Top 50 Đề thi học sinh giỏi Tiếng Anh lớp 12 (có đáp án)

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Bảng A

SỞ GDĐT BẠC LIÊU KỲ THI CHỌN HSG LỚP 12 VÒNG TỈNH

NĂM HỌC 2011 - 2012

(Gồm 12 trang)

(Không kể trang phách)

* Môn thi: TIẾNG ANH (BẢNG A)

* Ngày thi: 05/11/2011

* Thời gian: 180 phút (Không kể thời gian giao đề)

Điểm

Chữ ký GK 1

Chữ ký GK 2

Mã phách

Bằng số

Bằng chữ

ĐỀ

(Thí sinh làm bài trực tiếp trên đề thi)

Part A. LISTENING

I. Listen to Amanda talking to a friend about a birthday party. For each question, circle the best

answer (A, B, C). You will hear the conversation twice. (0) is as an example. (1 point)

Example:

0. How many people can come to the party?

A. 8 B. 11 C.18

1. Which ice cream will they have at the party?

A. coffee B. lemon C. apple

2. What is broken?

A. the CD player B. the cassette recorder C. the guitar

3. Whose birthday is it?

A. Emma's B. Joan's C. Amanda's sister's

4. What present has Amanda bought?

A. a camera B. a video C. a football

5. What time should people arrive at the party?

A. 8 p.m. B. 8.30 p.m. C. 9.30 p.m.

II. Complete the notes below. Write NO MORE THAN TWO WORDS AND / OR A

NUMBER for each answer. You will hear twice. (2 points)

West Bay Hotel - details of job

Example Answer

• Newspaper advert for …

te

…

mp

…

or

…

ar

…

y

.. staff

• Vacancies for (1) ..................................

• Two shifts

• Can choose your (2) ................................... (must be the same each week)

CHÍNH THỨC

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• Pay: £5.50 per hour, including a (3) ..................................

• A (4) ...............................is provided in the hotel

• Total weekly pay: £231

• Dress: a white shirt and (5) .................................. trousers (not supplied)

a (6) ................................ (supplied)

• Starting date: (7) ....................................

• Call Jane (8) ..................................(Service Manager) before (9) ...........................

tomorrow (Tel: 832009)

• She'll require a (10) ………......................

Part B. LEXICO AND GRAMMAR

I. Circle the best answer (A, B, C, or D) to complete each unfinished sentence. (1 point)

1. I love this painting of an old man. He has such a …………….. smile.

A. childhood B. childish C. childless D. childlike

2. You’d better leave for the airport now ………….. there’s a lot of traffic on the way.

A. in fact B. in time C. in order D. in case

3. I would like to thank you, …………… my colleagues, for the welcome you have given us.

A. on account of B. on behalf of C. because of D. instead of

4. The poor child was in floods of …………………because his bicycle had been stolen.

A. weeping B. tears C. crying D. unhappiness

5. The soldier was punished for ……………. to obey his commanding officer’s orders.

A. refusing B. regretting C. objecting D. resisting

6. She ………… her husband’s job for his ill health.

A. accused B. blamed C. caused D. claimed

7. It’s time we ………….. this old car and bought a new one.

A. will B. had sold C. have sold D. sold

8. The project was rejected because of ………….. funds.

A. unavailable B. inconsiderable C. incomplete D. insufficient

9. Please leave this space ………… on the enrolment form.

A. absent B. blank C. missing D. undone

10. You shouldn’t have criticized him in front of his friends. It was extremely ……….. of you.

A. unfortunate B. insensitive C. insensible D. unconscious

11. Phone me before ten; ……………. I’ll be too busy to talk to you.

A. unless B. whether C. otherwise D. if

12. According to the ………… of the contract, tenants must give six months’ notice if they

intend to leave.

A. laws B. rules C. terms D. details

13. The injured man was taken to hospital and ………… for internal injuries.

A. cured B. healed C. operated D. treated

14. The door hinges had all been oiled to stop them ……………

A. squeaking B. screeching C. shrieking D. squealing

15. Mary attempted to …………… herself with her new boss by volunteering to take on extra

work.

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A. gratify B. please C. ingratiate D. commend

16. You are under no obligation ………… to accept this offer.

A. indeed B. eventually C. apart D. whatsoever

17. Wasn’t it you yourself ……….. the door open?

A. to be left B. were left C. who left D. that should leave

18. If only motorists …………. drive more carefully!

A. must B. shall C. would D. will

19. It is regretted that there can be no …………… to this rule.

A. exclusion B. alternative C. exception D. deviation

20. Complete the form as …………… in the notes below.

A. insisted B. specified C. implied D. devised

II. In the passage below some lines are correct but some have a word that should not be

there. Indicate the correct lines with a tick (√). For the incorrect lines, write the words that

should not be there. (1 point)

1 .................. Many species of animals, birds and even that insects are in danger

2 ………….. of disappearing from the earth off. Every day construction in

3 ………….. the rainforests destroys the habitats of these creatures. They

4 ………….. cannot survive in other environments. They rely on about the food

5 ………….. and shelter being in their own habitats. Each time a habitat is

6 ………….. destroyed, the animals must have search for a new place. Luckily,

7 ………….. there are some people who they are doing something about this

8 ………….. situation. Animal protection societies are helping for the world

9 ………….. to learn more than about endangered species. When people know

10 ………… more, they can fight to protect and save the animals.

III. Choose the right tenses to complete the following passage. (1 point)

Traditionally, universities (1.carry out) ........................... two main activities: research and

teaching. Many academics would argue that both these activities play a critical role in serving the

community. The fundamental question, however, is: how does the community want or need (2.

serve) ...........................?

In recent years, universities have been coming under (3.increase) ...........................

pressure from both governments and the public (4.ensure) ........................... that they do not

remain “ivory towers” of study divorced from the realities of everyday life. University teachers

(5.encourage) ..........................., and in some cases constrained, to provide more courses which

produce graduates with the technical skills (6. require) ........................... for the commercial

sector and research that has practical benefits which are commercially exploitable. If Aristotle

(7.want) ........................... to work in a tertiary institution in the UK today, he would have a good

chance of teaching computer science but would not be so readily employable as a philosopher.

A post-industrial society (8. require) ........................... large numbers of computer

programmers, engineers, managers and technicians to maintain and develop its economic growth

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but man, as the Bible says “does not live by bread alone”. Apart from requiring medical and

social services which do not directly contribute to economic growth, it (9.be) ........................... an

impoverished society that did not value and enjoy literature, music and the arts. In these cost-

conscious times, it even (10.point out) ........................... in justification for the funding of the

arts that they can be useful money earners. A successful musical, for instance, can contribute as

much to the Gross Nation Product through tourist dollars as any other export initiative.

IV. Use the correct form of the word in capitals to fit each gap. (1 point)

Interviews are an imperfect method of choosing the best people

for jobs, yet human (1) ...........................like to examine each other in BE

this way. One of the many problems of (2) ...........................as it is SELECT

commonly practised is that the forms filled in by (3) ........................... APPLY

often fail to show people as they really are. This means that you can

follow all the best (4) ........................... when completing your form and ADVISE

still find that you are (5) ........................... at the next stage - the interview. SUCCESS

(6) ..........................., in the rare cases where interviewers are automatic, a SIMILAR

candidate with an (7) ........................... form may do surprisingly well. ADEQUATE

Of course, your forms need to show that you have (8) ........................... CONFIDENT

in your (9) ........................... to do the job, but don’t try to turn yourself ABLE

into someone else – a person you have to pretend to be at the

interview. Realism and (10) ........................... are definitely the best HONEST

approach.

V. Choose the correct prepositional phrase from the box to complete the following

sentences. You may not use one phrase. (1 point)

on good terms

independent of

tired of

out of tune

ashamed of

on the whole

capable of

at most

for safe keeping

out of order

for a change

1. She was .................................... her poor exam results.

2. He gave his watch and wallet to me ................................. while he went for a swim in the lake.

3. You are ........................................ better work than this.

4. The piano is ........................................ again. It sounds terrible.

5. She is old enough to be ........................................ her parents.

6. Despite many disagreements, they’re now ........................................with their next-door

neighbours.

7. I’m ..........................................doing the same thing every day.

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8. There weren’t many passengers on the bus – twelve ........................................... .

9. Parts of the play were boring, but ......................................... I quite enjoyed.

10. You’ll have to use the stairs. The lift is ...........................................

VI. Insert a, an or the if necessary. Write  if there is no article. (1 point)

In (1)………….. summer of 1907, I was living in (2) …………..little cottage in (3)

………….. country, at (4) …………..small distance from (5) ………….. sea. Half (6)

………….. mile from my cottage there was (7) …………..school, The Grables, where Harold

Stackhurst, (8) ………….. headmaster, and several other teachers taught students and prepared

them for various professions.

Stackhurst and I went on friendly terms and he was (9) …………..only man in

………….. (10) neighbourhood who sometimes called at my cottage.

PART C. READING

I. Read the following passage. Circle the best answers (A, B, C or D) to complete the

passage. (1 point)

Smoking causes lung cancer, heart disease, and breathing problems. Worldwide, about

three million people die every year because of smoking - that's about one ....(1)...... every ten

seconds ! In fact, smoking is the ....(2)...... of almost 20 percent of all deaths in the developed

countries of the world. Smoking doesn't just ....(3)...... the smoker, it hurts other people, too.

When a pregnant ....(4)...... smokes, she is hurting her developing....(5)....... When a man

.....(6)...... at home, his wife and children are also breathing in smoke and can become sick. Even

though most people understand the ....(7)....... effects of smoking, they continue to smoke. The

...(8).....of women and teenagers who smoke is increasing. Cigarette companies make

advertisements that.....(9).......these groups of people so that they...(10)....to buy cigaretes.

1. A. death

B. end

C. loss

D. decrease

2. A. origin

B. reason

C. cause

D. basis

3. A. injure

B. danger

C. destroy

D. hurt

4. A. child

B. man

C. woman

D. wife

5. A. baby

B. children

C. love

D. youth

6. A. relax

B. enjoy

C. cigarettes

D. smokes

7. A. beneficial

B. harmful

C. harmed

D. profitable

8. A. number

B. amount

C. quantity

D. total

9. A. interest

B. concern

C. matter

D. worry

10. A. retain

B. maintain

C. continue

D. preserve

II. Read the passage below. Then circle the best option (A, B, C or D) to answer each

question. (1 point)

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Rachel Carson was born in 1907 in Springsdale, Pennsylvania. She studied biology at

college and zoology at Johns Hopkins University, where she received her master’s degree in

1933. In 1936, she was hired by the U.S. Fish and Wildlife Service, where she worked most of

her life.

Carson’s first book, Under the Sea Wind, was published in 1941. It received excellent

reviews, but sales were poor until it was reissued in 1952. In that year, she published The Sea

Around Us, which provided a fascinating look beneath the ocean’s surface, emphasizing human

history as well as geology and marine biology. Her imaginary and language had a poetic quality.

Carson consulted no less than 1,000 printing sources. She had voluminous correspondence and

frequent discussions with experts in the field. However, she always realized the limitations of her

non-technical readers.

In 1962, Carson published Silent Spring, a book that sparked considerable controversy. It

proved how much harm was done by the uncontrolled, reckless use of insecticides.She detailed

how they poisoned the food supply of animals, killed birds and fish, and contaminated human

food. At the time, spokesmen for the chemical industry mounted personal attacks against Carson

and issued propaganda to indicate that her findings were flawed. However, her work was

vindicated by a 1963 report of the President’s Science Advisory Committee.

1.The passage mainly discusses Rachel Carson’s work

A. as a researcher B. at college

C. at the U.S. Fish and Wildlife Service D. as a writer

2. According to the passage, what did Carson primarily study at Johns Hopkins University?

A. oceanography B. history

C. literature D. zoology

3. When she published her first book, Carson was closest to the age of

A. 26 B. 29 C. 34 D. 35

4. It can be inferred from the passage that in 1952, Carson’s book Under the Sea Wind

A. was outdated.

B. became more popular than her other books.

C. was praised by critics.

D. sold many copies.

5. Which of the following was Not mentioned in the passage as a source of information for The

Sea Around Us?

A. printed matter B. talks with experts

C. a research expedition D. letters from scientists

6. Which of the following words or phrases is LEAST accurate in describing The Sea Around

Us?

A. highly technical B. poetic

C. fascinating D. well-researched

7.The word “reckless” is closest in meaning to

A. unnecessary B. limited

C. continuous D. irresponsible

8. According to the passage, Silent Spring is primarily

A. an attack on the use of chemical preservatives in food.

B. a discussion of the hazards insects posing to the food supply.

C. a warning about the dangers of misusing insecticides.

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Bảng A

D. an illustration of the benefits of the chemical industry.

9. The word “flawed” is closest in meaning to

A. faulty B. deceptive C. logical D. offensive

10. Why does the author of the passage mention the report of the President’ s Science Advisory

Committee?

A. To provide an example of government propaganda.

B. To support Carson’s ideas.

C. To indicate a growing government concern with the environment.

D. To validate the chemical industry’s claims.

III. Read the text below carefully and then do the following exercises. (1 point)

Testing 1, 2, 3, …

A. These are testing times. In both education and the field of work, the prevailing wisdom apears

to be: if it moves, test it and if doesn’t, well, test it anyway. I say wisdom, but it has become

rather an absession. In addition to the current obstacles, like GCSEs, A-levels, GNVQs, ONDs,

and HNDs, not to mention the interviews and financial hurdles that school-leavers have to

overcome in order to access higher education, students are facing the threat of “new tests”,

Scholastic Aptitude Tests (SATs)

B. SATs are being imported from the United States, where they have been in use for nearly a

hundred years. As a supplement to A-levels, the tests purport to give students from poor

backgrounds a better chance of entering university. SATs are intended to remove the huge social

class bias that exists in British universities. But, in fact, they are, no more than an additional

barrier for students. The tests, which masquerade as IQ tests, are probably less diagnostic of

student potential than existing examinations, and, more seriously, are far from free of the bias

that the supporters pretend.

C. First of all, as for any other tests, students will be able to take classes to cram for SATs, which

again will advantage the better-off. At a recent conference of the Prefessional Association of

Teachers, it was declared that school exams and tests are biased toward middle-class children.

Further, the content of the tests in question is not based on sound scientific theory, merely on a

pool of Multiple Choice Questions (MCQs), set up by a group of item writers.

D. The questions in SATs are tested on a representative sample of children. Those which

correlate with the school grades of the children are kept, and the rest discarded. This is highly

unsatisfactory. There is also evidence that in MCQs tests women are at a disadvantage, because

of the way they think, i.e. they can see a wider picture. And it is worth noting that MCQs are

only as good as the people who write them; so, unless the writers are highly trained, those who

are being tested are being judged against the narrow limitations of the item writers.

E. Globalisation has introduced greater flexibility into the workplace, but the educational system

has not been so quick off the mark. But there are signs that times are a changing. Previously,

students took exams at the end of academic terms, or at fixed dates periodically throughout the

year. Now, language examinations like the TOEFL, IELTs and the Pitman ESOL exams can be

taken much more frequently. The IELTs examination, for example, is run a test centre

throughout the world subject to demand. Where the demand is high, the test is held more

frequently. At present, in London, it is possible for students to sit the exam about four times a

week.

F. Flexible assessment like the IELTs has been mooted in other areas. It has been suggested that

the students may in future be able to walk into a public library or other public building and take

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Bảng A

assessment test for a range of skills on a computer. The computer will dispense an instant

assessment and a certificate. The beauty of this system is the convenience.

Questions 1 – 5: This reading passage has 6 paragraphs (A-F). Choose the most suitable

heading for each paragraph from the list of headings below. Write the appropriate number

(1-10) next to the paragraph. One of the headings has been done for you.

Note: There are more headings than paragraphs, so you will not use all of them.

YOU MAY USE ANY HEADING MORE THAN ONCE

0. Paragraph A 9

Paragraph D

Paragraph B

Paragraph E

Paragraph C

Paragraph F

List of Headings

1. Assessment in the future

2. The theory behind MCQs

3. Problem with SATs

4. Misuse of testing in School

5. The need for computer assessment

6. The benefits of SATs

7. Testing in workplace

8. The sortcoming of MCQs

9. Too much testing

10. Flexibility in language tesing

Question 6- 10: Read the passage again and then decide whether the following statements

agree with the information in the Reading or not. Write:

Yes if the statement agrees with the information in the passage.

No if the statement contradicts the information in the passage

No Information if there is no information about the statement in the passage.

Example:

0. SATs is the abbreviation of Scholastic Aptitude Tests .

Answer: Yes

6. In the fields of education and work the prevailing wisdom seems to be to test everything.

7. Research in genetics refutes the theory that people are predestined to follow certain careers.

8. Psychometric testing is favoured by headmaster and mistresses in many high schools.

9. The writer of this article is in favour of testing in general.

10. According to the writer, students get benefits from SATs

Your answer

6. 7. 8. 9. 10.

IV. You are going to read an article about the Beatles Band. Ten sentences or phrases have

been removed from the article. Choose from the sentences or phrases A- J the one which

fits each gap (1-10). (1 point)

The Beatles were an English rock band, active throughout the 1960s and………….. (1)

…………... Formed in Liverpool, by 1962 the group consisted of John Lennon (rhythm guitar,

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Bảng A

vocals), Paul McCartney (bass guitar, vocals), George Harrison (lead guitar, vocals) and Ringo

Starr (drums, vocals). Rooted in skiffle and 1950s rock and roll…………..(2) …………... The

nature of their enormous popularity, which first emerged as "Beatlemania", transformed as their

songwriting grew in sophistication. They came to be perceived as the embodiment of ideals of

the social and cultural revolutions of the 1960s.

Initially a five-piece line-up of Lennon, McCartney, Harrison, Stuart Sutcliffe (bass) and Pete

Best (drums), ………….. (3) …………... Sutcliffe left the group in 1961, ………….. (4)

…………... Moulded into a professional outfit by their manager, Brian Epstein, their musical

potential was enhanced by the creativity of producer George Martin. ………….. (5) …………...

Gaining international popularity and acquiring the nickname "Fab Four" the following year,

they toured extensively until 1966. During their subsequent "studio years", they produced what

critics consider some of their finest material including the album Sgt. Pepper's Lonely Hearts

Club Band (1967), ………….. (6) …………... After their break-up in 1970, the band members

all found success in independent musical careers. ………….. (7) …………... McCartney and

Starr remain active.

The Beatles are the best-selling band in history, ………….. (8) …………... They have had more

number one albums on the UK charts, ………….. (9) …………... According to the RIAA, they

have sold more albums in the United States than any other artist, and they headed Billboard

magazine's list of all-time top Hot 100 artists in 2008. They have received 7 Grammy Awards

from the American National Academy of Recording Arts and Sciences and 15 Ivor Novello

Awards from the British Academy of Songwriters, Composers and Authors. ………….. (10)

…………...

A. They were collectively included in Time magazine's compilation of the 20th century's 100

most influential people.

B. the group later worked in many genres ranging from pop ballads to psychedelic rock, often

incorporating classical and other elements in innovative ways.

C. and Best was replaced by Starr the following year.

D. They achieved mainstream success in the United Kingdom in late 1962, with their first single,

"Love Me Do".

E. Lennon was murdered outside his home in New York City in 1980, and Harrison died of

cancer in 2001.

F. one of the most commercially successful and critically acclaimed acts in the history of popular

music.

G. they built their reputation playing clubs in Liverpool and Hamburg over a three-year period

from 1960

H. which was widely regarded as a masterpiece.

I. and they have held the top spot longer than any other musical act.

J. and over four decades after their break-up, their recordings are still in demand.

Your answer:

1.

2.

3.

4.

5.

6.

7.

8.

9.

10.

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Bảng A

PART D. WRITING

I. Rewrite the following sentences, so that their meaning stay the same, using the exact

words given. (1 point)

1. He stood no chance of passing his exams. INEVITABLE

……………………………………………………………………………………….

2. I am sure that he missed the eleven o’clock train. CAN’T

……………………………………………………………………………………….

3. Not a word came out of her mouth. LOST

……………………………………………………………………………………….

4. I am not a solitary person, I’m sociable. RATHER

……………………………………………………………………………………….

5. You cannot choose which hotel you stay at on this package holiday. OPTION

……………………………………………………………………………………….

6. I certainly won’t change my mind about resigning. QUESTION

……………………………………………………………………………………….

7. You couldn’t do anything more stupid than to give up your job now. HEIGHT

……………………………………………………………………………………….

8. I really don’t know what you are talking about. FAINTEST

……………………………………………………………………………………….

9. I have hardly done anything today. NEXT

……………………………………………………………………………………….

10. Many people will congratulate her if she wins. SHOWERED

……………………………………………………………………………………….

II. The table below shows the consumer durables (telephones, refrigerators…) owned in the

country of Paraland from 1998 to 2005. Write a report describing the information shown

below.

You should write at least 150 words. (2 points)

Consumer durables

1998

1999

2000

2001

2002

2003

2004

2005

Percentage of

households with:

Televisions

93

94

95

96

97

98

Videos

18

20

22

25

30

Washing machines

37

40

43

50

55

60

65

70

Vacuum cleaners

65

68

72

73

75

77

79

Dish washers

26

28

30

32

33

35

Refrigerators

60

62

68

70

73

75

78

85

Telephones

42

50

54

60

66

75

80

92

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Bảng A

........................................................................................................................................................

Page

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Bảng A

III. Some people think that family is the most important influence on young adults. Other

people think that friends are the most important influence on young adults. Which view do

you agree with? Use examples to support your opinion.

You should write at least 250 words. (3points)

........................................................................................................................................................

---HẾT---

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Bảng A

SỞ GDĐT BẠC LIÊU KỲ THI CHỌN HSG LỚP 12 VÒNG TỈNH

NĂM HỌC 2011 - 2012

(Gồm 04 trang)

*

Môn thi: TIẾNG ANH (BẢNG A)

* Ngày thi: 05/11/2011

*

Thời gian: 180 phút (Không kể thời gian giao đề)

HƯỚNG DẪN CHẤM

Part A. LISTENING

I.

1.0p. Each correct answer gets 0.2p

1. C 2. A 3. A 4. B 5. B

II.

2.0ps. Each correct answer gets 0.2p

1.

waiter(s) 2. day off 3. break 4. (free) meal 5. dark (coloured/colored)

6.

jacket 7. 28 June 8. Urwin 9. 12.00 (pm)/noon/mid-day 10. reference

Part B. LEXICO AND GRAMMAR

I.

2.0ps. Each correct answer gets 0.1p

1. D 11. C

2. D 12. C

3. B 13. D

4. B 14. A

5. A 15. C

6. B 16. D

7. D 17. C

8. D 18. C

9. B 19. C

10. B 20. B

II.

1.0p. Each correct answer gets 0.1p

1.

that 6. have

2.

off 7. they

3.

√ 8. for

4.

about 9. than

5.

being 10. √

III.

1.0p. Each correct answer gets 0.1p

1. have carried out 2. to be served 3. increasing 4. to ensure

5. have been encouraged 6. required 7. wanted 8. requires

9. would be 10. has even been pointed out

IV.

1.0p. Each correct answer gets 0.1p

1. beings 2. selection 3. applicants 4. advice

5. unsuccessful 6. Similarly 7. inadequate 8. confidence

9. ability 10. honesty

V.

1.0p. Each correct answer gets 0.1p

1.

ashamed of 2. for safe keeping 3. capable of 4. out of tune

5. independent of 6. on good terms 7. tired of 8. at most

9. on the whole 10. out of order

VI.

1.0p. Each correct answer gets 0.1p

1.

the 2. a 3. the 4. a 5. the 6. a 7. a 8. the 9. the 10. the

PART C. READING

I.

1.0p. Each correct answer gets 0.1p

CHÍNH THỨC

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Bảng A

1.A 2.C 3.D 4.C 5.A 6.D 7.B 8.A 9.A 10.C

II.

1.0p. Each correct answer gets 0.1p

1.D 2.D 3.C 4.D 5.C 6.A 7.D 8.C 9.A 10.B

III.

1.0p. Each correct answer gets 0.1p

1.

Paragraph B 3

2.

Paragraph C 3

3.

Paragraph D 8

4.

Paragraph E 1

5.

Paragraph F 7

6.

Yes 7. Not given 8. Not given 9. No 10. Yes

IV.

1.0p. Each correct answer gets 0.1p

1.

F (one of the most commercially successful and critically acclaimed acts in the history of

popular music).

2.

B (the group later worked in many genres ranging from pop ballads to psychedelic rock,

often incorporating classical and other elements in innovative ways).

3.

G (they built their reputation playing clubs in Liverpool and Hamburg over a three-year

period from 1960).

4.

C (and Best was replaced by Starr the following year).

5.

D (They achieved mainstream success in the United Kingdom in late 1962, with their first

single, "Love Me Do").

6.

H (which was widely regarded as a masterpiece).

7.

E (Lennon was murdered outside his home in New York City in 1980, and Harrison died of

cancer in 2001).

8.

J (and over four decades after their break-up, their recordings are still in demand).

9.

I (and they have held the top spot longer than any other musical act).

10.

A (They were collectively included in Time magazine's compilation of the 20th century's

100 most influential people).

PART D. WRITING

I.

1.0p. Each correct answer gets 0.1p

1.

It was inevitable that he would fail his exams.

2.

He can’t possibly have caught the eleven o’clock train.

3.

She was lost for words.

She had lost her tongue.

4.

I’m sociable rather than a solitary person.

Rather than being a solitary person, I’m sociable.

5.

There is/ You have no option (concerning/ with regard to/ as to/ regarding about) which

hotel you stay at on this package holiday.

6.

There is no question of my changing my mind about resigning.

My changing my mind about resigning is out of the question.

7.

It would be the height of your stupidity to give up your job now.

8.

I don’t have the faintest idea what you are talking about.

9.

I have done next to nothing today.

10.

She will be showered with congratulations if she wins.

II (2 points) + III (3 points)

The mark given to parts 2 and 3 is based on the following scheme:

1.

Content: (40% of total mark) a provision of main ideas and details as appropriate.

2.

Organization and Presentation: (30% of total mark) ideas are organized and presented

with coherence, style and clarity appropriate to the level of English language gifted upper-

secondary school students.

3.

Language: (30% of total mark) a variety of vocabulary and structures appropriate to the

level of English language gifted upper-secondary school students.

---HẾT---

Page 1

Bảng B

SỞ GDĐT BẠC LIÊU KỲ THI CHỌN HSG LỚP 12 VÒNG TỈNH

NĂM HỌC 2011 - 2012

(Gồm 16 trang,

không kể trang phách)

* Môn thi: TIẾNG ANH (BẢNG B)

* Ngày thi: 05/11/2011

* Thời gian: 180 phút (Không kể thời gian giao đề)

Điểm

Chữ ký GK 1

Chữ ký GK 2

Mã phách

Bằng số

Bằng chữ

ĐỀ

(Thí sinh làm bài trực tiếp trên đề thi)

Part A. LISTENING

I. Listen to Diane talking to a friend about a trip to London. For each question, circle the best

answer (A, B, C). You will hear the conversation twice. (0) is as an example. (1 point)

Example:

0. Diane went to London yesterday

A. morning. B. afternoon. C. evening.

1. Diane went to London by

A. car. B. bus. C. underground.

2. Diane and her friends ate

A. Mexican food. B. Chinese food. C. Spanish food.

3. Diane says the restaurant was

A. full. B. expensive. C. quiet.

4. After the meal, Diane and her friends

A. sat and talked. B. saw a film. C. walked by the water.

5. During Diane's trip to London,

A. it rained. B. it snowed. C. it was windy.

II. You will hear a woman being interviewed for a job. For questions 1 – 10, fill in the relevant

information on the application form. You will hear twice. (2 points)

PANDORA INTERNATIONAL

GENERAL APPLICATION FORM

APPLYING FOR POST OF: Head of advertising

Name: (1) Irene …….…………………………

Address: (2) ………… Redwood Avenue Kingston

Tel no: (3) ………………………………………

CHÍNH THỨC

Page 2

Bảng B

Qualifications

Graduated from: (4) ………………………………………

Diploma in: (5) ………………………………………

Current position: (6) ………………………………………

Job description: (7) ………………………………………

and

(8) ………………………………………

Reason for leaving: (9) limited ………………………………………

Reason for applying to Pandora International: (10) gaining ………………….. in an international

market.

PART B. LEXICO AND GRAMMAR

I. Circle the best answer (A, B, C, or D) to complete each unfinished sentence. (1 point)

1. I love this painting of an old man. He has such a …………….. smile.

A. childhood B. childish C. childless D. childlike

2. You’d better leave for the airport now ………….. there’s a lot of traffic on the way.

A. in fact B. in time C. in order D. in case

3. I would like to thank you, …………… my colleagues, for the welcome you have given us.

A. on account of B. on behalf of C. because of D. instead of

4. The poor child was in floods of …………………because his bicycle had been stolen.

A. weeping B. tears C. crying D. unhappiness

5. The soldier was punished for ……………. to obey his commanding officer’s orders.

A. refusing B. regretting C. objecting D. resisting

6. She ………… her husband’s job for his ill health.

A. accused B. blamed C. caused D. claimed

7. It’s time we ………….. this old car and bought a new one.

A. will B. had sold C. have sold D. sold

8. The project was rejected because of ………….. funds.

A. unavailable B. inconsiderable C. incomplete D. insufficient

9. Please leave this space ………… on the enrolment form.

A. absent B. blank C. missing D. undone

10. You shouldn’t have criticized him in front of his friends. It was extremely ……….. of you.

A. unfortunate B. insensitive C. insensible D. unconscious

11. Phone me before ten; ……………. I’ll be too busy to talk to you.

A. unless B. whether C. otherwise D. if

12. According to the ………… of the contract, tenants must give six months’ notice if they intend to

leave.

A. laws B. rules C. terms D. details

13. The injured man was taken to hospital and ………… for internal injuries.

A. cured B. healed C. operated D. treated

14. The door hinges had all been oiled to stop them ……………

A. squeaking B. screeching C. shrieking D. squealing

15. Mary attempted to …………… herself with her new boss by volunteering to take on extra work.

Page 3

Bảng B

A. gratify B. please C. ingratiate D. commend

16. You are under no obligation ………… to accept this offer.

A. indeed B. eventually C. apart D. whatsoever

17. Wasn’t it you yourself ……….. the door open?

A. to be left B. were left C. who left D. that should leave

18. If only motorists …………. drive more carefully!

A. must B. shall C. would D. will

19. It is regretted that there can be no …………… to this rule.

A. exclusion B. alternative C. exception D. deviation

20. Complete the form as …………… in the notes below.

A. insisted B. specified C. implied D. devised

II. In the passage below some lines are correct but some have a word that should not be there.

Indicate the correct lines with a tick (√). For the incorrect lines, write the words that should not

be there. (1 point)