighttime temperatures are not that far removed from each other. This
is due to the thermal inertia, the ability of a substance to store heat despite changing temperatures
ugh winds on the surface of Venus move
-moving there can
In 1966, humankind made its first attempt at send
atmosphere. The Venera 3 probe did collide with Venus surface; however, the abrupt impact
caused its communication system to fail, and it was unable to send and feedback. In 1967,
atmosphere and was able to take many readings, one of
-five percent carbon
succumbed to the crushing air pressure.
Questions 1-7: Choose the answer (A, B, C or D) which you think fits best according to the
passage.
15. According to paragraph 1, Venus is named the Morning Star and Evening Star
because_________.
A. it is very bright B. it is close to the sun
C. it can be seen from evening till morning D. it is used to find the direction by
sailors
16. The word that in paragraph 2 refers to _________.
A. size B. bulk C. atmosphere D. density
17. Which of the following best expresses the essential information in the bold sentence in
paragraph 3? Incorrect answer choices change the meaning in important ways or leave
out essential information.
A. Earth experiences greater surface pressure than Venus.
B. If a man could survive its surface pressure.
C. The surface pressure and heat of Venus are much greater than those on Earth.
D
18. According to paragraph 3, the greenhouse effect on Venus is owed to _________.
A. the small amounts of nitrogen
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B. the rapid increasing amounts of carbon dioxide
C. growing plants
D. the high atmospheric temperatures
19. In paragraph 4, the author of the passage implies that Earth _________.
A. might suffer the same greenhouse effect as Venus
B. o
C. has bodies of water similar to those on Venus today
D. is experiencing a reduction of carbon dioxide emissions
20.
could be added to the passage.
Although the causes are different, the ramifications are the same.
Where would the sentence best fit?
21. The word propagation in paragraph 4 is closest in meaning to _________.
A. generation B. elimination C. evaporation D. desecration
Questions 8 to 10: Complete the brief summary of the passage by selecting the THREE
answer choices that express important ideas in the passage. The introductory sentence for the
summary is provided bellowed.
uture.
8. …………………………………………………
9. …………………………………………………
10. …………………………………………………
Answer Choices
M. Venus once had large bodies of water that elaborated and cause a rapid increase in carbon
dioxide.
N. air movement on Venus is
denser and can even more large obstructions.
623
O.
revealed much about its carbon dioxide filled atmosphere.
P. If man could survive the hot temperature of Venus, then he would have to contend with
the great surface pressure.
Q. The first space probe of Venus was made in 1966.
R. Scientists are concerned that conditions on Earth that propagate significant quantities of
carbon dioxide will produce greenhouse effects simi
II. Read the text below and think of the word which best fits each space. Use only ONE
word in each space. Write your answers on your answer sheet.
SPLENDID SPAS OF ASIA
Lying on a bed almost on the (1) ________ of a cliff, with a stupendous ocean view and
the (2) ________ of waves, aches and pains are soothed away (3) ________ expert hands. Only
two steps are needed to reach the private pool, which seems to merge (4) ________ the ocean.
Such a scenario is no longer a fantasy (5) ________ an increasingly popular reality in
Asia for many stressed out businessmen and visitors from all over the world in search of that
peaceful time and space for their body and mind.
In the last four years, at (6) ________ 17 hotel spas have opened in South East Asia to
(7) ________ this need. The tropical climate of the region and its reliable sunshine make for an
ideal spa setting. Picturesque environments (8) ________ with a series of rejuvenating treatments
bring the desired result. The Asian spa resorts have acquired a formidable reputation for their
professional services as (9) ________ as for the decor of their large treatment rooms. Visitors
relax with Thai music and soak in the warm tones of the room. As all these take (10) ________
in individual rooms, precious privacy is guaranteed, a rare privilege often absent from other spas
where guests share rooms or changing areas.
III. Read the following passage and choose the best answer for each question. Identify your
answer by writing the corresponding letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet.
WIND - The untamable weather machine
On 15 October 1987, the southern counties of Britain were struck by the strongest winds
they had experienced in 200 years. Gusts of over 130 kilometers per hour slammed across the
region and £1.5- billion-worth of damage was (1)__________ in just a few hours.
Extreme weather events like this are dramatic (2)__________ of the power of the wind.
thought to in Britain but it plays a
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would quite (3)__________ be no climate.
temperatures quite suddenly by 10°C or more. It affects as many as one in three people in its
(5)__________, making them feel anxious, irritable and generally ill. In California, many people
(6)__________ the arrival of the Santa Ana, which rushes down from the high Mojave desert.
reath, claims that when the Santa Ana blows, murder rates
soar.
The wind may get into the headlines when it comes in the form of tornadoes and
hurricanes, but for the (7)__________ part it goes about its job of shifting huge masses of air
around the planet. Plants take (8)__________ of this free ride to send their pollen grains far and
wide. Trees (99)__________ on it to remove old leaves and make way for new growth. Spiders
have been caught (10)__________ a lift at altitudes of almost 4.5 kilometers.
21. A. made B. caused C. destroyed D. completed
22. A. reminders B. recollections C. mementos D. memorial
23. A. easily B. rightly C. surely D. simply
24. A. last B. originate C. pass D. date
25. A. line B. road C. path D. bypass
26. A. despair B. respect C. dread D. warn
27. A. most B. maximum C. majority D. general
28. A. benefit B. chance C. occasion D. advantage
29. A. need B. trust C. hope D. realize
30. A. traveling B. hitching C. borrowing D. making
PART IV: WRITING
I. Rewrite the following sentences without changing their meaning, using the words given.
These words must not be changed in any way.
21. I would like to be able to speak French. (HAD)
I wish ________________________________________________________ speak
French.
22. It was raining cats and dogs. (TORRENTS)
The rain was
______________________________________________________________
23. It was wrong of you to borrow my book without asking. (HAVE)
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You ____________________________________________before you borrowed my
book.
24. When I was younger, this record was one of my favourites. (FAVOURITE)
This record used ______________________________________ mine when I was
younger.
25. My sister finds commuting every day annoying. (PUT)
ry
day.
26. The Mediterranean is warm, whereas the North Sea is much colder. (NOTHING)
The North Sea is ____________________________________________ the
Mediterranean.
27. Christ would only eat a pizza if he could have a mushroom topping. ON
Christ ______________________________________________ when he ate a pizza.
28. My father persuaded me to learn another foreign language. TALKED
My father _______________________________________________ another foreign
language.
29. Sam tried extremely hard to convince her, but it was no use. BRING
Hard
________________________________________________________________________
_
30. When he arrived at the airport, his family welcomed him warmly. GIVEN
On_____________________________________________________________________
______
II. Write an essay to give your opinion on the following topic.
Some people believe that history has little to tell us. Other people believe that people must have
knowledge of history in order to understand the present.
Give reasons for your answer and include any relevant examples from your own knowledge or
experience.
Write at least 250 words.
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------------------THE END -----------------
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KEYS ENGLISH PRACTICE 53
PART I – PRONUNCIATION
Mark the word whose underlined part differs from the other three in pronunciation
1. A. purpose B. consumer C. comprise D. collapse
2. A. battle B. magic C. nag D. dismayed
3. A. sound B. doubt C. Count D. Would
4. A. honest B. home C. vehicles D. heiress
5. A. apple B. absent C. applicant D. Any
6: A. confine B. conceal C. convention D. concentrate
7. A. four B. journey C. pour D. Your
8 A. fool B. bamboo C. food D. flood
9. A. worked B. laughed C. hoped D. naked
10: A. measure B. pleasure C. ensure D. leisure
Mark the the word that differs from the other three in the position of primary stress
1. A. Commit B. index C. preview D. open
2. A. enrichment B. advantage C. sovereignty. D. edition
3: A. innocent B. nevertheless C. contents D. supermarket
4. A. forgettable B. philosophy C. humanism D. objectively
5: A. inaccurate B. pupivorous C. profitable D. reiterate
6: A. bibliophile B. inheritance C. illustrate D. judicature
7. A. dangerous B. conspicuous C. marvelous D. numerous
8. A. pioneer B. engineer C. reindeer D. referee
9: A. sociable B. vacancy C. opponent D. habitat
10: A. discourage B. document C. general D. politics
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PART III. LEXICO-GRAMMAR (25 POINTS)
I. Read the sentences carefully and choose the best answers to make complete ones. (10pts)
1.A
2. C
3. D
4. B
5. C
6. B
7. B
8. C
9. B
10. C
11. B
12. D
13. A
14. C
15. B
16. D
17. C
18. B
19. A
20. A
II. Write the correct FORM of each bracketed word. (10 pts)
1. breathtaking
2. settlers
3. lifetime
4. consistent
5. legendary
6. reality
7. picturesque
8. unparalleled
9. caring
10. committed
III. Complete the following sentences with one appropriate preposition for each blank.
(5pts)
1. in
2. under
3. to
4. out
5. on
6. out
7. at
8. in
9. off
10. for
PART IV. READING (30POINTS)
I. Read the text & decide which word best fits each space by choosing A, B, C or D. (10pts)
1. A
2. C
3. D
4. B
5. A
6. B
7. A
8. A
9. C.
10. F
In any order from question 8 to 10
II. Fill in each blank space with an appropriate word. (10pts)
1. edge
2. sound
3. by
4. with
5. but
6. least
7. satisfy/meet
8. together/along
9. well
10. place
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III. Read the following passage and choose the best answer. (10pts)
1. B
2. A
3. D
4. D
5. C
6.C
7. A
8. D
9. D
10. B
PART V. WRITING (25 POINTS)
I. Finish each of the sentences in such a way that it means exactly the same as the sentence
printed before it. (5 pts)
21. I wish I had ability to speak French.
22. The rain was coming down in torrents.
23.
24. This record used to be a favourite of mine when I was younger.
25.
26. The North Sea is nothing like as warm as the Mediterranean.
27. Christ insisted on having a mushroom topping when he ate a pizza.
28. My father talked me into learning another language.
29. Hard as/ th
30. On his arrival at the airport, he was given a warm welcome by his family
II. Write an essay to give your opinion on the following topic. (20 points)
Some people believe that history has little to tell us. Other people believe that people must have
knowledge of history in order to understand the present.
Give reasons for your answer and include any relevant examples from your own knowledge or
experience.
Write at least 250 words.
The impression mark given is based on the following scheme:
7. Content: 50% of total mark: a provision of all main ideas and details as appropriate
8. Language: 30% of total mark: a variety of vocabulary and structures appropriate to the
level of English language gifted upper-secondary school students
9. Presentation: 20% of total mark: coherence, cohesion, and style appropriate to the level
of English language gifted upper-secondary school students.
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ENGLISH PRACTICE 54
PART I: PHONETICS. (1,0 POINT)
Choose the word whose stress pattern is different from that of the other words in the same
group. Write your answer in the numbered box.
1. A. hospital B. mischievous C. supportive D. special
2. A. family B. whenever C. obedient D. solution
3. A. biologist B. generally C. responsible D. security
4. A. confident B. important C. together D. exciting
5. A. possible B. university C. secondary D. suitable
6. A. medieval B. humanity C. psychology D. familiar
7. A. masterpiece B. predator C. technical D. flamingo
8. A. overpopulated B. responsibility C. originality D. incomprehensible
9. A. arithmetic B. mausoleum C. economy D. receptionist
10. A. simplify B. national C. illiteracy D. secretary
PART II: VOCABULARY AND GRAMMAR. (7,5 POINTS)
I. Choose the best answer to fill in each gap. Write your answer in the numbered box. (1,0
point)
1. The criminal was sentenced to death because of of his crime.
A. the severity B. the complexity C. a punishment D. the importance
-
631
A. That would be delightful. Thanks
no bother D. Yes, I see.
3. If ittheir encouragement, he could have given it up.
B. had been D. had been for
4. By the end of this month Ifor this company for two years.
A. have been working B. will have been working
C. will be working D. will work
5. Laura is very thin,her young sister, who is quite heavy.
A. dissimilar to B. unlikely C. unlike D. dislike
6. Please
A. come to B. come about C. come around D. come away
7. They're having a party inof his 84
th
birthday.
A. ceremony B. honor C. memory D. celebration
8. The proposal has not met withagreement.
A. voluntary B. universal C. informal D. effective
9. A child's vocabularythrough reading.
A. expands B. expends C. expels D. exposes
10. Wefriends even after we grew up and left home.
A. became B. made C. struck up D. remained
II. Supply the correct form(s) of the verb in brackets to complete each sentence. Write your
answer in the numbered box. (0,5 point)
1. He was the only student (award) the special prize in reciting poetry competition.
2. (convince) that they were trying to poison him, he refused to eat anything.
3. You look hot. What you (do)?
4. I regret (invite) him to my party yesterday.
5. Had you studied harder, you (get) a prize.
632
III. Supply the correct form of the word in brackets to complete each sentence. Write your
answer in the numbered box. (2,0 points)
1. finished with these 5 sentences. (completion)
2. The criminal has a very scar in his face. (notice)
3. His arrival surprised all his friends and family. (expect)
4. I have knownfor all my life. (hard)
5. It was athing to say. (hurt)
target. (really)
7. Inwith the rules of the competition, the team was disqualified. (accord)
8. Snow in August! How (ordinary)
9. The film is entertaining but full of historical (accurate)
10. Since I am an driver, I think you should drive. (experience)
IV. Find out and correct the mistake in each sentence. Write your answer in the numbered
box. (2,0 points)
Example: The oil price is believing to be rising again.
A B C D
Your answer: B is believed
1. Caroline refused to take the job given her because the salary was not good.
A B C D
2. I finished college last year, and I am working here for only eight months now.
A B C D
3. Each of the members of the group were made to write a report every week.
A B C D
4. While the Browns were away on holiday, their house was broken in.
A B C D
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5. Why you congratulate our son about passing his final exam?
A B C D
6. Mark told me that he got very bored with his present job and he is now looking after a new
one.
A B C D
7. Now become old, I quickly as I used to.
A B C D
8. Although research has been ongoing since 1930, the existence of ESP - perception and
without the
A B
use of the sight, hear, taste, touch or smell - is still disputed.
C D
9. As many as 50 percent of the income from motion pictures produced in the United States comes
from
A B C
marketing the films abroad.
D
10. Sleep is controlled by the brain and associated by characteristic breathing rhythms
A B C D
V. Complete each sentence with the correct form of ONE of the two-word verbs. Write
your answer in the numbered box. (2,0 points)
lay off make up get on care for go out
fall through come down put off draw up bring up
1. The teacherwell with everyone in the school.
2. Shewith a bad cold just before Christmas and she could not come to the party.
3. After his mother died, heby his grandmother.
4. Once the fire , we had to sit in the cold.
634
5. The neighbor always
an
7. The two sides were close to an agreement, but it
8. The meeting had to be
9. The company hastwo hundred workers because of a lack of new orders.
10. Our lawyers willa new contract.
PART III: READING COMPREHENSION. (6,0 POINTS)
I. Read the passage below and decide which answer (A, B, C or D) best fits each gap. Write
your answer in the numbered box. (2,0 points)
The accumulation of book (1) is one part of school education but this kind of
learning can be and often is carried to (2) in many countries so that no time for other
interests is (3) to young people. Not only must they attend school (4) five-hour
periods on six days of the week, studying possibly as many as thirteen different subjects, but in
addition they may even go to afternoon institutes for (5) instruction. They have almost no
chance of taking (6) any of their own hobbies or becoming familiar with the plants and (7)
life of the countryside except during their summer holidays. Early youth should be a time
of exploration and adventure, of reading books for (8) as well as study, of freedom to
enjoy life before the responsibilities of working for a living and (9) a family (10) an
end to study, to freedom and only too often to carefree enjoyment.
1. A. treasure B. value C. richness D. knowledge
2. A. extremity B. excess C. limit D. boundary
3. A. available B. provided C. devoted D. reserved
4. A. during B. for C. throughout D. in
5. A. farther B. additional C. extra D. further
6. A. on B. up C. back D. over
7. A. untamed B. original C. wild D. natural
8. A. pleasure B. amusement C. joy D. entertainment
9. A. creating B. bringing C. building D. raising
10. A. hold B. put C. indicate D. mark
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II. Read the passage, then choose the correct options. Write your answer in the box. (2,0
points)
grow larger. Those parts are not tending to wither away. It is an observed fact that when you
exercise particular muscles, they grow. Those that are never used diminish. By examining a
guess his profession or recreation. Enthusiasts of body building cult make use of the principles of
use and disuse to build their bodies, almost like a piece of sculpture, into whatever unnatural
shape is demanded by fashion in this peculiar minority culture. Muscles are not the only parts of
the body that respond to use in this way. Walk barefoot and you acquire harder skin on your
soles. It is
hands are horny
principles of use and disuse enables animals to become better at the job of surviving in their
world, progressively better during their lifetime as the result of living in that world. Humans,
through direct exposure to sunlight, or lack of it, develop a skin color which equips them better
to survive in particular local conditions. Too much sunlight is dangerous. Enthusiastic sunbathers
with very fair skins are susceptible to skin cancer. Too little sunlight, on the other hand, leads to
vitamin D deficiency and rickets. The brown pigment melanin which is synthesized under the
influence of sunlight makes a screen to protect the underlying tissues from the harmful effects of
further sunlight. If a suntanned person moves to a less sunlight climate, the melanin disappears,
and the body benefits from what little sun there is. This can be represented as an instance of the
principles of use and disuse: skin goes brown when it is used, and fades to white when it is not.
1. What does the passage mainly discuss?
B. The way people change themselves to conform to fashion.
C. The changes that occur according to the principles of use and disuse.
D. The effects of the sun on the principles of use and disuse.
wither way
A. split B. rot C. perish D. shrink
those
A. organisms B. bodies C. parts D. muscles
4. Men who body build
A. appear like sculptures B. change their appearance
636
C. belong to strange cults D. are very fashionable
5. It can be inferred that the author views body building
A. with enthusiasm B. as an artistic form
C. with scientific interest D. of doubtful benefits
horny
A. firm B. strong C. tough D. dense
7. It can be inferred that the principles of use and disuse enables organisms to
A. change their existence B. automatically benefit
C. survive in any condition D. improve their lifetime
8. The author suggest that melanin
A. is necessary to produce vitamin D B. is beneficial in sunless climate
C. helps protects fair-skinned people D. is a synthetic product
9. In the 2
nd
paragraph, the author mentioned sun tanning as an example of
A. humans improving their local conditions
B. humans surviving in adverse conditions
C. humans using the principles of use and disuse
D. humans running the risk of cancer
susceptible
A. condemned B. vulnerable C. allergic D. suggestible
III. Read the passage and fill in each blank with ONE suitable word. Write your answer in
the numbered box. (2,0 points)
BICYCLE SAFETY
Having to obey rules and regulations when riding a bike is one of the first experiences
children have of the idea of (1) the law. However, a large number of children are left to
learn the rules by trial and error, instead of being guided by experienced (2) . Every year,
hundreds of children visit the doctor or the hospital casualty department (3) crashing on
their bikes. This could be easily prevented by (4) them the basics of bicycle safety. Ideally,
637
children should be allowed to (5) only in safe places, such as parks and cycle tracks. When
this is not possible, and they are permitted to go on the (6) , it is important to teach them
some basic safety principles.
First, they ought to learn and obey the rules of the road, which (7) traffic signs,
signals and road markings. Second, they should (8) wear a helmet. Studies have shown
that wearing bicycle helmets can (9) head injuries by up to 85 percent. In many places,
(10) are required by law, particularly for children. Finally, children should be made to
understand the importance of riding in areas that are brightly lit and of wearing clothes that make
them clearly visible on the road.
PART IV: WRITING. (5,5 POINTS)
I. Rewrite each of the sentences without changing its meaning, using the cue given. (2,0
points)
1. Remember to check for spelling mistakes before you hand in your composition.
Don't
2. Jack has become confident as a result of his success.
Jack’s success
3. Green Peace will organize a meeting at the Town Hall next Tuesday.
There
4. I can't describe people as well as you can.
You are
5. I didn't arrive in time too see her.
I wasn't
6. Experts think that all dogs evolved from wolves.
All dogs are
7. I was surprised at how easy he was to talk to
638
I hadn’t expected
Everyone enjoyed
9. They were never aware at any moment that something was wrong.
At no time
10. Do shops usually stay open so late in this country?
Is
it
II. Rewrite each of the sentences without changing its meanings, using the word given. (1,0
point)
put
2. These two makes of computer are practically the same. hardly
influence
trouble
round
III. Write a report of about 150 words to describe the chart. (2,5 points)
The chart below shows the amount of time an average student spends on various
subjects in certain years from 1995 to 2007. Study the chart carefully and comment on the
proportion of time they spend on these subjects every two weeks.
639
Hour
0
5
10
15
20
25
30
35
40
45
50
1995 2000 2005 2007
Natural
sciences
English
Social
sciences
THE END OF THE TEST
640
641
KEYS PRACTICE 54
Total mark: 20
The mark given is based on the following scheme:
PART
ANSWERS
MAR
K
PART I:
PHONETIC
S: (1,0 point)
Choose the word
whose stress
pattern is different
from that of the
other words in the
same group.
1. C
0.1 p
2. A
0.1 p
3. B
0.1 p
4. A
0.1 p
5. B
0.1 p
6. A
0.1 p
7. A
0.1 p
8. A
0.1 p
9. B
0.1 p
10. C
0.1 p
PART II:
LEXICO-
GRAMMAR
(7,5 points)
I. Choose the best
answer to fill in
each gap. (1,0
point)
1. A
0.1 p
2. C
0.1 p
3. C
0.1 p
4. B
0.1 p
5. C
0.1 p
6. C
0.1 p
7. D
0.1 p
8. B
0.1 p
9. A
0.1 p
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10. D
0.1 p
II. Give the
correct tenses
of the verbs in
brackets. (1,0
point)
1. to be awarded
0.1 p
2. Convinced
0.1 p
0.1 p
4. inviting/having invited
0.1 p
5. would have got/would have gotten
0.1 p
III. Put the correct
form of the words
in brackets. (2,0
points)
1. completely
0.2 p
2. noticeable
0.2 p
3. unexpected
0.2 p
4. hardship
0.2 p
5. hurtful
0.2 p
6. realistic
0.2 p
7. accordance
0.2 p
8. extraordinary
0.2 p
9. inaccuracies
0.2 p
10. inexperienced
0.2 p
IV. Find out and
correct the
mistake in each
sentence. (2,0
points)
1. B given to
0.2 p
2. C have been working
0.2 p
3. C was made
0.2 p
4. D broken into
0.2 p
5. B our son on
0.2 p
6. D looking for
0.2 p
7. A Now that/Because/As/Since
0.2 p
8. D hearing
0.2 p
9. A As much as
0.2 p
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10. C associated with
0.2 p
V. Complete these
sentences with
proper
prepositions. (2,0
points)
1. got on/gets on
0.2 p
2. came down
0.2 p
3. was brought up
0.2 p
4. went out/had gone out
0.2 p
5. makes up
0.2 p
6. caring for
0.2 p
7. fell through
0.2 p
8. put off
0.2 p
9. laid off
0.2 p
10. draw up
0.2 p
PART III:
READING:
(6,0 points)
I. Read the
passage below
and decide which
answer (A, B, C
or D) best fits each
gap. (2,0 points)
1. D
0.2 p
2. B
0.2 p
3. A
0.2 p
4. C
0.2 p
5. D
0.2 p
6. B
0.2 p
7. C
0.2 p
8. A
0.2 p
9. D
0.2 p
10. B
0.2 p
II. Read the
passage, then
choose the correct
options. (2,0
points)
1. C
0.2 p
2. D
0.2 p
3. D
0.2 p
4. C
0.2 p
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5. D
0.2 p
6. C
0.2 p
7. C
0.2 p
8. C
0.2 p
9. C
0.2 p
10. B
0.1 p
III. Read the
passage and fill in
each blank with
ONE suitable
word. (2,0 points)
1. obeying
0.2 p
2. adults/people
0.2 p
3. after
0.2 p
4. teaching/instructing
0.2 p
5. ride
0.2 p
6. road
0.2 p
7. include
0.2 p
8. always
0.2 p
9. reduce
0.2 p
10. helmets
0.2 p
PART IV:
WRITING:
(5,5 points)
I. Rewrite each
of the sentences
without changing
its meaning, using
the cue given. (2,0
points)
1. Don't forget to check for spelling mistakes before
you hand in your composition.
0.2 p
2. Jack’s success has turned him into a confident
person.
0.2 p
3. There will be a meeting organized by Green Peace
at the Town Hall next Tuesday.
0.2 p
4. You are better at describing people than I am.
0.2 p
5. I wasn't early enough to see her.
0.2 p
6. All dogs are thought to have evolved from wolves.
0.2 p
7. I hadn’t expected him to be so easy to talk to.
0.2 p
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8. Everyone enjoyed the party apart from/except
(for)/with the exception of Adrian
0.2 p
9. At no time were they aware that something was
wrong.
0.2 p
10. Is it usual for shops to stay open so late in this
country?
0.2 p
II. Rewrite each
of the sentences
without changing
its meanings. (1,0
point)
so early to go to the pool.
0.2 p
2. There is / are hardly any difference(s) between
these two makes of computer.
0.2 p
3. Do you think climate has/can have an/some
0.2 p
0.2 p
collection.
0.2 p
III. Write an essay
(250 - 300 words)
to express your
opinion. (2,5
points)
1. Content:
a. Providing main ideas and details. (summarizing the
information, reporting the main features, and make
comparisons where relevant)
b. Communicating intentions sufficiently and
effectively.
2. Organization and presentation:
a. Ideas are well-organized and presented with
coherence, cohesion, and clarity.
b. The paragraph is well-structured.
3. Language:
a. Variety of appropriate vocabulary and structures.
b. Good use of grammatical structures.
4. Handwriting, punctuation, and spelling:
1.0 p
0.5 p
0.75 p
646
a. Intelligible handwriting.
b. Good punctuation and no spelling mistakes.
0.25 p
Markers should discuss the suggested answers and the marking scale thoroughly
and add more answers possible before marking the papers.
ENGLISH PRACTICE 55
I. Câu 01-05: Chọn từ (ứng với A, B, C hoặc D) có phần gạch dưới được phát âm khác với
những từ còn lại trong mỗi câu.
01. A. eliminate B. equal C. elaborate D. ejection
02. A. carriage B. dosage C. massage D. voyage
03. A. suit B. bruise C. suite D. fruit
04. A. calculate B. populate C. contemplate D. fortunate
05. A. apprehension B. division C. precision D. measure
II. Câu 06-10: Chọn từ (ứng với A, B, C hoặc D) có trọng âm chính nhấn vào âm tiết có vị
trí khác với những từ còn lại trong mỗi câu.
06. A. ignorant B. decisive C. horizon D. museum
07. A. suffice B. product C nuclear D. province
08. A. neurosis B. nocturnal C nominate D. nostalgia
09. A. psychological B. contributory C argumentative D. hypersensitive
647
10. A. crescendo B. attorney C. compromise D. endeavor
III. Câu 11-20: Đọc đoạn văn sau và chọn phướng án đúng nhất (ứng với A, B, C hoặc D)
cho mỗi câu hỏi.
(1) On the night of September 2, 1666, a fire broke out in a baker's shop near Fish Street Hill in
London. Before the flames were finally extinguished, nearty the entreaty had been reduced to
ashes. Over thirteen thousand homes, fifty churches and numerous public buildings and hospitals
were lost in the blaze. For all practical purposes, London was destroyed.
(5) The Great Fire was not seen as a total tragedy, however. The deplorable conditions of the city
had been attacked by physicians and humanitarians for years before the fire; thus, with the
opportunity dearly presented to create a shining new dty, artists and craftsmen from all over
England hurried to submit their designs for the rebuilding of London.
Among those who submitted plans was Sir Christopher Wren, one of England's leading
architects and the
(10) Surveyor of London. The task of rebuilding the city was given to him. Wren realized that
the Great Fire would not have been so damaging if the city had been better laid out: broader
streets were needed to replace the crooked, narrow alleys overhung with dilapidated wooden
houses and shops. He also felt that redesigning the main thoroughfares of London would result
in increased and more effective transportation within the city.
Shortly after Wren began working on his first drafts for the rebuilding. King Charles I issued a
proclamation (15) prohibiting the construction of any house or shop within the city limits until
after the plans were completed. When the plans were unveiled to the citizens of London,
however, they were overwhelmingly rejected. The most vocal leaders of the opposition were the
landlords, who feared that such a drastic widening of the streets would reduce the amount of land
available for development.
(20) Winter was approaching; consequently, it was necessary for the rebuilding to proceed at
once. Permission was, therefore, granted for the townspeople and landlords to commence
reconstruction of their houses and shops at the sites where they had been before the fire. Had the
need for immediate action not been so pressing, some kind of compromise could likely have
been reached. This was not to be, however, and the ideas that could (25) have made London one
of the world's most beautiful cities never came to pass.
reduced to ashes
A. made unbearably hot B. discolored by the fire and smote
C. covered with ashes D. destroyed by fire
12. Which of the followings was probably among the deplorable conditions of the city?
A. lack of adequate lightning
B. the rough streets and alleys
C. the run-down condition of many houses and shops
D. all of the above
13. What did Sir Christopher Wren describe as the reason for the damage of the city?
A. the configuration B. the construction C. the landscape D. the pathway
14. The word thoroughfares (line 13) refers to..........
648
A. public buildings B. streets C. alleys D. houses and shops
15. The word proclamation (line 14) refers to..........
A. promulgation B. speech C. request D. law
16. The word unveiled (line 16) refers to..........
A. concealed B. disclosed C. obscured D. edipsed
17. What became of the plans for the rebuilding of London?
A. Nothing - they were never finished.
B. They were adopted in modified form.
C. They were followed and London was rebuilt at once.
D. Nothing - London was rebuilt as it had been before the fire.
18. To whom or what does they (line 23) refer to..........?
A. the original building sites B. the townspeople
C. the burned-down houses and shops D. the landlords
19. Which of the following describes the author's probable attitude toward Sir Christopher
Wren's plans?
A. He feels it would have been a mistake to rebuild London according to Wren's designs.
B. He feels it was a mistake for London not to have been rebuilt according to Wren's designs.
C. He feels that someone rather than Wren should have been chosen to plan the rebuilding.
D. He feels that Wren's ideas had much more influence than commonly acknowledged.
20. Which of the following would be an appropriate title for the passage?
A. "The Life and Times of Sir Christopher Wren"
B. "The Rebuilding of London"
C. "The Holocaust of Fish Street Hill"
D. "The London That Might Have Been"
IV. Câu 21-30: Đọc đoạn văn sau và chọn phương án đúng nhất (ứng với A, B, C hoặc D)
cho mỗi chỗ trống.
Smart Shoes
Smart shoes that adjust their size throughout the day could soon be available. A prototype has
already been produced and a commercial (21).....may be in production within a few years. The
shoe contains sensors that constantly check the amount of room left in it. If the foot has become
too large, a tiny valve opens and the shoe (22).....slightly. The entire control system is about 5
mm
square and is located inside the shoe. This radical shoe (23).....a need because the volume of the
(24)...... foot can change by as much as 8% during the course of the day. The system is able to
learn about the wearer's feet and (25)......up a picture of the size of his or her feet throughout the
day. It will allow the shoes to change in size by up to 8% so that they always fit (26)....... They
are obviously more comfortable and less likely to cause blisters. From an athlete's point of view,
they can help improve (27)......a little, and that is why the first (28).....for the system is likely to
be in a sports shoe. Eventually, this system will find a (29)......In many other household items,
from beds that automatically change to fit the person sleeping in them, to power tools that
(30)......themselves to the user's hand for better grip.
21. A. assortment B. version C. style D. variety
22. A. amplifies B. develops C. expands D. increases
23. A. detects B. finds C. meets D. faces
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24. A. average B. general C. usual D. medium
25. A. build B. pick C. grow D. set
26. A. exactly B. absolutely C. completely D. totally
27. A. achievement B. performance C. success D. winning
28. A. purpose B. exercise C. use D. operation
29. A. function B. part C. way D. place
30. A. shape B. change C. respond D. convert
V. Câu 31-40: Chọn từ/ cụm từ thích hợp nhất (ứng với A, B, C hoặc D) để hoàn thành mỗi
câu sau.
31. Save your money. Don't.......it too quickly.
A. go through B. die down C. hold on D. touch on
32. They all have to follow the rules, and none of them is.......the law.
A. over B. beyond C. above D. onto
33. They.......the aid of the United States but did not receive it.
A. asked B. found C. sought D. obtained
34. The police spokesman said he was.......to believe that the arrested man was the serial killer
they had been looking for.
A. inclined B. seemed C. suspected D. supposed
35. I'm.......my brother is.
A. nowhere near as ambitious as B. nothing near as ambitious as
C. nowhere like so ambitious as D. nothing as ambitious as
36. He says he might come, but I........
A. doubt B. doubt it C. doubt so D. doubt about it
37. I'm sure your bank manager will lend you a.......ear when you explain the situation to him.
A. merciful B. sympathetic C. pitiful D. compassionate
38. Have you seen the girl.......?
A. that I told B. I told you of C. whom I told you D. I told you of her
39. Children usually.......a flu much more quickly than adults.
A. pick up B. pick at C. pick on D. pick out
40. The accident.......was the mistake of the driver.
A. causing many people to die B. caused great human loss
C. to cause many people die D. which causes many people to die
VI. Câu 41-50: Sử dụng từ trong ngoặc ở dạng thích hợp nhất để điền vào các chỗ trống.
Shadow puppetry is a traditional art form that often goes (41. appreciate).......in modem times.
A large part of the (42. appealable).......of puppet shows is the (43. craft).......behind the creation
of the actual puppets. In shadow puppetry, on the other hand, the puppets remain (44. see).......,
screen, and the light itself creates the overall effect of the shadow puppet show. The task of the
director is to ensure these elements are working together (45. harmony).......in order to produce
the optimal experience for the audience. The screen is the medium through which the audience
experiences the performance, so selecting the best screen is among great (46. essential)........ One
unique challenge for the director is that the presentation is two-dimensional. The screen is flat, so
650
puppets can only move forwards and backwards. Having chosen a screen and designed the set,
the next step is to determine the light that will be used. There are several factors to be
considered: (47. intense)......., spread, and angle. Therefore, finding the optimal (48.
combine).......of light, shadow involves careful (49. plan)......and scrupulous design. Every detail
must be controlled in relation to others, making shadow puppetry an art of (50. precise).......
VII. Câu 51-60: Tìm từ thích hợp nhất để điền vào chỗ trống trong đoạn văn. Mỗi chỗ
trống chỉ điền MỘT từ.
Son Doong Cave is in the heart of Phong Nha Ke Bang National Park in Quang Binh province
of Central Vietnam. Only recently (51).........in 2009-2010 by the British Cave Research
Association, the cave has only been open to the (52).........since 2013.
Fewer people have seen the inside of Son Doong Cave than have stood on the summit of
Mount Everest. Join us on this otherworldly expedition and become one of the lucky few
(53)......... have had the life changing experience of exploring the world's largest cave.
Imagine trekking straight into the (54).........of the world's largest cave on an expedition unlike
any other. A cave is (55).........massive that a Boeing 747 could fly through its largest cavern.
Foreign landscapes found (56) ......... else, enormous stalagmites rising from the ground and
statuesque stalactites hanging from the celling like an alien species. Jungles emerge (57).........the
cave itself, which is so surreal that it's worth seeing once. Misty clouds envelop the whole scene,
a result of the cave's own localised weather system. Passages adorned (58).........ancient fossils
offer evidence of the millions of years that have passed on this Earth.
As you approach the Jungle just outside the entrance, the (59) .......... of cool wind that cascades
out brings to life everything inside of you. Hazy, cold and exhilarating, it is apparent that there's
(60)..........magical waiting just beyond the opening to the cave.
VIII Câu 61-70: Sử dụng từ cho sẵn trong ngoặc và các từ khác để hoàn thành câu thứ hai
sao cho ý nghĩa của nó tương tự như câu thứ nhất. Chỉ được viết từ 2 đến 5 từ vào Phiếu
Trả Lời và không được thay đổi dạng thức của từ cho sẵn.
61. Mary cried her eyes out just after she was told she'd been rejected for the Job. (broke)
Mary...............................as soon as she heard she'd been rejected for the job.
62. I never thought that I would win the lottery. (occurred)
It never.................................................that I would win the lottery.
63. I failed to make him understand that I didnt want to see him anymore. (across)
I failed........................................that I didnt want to see him anymore.
64. Would you give us your answer as soon as possible? (convenience)
Please reply...................................................................
65. I'm so sorry, I didn't realise it was so late. (track)
Sorry, I..................................................................time.
66. Everyone who spoke to the victim is a suspect. (under)
Everyone who spoke to the victim...................................................
67. She will probably be chosen for the beauty contest. (stands)
She.........................................................chosen for the beauty contest.
68. "Can you tell me what happened yesterday, John?" She asked (account)
She asked John.....................................what had happened the day before.
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69. Those two makes of car are practically the same. (hardly)
There are...................................................those two makes of car.
70. There is no way that I can meet you tomorrow. (question)
Meeting you tomorrow...........................................................
IX. Câu 71-80: Viết lại các câu theo gợi ý (kể cả những từ bắt đầu câu cho sẵn) vào Phiếu
Trả Lời sao cho ý nghĩa ban đầu của câu không thay đổi.
71. It's sad, but the crime rate is unlikely to go down this year.
Sad as .....................................................................................
72. You must concentrate on your study more.
You must apply ......................................................................
73. It has been nearly one year since they stopped subscribing to that magazine.
They cancelled ........................................................................
74. I don't feel like going to the party.
I am not in ..............................................................................
75. "Please don't run so fast!" Suzy begged her friend.
Suzy pleaded ..........................................................................
76. You should not only balance your diet but also do sports.
In addition ............................................................................
77. Immediately after their arrival, the meeting was delayed.
Barely ...................................................................................
Failure ..................................................................................
79. David is proud of the fact that he is never late.
David prides .........................................................................
Nobody is to .........................................................................
X. Câu 81: Viết một ĐOẠN VĂN khoảng 120 - 150 từ, sử dụng lập luận và dẫn chứng cụ
thể để bình luận về chủ đề sau.
To be admitted to university, using the result of study during high school years is better than
that of the university entrance examination. Do you agree or disagree?
HẾT
KEYS – PRACTICE 55
652
ANSWER KEY
I. Câu 01-05: Chọn từ (ứng với A, B, C hoặc D) có phần gạch dưới được phát âm khác với
những từ còn lại trong mỗi câu.
01. A. eliminate B. equal C. elaborate D. ejection
02. A. carriage B. dosage C. massage D. voyage
03. A. suit B. bruise C. suite D. fruit
04. A. calculate B. populate C. contemplate D. fortunate
05. A. apprehension B. division C. precision D. measure
II. Câu 06-10: Chọn từ (ứng với A, B, C hoặc D) có trọng âm chính nhấn vào âm tiết có vị
trí khác với những từ còn lại trong mỗi câu.
06. A. ignorant B. decisive C. horizon D. museum
07. A. suffice B. product C nuclear D. province
08. A. neurosis B. nocturnal C nominate D. nostalgia
09. A. psychological B. contributory C argumentative D. hypersensitive
10. A. crescendo B. attorney C. compromise D. endeavor
III. Câu 11-20: Đọc đoạn văn sau và chọn phướng án đúng nhất (ứng với A, B, C hoặc D)
cho mỗi câu hỏi.
(1) On the night of September 2, 1666, a fire broke out in a baker's shop near Fish Street Hill in
London. Before the flames were finally extinguished, nearty the entreaty had been reduced to
ashes. Over thirteen thousand homes, fifty churches and numerous public buildings and hospitals
were lost in the blaze. For all practical purposes, London was destroyed.
(5) The Great Fire was not seen as a total tragedy, however. The deplorable conditions of the city
had been attacked by physicians and humanitarians for years before the fire; thus, with the
opportunity dearly presented to create a shining new dty, artists and craftsmen from all over
England hurried to submit their designs for the rebuilding of London.
Among those who submitted plans was Sir Christopher Wren, one of England's leading
architects and the
(10) Surveyor of London. The task of rebuilding the city was given to him. Wren realized that
the Great Fire would not have been so damaging if the city had been better laid out: broader
streets were needed to replace the crooked, narrow alleys overhung with dilapidated wooden
houses and shops. He also felt that redesigning the main thoroughfares of London would result
in increased and more effective transportation within the city.
Shortly after Wren began working on his first drafts for the rebuilding. King Charles I issued a
proclamation (15) prohibiting the construction of any house or shop within the city limits until
after the plans were completed. When the plans were unveiled to the citizens of London,
however, they were overwhelmingly rejected. The most vocal leaders of the opposition were the
landlords, who feared that such a drastic widening of the streets would reduce the amount of land
available for development.
(20) Winter was approaching; consequently, it was necessary for the rebuilding to proceed at
once. Permission was, therefore, granted for the townspeople and landlords to commence
653
reconstruction of their houses and shops at the sites where they had been before the fire. Had the
need for immediate action not been so pressing, some kind of compromise could likely have
been reached. This was not to be, however, and the ideas that could (25) have made London one
of the world's most beautiful cities never came to pass.
11 The reduced to ashes
A. made unbearably hot B. discolored by the fire and smote
C. covered with ashes D. destroyed by fire
12. Which of the followings was probably among the deplorable conditions of the city?
A. lack of adequate lightning
B. the rough streets and alleys
C. the run-down condition of many houses and shops
D. all of the above
13. What did Sir Christopher Wren describe as the reason for the damage of the city?
A. the configuration B. the construction C. the landscape D. the pathway
14. The word thoroughfares (line 13) refers to..........
A. public buildings B. streets C. alleys D. houses and shops
15. The word proclamation (line 14) refers to..........
A. promulgation B. speech C. request D. law
16. The word unveiled (line 16) refers to..........
A. concealed B. disclosed C. obscured D. edipsed
17. What became of the plans for the rebuilding of London?
A. Nothing - they were never finished.
B. They were adopted in modified form.
C. They were followed and London was rebuilt at once.
D. Nothing - London was rebuilt as it had been before the fire.
18. To whom or what does they (line 23) refer to..........?
A. the original building sites B. the townspeople
C. the burned-down houses and shops D. the landlords
19. Which of the following describes the author's probable attitude toward Sir Christopher
Wren's plans?
A. He feels it would have been a mistake to rebuild London according to Wren's designs.
B. He feels it was a mistake for London not to have been rebuilt according to Wren's designs.
C. He feels that someone rather than Wren should have been chosen to plan the rebuilding.
D. He feels that Wren's ideas had much more influence than commonly acknowledged.
20. Which of the following would be an appropriate title for the passage?
A. "The Life and Times of Sir Christopher Wren"
B. "The Rebuilding of London"
C. "The Holocaust of Fish Street Hill"
D. "The London That Might Have Been"
IV. Câu 21-30: Đọc đoạn văn sau và chọn phương án đúng nhất (ứng với A, B, C hoặc D)
cho mỗi chỗ trống.
Smart Shoes
Smart shoes that adjust their size throughout the day could soon be available. A prototype has
654
already been produced and a commercial (21).....may be in production within a few years. The
shoe contains sensors that constantly check the amount of room left in it. If the foot has become
too large, a tiny valve opens and the shoe (22).....slightly. The entire control system is about 5
mm
square and is located inside the shoe. This radical shoe (23).....a need because the volume of the
(24)...... foot can change by as much as 8% during the course of the day. The system is able to
learn about the wearer's feet and (25)......up a picture of the size of his or her feet throughout the
day. It will allow the shoes to change in size by up to 8% so that they always fit (26)....... They
are obviously more comfortable and less likely to cause blisters. From an athlete's point of view,
they can help improve (27)......a little, and that is why the first (28).....for the system is likely to
be in a sports shoe. Eventually, this system will find a (29)......In many other household items,
from beds that automatically change to fit the person sleeping in them, to power tools that
(30)......themselves to the user's hand for better grip.
21. A. assortment B. version C. style D. variety
22. A. amplifies B. develops C. expands D. increases
23. A. detects B. finds C. meets D. faces
24. A. average B. general C. usual D. medium
25. A. build B. pick C. grow D. set
26. A. exactly B. absolutely C. completely D. totally
27. A. achievement B. performance C. success D. winning
28. A. purpose B. exercise C. use D. operation
29. A. function B. part C. way D. place
30. A. shape B. change C. respond D. convert
V. Câu 31-40: Chọn từ/ cụm từ thích hợp nhất (ứng với A, B, C hoặc D) để hoàn thành mỗi
câu sau.
31. Save your money. Don't.......it too quickly.
A. go through B. die down C. hold on D. touch on
32. They all have to follow the rules, and none of them is.......the law.
A. over B. beyond C. above D. onto
33. They.......the aid of the United States but did not receive it.
A. asked B. found C. sought D. obtained
34. The police spokesman said he was.......to believe that the arrested man was the serial killer
they had been looking for.
A. inclined B. seemed C. suspected D. supposed
35. I'm.......my brother is.
A. nowhere near as ambitious as B. nothing near as ambitious as
C. nowhere like so ambitious as D. nothing as ambitious as
36. He says he might come, but I........
A. doubt B. doubt it C. doubt so D. doubt about it
37. I'm sure your bank manager will lend you a.......ear when you explain the situation to him.
A. merciful B. sympathetic C. pitiful D. compassionate
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38. Have you seen the girl.......?
A. that I told B. I told you of C. whom I told you D. I told you of her
39. Children usually.......a flu much more quickly than adults.
A. pick up B. pick at C. pick on D. pick out
40. The accident.......was the mistake of the driver.
A. causing many people to die B. caused great human loss
C. to cause many people die D. which causes many people to die
VI. Câu 41-50: Sử dụng từ trong ngoặc ở dạng thích hợp nhất để điền vào các chỗ trống.
Shadow puppetry is a traditional art form that often goes (41. appreciate).......in modem times.
A large part of the (42. appealable).......of puppet shows is the (43. craft).......behind the creation
of the actual puppets. In shadow puppetry, on the other hand, the puppets remain (44. see).......,
screen, and the light itself creates the overall effect of the shadow puppet show. The task of the
director is to ensure these elements are working together (45. harmony).......in order to produce
the optimal experience for the audience. The screen is the medium through which the audience
experiences the performance, so selecting the best screen is among great (46. essential)........ One
unique challenge for the director is that the presentation is two-dimensional. The screen is flat, so
puppets can only move forwards and backwards. Having chosen a screen and designed the set,
the next step is to determine the light that will be used. There are several factors to be
considered: (47. intense)......., spread, and angle. Therefore, finding the optimal (48.
combine).......of light, shadow involves careful (49. plan)......and scrupulous design. Every detail
must be controlled in relation to others, making shadow puppetry an art of (50. precise).......
41. appreciated 42. appeal 43. craftiness 44. unseen 45. harmoniously
46. essentials 47. intensity 48. combination 49. planning 50. precision
VII. Câu 51-60: Tìm từ thích hợp nhất để điền vào chỗ trống trong đoạn văn. Mỗi chỗ
trống chỉ điền MỘT từ.
Son Doong Cave is in the heart of Phong Nha Ke Bang National Park in Quang Binh province
of Central Vietnam. Only recently (51).........in 2009-2010 by the British Cave Research
Association, the cave has only been open to the (52).........since 2013.
Fewer people have seen the inside of Son Doong Cave than have stood on the summit of
Mount Everest. Join us on this otherworldly expedition and become one of the lucky few
(53)......... have had the life changing experience of exploring the world's largest cave.
Imagine trekking straight into the (54).........of the world's largest cave on an expedition unlike
any other. A cave is (55).........massive that a Boeing 747 could fly through its largest cavern.
Foreign landscapes found (56) ......... else, enormous stalagmites rising from the ground and
statuesque stalactites hanging from the celling like an alien species. Jungles emerge (57).........the
cave itself, which is so surreal that it's worth seeing once. Misty clouds envelop the whole scene,
a result of the cave's own localised weather system. Passages adorned (58).........ancient fossils
offer evidence of the millions of years that have passed on this Earth.
As you approach the Jungle just outside the entrance, the (59) .......... of cool wind that cascades
out brings to life everything inside of you. Hazy, cold and exhilarating, it is apparent that there's
(60)..........magical waiting just beyond the opening to the cave.
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51. discovered 52. public 53. that / who 54. heart /centre 55. so 56. nowhere
57. outside 58. with 59. current / blowing 60. more
VIII Câu 61-70: Sử dụng từ cho sẵn trong ngoặc và các từ khác để hoàn thành câu thứ hai
sao cho ý nghĩa của nó tương tự như câu thứ nhất. Chỉ được viết từ 2 đến 5 từ vào Phiếu
Trả Lời và không được thay đổi dạng thức của từ cho sẵn.
61. Mary cried her eyes out just after she was told she'd been rejected for the Job. (broke)
Mary...............................as soon as she heard she'd been rejected for the job. broke down
62. I never thought that I would win the lottery. (occurred)
It never.................................................that I would win the lottery. occurred to
me
63. I failed to make him understand that I didnt want to see him anymore. (across)
I failed........................................that I didnt want to see him anymore. put it across
64. Would you give us your answer as soon as possible? (convenience)
Please reply................................................................... at your
convenience
65. I'm so sorry, I didn't realise it was so late. (track)
Sorry, I..................................................................time. didn’t follow the
track of (time)
66. Everyone who spoke to the victim is a suspect. (under)
Everyone who spoke to the victim................................................... is under suspicion
67. She will probably be chosen for the beauty contest. (stands)
She.........................................................chosen for the beauty contest. stands a chance of
being
68. "Can you tell me what happened yesterday, John?" She asked (account)
She asked John.....................................what had happened the day before. to account for
69. Those two makes of car are practically the same. (hardly)
There are...................................................those two makes of car. hardly any
differences between
70. There is no way that I can meet you tomorrow. (question)
Meeting you tomorrow........................................................... is out of the
question
IX. Câu 71-80: Viết lại các câu theo gợi ý (kể cả những từ bắt đầu câu cho sẵn) vào Phiếu
Trả Lời sao cho ý nghĩa ban đầu của câu không thay đổi.
71. It's sad, but the crime rate is unlikely to go down this year.
Sad as it is, the crime rate is unlikely to go down this year.
72. You must concentrate on your study more.
You must apply yourself with your study.
73. It has been nearly one year since they stopped subscribing to that magazine.
They cancelled subscribing to that magazine nearly a year ago.
74. I don't feel like going to the party.
I am not in the mood for going to the party.
75. "Please don't run so fast!" Suzy begged her friend.
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Suzy pleaded with her friend not to run so fast.
76. You should not only balance your diet but also do sports.
In addition to balancing your diet, you should do sports.
77. Immediately after their arrival, the meeting was delayed.
Barely had they arrived when the meeting was delayed.
pay on time, your booking will be cancelled.
Failure to pay on time will cancel your booking.
79. David is proud of the fact that he is never late.
David prides himself on being never late.
.
Nobody is to blame for the meeting being cancelled / for the cancel of the meeting.
X. Câu 81: Viết một ĐOẠN VĂN khoảng 120 - 150 từ, sử dụng lập luận và dẫn chứng cụ
thể để bình luận về chủ đề sau.
To be admitted to university, using the result of study during high school years is better than
that of the university entrance examination. Do you agree or disagree?
The End
ENGLISH PRACTICE 56
I. Choose one word whose stress pattern is different from the others.
6.
A. evaporate
B. temperature
C. impossible
D. experiment
7.
A. gravity
B. professor
C. pyramid
D. remedy
8.
A. abandon
B. discover
C. imagine
D. satisfy
9.
A. activity
B. epidemic
C. philosopher
D. significance
10.
A. picture
B. business
C. stranger
D. return
II. Choose from the four options given (marked A, B, C and D) one best answer to complete each
sentence.
6. He soon received promotion, for his superior realized that he was a man of
considerable__________.
A. opportunity B. ability C. possibility D. future
7. Take the number 7 bus and get__________ at Forest Road.
A. off B. up C. down D. outside
8. Some people think it is__________ to use long and little-known words.
A. sensitive B. clever C. intentional D. skilled
9. Don't touch the cat, he may__________ you.
A. scratch B. kick C. tear D. scream
10. These old houses are going to be__________ soon.
A. run down B. knocked out C. pulled down D. laid out
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11. The house is__________ at the corner of a busy street.
A. put B. stood C. placed D. situated
12. You must be careful when you wash this__________ silk blouse.
A. delicate B. weak C. feeble D. sensitive
13. The stolen jewels were__________ a lot of money.
A. worth B. priced C. valued D. cost
14. Would you be__________ to hold the door open?
A. too kind B. as kind C. kind enough D. so kind
15. He couldn't make the radio__________.
A. work B. to work C. working D. worked
16. I__________ do that if I were you.
A. won't B. don't C. shan't D. wouldn't
17. While studying he was financially dependent__________ his wife.
A. of B. to C. from D. on
18. He often__________ about his expensive car.
A. boasts B. shows C. prides D. praised
19. She isn't__________ well with the new manager.
A. going on B. getting on C. keeping on D. taking on
20. What do you mean, he's watching television? He's__________ to be washing the car.
A. hoped B. thought C. supposed D. expected
III. Supply the correct form of the words in brackets.
Forests from an integral component of the (21. SPHERE)_______ are essential to the
(22. STABILITY)_______ of global climate and the management of water and land. They are
home for (23. COUNT)_______ plants and animals that are vital elements of our life-supporting
systems, as well as for millions of forest (24. DWELL)_______ . They provide goods for direct
(25. CONSUME)_______ (including recreational activities) and land for food production. They
also represent capital when converted to shelter and (26. FRASTRUCTURE)_______ .
The two main types of forests are tropical, which are rich in (27. DIVERSITY)_______
and valuable tropical (28. WOOD)_______
source of industrial wood. The temperate forests (1.5 billion hectares) can be found mainly in
developed countries, whereas the tropical forests (both moist and dry, (29. TOTAL)_______
about 1.5 billion ha each) stretch across the developing world. Two thirds of the tropical moist
forests are in Latin America, with the (30. REMAIN)_______ split between Africa and Asia;
three quarters of the tropical dry forests are in Africa.
IV. Each sentence below has four underlined words or phrases marked A, B, C, D. Circle one
underlined word or phrase that must be changed in order for the sentence to be correct.
31. My father used to giving me some good advice whenever I had a problem.
A. a problem B. whenever C. some good D. giving
32. The woman of whom the red car is parked in front of the bank is a famous pop star.
A. is parked B. of whom the C. a famous pop star D. front of
33. The better you are at English, more chance you have to get a job with international
organizations.
A. a job B. better C. are at D. more chance
34. There are differences and similarities between Vietnamese and American culture.
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A. Vietnamese B. and similarities C. There are D. culture
35. Society will be having to change radically to keep pace with the technology available.
A. with B. Society C. available D. will be having
V. Each of the numbered lines in the passage contains a mistake, find and correct it.
VI. Read the following passage then choose the best answer from the four options (marked A,
B, C and D) to complete the numbered blanks in the passage.
Several years ago while I was visiting Athens for a few weeks, I decided to spend a
whole day on a nearby island. The weather (46)________ had predicted that it would be a
scorching hot day so (47)________ off early in the morning.
Even though I arrived at the port in plenty of time, I was forced to sit on the top
(48)________because other passengers who had got to the boat earlier filled the lower ones.
Soon after the boat had departed, somebody came round with raffle tickets. There were, as far as
I could make (49)________two prizes: a bag of fresh fish and several (50)________ of
chocolate. I bought a ticket, not expecting to win as I had never won anything in a raffle
(51)________.
Some time later the person who had sold the tickets announced the winning numbers. To
my great surprise, I had won the chocolate. I was naturally delighted, but (52)________how I
could prevent it from (853)________in the intense heat. Realizing that I could not possible eat it
all myself, I (54)________it with the passengers sitting near me. In return, they offered me
sandwiches and (55)________drinks.
All in all, it was a pleasant start to a memorable day with my new acquaintances.
46. A. prediction B. prophecy C. forecast D. foresight
47. A. went B. left C. departed D. set
48. A. deck B. layer C. floor D. storey
49. A. up B. out C. for D. over
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50. A. bars B. slices C. cartons D. packets
51. A. again B. before C. since D. already
52. A. thought B. questioned C. wondered D. regarded
53. A. dissolving B. liquefying C. melting D. spreading
54. A. separated B. divided C. distributed D. shared
55. A. soft B. light C. bubbly D. sparkling
VII. Read the following passage and then choose one word to fill in each blank.
MTV stands for Music Television. It's a television (56)________ dedicated to pop music.
It was (57)________ on 1
st
August 1981 in the United States. Because of MTV's instant success
in the US, the company expanded into other (58)________. MTV Europe (59)________
operating on 1
st
August 1987. MTV Europe (60)________ 24 hours a day from its London
studios. It can be seen in 33 countries and reaches an estimated (61)________ of 110 million
viewers.
People of 19 different nationalities work at London headquarters, and they try to offer a
(62) of music from all over Europe. The channel broadcasts in (63)________ but Germany
provides the biggest number of viewers. Currently, one fifth of the (64)________ is by German
artists.
Most of TV output is video and concerts, but there is also a programme (65)________
Unplugged, where major artists play live and acoustic in front of a small studio audience.
VIII. Choose from A, B, C, or D the one that best answers each of the questions in the following
passage.
The Stone Age was a period of history which began in approximately two million B.C
and lasted until 3000 B.C. Its name was derived from the stone tools and weapons that modern
scientists found. This period was divided into the Paleolithic, Mesolithic, and Neolithic Ages.
During the first period (2 million to 8000 B.C), the first hatchet and use of fire for heating
and cooking were developed. As a result of the Ice Age, which evolved about one million years
into the Paleolithic Age, people were forced to seek shelter in caves, wear clothing, and
developed new tools.
During the Mesolithic Age (8000 to 6000 B.C), people made crude pottery and the first
fish hooks, took dogs hunting, and developed the bow and arrow, which was used until the
fourteenth century A.D.
The Neolithic Age (6000 to 3000 B.C) saw humankind domesticating sheep, goats, pigs,
and cattle, being less nomadic than in previous eras, establishing permanent settlements, and
creating governments.
66. Into how many periods was the Stone Age divided?
A. two B. three C. four D. five
67. The word “derived” is closest meaning to___________.
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A. originated B. destroyed C. inferred D. discussed
68. Which of the following was developed earliest?
A. fish hook B. bow and arrow C. hatchet D. pottery
69. Which of the following developments is NOT related to the conditions of the Ice Age?
A. farming B. clothing C. living indoors D. using fire
70. The word “crude” is closest meaning to___________.
A. extravagant B. complex C. vulgar D. primitive
71. The author states that the Stone Age was so named because____________.
A. it was very durable like stone B. there was little vegetation
C. the stools and weapons was made of stone D. the people lived in stone caves
72. The word “nomadic” is closest meaning to___________.
A. sedentary B. wandering C. primitive D. inquisitive
73. The word “eras” is closest meaning to___________.
A. families B. periods C. herds D. tools
74. Which of the following best describes the Mesolithic Age?
A. people were inventive B. people were warriors
C. People stayed indoors all the time D. people were crude
75. With what subject is the passage mainly concerned?
A. The Neolithic Age B. The Stone Age C. The Ice Age D. The
Paleolithic Age
IX. Finish each of the following sentences in such a way that it means exactly the same as the
sentence printed before it.
Rather__________________________________________________.
.
78. I dislike it when people criticize me unfairly.
object_________________________________________________.
.
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80. I am having a lot of trouble now because I host my passport last week.
___________________________________________________.
81. When the police caught him, he was climbing over the garden wall.
.
___________________________________________________.
83. It is believed that the man escaped in a stolen car.
.
84. Since we had nothing else to do, we decided to go for a walk.
_______________________________________.
.
X. Writing an essay.
“Economic start-up projects among the young nowadays make us believe in a prosperous
future for the nation”.
What do you think of that matter? Write an essay of about 280- 300 words to support your
points.
____________THE END____________
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KEYS – PRACTICE 56
I. (5pts) 1 point/correct answer.
1. B
2. B
3. D
4. B
5. D
II.
15pts: 1pt/ item
6. B
7. A
8. B
9. A
10. C
11. D
12. A
13. A
14. C
15. A
16. D
17. D
18. A
19. B
20. C
III.
10pts: 1 point/correct answer.
21. biosphere
22. stabilization
23. countless
24. dwellers
25. consumption
26. infrastructure
27. biodiversity
28. hardwood
29. totally
30. Remainder
IV.
5pts: 1 point/correct answer.
31. D
32. B
33. D
34. D
35. D
V.
10pts: 1 point/correct answer.
36. Is → Does
37. feeling → feel
38. real → really
39. most → more
40. possibly → possible
41. provides → provide
42. is → are
43. confidently →
confident
44. Made → Make
45. opportunities →
opportunity
VI.
15pts: 1 point/correct answer.
46. C
47. D
48. A
49. B
50. A
51. B
52. C
53. C
54. D
55. A
VII.
15pts: 1 point/correct answer.
56. channel
57. born
58. areas
59. began/ started
60. broadcast
61. audience
62. mixture
63. English
64. music
65. called
VIII.
15pts: 1 point/correct answer.
66. B
67. A
68. C
69. A
70. D
71. C
72. B
73. B
74. A
75. B
IX. (10pts) 1 point/correct answer.
71.
72.
73.
74.
75.
76.
77.
78.
79.
than disturb the meeting, I left without saying goodbye.
would one see this problem so well- explained.
to people criticizing me unfairly.
(that) he had taken/accepted the job.
hadn’t lost my passport last week, I wouldn’t have been having so much trouble
now.
ce caught him (as he was) climbing over the garden wall.
though/as it is, unemployment is unlikely to go down this year.
believed to have escaped in a stolen car.
nothing else to do, we decided to go for a walk.
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X.
80.
refused to sleep in that haunted house.
Content: accounts for 50% of the total mark. To be given the maximum of 50% for the
content, the candidates should provide all main ideas and details as appropriate.
Language: accounts for 30% of the total mark. To be given the maximum of 30% for
language, the candidates should use variety of vocabulary and structures appropriate to the
level of English language high school students.
Presentation: accounts for 20% of the total mark. To be given the maximum of 20% for
presentation, the candidates should write with coherence, cohesion and can use
appropriate styles and linking devices
________THE END________
ENGLISH PRACTICE 57
Part A: phonetics
I: Pick out the word with the underlined part pronounced differently from the rest(5pts)
1. A. confide B. hobbies C. convince D. principle
2. A. kites B. sketches C. oranges D. buzzes
3. A. mountain B. pronounce C. country D. pounce
4. A. common B. conceited C. won D. terror
5. A. solution B. resolution C. success D. prosperity
II. Pick out the word that has the tress syllable different from that of the other words (5pts)
6. A. agency B. memory C. influence D. encounter
7. A. detective B. completely C. regional D. campaign
8. A. preservation B. dictation C. reservation D. liberation
9. A. preserve B. tropical C. climate D. temperature
10. A. advantage B. authority C. government D. intention
Part B : vocabulary and grammar
I. Choose the word or phrase (A, B, C or D) which best completes each sentence(15pts)
1. The school was closed for a month because of serious . . . . . . . . . . . . of fever.
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A. outcome B. outburst C. outset D. outbreak
ate for the interview, . . . . . . . . . . . . people will think you are a disorganized person.
A. unless B. otherwise C. if not D. or so
A. are used to B. used to C. used for D. all are correct
A. down with B. in for C. over D. through
A. to replace B. replace C. been replaced D. replaced
A. good B. use C. worth D. point
A. refusing B. regretting C. objecting D. resisting
A. cautious B. anxious C. worried D. nervous
rom his flowery tie.
A. but B. except C. other D. apart
A. accused B. blamed C. caused D. claimed
A. although B. provided C. as D. unless
A. forces B. gets C. enables D. warns
A. missed B. left C. let D. forgotten
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A. accused B. was accused C. accusing D. be accused
will turn up at the meeting
A. certain B. exact C. sure D. right
II. Put each verb in brackets into an appropriate form. (10pts)
2. Two miles ...(be) ... enough for her to go jogging every morning
3.
5. . (to be) in time
6. It is imperative that the letter (send) at once
7.
station
III. Put each word in brackets into an appropriate form. (10pts)
1. Tom spokebecause he was so excited. (BREATHE)
2. Do you ever suffer from (BORE)
3. Are there anyrivers left in the world? (POLLUTE)
4. This new film isgood. (EXCEPT)
5. Freedom ofis one of the fundamental rights. (SPEAK)
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6. After the explosion, only two people were left. (LIVE)
7. The evening wasspent playing and talking. (ENJOY)
8. Everyone has a number ofbut none has many true friends. (ACQUAINT)
9. There is a shortage of pure water in the city nowadays. We have to use it(ECONOMY)
roads. (ACCOMPANY)
IV. There is one mistake in each of the following sentences. Find and correct it.(10pts)
1. The King was too happy that he decided to build a pagoda of lotus shape over water.
2. If I knew you were coming , I would have met you at the airport.
3. Found in 1933, The New York Sun was the first successful penny newspaper.
4. For such an experience and able teacher , discipline was not a problem
5. Never before have so many people in the United States interested in soccer.
6. Keeping calmly is the secret of passing your driving test
7. They didnt seem to take any notice of that the teacher said.
8. Marie asked Sandra whether she knew the post office had been at strike for the past week
9. Nobody watched, so the little boy took the packet of sweets from the shelf and putting it in
his pocket.
10. More and more women are now joining the pay labor force worldly
Part C : Reading
I. Read the following passage and then choose the most suitable word or phrase for each
space(10pts)
Around the age of sixteen, you must make one of the biggest decisions of your life.
Do I stay on at school and hopefully go on to university (1)_____? Do I leave and start work or
beginning a training (2)_____ ?
The decision is yours, but it may be (3)_____ remembering two things: there is more
(5)_____ will have a big advantage in the competition for jobs. If you decide to go (6)_____ into
a job, there are many opportunities for training. Getting qualifications will (7)_____ you to get
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on more quickly in many careers, and evening classes allow you to learn (8)_____ you earn.
Starting work and taking a break to study when you are older is (9)_____ possibility . This way,
you can save up money for your student days, as well as (10)_____ practical work experience.
1. A. after B. later C. then D. past
2. A. school B. class C. course D. term
3. A. worth B. necessary C. important D. useful
4. A. between B. among C. with D. through
5. A. notes B. papers C. arts D. skills
6. A. straight B. just C. direct D. rather
7. A. make B. help C. let D. give
8. A. where B. while C. when D. what
9. A. also B. again C. another D. always
10. A. getting B. making C. taking D. doing
II. Fill in the gap with one suitable word to complete the paragraph(10pts)
Most of the addicts are men. They come home (1)work, eat their meal quickly, and
then spend the evening (2)their computers. Some of them (3)programs,
but most of them ay games. Some wises say computer is killing
their marriage. Their husbands play until three (6)four oclock in the morning and all
weekend. people (7)these lonely wives computer widows.
When television became popular in the 1950s, doctors said it caused television neck, TV
eyes and (8)new illnesses, and makes their eyes tired. But worst (9)all, it is
addictive. That means it is (10)drinking, smoking or taking drugs. Some people cant
stop doing it.
III. Read the passage and choose the best answers to questions below. (10pts)
If parents bring up a child with the sole aim of turning the child into a genius , they will cause a
disaster. According to several leading educational psychologists, this is one of the biggest
mistakes which ambitious parents make. Generally, the child will be only too aware of what his
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parents expect, and will fail. Unrealistic parental expectations can cause great damage to
children.
However, if parents are not too unrealistic about what they expect their children to do, but are
ambitious in a sensible way, the child may succeed in doing very well especially if the parents
are very supportive of their child. Michael Collins is very lucky. He is crazy about music, and
his parents help him a lot by taking him to concerts and arranging private piano and violin
lessons for him. They even drive him 50 kilometers twice a week for violin
mother knows very little about music, but his father plays the trumpet in a large orchestra.
However, he never makes Michael enter music competitions if he is unwilling. Winston Smith,
parents are successful musicians, and they
set too high a standard for Winston. They want their son to be as successful as they are and so
they enter him for every piano competition held. They are very unhappy when he does not win.
Winston is always afraid that he will disappoint his parents and now he always seems quiet and
unhappy.
1: One of the serious mistakes parents can make is to ______.
A. push their child into trying too much B. help their child to become a genius
C. make their child become a musician D.
2:
A. force their children into achieving success B. themselves have been very successful
C. understand and help their children sensibly D. arrange private lessons for their children
3: Who have criticized the methods of some ambitious parents?
A. Successful musicians. B. Unrealistic parents.
C. Their children. D. Educational psychologists.
4: Michael Collins is fortunate in that ______.
A. his father is a musician B. his parents are quite rich
C. his mother knows little about music D. his parents help him in a sensible way
5: The phrase "crazy about" in the passage mostly means ______.
A. "surprised at" B. "extremely interested in"
C. "completely unaware of" D. "confused about"
6:
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A. has won a lot of piano competitions B. cannot learn much music from them
C. has become a good musician D. is afraid to disappoint them
7: The word "They" in the passage refers to ______.
A. concerts B. violin lessons
C. parents in general
8: All of the following people are musical EXCEPT _____.
A. B.
C.
9: The word "unwilling" in the passage mostly means ______.
A. "getting ready to do something" B. "eager to do something"
C. "not objecting to doing anything" D. "not wanting to do something"
10: The two examples given in the passage illustrate the principle that ______.
A. successful parents always have intelligent children
B. successful parents often have unsuccessful children
C. parents should let the child develop in the way he wants
D.
Part D: writing
I. Finish the second sentence in such a way that it means the same meaning as the
sentence printed before it. (10pts)
1. He not only failed in his exam but also had a road accident
-
2. The book was so interesting that people couldnt put it down.
- It was ..........................................................................................................
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3. They had hardly left home when it started to rain.
- No sooner .....................................................................................................
4. Your hair needs cutting.
- Its about time you .......................................................................................
5. I only recognized him when he came into light.
- Not until
6. The only reason the party was a success was that a famous film star attended.
- Had it not
7. Everyone heard about the accident before I did.
- I was ...........................................................
8. Would you mind leaving your shoes outside?
-
9. The rail workers
- The rail workers have no..................................................... .....
10. We found that somebody had broken one of our windows
-
II. Write a second sentence as similar in meaning as the first one. Use the word given.(5pts)
1.I find his handwriting very hard to read (DIFFICULTY)
2. . I couldn't go to work because of the flood. (PREVENTED)
believe in anything that he says.(whatever)
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4. He prefers tea to coffee.(Rather)
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KEYS – PRACTICE 57
Mm
Part A
I. 1A, 2A, 3C, 4C, 5B
II. 1D, 2C, 3B,4A , 5C
Part B
I. 1D 2B 3B 4A 5D 6D 7A 8B 9C 10B11C12C13B14A15A
II.
should be sent
2. is 7. having been appointed (being appointed)
3. will be interviewing 8. will have finished
5. would have been 10. arrives
III.
1. breathlessly 2. boredom 3. unpolluted 4. exceptionally 5. speech
6. alive 7. enjoyably 8. acquaintances 9. economically 10. unaccompanied
IV. (tìm ra la l
1. too so 2. knew had known 3. found founded
4. experience experienced 5. interested - been interested
6. calmly calm 7. that what 8. at on
9. putting put 10. pay paid
Part C
I. 1B 2C 3A 4B 5D 6A 7B 8B 9C 10A
II. 1 from 2 on 3 make 4 only/just 5 the
6 or 7 call 8 other 9 of 10like
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III. 1A 2C 3D 4D 5B 6D 7D 8D 9D 10C
Part D
1. Not only did he fail in his exam but (he) also had a road accident
3. No sooner had they left home than it started to rain
5. Not until he came into light did I recognize him
6. Had it not been for the attendance of a famous film star, the party would not have been a
success
7. I was the last person to know/ hear about the accident
9. The rail workers have no intention of calling off their strike.
10. One of our windows was found to have been broken
II. 1. I have difficulty (in) reading his handwriting
2. The flood prevented me from going to work
5. This/ It is the most sarcastic essay that I have ever read
ENGLISH PRACTICE 58
I. Choose one word whose underlined part is pronounced differently from the others.
21.
A. candy
B. sandy
C. many
D. handy
22.
A. earning
B. learning
C. searching
D. clearing
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23.
A. pays
B. stays
C. says
D. plays
24.
A. given
B. risen
C. ridden
D. whiten
25.
A. cough
B. tough
C. rough
D. enough
II. Choose one word whose stress pattern is different from the others.
26.
A. eleven
B. elephant
C. energy
D. envelope
27.
A. preparation
B. decoration
C. television
D. exhibition
28.
A. leather
B. paper
C. iron
D. ceramics
29.
A. mirror
B. invent
C. wallet
D. engine
30.
A. discovery
B. calculator
C. aero-plane
D. difficulty
III. Fill each blank with a suitable word or phrase.
11. The car can't have broken down. I_________ serviced last week.
12. If I_________ in that situation, I certainly wouldn't have had the courage to do what you did.
13. Although he had a difficult time during the war, it_________ harm.
14. It's no_________ the cold and wet, you'll just have to put up with it.
15. I won't have_________ their cars in the street outside the entrance to my house!
16. In times of hardship we have to learn to do_________ some basic necessities.
17. I'm_________ death of spiders!
18. I heard the thunder_________ in the distance.
19. He's been_________ weather for ages and still isn't back at work.
20. We made the uniforms ourselves as we couldn't_________ made.
IV. Find one underlined part marked A, B, C, or D that needs correcting.
21. Musical comedies, as an American form of entertainment, often take its subjects from
or past. A B C
D
22. Of all seashore plants, seaweeds are best able to tolerate long periods out of water, followed
by long periods covering by water. A B C D
23. The fruit of the plantain looks much like a banana, and it is not so sweet or so pleasing in
flavor.
A B C D
24. The viceroy butterfly, an insect that birds like to eat, has a color pattern similar to that of the
monarch butterfly, whom birds do not like to eat. A B C
D
25. Behavior therapy uses rewards and punishments to encourage patients to act in a way
healthier.
A B C D
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V. Give the right form of the word in each blanket in the following passage.
From what we had read in the (26. ADVERTISE)________, it promise to be the holiday
of a lifetime not only a quality hotel in a top (27. SEA)_________ resort, but also (28.
SURPRISE)_________ cheap with it! We should have known it was too good to be true! We
arrived at the airport to discover we only had (29. STAND)_________ tickets and there was no
guarantee we would be flying. Luckily, two places became free at the last minute and we took
off. The flight lasted at least (30. TWO)_________ as long as it should have and by the time we
arrived, we were both feeling rather (31. POOR)_________ , probably because of the dubious in-
flight meal we had had. We were met by our guide, who seemed (32. LANGUAGE)_________
incompetent and understood very little of what we said to him. Instead of the hotel we had seen
in the photograph back home, he took us to a squalid little guesthouse much (33.
FAR)_________ away from the resort than we were expecting. We wanted to explain that there
had been a (34. DREAD)_________ mistake but it was (35. USE)_________ trying to complain
nobody could understand us.
VI. Choose among A, B, C, or D the one that best fits each of the blanks.
36. The child was told to__________ for being rude to his uncle.
A. forgive B. apologize C. excuse D. confess
37. This is the__________ of the bicycle which was stolen.
A. information B. detail C. example D. description
38. Some drives, after__________ annoy their fellow-motorists by slowing down again
immediately.
A. passing along B. passing by C. overtaking D. taking over
39. It is__________ unlikely that the Queen agree to open the new Town Hall.
A. greatly B. highly C. mainly D. largely
40. I don't think he'll ever__________ the shock of his wife's death.
A. get by B. get over C. get off D. get through
41. Some school have very__________ rules of behavior which must be obeyed.
A. strict B. strong C. straight D. solid
42. It was difficult to__________ a date which was convenient for everyone.
A. organize B. arrange C. elect D. provide
43. It's difficult to pay one's bills when prices keep__________.
A. growing B. raising C. rising D. gaining
44. You may not have to stay the night but take a toothbrush just in__________.
A. preparation B. case C. time D. order
45. She remembered the correct address only__________ she had posted the letter.
A. since B. following C. after D. afterwards
VII. Choose from A, B, C, or D the one that best fits each of the blanks in the following
passage.
The Internet bus
In the desert areas that surround Tucson city, USA, students spend hundreds of hours on
yellow buses each year getting to and from their schools. But when mobile internet equipment
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was (46)____________ on a yellow school bus, the bored, often noisy, teens were transformed
into quiet, studious individuals.
District officials got the idea during (47)____________ drives on school business to
Phoenix, two hours each way, when they (48)____________ that, when they went in pairs, one
person could drive and the other could work using a laptop and a wireless card. They
academic productivity, too.
But the idea for what students ca
chief information officer (51)____________ across an article about having internet across in
The officials have been delighted to see the (52)____________ of homework getting
done, morning and evening, as the internet bus (53)____________ up and drops off students
along the 70-minute drive. (54)____________ some students spend their time playing games or
visiting social networking sites, most students do make (55)____________ their travel time to
study.
46. A. installed B. set C. included D. structured
47. A. extraordinary B. occasional C. exceptional D. few
48. A. believed B. acknowledged C. estimated D. realised
49. A. thought B. imagined C. suspected D. wondered
50. A. increase B. enlarge C. rise D. heighten
51. A. got B. looked C. came D. put
52. A. total B. amount C. number D. measure
53. A. brings B. picks C. rides D. catches
54. A. Since B. Despite C. Although D. However
55. A. progress B. work C. use D. part
VIII. Fill in each blank with ONE suitable word.
TRAVEL INSURANCE
When going on holiday, it is always a good idea to take out travel insurance. This is just
in case something goes (56)________ along the way. You could lose your luggage, you could be
robbed, or even become ill and need expensive medical treatment. For millions of holiday
makers, travel insurance is just a precaution (57)________ will help them have an enjoyable and
worry-free holiday. But for (58)________, travel insurance is a way of earning money
(59)________ making false claims against insurance companies. For (60)________ some people
pretend that they have had expensive equipment stolen which in (61)________ never even
existed, and then claim large sums in compensation. Such claims cost insurance company a total
(62)________ ________.
(64)________ to a new computer system, companies will be able to tell at a glance
(65)________ someone has made a claim within the last three years. Honest travelers will no
IX. Choose from A, B, C, or D the one that best answers each of the questions in the following
passage.
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A pilot cannot fly by sight alone. In many conditions, such as flying at night and landing
in dense fog, a pilot must use radar, an alternative way of navigating. Since human eyes are not
very good at determining speeds of approaching objects, radar can show a pilot how fast nearby
planes are moving. The basic principle of radar is exemplified by what happens when one shouts
in a cave. The echo of the sounds against the walls helps a person determine the size of the cave.
With radar, however, the waves are radio waves instead of sound waves. Radio waves travel at
the speed of light, about 300,000 kilometers in one second. A radar set sends out a short burst of
radio waves. Then it receives the echoes produced when the waves bounce off objects. By
determining the time it takes for the echoes to return to the radar set, a trained technician can
determine the distance between the radar set a
distance between an object and the radar set. Besides being of critical importance to pilots, radar
is essential for air traffic control, tracking ships at sea, and for tracking weather systems and
storms.
66. What is the main topic of this passage?
A. The nature of radar. B. History of radar.
C. Alternatives to radar. D. Types of ranging.
67. According to the passage, what can radar detect besides location of objects?
A. Shape B. Size C. Speed D. Weight
exemplified
D.
shouts
70. Which of the following words best describes the tone of this passage?
A. argumentative B. explanatory C. humorous D. imaginative
71. According to the passage, the distance between a radar set and an object can be determined
by_________.
A. the time it takes for a burst of radio waves to produce echoes when the waves bounce
off the object
B. the te
set
C. the time it takes for the radio waves to produce echoes and bounce off the object
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D. the time it takes for the echoes produced by the radio waves to return to the radar set
72. Which type of waves does radar use?
A. tidal B. sound C. heat D. radio
tracking
A. sending B. searching for C. ranging D. repairing
74. Which of the following would most likely be the topic of the next paragraph?
A. A history of flying. B. Other uses of radar.
C. The technology used by pilots. D. Uses of some technology.
75. What might be inferred about radar?
A. It takes the place of a radio. B. It has improved navigational safety.
C. It was developed from a study of sound waves.
D. It gave birth to the invention of the airplane.
X. Finish the second sentence so that it means the same as the first one, using the word in
capital letters which must not be altered in any way.
76. You should think about the price before you decide whether to buy it or not.
(consideration)
arge engines any more. (call)
78. Twenty years ago this region produced twice as much coal as it does now.
(halved)
79. The prime minister in unlikely to call an early general election. (likelihood)
80. The policeman acted quickly and averted an accident. (prompt)
XI. Rewrite each of the sentences without changing its meaning, using the cue given.
81
82. House prices have risen dramatically this year.
_______________________________________________.
_______________________________.
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85. She started to clean up the house just after the guests had left.
XII. Writing an essay.
“Soft-skills are more and more needed for future jobs”.
What do you think of that matter? Write an essay of about 280- 300 words to support your
points.
____________THE END____________
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KEY – PRACTICE 58
I.
(5pts) 1 pt/correct answer.
II. (5pts) 1 pt/correct answer.
1. C
2. D
3. C
4. D
5. A
6. D
7. C
8. D
9. B
10. A
III.
(10pts) 1 pt/correct answer.
11. only had it
12. had been
13. did him no/ did not
(seem to) do him any
14. good/ use grumbling/
complaining about
15. people parking
16. without
17. frightened/ scared to
18. rumbling
19. under the
20. afford to have them
IV.
(5pts) 1 pt/correct answer.
21. C
22. D
23. B
24. D
25. D
V.
(10pts) 1 pt/correct answer.
26. advertisement
27. seaside
28. surprisingly
29. standby
30. twice
31. poorly
32. linguistically
33. farther/ further
34. dreadful
35. useless
VI.
(10pts) 1 pt/correct answer.
36. B
37. D
38. C
39. B
40. B
41. A
42. B
43. C
44. B
45. C
VII.
(10pts) 1 pt/correct answer.
46. A
47. B
48. D
49. D
50. A
51. C
52. B
53. B
54. C
55. C
VIII.
(10pts) 1 pt/correct answer.
56. wrong
57. which
58. other/ some
59. by
60. example/ instance
61. fact
62. of
63. out
64. Thanks
65. whether/ if
IX.
(10pts) 1 pt/correct answer.
66. A
67. C
68. C
69. B
70. B
71. D
72. D
73. B
74. B
75. B
X. (5pts) 1 point/correct answer.
XI.
76.
77.
78.
79.
80.
81.
You should take the price into consideration before you decide whether to buy it or not.
much call for cars with large engines any more.
The coal produced in this region has been halved in the 20 years.
The likelihood is small of the PM calling an early general election.
prompt action averted an accident.
(5pts) 1 point/correct answer.
been for my father’s money, we could not have managed.
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XII.
82.
83.
84.
85.
been a dramatic rise/increase in the house prices this year.
everything except for/but/apart from the television.
to search for the stolen car.
had the guests left than she started to clean up the house.
Content: accounts for 50% of the total mark. To be given the maximum of 50% for the
content, the candidates should provide all main ideas and details as appropriate.
Language: accounts for 30% of the total mark. To be given the maximum of 30% for
language, the candidates should use variety of vocabulary and structures appropriate to the
level of English language high school students.
Presentation: accounts for 20% of the total mark. To be given the maximum of 20% for
presentation, the candidates should write with coherence, cohesion and can use
appropriate styles and linking devices
___________THE END__________
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Đề thi Tuyển sinh lớp 10 chuyên Tiếng Anh
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Đề thi chọn HSG Tiếng Anh từ lớp 9 đến lớp 12 cấp trường, quận/ huyện, tỉnh/ thành phố
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