Tuyển tập đề thi học sinh giỏi và chọn đội tuyển Học sinh giỏi quốc gia THPT năm học 2015-2016 Tập 1

BỘ GIÁO DỤC VÀ ĐÀO TẠO

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TUYỂN!TẬP!ĐỀ!THI!

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SỞ GIÁO DỤC & ĐÀO TẠO

QUẢNG BÌNH

ĐỀ THI CHÍNH THỨC

SỐ BÁO DANH:……………..

KỲ THI CHỌN ĐỘI TUYỂN CHÍNH THỨC DỰ THI

HSG QUỐC GIA LỚP 12 THPT NĂM HỌC 2012-2013

Môn thi: TIẾNG ANH (VÒNG 1)

Khoá thi ngày 01 tháng 11 năm 2012

Thời gian làm bài: 180 phút (không kể thời gian phát đề)

(Đề thi gồm 10 trang)

_______________________________________________________________________

Lưu ý: Thí sinh làm bài trên tờ giấy thi

SECTION ONE: LISTENING (40/200 points)

* Note: There are 4 parts in the listening section. Each part will be played twice.

Part 1. You will hear a telephone inquiry between two students about MBA online education, then fill

in the curriculum schedule below.

- Place of study: (1)……………………………….…….

- Tuition fees: (2)……………………………….………

- Courses offered: (3)……………….…………………..

- Course length: (4)………………………….………….

- Deposit: (5)……………………………………………

Part 2. Listen and choose the correct answer (A,B or C) to complete the sentence.

6. The counselor says he can…………………………….

A. provide sleeping pills. B. discuss the problem. C. only see medical students.

7. The counselor says that new students………………….

A. lack self-discipline.

B. are expected to work more on their own.

C. are usually not able to cope.

8. Bill complains that the library…………………………

A. isn’t open at the right time. B. has too few resources. C. is too noisy.

9. The counselor suggests to Bill that…………………….

A. most other students are able to cope.

B. he needs to find new places to work.

C. he needs to plan more.

10. Before being able to help Bill, the counselor needs to……………………

A. make a further appointment.

B. talk with his medical friend.

C. get more information from him.

Part 3. Listen to the story and answer the questions below.

11. What did Amanda do after she found her first egg?

……………………………………………………….

12. What color of the dress was Amanda wearing?

…………………………………………….………….

13. What happened to two little toddlers?

………………………………………………………..

14. What time was the search over?

……………………………………………….……….

15. How tall was the Easter Bunny?

………………………………………….…….……….

Part 4. Fill in the following blanks according to what you hear.

Indonesia, Malaysia, Thailand, and Vietnam plan to build nuclear power plants in the next

(16)………………….. and others in Southeast Asia hope to follow them. But the nuclear emergency

caused by the earthquake and (17)…………..…….... in Japan has raised concerns about the safety of

developing nuclear power, especially in countries vulnerable to natural disasters. The Asia Pacific

SỞ GIÁO DỤC & ĐÀO TẠO

QUẢNG BÌNH

KỲ THI CHỌN ĐỘI TUYỂN CHÍNH THỨC DỰ THI

HSG QUỐC GIA LỚP 12 THPT NĂM HỌC 2012-2013

Môn thi: TIẾNG ANH (VÒNG 1)

Khoá thi ngày 01 tháng 11 năm 2012

HƯỚNG DẪN CHẤM

Tổng số điểm toàn bài: 200 điểm

Sau khi cộng toàn bộ số điểm, giám khảo quy về hệ điểm 20 (không làm tròn số).

SECTION ONE: LISTENING (40/200 điểm)

Part 1. Mỗi chỗ đúng được 2 điểm, tổng 10 điểm.

1.Harvard University

2. (about) $ 10,000

3. core units and elective courses

4. One year

5. 20%

Part 2. Mỗi đáp án đúng được 2 điểm, tổng 10 điểm.

6. B. 7. B. 8. A. 9. C. 10. C.

Part 3. Mỗi câu đúng được 2 điểm, tổng 10 điểm.

11. She sat down and ate it.

12. (She was wearing) (a) white (dress).

13. They banged heads.

14. (It was) over by 11 o’clock.

15. (He was) 6’6’’ (six foot six) tall.

Part 4. Mỗi từ đúng được 1 điểm, tổng 10 điểm.

16. decade 17. tsunami 18. struck 19. landslides. 20. activists

21. aware 22. construction 23. spokesman 24. technical 25. review

SECTION TWO: LEXICO-GRAMMAR (60/200điểm)

Part 1. Mỗi đáp án đúng được 1 điểm, tổng 20 điểm.

26.A 27.C 28.D 29.B 30.C 31.A 32.D

33.B 34.A 35.B 36.C 37.D 38.A 39.B

40.A 41.C 42.B 43.B 44.D 45.C

Part 2. Mỗi đáp án đúng được 1 điểm, tổng 10 điểm.

46. rhythmically 47. perception(s) 48. consciousness 49. (un)arguably

50. controversial 51. researchers 52. conviction 53. underestimated

54. decisive 55. coherent

Part 3. Mỗi đáp án đúng được 1 điểm, tổng 15 điểm.

56. of 57.as 58. the 59. them 60. √ 61. much 62. √

63. than 64. and 65. √ 66. due 67. in 68. √ 69. can

70. have

Part 4. Mỗi đáp án đúng được 1 điểm, tổng 15 điểm.

71. judicious 72. graceful 73. ordinary 74. genuine

75. painful 76. precise 77. horrible 78.praiseworthy

79. innocent 80. puzzled 81. desperate 82.absorbing

83. idle 84. fatal 85. mean

SECTION THREE: READING COMPREHENSION (60/200 điểm)

Part 1. Mỗi đáp án đúng được 1 điểm, tổng 15 điểm.

86.A 87.D 88.A 89.B 90.D 91.B 92.B

93.D 94.C 95.A 96.C 97.A 98.B 99.D

100.A

Part 2. Mỗi đáp án đúng được 1 điểm, tổng 15 điểm.

101. in 102. is 103. as 104. there 105. a 106. that/this

107. had 108. would 109. If 110. the 111. for 112. on

113. not 114. who/that 115. out

Part 3. Mỗi đáp án đúng được 1 điểm, tổng 6 điểm.

116. C 117. G 118. F 119. A 120. E 121. D

Part 4. Mỗi đáp án đúng được 2 điểm, tổng 16 điểm.

122. B 123. B 124. D 125. A

126. C 127. D 128. C 129. A

Part 5. Mỗi đáp án đúng được 1 điểm, tổng 8 điểm.

130. I 131. G 132. E 133. F

134. A 135. H 136. B 137. D

SECTION FOUR: WRITING (40/200 điểm)

Part 1. Mỗi câu đúng được 1 điểm, tổng 10 điểm.

138. account should this/the door be (kept)

139. condition (that) it is hard to

140. far as punctuality is concerned

141. for a great /good deal of patience

142. no support from

143. (of things) to offer in

144. no/little time (in) starting/getting started

145. on the point of leaving

146. is/has been scheduled to take

147. you notify us of any

Part 2. 30 điểm

The mark is based on the following scheme:

1. Content: 35% of the total mark.

2. Organization and presentation: 30% of the total mark.

3. Language: 30% of the total mark.

4. Handwriting, punctuation and spelling: 5% of the total mark.

-------THE END-------

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region is every year (18)………………....….. by earthquakes, tropical storms, monsoon floods and

(19)………………….. . Following the disaster in Japan, some officials and (20)……………..…… in

the region are urging a re-thinking of pursuing nuclear energy. Vietnam Atomic Energy Commission

Chairman Vuong Huu Tan says his country is watching the emergency in Japan closely and is

(21)……….….….. of public concerns. But he says they do not expect it to affect their plans to build at

least eight nuclear plants. Vuong says they plan to begin (22)…………...….. of Vietnam’s first nuclear-

power plant in three years. Thailand plans to build up to five nuclear power plants by 2025.

Following the emergency in Japan, the Thai government said it would also take into account

concerns about nuclear safety as it became more of a public focus.

But Thai government (23)………….… Panitan Wattanayagorn says it would not delay their nuclear

power development. "Until we know for sure what happened in Japan, I think several governments may

require more information on this issue,” said Panitan. “So, I think 'yes', certainly it raises some concerns,

but these concerns are not new. Hopefully, our committee who are working on this issue will come up

with a comprehensive picture of this." Panitan says if there is any delay in Thailand’s nuclear-power

plans it would be from (24)……..……..…..difficulties and feasibility studies and not in reaction to

Japan’s nuclear emergency. Southeast Asia specialist Carl Thayer, of Australia’s University of New

South Wales, says the emergency in Japan may cause a (25)……………….…… of safety planning for

nuclear risks in some countries. But he says Southeast Asia’s fast-growing demand for power means it

has few alternatives to pursuing nuclear energy.

SECTION TWO: LEXICO-GRAMMAR (60/200 points)

Part 1. Choose the most suitable word to complete each sentence.

26. If you go on ………………me like this, I will never be able to finish writing my report.

A. disturbing B. afflicting C. concerning D. affecting

27. Turn off this machine, please. The harsh sound really…………………..me crazy.

A. takes B. worries C. drives D. bothers

28. Everyone knew that…………………this task would require a considerable effort.

A. working B. engaging C. making D. completing

29. Mr.Tanner did his best to fix the faulty oven, but his ………………………….at repairing electrical

devices wasn’t good enough to succeed.

A. service B. skill C. technique D. craft

30. Judy didn’t ………………….for a second to agree to Mike’s proposal as she had been in love with

the boy for a long time.

A. decide B. linger C. hesitate D. await

31. Don’t get so nervous about his coming late. When you get to know better, you’ll learn to take

it………………..

A. easy B. loose C. nice D. fine

32. The inconsiderate driver was …………………….for parking his vehicle in the wrong place.

A. inflicted B. condemned C. harrassed D. fined

33. The idea to……………a visit to the local council residence was welcomed by all the visitors.

A. do B. pay C. go D. walk

34. His…………………..of the safety regulations really can’t be ignored any longer.

A. disregard B. unfamiliarity C. carelessness D. inattention

35. Let’s …………………..the place, it looks so gloomy and unpleasant.

A. miss B. abandon C. depart D. disappear

36. What you are saying is quite…………….., so give us, please, more details on the situation.

A. famous B. accustomed C. obvious D. familiar

37. For a short of while, I managed to catch……………….of the President entering the palace.

A. vision B. notice C. view D. sight

38. The suggestion to leave the camp at once was strongly……………………………by the climbers

who were afraid of the approaching snowstorm.

A. opposed B. complained C. quarreled D. resigned

39. The first thing for all of you to remember is that …………………..your duties may result in an

instant dismissal.

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A. escaping B. neglecting C. resisting D. missing

40. It was the commission’s job to decide whether the pilot was ………………….for the crash that

occurred right after the take-off.

A. responsible B. prone C. guilty D. comprehensive

41. None of us has ever ……………………of taking any rash steps against illegal broadcasting.

A. declared B. persisted C. approved D. concluded

42. Several soldiers of the squad were taken………………………………by the enemy forces.

A. capture B. hostage C. kidnap D. torture

43. The student was ………………………of understanding the theory even after the professor’s

profound explanation.

A. incompetent B. incapable C. helpless D. unsuccessful

44. I’m going for a walk in the park. Would you like to ……………….me company?

A. follow B. stay C. ward D. keep

45. Patrick is too……………………..a gambler to resist placing a bet on the final game.

A. instant B. spontaneous C. compulsive D. continuous

Part 2. For questions 46-55, read the text below. Use the word given in capital at the end of each line

to form a word that fits in the space in the same line.

FAST BRAIN WAVES

Over half a century ago, scientists found they could record the

electrical signals of the brain at work. What at first appeared a random

hotch potch of activity became a pattern of elegant waves

(46) ................. determined. Ever since, scientists have wondered

whether the secrets of our thoughts, (47)..................., and even

(48).................. itself might be hidden in the patterns of our brain waves.

The question of why we have brain waves is, (49)....................., as

hotly debated today as it was when the patterns were discovered. But the

meaning, and even the existence, of fast rhythms in the alert brain is

highly (50)..................... .

What is problematic is that you can’t perceive these rhythms

directly, they are so well hidden in the noise created by other brain

activity, but many (51).................................. now hold the

(52).............................. that the significance of these brain waves should

not be (53).................... .

The latest suggestion is that the rhythms could be (54)...................

in detecting processes going on in different regions of the brain. Some

believe that these rhythms might event interact, and in doing so help the

brain to package information into (55)................. thoughts. How we bring

together these related signals in the brain is a puzzle as yet unresolved.

RHYTHM

PERCEIVE

CONSCIOUS

ARGUE

CONTROVERSY

SEARCH

CONVINCE

ESTIMATE

DECIDE

COHERE

Part 3. Read the text below and look carefully at each line. Some of the lines are correct, and some

have a word which should not be there. If a line is correct, put a tick (√) by the number. If a line has a

word which should not be there, write the word by the number. There are two examples at the

beginning (0 and 00).

0……√…

00… for .

56………

57………

58………

59………

60………

61………

YOUNG ARTIST

When I first left art college, I wasn’t sure exactly what I wanted

to do. In the end, I decided for to try and become a cartoonist,

because of I have always been quite good at cartoons, and you don’t

need expensive things like as a studio or lots of equipment. I drew

my cartoons in a sketchbook the first, then worked on final versions

which I sent them to various magazines and newspapers. None of

them was particularly interested. So I got a job as a guide in an art gallery

because I needed the much money. That was a good move. As well as

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62………

63………

64………

65..……..

66..……..

67..……..

68..……..

69..……..

70..……..

meeting lots of people involved in the arts, I was able to see how

ordinary members of the public reacted than to the things on display.

As a result of the experience I gained at the gallery, and I decided

to become a sculptor. It hasn’t been easy, and I am still doing

part-time work due to support myself, but next week my first

one-man show is opening at the gallery in where I used to work.

I’m going to go back to my old job for a week, showing people

round the exhibition. It will be interesting to see how can people

react because I won’t have give away the fact that I’m the artist!

Part 4. Replace each italicized adjective with a synonymous one in the box.

71. This is not a very wise decision. Just think of all the consequences such an action might lead to.

72. Mark was charmed by the girl’s elegant movements and her good manners.

73. This is nothing new. It’s just a usual transistor radio.

74. Our academy admits only people with a real interest in art.

75. The bitter feeling of having been deserted by his closest friends made Stanley leave the city for ever.

76. If you need some more specific information, turn to Mr. Smith, who is in direct control of our

department.

77. The terrible discovery of a skeleton in Mrs. Preston’s garden has provoked endless speculations

about a murderer hiding somewhere in the neighbourhood.

78. The local newspapers write about the boy’s admirable courage. After all, he was the only one who

hurried to the rescue.

79. The suspect claimed he was not guilty and that the robbery was committed by someone else.

80. I was so confused by the chairman’s reply that I didn’t know whether I was allowed to cast the vote

or not.

81. Since Mrs. Johnson’s unexpected resignation, we have been in an urgent need of a new secretary.

82. Mike’s comment on the political crisis in our country provoked a fascinating discussion which kept

us awake during the whole night.

83. He is usually very lazy, so we have a hard time of making him do his lessons properly.

84. The poor mother went mad after she had learnt about her son’s deadly accident.

85. Don’t bother to ask him a favour. He is too selfish to help other people.

SECTION THREE: READING COMPREHENSION (60/200 points)

Part 1. For questions 86-100, read the text below and decide which answer (A, B, C or D) best fits

each space.

SHOP TILL YOU DROP!

Attitudes towards shopping have changed dramatically over the last decade or so. There was a

time when shopping was a means to an end, not an occupation in its own right. Some people argue that

we have become a society of big-time (86) ................ , and that nothing but spending money makes us

happy. On the other (87) …………. , anyone who has worked hard to (88).............. money surely has the

right to spend it (89).............. whatever they wish. Provided that we are prepared to (90)...............

enough of our money for a rainy day, there seems little wrong with using the rest to (91).............. for

things that give us pleasure. For some people, however, spending money has become a serious business.

It will take more than a few home (92)................ to persuade them that they should not do this. The

delights of shopping are all too obvious. Attractive displays of food on supermarket (93)................... ,

and clothes which look fantastic on shop window models, tempt (94)............... to part with their money,

even if they do not actually need the (95)............... they are buying. The real question is: would we all be

happier if we were (96) ............... ? The answer is probably that we can be just as happy with money as

we can without it. However, now that many companies are branching out (97)............... the teenage

absorbing desperate fatal genuine graceful

horrible idle innocent judicious mean

ordinary painful praiseworthy precise puzzled

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market, and selling to teenagers has (98)………... into a huge industry, we need to be aware of the kind

of pressures being (99)…........... on parents and children alike. Perhaps what we should do is make an

effort to return to the things that really matter in life and (100)............... what we have worked so hard to

obtain with others less fortunate than ourselves.

86. A. consumers B. producers C. suppliers D. manufacturers

87. A. face B. side C. view D. hand

88. A. earn B. gain C. win D. beat

89. A. for B. on C. with D. at

90. A. put through B. put off C. put out D. put by

91. A. buy B. pay C. spend D. purchase

92. A. suggestions B. truths C. warnings D. recommendations

93. A. beams B. foundations C. stores D. shelves

94. A. audiences B. spectators C. customers D. consultants

95. A. goods B. sales C. resources D. incomes

96. A. worthless B. useless C. penniless D. pointless

97. A. into B. round C. about D. through

98. A. become B. grown C. raised D. lifted

99. A. made B. done C. sent D. put

100. A. share B. receive C. hand D. part

Part 2. For questions 101-115, read the text below and think of the word which best fits each space.

Use only ONE word in each space.

HOLIDAY CANCELLATION

There is nothing worse than having a holiday cancelled. Despite the fact that the government has

brought (101) ........................ new legislation to protect holiday-makers financially, it's the

disappointment which is hard to bear. In most cases, some form of compensation (102)........................

offered, but often the alternatives are nowhere near (103)........................ exciting as the original

destination. On second thoughts, perhaps (104)...................... is something which is (105)......................

little worse than a cancelled holiday, and (106)....................... is being stranded at your holiday

destination when a company goes bankrupt. In circumstances like these, many people wish they

(107)........................ never gone on holiday at all, and may think twice about going again. 'If we'd

known that this was going to happen, we (108)...................... never have considered spending so much

money on a holiday.' (109)....................... only we'd booked with someone else!' they grumble to their

friends when they get back home. Their friends try to change (110)....................... subject, but quickly

realise that the disappointed holiday makers are determined to have their say. It seems useless to point

out that the main reason (111) ...................... having a holiday is to return home relaxed and stress-free.

If the experience turns out to be even more stressful than normal everyday life, putting pressure

(112)......................... the holiday-maker, then surely it is (113)....................... something to be repeated.

Perhaps the best advice for those (114)..................... feel that they are not cut (115)....................... for

stressful holiday experiences is simply to stay at home!

Part 3. You are going to read a magazine article about a mountaineering expedition. Seven

paragraphs have been removed from the article. Choose from the paragraphs A-H the one which fits

each gap (116-121). There is one extra paragraph which you do not need to use. There is an example

at the beginning (0).

A. Now we were being invited to believe what we’d thought to be impossible. Sure, there are

numerous folk tales about the mythical yeti, and various claimed sightings. But to date none of

these has ever been scientifically proven.

B. However, it takes a lot to overcome my skeptical nature. After all, most scientists dismiss the

yeti as a mythical creature, born of imagination, thin mountain air and Tibetan fairy-tale.

C. Neither, apparently, was there any record of a human being here before. Even Sven Hedin, the

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last explorer to come this way, in 1902, had not set foot on the holy Mount Targo because of

local sensitivities.

D. As for my own expedition, those ten or so fresh footprints we saw at 6,000 metres on Mount

Targo, were more than 25 centimetres long and nearly 20 centimetres wide. Certainly they did

not seem to match the known prints of any such animal.

E. Then in 1960, seven years after the climbing Mount Everest, Edmund Hilary led an

expedition to find the yeti. In ten months they were unable to find any firm proof of the animal’s

existence.

F. Our Tibetan translator explained with amazement: “That’s the local word for yeti.” Although

excited, I tried to think logically. Of course, many local people must have seen the odd bear or

wolf on the great plateau between Lake Tzo and the wild heights of Mount Targo. This, after all,

is one of the most remote places on earth.

G. When I mentioned them to the others, the still unspoken word on all our minds seemed so far-

fetched, so impossible, that we all burst into nervous laughter.

H. As we headed up the long, final snowed-covered stretch to the summit, my sense of well-

being was so great that I failed to notice the ten or so larger-than-hand-sized footprints in the

snow on a small hill above a steep 1,000 metre drop to the glacier below. It was Malcolm who

pointed them out.

WAS THIS THE YETI?

It was another day of perfect weather on the mountain as Trevor, Malcolm and I, plus our local

companions, arrived above the clouds, looking down on the largely unexplored Gandesi range in Tibet.

We were very close to the top of Mount Targo one of the mountains in the world over 6,500 metres that

remained unclimbed.

0

H

I was so astonished that the little breath I had left at that oxygen-starved altitude was completely

taken away. How could there be any sign of life at this height? Surely animals are not to be found so far

above the snowline?

116

We managed to climb the final 500 metres to the summit but, out of respect to the nomads who

believe this mountain to be the home of the Gods, we left the last 10 metres or so unclimbed. In my

pleasure at being a member of the first team to scale Mount Targo, I forgot all about the footprints until

we were safely back in or tents.

117

It was not until three days later, at base camp, that the word “yeti” was finally mentioned. It

came from Min, one of the Tibetan yak-herders who was helping to carry our climbing equipment. He

told us that as a child, taking his father’s yaks high into the mountains in search of grass, he had seen a

“tingri”. He proceeded to describe an ape-like creature similar to an orang-utan.

118

Indeed, we were, as far as we know, the first outsiders to get permission to visit this valley. Even

from base camp the nearest road – just a dirt track – was 200 kilometres away. Simply finding our

mountain had required a determined feat of exploration.

119

The first widely publicized evidence was the discovery of animal footprints in the snows of

mount Everest at 6,300 metres in 1921 by Charles Howard-Bury. His porters told him it was “metch-

kangmi” – literally, the stinking man of the snow. A British journalist with the expedition mistakenly

translated this as “abonimable snowman”.

120

Nor has professional Himlayan climber Julian Freeman-Attwood had any luck with the yeti,

although he has seen similar footprints on several expeditions in Mongolia. His own view is that they

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were caused by a very shy and rare species of bear, whose imprint in the snow was expanded in size by

the natural process of sun-melt.

121

But nor could we explain what they were. Perhaps then, there really is a strange creature

something like an orang-utan, that lives in tiny numbers in the Himalayas, doing its best to avoid contact

with the world’s most destructive animal-humans.

Part 4. You are going to read a newspaper article about attending a new attraction for film fans in the

US. For questions 122–129, choose the answer (A, B, C or D) which you think fits best according to

the text.

STAR FOR A NIGHT

For 45 dollars, visitors to Tinseltown Studios are treated like their Hollywood idols on Oscar night.

Laurel Ives joins the would-be stars.

It is a warm evening in Los Angeles, and I am standing in a long queue outside a

fabulouslooking place called Tinseltown Studios. Nervous chatter and the noise of a distant, six-lane

freeway hum in the air. Women busily re-apply their lipstick and smooth their dresses. Like me, they are

hoping that they are about to get a taste of what it feels like to be a star.

We are spending an evening at one of the newest and strangest ideas dreamt up by the American

entertainment industry. Tinseltown’s owners, Ogden Entertainment, claim that, for one night only, they

will ‘turn ordinary individuals into screen legends’ – and I can hardly wait.

Our evening begins at 7.30 p.m. Handing over my ticket, I walk down the long red carpet

ahead. ‘Fans’ approach and ask for my autograph. I graciously agree. ‘Reporters’ ask where I got my

outfit and who will star with me in my new film. On my right, a ‘television crew’ is interviewing two

girls. A ‘journalist’ approaches. ‘Congratulations,’ she says, ‘you are nominated as Best Actress

tonight.’

She turns out to be one of the organisers of the event and she tells me that, along with three other

nominees, I will be edited into a scene from a famous movie so that it will seem as if I am the star. The

eight scenes (showing four men and four women) will then be broadcast over dinner and the Best

Actress and Best Actor chosen. Nominees are chosen by staff at the beginning of the evening, on the

basis of who they think looks as if they have the most guts. So why did they choose me? Suddenly, the

nerves that the staff did not detect come to the surface. Coping with people who are pretending to be

fans, journalists and TV crews is one thing, but being broadcast acting badly in front of 200 people? I

didn’t know if I could handle that. Then I and the other three nominees are shown into a lift and taken

upstairs to the studio. I am to replace Genevieve Bujold as the Queen of England in Anne of a Thousand

Days. They show me the scene, hand me a costume and push me in front of a camera. My five lines are

written onto a large white board and held in front of me. Suddenly, it is all over. Once all four nominees

have been filmed, we join the rest of the ‘stars’ in the vast banquet room. Over the first course, videos

are shown on a screen above us. The show begins with the red carpet ‘interviews’ filmed as we, the

guests, arrived.

First up is a man called John Richardson. Is he pleased to be nominated for an award tonight,

asks the ‘reporter’? ‘You know, being a stunt man isn’t as glamorous as being an actor,’ he replies.

‘Most of the time, people watching the picture think that it is the actors doing the stunts, so it’s good to

finally get some recognition.’ John’s friends, who are sitting at the table next to mine, are loving his

interview, applauding every time he speaks. ‘Who’d have thought that, in real life, he is just a dull

computer programmer?’ says one of them. He is right: as more ‘stars-for-a-night’ are interviewed, I am

struck by how competently these people express themselves.

A waiter approaches with a warning: I am about to be ‘spotlighted’. I am introduced to the

audience, my blushing face appears on the big screen and then, as I squirm with embarrassment in my

chair, the film of me, edited (rather badly) into Anne of a Thousand Days, is shown. I am also handed a

prescripted speech – with blanks so I can say a thank-you to whomever I choose – just in case I am

8

chosen as Best Actress. However, my performance was so wooden that I don’t win. Yet now that I know

I won’t have to make a speech, I feel a moment of real disappointment.

122. When the writer is waiting to go into Tinseltown Studios, she………………

A. thinks she has little in common with the other people.

B. wants to find that the claim the company makes is true.

C. fears that the event may go on for too long.

D. is surprised by the appearance of the building.

123. As she goes into the building, the writer………………………

A. gets confused as to who some of the people are.

B. acts as if she really is a star.

C. is unable to respond to certain questions.

D. is impressed by some of the other visitors.

124. What is meant by ‘guts’ in line 17?

A. experience B. ambition C. energy D. courage

125. What does ‘it’ in line 23 refer to?

A. the filming of the writer B. the white board

C. the filming of all four nominees D. the writer’s last line

126. John Richardson answers the question he is asked by………………………….

A. denying an accusation. B. explaining a change in attitude.

C. expressing satisfaction. D. admitting to being confused.

127. The writer notices that the other people who are interviewed………………….

A. try to respond in the same way that John Richardson did.

B. try to appear more interesting than they really are.

C. have similar jobs to John Richardson’s in real life.

D. have little difficulty in giving good answers to questions.

128. When the writer is ‘spotlighted’, she…………………………………………….

A. finds that she is unable to speak. B. quickly looks away from the screen.

C. clearly feels uncomfortable. D. becomes convinced that she will win.

129. When she discovers that she has not won, the writer……………………………

A. understands why she was not chosen as the winner.

B. is glad that she will not have to make a speech.

C. wishes she had not agreed to be filmed.

D. regrets not having a better part.

Part 5. You are going to read an article about sailing race. Choose the most suitable heading from the

list A-I for each part (130-137) of the article. There is one extra heading which you do not need to

use.

ROUND THE WORLD IN A YACHT

Heather Wilson goes on board the yacht “London Light” to reveal the truth bout life at sea.

A. An unexpectedly demanding way of life

B. The consequences of poor performance

C. No way out if you don’t like it

D. Letting everyone have a moment of glory

E. Benefiting from the power of nature

F. Cooperating to overcome the power of nature

G. It’s not what people think

H. A solution that seems to work

I. The terrible consequences of making a mistake

9

130

Imagine, for a moment, spending the night on board a large yacht, being roughly woken in the

pitch dark and ordered on deck. Every so often you will be totally drenched, very suddenly, in salt water.

You will be sharing the same cramped space with 14 other people for a whole year. Your stomach, when

not affected by seasickness, will be hit by competitive tension and nervousness that afflicts all

sportspeople. You will be obliged to concentrate without cease. The slightest loss of focus could cost

someone their life.

131

For the eight crews taking part in the Round-the-World yachting race, this has been daily life

since they left Britain eleven months ago. Now, after racing 50,000 across kilometers of ocean, they are

soon due home. While most of us have worked, slept, taken a holiday, these crews have sailed and

sailed, day after day, night after night, in weather conditions that would test any human. This is the

reality of ocean yacht racing, which bears little resemblance to the popular image of sailing – the quick

sprint around a lake before returning ashore for a meal and a warm bath.

132

Racing 20-meter yachts around the world is a story of unrelenting hard work, pushing yourself to

the limits of endurance. But it is also a story of the vastness and beauty of the sea, of seeing the sun rise

and set on hundreds of desolate horizons, and of the supreme satisfaction of arriving somewhere

knowing that wind alone has taken you there.

133

Unlike the captains, who are professional sailors, the crews all consist of amateur volunteers who

have actually paid for the privilege of taking a year off from their work and enduring these difficult

conditions. On board London Light the ages range from 21 to 65. For the youngest member, Susan

Porter, the trip is about the excitement of both the racing and the elements. “ Being able to pitch

yourselves as a team against a storm gives you a huge sense of achievement” she says.

134

Jerry Wallace, a marketing director, found sailing a refreshing change from the selfish

individualism of business. Although he was prepared for the discomfort, the mental stress of long-

distance racing was not what he had anticipated. “A Grand Prix driver has a few hours of focus, a

footballer 90 minutes, but we have been racing for 11 months. This is something I didn’t really

appreciate before I started.”

135

Inevitably, there are tensions. The kind of people who choose to take part in races like this tend

to be motivated and strong-willed. On a trivial level, there are the usual arguments about things like

cleaning, tidying, personal hygiene, even the way people snore. Rows on a boat must be addressed

immediately. Left to develop, they get much worse. On London Light they have done this by having a

meeting where problems can be discussed and resolved by majority vote. Cooperation is the key, and

everyone can have their say. The London is one of the few boats that has never lost any crew early

because of a personality clash.

136

The strongest source of unrest on any boat, whether professional or amateur, is the racing itself.

Such is the issue’s potential for disruption that two captains resigned during the year because their crews

were unhappy at their boat’s lack of racing success. Inevitably, some crew members want to race the

boat hard. That means that only the best sailors tend to get to actually steer the boat, which is not

satisfactory.

10

137

Some crew members feel they have paid their money and should not be excluded from any tasks

on the boat. Walter Given, a retired teacher aboard the London Light, believes the job around the boat

should be shared out among the crew. And if that means that some of the less competent spend time at

the wheel, so be it. “We all could have done some more steering – that’s the glamorous bit”, he says,

though this did not spoil the trip for him at all. At 65 the oldest member of the crew, Walter feels the trip

has really given him a lot more enthusiasm for life.

SECTION FOUR: WRITING (40/200 points)

Part 1. Complete the second sentence so that it has a similar meaning to the first sentence, using the

word given. Do not change the word given. You must use between THREE and SIX words, including

the word given.

138. It is essential that this door is kept unlocked.

SHOULD

On no………………………… locked.

139. It seems unbelievable that this jewellery is almost a thousand years old when it is so well preserved.

HARD

This jewellery is in such good ……………. believe that it is almost a thousand years old.

140. When it comes to punctuality, Fiona really takes after her mother.

CONCERNED

As……………………………….., Fiona really takes after her mother.

141. You have to be very patient to work as a primary school teacher these days.

DEAL

Working as a primary school teacher calls…….........…………………these days.

142. None of the other team members supported Terry’s idea.

SUPPORT

Terry’s idea met with…………………......…… the other members of the team.

143. The region is rich in natural resources.

OFFER

The region has a lot……………………….....……… terms of natural resources.

144. We got started on the new project immediately.

TIME

We lost……………………………………………. on the new project.

145. Sally was all ready to leave the office when her boss asked her to type up a report.

POINT

Sally was…………………………….….the office when her boss asked her to type up a report.

146. They plan to repair the bridge this weekend.

SCHEDULED

The repair of the bridge………………...…………….place this weekend.

147. If you change any of these arrangements, please be sure to let us know.

NOTIFY

Please ensure that……………………………..change in these arrangements.

Part 2. Modern lifestyles are completely different from the way people lived in the past. Some people

think the changes have been positive, while others believe they have been negative.

In about 250 words, write and discuss both these points of view and give your own opinion.

-------THE END-------

SỞ GIÁO DỤC & ĐÀO TẠO

QUẢNG BÌNH

KỲ THI CHỌN ĐỘI TUYỂN CHÍNH THỨC DỰ THI

HSG QUỐC GIA LỚP 12 THPT NĂM HỌC 2012-2013

Môn thi: TIẾNG ANH (VÒNG 1)

Khoá thi ngày 01 tháng 11 năm 2012

HƯỚNG DẪN CHẤM

Tổng số điểm toàn bài: 200 điểm

Sau khi cộng toàn bộ số điểm, giám khảo quy về hệ điểm 20 (không làm tròn số).

SECTION ONE: LISTENING (40/200 điểm)

Part 1. Mỗi chỗ đúng được 2 điểm, tổng 10 điểm.

1.Harvard University

2. (about) $ 10,000

3. core units and elective courses

4. One year

5. 20%

Part 2. Mỗi đáp án đúng được 2 điểm, tổng 10 điểm.

6. B. 7. B. 8. A. 9. C. 10. C.

Part 3. Mỗi câu đúng được 2 điểm, tổng 10 điểm.

11. She sat down and ate it.

12. (She was wearing) (a) white (dress).

13. They banged heads.

14. (It was) over by 11 o’clock.

15. (He was) 6’6’’ (six foot six) tall.

Part 4. Mỗi từ đúng được 1 điểm, tổng 10 điểm.

16. decade 17. tsunami 18. struck 19. landslides. 20. activists

21. aware 22. construction 23. spokesman 24. technical 25. review

SECTION TWO: LEXICO-GRAMMAR (60/200điểm)

Part 1. Mỗi đáp án đúng được 1 điểm, tổng 20 điểm.

26.A 27.C 28.D 29.B 30.C 31.A 32.D

33.B 34.A 35.B 36.C 37.D 38.A 39.B

40.A 41.C 42.B 43.B 44.D 45.C

Part 2. Mỗi đáp án đúng được 1 điểm, tổng 10 điểm.

46. rhythmically 47. perception(s) 48. consciousness 49. (un)arguably

50. controversial 51. researchers 52. conviction 53. underestimated

54. decisive 55. coherent

Part 3. Mỗi đáp án đúng được 1 điểm, tổng 15 điểm.

56. of 57.as 58. the 59. them 60. √ 61. much 62. √

63. than 64. and 65. √ 66. due 67. in 68. √ 69. can

70. have

Part 4. Mỗi đáp án đúng được 1 điểm, tổng 15 điểm.

71. judicious 72. graceful 73. ordinary 74. genuine

75. painful 76. precise 77. horrible 78.praiseworthy

79. innocent 80. puzzled 81. desperate 82.absorbing

83. idle 84. fatal 85. mean

SECTION THREE: READING COMPREHENSION (60/200 điểm)

Part 1. Mỗi đáp án đúng được 1 điểm, tổng 15 điểm.

86.A 87.D 88.A 89.B 90.D 91.B 92.B

93.D 94.C 95.A 96.C 97.A 98.B 99.D

100.A

Part 2. Mỗi đáp án đúng được 1 điểm, tổng 15 điểm.

101. in 102. is 103. as 104. there 105. a 106. that/this

107. had 108. would 109. If 110. the 111. for 112. on

113. not 114. who/that 115. out

Part 3. Mỗi đáp án đúng được 1 điểm, tổng 6 điểm.

116. C 117. G 118. F 119. A 120. E 121. D

Part 4. Mỗi đáp án đúng được 2 điểm, tổng 16 điểm.

122. B 123. B 124. D 125. A

126. C 127. D 128. C 129. A

Part 5. Mỗi đáp án đúng được 1 điểm, tổng 8 điểm.

130. I 131. G 132. E 133. F

134. A 135. H 136. B 137. D

SECTION FOUR: WRITING (40/200 điểm)

Part 1. Mỗi câu đúng được 1 điểm, tổng 10 điểm.

138. account should this/the door be (kept)

139. condition (that) it is hard to

140. far as punctuality is concerned

141. for a great /good deal of patience

142. no support from

143. (of things) to offer in

144. no/little time (in) starting/getting started

145. on the point of leaving

146. is/has been scheduled to take

147. you notify us of any

Part 2. 30 điểm

The mark is based on the following scheme:

1. Content: 35% of the total mark.

2. Organization and presentation: 30% of the total mark.

3. Language: 30% of the total mark.

4. Handwriting, punctuation and spelling: 5% of the total mark.

-------THE END-------

1

SỞ GIÁO DỤC & ĐÀO TẠO

QUẢNG BÌNH

ĐỀ THI CHÍNH THỨC

SỐ BÁO DANH:……………..

KỲ THI CHỌN ĐỘI TUYỂN CHÍNH THỨC DỰ THI

HSG QUỐC GIA LỚP 12 THPT NĂM HỌC 2012-2013

Môn thi: TIẾNG ANH (VÒNG 2)

Khoá thi ngày 01 tháng 11 năm 2012

Thời gian làm bài: 180 phút (không kể thời gian phát đề)

(Đề thi gồm 09 trang)

_______________________________________________________________________

Lưu ý: Thí sinh làm bài trên tờ giấy thi

PAPER ONE: LISTENING (50/200 points)

* Note: There are 4 sections in the listening paper. Each section will be played twice.

Section 1: Questions 1-10

Questions 1-6: Complete the form below. Write NO MORE THAN THREE WORDS or A NUMBER for

each answer.

CUSTOMER ORDER FORM

Example:

ORDER PLACED BY: John Carter

ACCOUNT NUMBER: 1…………………………………..

COMPANY NAME: 2………………………………….

Envelopes

Size: A4 normal

Colour 3………………………………..

Quantity 4………………………………..

Photocopy paper

Colour 5………………………………..

Quantity 6………………………………..

Questions 7-9: List THREE additional things that the man requests.Write NO MORE THAN THREE

WORDS for each answer.

7……………………………………………..

8……………………………………………..

9……………………………………………..

Question 10: Complete the notes. Write NO MORE THAN THREE WORDS for each answer.

Special instructions: Deliver goods 10………………………………….

Section 2: Questions 11-20

Complete the notes below. Write NO MORE THAN THREE WORDS for each answer.

Artist’s Exhibition

General details:

Place: 11…………………………. No.1 12……………………………..

Dates: 6

th

October – 13……………………

Display details:

. jewellery

2

. furniture

. ceramics

. 14…………………….

. sculture

Expect to see: crockery in the shape of 15……………………..

silver jewellery, e.g. large rings containing 16………………

a shoe sculpture made out of 17………………….

Go to demonstrations called 18 “………………………”

Artist’s Conservatory

Courses include: Chinese brush painting

19………………………..

silk painting

Fees include: Studio use

Access to the shop

Supply of 20…………………….

Section 3: Questions 21-30

Questions 21-23: Complete the sentences below.Write NO MORE THAN THREE WORDS for each

answer.

According to Alison Sharp…

21. Bear ancestors date back…………………….years.

22. Scientists think bears were originally in the same family as………………..

23. The Cave Bear was not dangerous because it………………….

Questions 24-28: Choose the correct option A-E to answer each question below.

A. Sloth Bear B. Giant Panda C. Brown Bear

D. Sun Bear E. Polar Bear

24. Which is the most recent species? ………….

25. Which is the largest looking bear? ………….

26. Which is the smallest bear? ………….

27. Which bear eats plants? ………….

28. Which bear eats insects? ………….

Questions 29-30: Which TWO actions are mentioned to help bears survive? Choose TWO letters A-F.

A. breeding bears in captivity

B. encouraging a more humane attitude

C. keeping bears in national parks

D. enforcing international laws

E. buying the speaker’s book

F. writing to the United Nations

29. ……………….. 30. …………………..

Section 4: Questions 31-40

Questions 31-36: Choose the correct letters A-C.

31. The speaker compares a solar eclipse today to a………

A. religious experience. B. scientific event. C. popular spectacle.

32. The speaker says that the dark spot of an eclipse is……

A. simple to predict. B. easy to explain. C. randomly occurring.

33. Concerning an eclipse, the ancient Chinese were….

A. fascinated. B. rational. C. terrified.

3

34. For the speaker, the most impressive aspect of an eclipse is the

A. exceptional beauty of the sky.

B. change for scientific study.

C. effect of the moon on the sun.

35. Eclipses occur rarely because of the size of the

A. moon B. sun. C. earth.

36. In predicting eclipses, the Babylonians were restricted by their

A. religious attitudes. B. inaccurate observations. C. limited ability to calculate.

Questions 37-40: Complete the table below.Write NO MORE THAN THREE WORDS for each answer.

Date of eclipse

Scientists

Observation

1715

Halley

37 ………………………who accurately predicted an eclipse

1868

Janssen and

Lockyer

discovered 38 ………………………

1878

Watson

believed he found 39 …………………….

1919

Einstein

realized astronomers had misunderstood 40………………….

PAPER TWO: LEXICO-GRAMMAR (40/200 points)

Section 1. Choose the best option (A, B, C or D) to complete each gap.

41. I hope there are enough glasses to ………….. round.

A. drink

B. set

C. go

D. lay

42. It's time you ……………. about organising your revision programme.

A. got

B. set

C. took

D. put

43. I can't quite ………….. out what the sign says.

A. make

B. read

C. get

D. carry

44. We have …………… up a huge bill at the grocer's across the road.

A. set

B. run

C. ended

D. paid

45. I would never have ……………..Jim of being the culprit.

A. thought

B. convicted

C. suspected

D. reminded

46. How did Sheila ………….. to the news of her award?

A. react

B. answer

C. confess

D. appeal

47. Someone has been ………….. with the lock of the cash box.

A. cluttering

B. dealing

C. tampering

D. matching

48. Don't worry about the lunch. I'll ……….. to it.

A. succeed

B. apply

C. devote

D. see

Although they were described as the (49) …………… designs in many years, there isn't (50) …………

about the latest line of shoes from Santorelli. As one of the most famous designers (51) ………… Italy,

Salvatore Santorelli is expected to do (52) …………… simply repeat the previous year's successful

formula of 'smart, but casual' sandals in a range of pastels.

49. A. first Italian new

B. first new Italian

C. new first Italian

D. Italian first new

50. A. anything new very

B. anything very new

C. new anything very

D. very new anything

51. A. by

B. in

C. of

D. to

52. A. as much as

B. more than

C. the best

D. the most

4

The term 'organic' can only be used to describe food (53) ………… in situations (54) ……………no

artificial chemicals have been used. Anyone (55) …………… fertilizer (56) ……… containing

chemicals to make tomatoes grow bigger, for example, is certainly not growing them organically.

53. A. grown

B. that growing

C. where growing

D. which grown

54. A. how

B. that

C. where

D. which

55. A. use

B. used

C. uses

D. using

56. A. what

B. when

C. which

D. Ø

The Star Tree hotel chain is in financial trouble and some of their smaller hotels are going to have (57)

…………. Rising costs (58) …………… for recent losses and many smaller hotels (59) ………… to

have been losing money for many years. No buyer has yet (60) ………… for the properties.

57. A. been sold

B. being sold

C. sold

D. to be sold

58. A. are being blamed

B. blamed

C. have blamed

D. to be blamed

59. A. are reported

B. are reporting

C. been reported

D. have reported

60. A. been found

B. being found

C. found

D. to be found

Section 2. Use the word given in capitals at the end of some of the lines to form a word that fits in the

space in the same line.

As a teenager, Joe Decker was an (61) ………………… couch potato. He

devoured beer, pizza and Twinkies, took no exercise and saw his weight

balloon.

When he joined the army, his (62)……………………. to run two miles

in 16 minutes meant he had to endure the (63)…………………….. of extra

training in the “fat boy program”.

Yet Joe Decker has been named the world’s fittest man after completing

the most gruelling physical challenge on earth in a record time. Scarred by

(64)………………………… jibes about his weight, 30-year-old Decker is now

enjoying the title bestowed on him by Guinness World Records, “the work-out

king of the world”. Where once he had layers of (65)………………………

blubber, now he has lean, honed muscle.

Chris Sheedy of Guinness World Records said: “His achievement is,

(66)…………………………, superhuman. When his letter arrived I thought,

“to do all this in such a short time isn’t physically possible.” But he sent us

videos, eyewitness (67)………………………….. , doctors’ reports - more

evidence than we needed to (68)……………………………… his claim.”

Always looking for new ways of testing his limits, Decker has

experienced hallucinations, (69)……………………. , dehydration, tunnel

vision, extreme (70)………………………………… , and mind-numbing

tedium during races lasting up to a week at a time.

WEIGH

ABLE

HUMILITY

END

WANT

BELIEF

STATE

VALID

ORIENT

TIRE

Section 3. The passage below contains 10 mistakes in 10 lines. Find and correct them. There is an

example at the beginning (0).

Going to the theatre can be incredible expensive, but, if

you have the time, there are some amazed bargains to be had.

Many people do not know that reduced rate are available

not only for students and also groups of more than ten adults.

For this reason, they prefer the cinema, wrongly believe it

to be much cheaper there. Whenever the subject is brought

up in conversation, it become increasingly obvious that not

0. incredible à incredibly

71. …………….……….

72. …………….……….

73. …………….……….

74. …………….……….

75. …………….……….

5

enough people realise that cut price culture does exist if you

know where to find it. For example, teachers taken groups

of students can obtain huge discounts if they enquire at the

box office. It is true that the seats they find themselves in

may be towards the back. However, although they may not

like a look of them at first, it is almost always possible to

see and hear good enough to enjoy the show. It certainly

isn't necessary to cut back on your spending for a theatre trip

to be enjoyable. So next time you will be in town, take

a few extra time to find the best deal that you can.

76. …………….……….

77. …………….……….

78. …………….……….

79. …………….……….

80. …………….……….

PAPER THREE: READING COMPREHENSION (55/200 points)

Section 1. For questions 81-95, read the text below and think of the word which best fits each space.

Use only ONE word in each space.

THE ROSETTA STONE

For centuries Egyptian hieroglyphics represented one of the world’s greatest linguistic

challenges. They (81)……………scholars baffled until they were finally deciphered in the nineteenth

century, (82)……………… to the discovery of the Rosetta Stone.

In the year 1799 some French soldiers found a slab of black basalt (83)…………….. working on

a fortress near the small town of Rosetta. One officer, Pierre Francois Bouchard, realized they had

stumbled (84)…………….. a finding of great significance and handed it over to scholars.

The Rosetta Stone has inscriptions in two languages, Egyptian and Greek, (85)……………..

there are, in fact, three scripts carved on it. The (86)………………… script is hieroglyphics, a pictorial

form of writing used (87)……………………. transcribe the language of Ancient Egypt, and which

(88)……………… be found on many Egyptian buildings and monuments. The hieroglyphics are

followed by Demotic, (89)……………Egyptian script. The third script is Ancient Greek, and it was

(90)……………….. that alerted Bouchard, who recognized it, to the importance of the discovery.

Many scholars became involved (91)……………… the task of deciphering hieroglyphics, but it

was (92)………………. until 1822 that there was a major breakthrough. The French linguist, Jean

Francois Champollion was familiar with (93)………………….. Greek and Coptic, the language of the

Christian descendants of the Ancient Egyptians. He was able to (94)……………….. out the Demotic

signs in Coptic and from there traced a path back to hieroglyphics, (95)…………………. making their

decipherment possible.

Section 2. For questions 96-105 read the following passage and choose the best option (A, B, C, or D)

to each question.

Basic to any understanding of Canada in the 20 years after the Second World War is the

country's impressive population growth. For every three Canadians in 1945, there were over five in

1966. In September 1966 Canada's population passed the 20 million mark. Most of this surging growth

came from natural increase. The depression of the 1930's and the war had held back marriages, and the

catching-up process began after 1945. The baby boom continued through the decade of the 1950's,

producing a population increase of nearly fifteen percent in the five years from 1951 to 1956. This rate

of increase had been exceeded only once before in Canada's history, in the decade before 1911. when the

prairies were being settled. Undoubtedly, the good economic conditions of the 1950's supported a

growth in the population, but the expansion also derived from a trend toward earlier marriages and an

increase in the average size of families. In 1957 the Canadian birth rate stood at 28 per thousand, one of

the highest in the world.

After the peak year of 1957, the birth rate in Canada began to decline. It continued falling until in

1966 it stood at the lowest level in 25 years. Partly this decline reflected the low level of births during

the depression and the war, but it was also caused by changes in Canadian society. Young people were

staying at school longer; more women were working; young married couples were buying automobiles

6

or houses before starting families; rising living standards were cutting down the size of families. It

appeared that Canada was once more falling in step with the trend toward smaller families that had

occurred all through the Western world since the time of the Industrial Revolution.

Although the growth in Canada's population had slowed down by 1966 (the increase in the first

half of the 1960's was only nine percent), another large population wave was coming over the horizon. It

would be composed of the children who were born during the period of the high birth rate prior to 1957.

96. What does the passage mainly discuss?

A. Educational changes in Canadian society B. Canada during the Second World War

C. Population trends in postwar Canada D. Standards of living in Canada

97. According to the passage, when did Canada's baby boom begin?

A. In the decade after 1911 B. After 1945

C. During the depression of the 1930's D. In 1966

98. The word "five" in line 2 refers to…………

A. Canadians B. years C. decades D. marriages

99. The word "surging" in line 3 is closest in meaning to…………….

A. new B. extra C. accelerating D. surprising

100. The author suggests that in Canada during the1950's…………….

A. the urban population decreased rapidly B. fewer people married

C. economic conditions were poor D. the birth rate was very high

101. When was the birth rate in Canada at its lowest postwar level?

A. 1966 B. 1957 C. 1956 D. 1951

102. The author mentions all of the following as causes of declines in population growth after 1957

EXCEPT……………..

A. people being better educated B. people getting married earlier

C. better standards of living D. couples buying houses

103. It can be inferred from the passage that before the Industrial Revolution……………..

A. families were larger B. population statistics were unreliable

C. the population grew steadily D. economic conditions were bad

104. The word "It" in line 20 refers to……………..

A. horizon B. population wave C. nine percent D. first half

105. The phrase "prior to" in line 21 is closest in meaning to………………

A. behind B. since C. during D. preceding

Section 3.

Read the following passage carefully and answer the questions 106-120.

JUST RELAX…

A. Hypnosis is an intriguing and fascinating process. A trance-like mental state is induced in one person

by another, who appears to have the power to command that person to obey instructions without

question. Hypnotic experiences were described by the ancient Egyptians and Greeks, whilst references

to deep sleep and anaesthesia have been found in the Bible and in the Jewish Talmud. In the mid-1700s,

Franz Mesmer, an Australian physician, developed his theory of “animal magnetism”, which was the

belief that the cause of disease was the “improper distribution of invisible magnetic fluids”. Mesmer

used water tubs and magnetic wands to direct these supposed fluids to his parents. In 1784, a French

commission studied Mesmer’s claims, and concluded that these “cures” were only imagined by the

patients. However, people continued to believe in this process of “”mesmerism” and it was soon realised

that successful results could be achieved, but without the need for magnets and water.

B. The term hypnotism was first used by James Braid, a British physician who studied suggestion and

hypnosis in the mid-1800s. He demonstrated that hypnosis differed from sleep, that it was a

physiological respond and not the result of secret powers. During this same period, James Esdaile, a

Scottish doctor working in India, used hypnotism instead of anaesthetic in over 200 major surgical

7

operations, including leg amputations. Later that century, a French neurologist, Jean Charcot,

successfully experimented with hypnosis in his clinic for nervous disorders.

C. Since then, scientists have shown that the state of hypnosis is a natural human behaviour, which can

affect psychological, social and/ or physical experiences. The effects of hypnotism depend on the

ability, willingness and motivation of the person being hypnotised. Although hypnosis has been

compared to dreaming and sleepwalking, it is not actually related to sleep. It involves a more active and

intense mental concentration of the person being hypnotised. Hypnotised people can talk, write, and

walk about and they are usually fully aware of what is being said and done.

D. There are various techniques used to induce hypnosis. The best-known is a series of simple

suggestions repeated continuously in the same tone of voice. The subject is instructed to focus their

attention on an object or fixed point, while being told to relax, breathe deeply, and allow the eyelids to

grow heavy and close. As the person responds, their state of attention changes, and this altered state

often leads to other changes. For example, the person may experience different levels of awareness,

consciousness, imagination, memory and reasoning or become more responsive to suggestions.

Additional phenomena may be produced or eliminated such as blushing, sweating, paralysis, muscle

tension or anaesthesia. Although these changes can occur with hypnosis, none of these experiences is

unique to it. People who are very responsive to hypnosis are also more responsive to suggestions when

they are not hypnotized. This responsiveness increases during hypnotism. This explains why hypnosis

takes only a few seconds for some, whilst other people cannot be easily hypnotized.

E. It is a common misunderstanding that hypnotists are able to force people to perform criminal or any

other acts against their will. In fact, subjects can resist suggestions, and they retain their ability to

distinguish right from wrong. This misunderstanding is often the result of public performances where

subjects perform ridiculous or highly embarrassing actions at the command of the hypnotists. These

people are usually instructed not to recall their behaviour after reemerging from hypnotic state, so it

appears that they were powerless while hypnotized. The point to remember however, is that these

individuals chose to participate, and the success of hypnotism depends on the willingness of a person to

be hypnotised.

F. Interestingly, there are different levels of hypnosis achievable. Thus deep hypnosis can be induced to

allow anaesthesia for surgery, childbirth or dentistry. This contrasts to a lighter state of hypnosis, which

deeply relaxes the patient who will then follow simple directions. This latter state may be used to treat

mental health problems, as it allows patients to feel calm while simultaneously thinking about

distressing feelings or painful memories. Thus patients can learn new responses to situations or come up

with solutions to problems. This can help recovery from psychological conditions such as anxiety,

depression, or phobias. Sometimes, after traumatic incidents, memory of the events may be blocked. For

example, some soldiers develop amnesia (loss of memory) as a result of their experiences during

wartime. Through hypnosis these repressed memories can be retrieved and treated. A variation of this

treatment involves age regression, when the hypnotist takes the patient back to a specific age. In this

way patients may remember events and feelings from that time, which may be affecting their current

wellbeing.

G. Physicians also have made use of the ability of a hypnotised person to remain in a given position for

long periods of time. In one case, doctors had to graft skin onto a patient’s badly damaged foot. First,

skin from the person’s abdomen was grafted onto his arm; then the graft was transferred to his foot.

With hypnosis, the patient held his arm tightly in position over his abdomen for three weeks, then over

his foot for four weeks. Even though these positions were unusual, the patient at no time felt

uncomfortable!

H. Hypnosis occasionally has been used with witnesses and victims of crime to enable people to

remember important clues, such as a criminal’s physical appearance or other significant details that

8

might help to solve a crime. However, as people can both lie and make mistakes while hypnotised, the

use of hypnotism in legal situations can cause serious problems. Also hypnosis cannot make a person

divulge secret information if they don’t want to. This was confirmed by the Council on Scientific Affairs

of the American Medical Association, which in 1985 reported that memories refreshed through hypnosis

may include inaccurate information, false memories, and confabulation (fact and fantasy combined).

Questions 106-110: The passage has eight paragraphs A-H. Choose the most suitable heading for

paragraphs B-F from the list of headings below. Write the appropriate numbers (i-x). There are more

headings than paragraphs, so you will not use all of them.

Example:

0. Paragraph A ….x………….

106. Paragraph B ………………

107. Paragraph C ………………

108. Paragraph D ……………....

109. Paragraph E ………………

110. Paragraph F ………………

Questions 111-115: Complete the notes on the history of hypnosis using NO MORE THAN THREE

WORDS from the passage.

References to hypnotism can be found in both the Talmud and the (111)…………… . Even

when Mesmer’s (112)………… were not used, successful results occurred without them. Braid

identified hypnosis as a natural (113)………………response, rather than magical or mystical. Early

psychological studies showed the difference between sleep and hypnosis. Successful hypnosis requires

the subject’s active (114)………………. . Consequently subjects can speak or move around and are

(115)………………….of their surroundings.

Questions 116-120: Choose the correct letter A-D

116. In order to induce hypnosis the hypnotists will………

A. encourage the person to relax using a repetitively even tone of voice.

B. say a specific set of words in a special tone of voice.

C. say any words but in a particular tone of voice.

D. encourage the person to relax while focusing on a slowly moving object.

117. Hypnotised subjects can be instructed to…………….

A. do something they have previously said is against their wishes.

B. demonstrate physical strength they would normally not have.

C. reveal confidential information against their will.

D. do something that they would not normally be opposed to doing.

118. Past events are recalled under hypnosis………………

A. to entertain the hypnotist.

B. to allow subjects reassess them without distress.

C. to help the subjects improve their memories.

D. to make the subject feel younger.

119. After surgery, hypnosis may be used…………………

A. to make drugs unnecessary.

B. to keep the patient mobile.

C. to make the patient forget to move.

D. to minimize patient’s discomfort while immobile.

List of headings

(i) Use of the hypnotism in criminal cases

(ii) The normality of hypnotized subjects’ behaviour

(iii) Early medical experiments with hypnotism

(iv) Early association of hypnosis with psychology

(v) Dangers of hypnotism

(vi) How to hypnotise

(vii) Hypnosis and free will

(viii) Difference between mesmerism and hypnotism

(ix) Therapeutic uses of hypnosis

(x) Origins of hypnosis (Example)

9

120. The American Medical Association reported that……………..

A. people lie when giving evidence under hypnosis.

B. people should be hypnotised before giving evidence.

C. evidence given when hypnotized may be unreliable.

D. secret evidence can be obtained through hypnosis.

PAPER FOUR: WRITING (55/200 points)

Section 1.

The table below gives information about the use of different modes of transport in Shanghai

in 1996, and one possible projection (high motorization scenario) for their use in 2020.

Write a report (at least 150 words) to describe the information below.

Percentage of passenger kilometers

by different modes of transport in Shanghai

Mode of transport

1996

2020 (projection)

walking

7%

3%

bicycle

27%

3%

scooter

12%

7%

bus

39%

22%

train

-

13%

car

15%

52%

Section 2.

Present a written argument or case to an educated reader with no specialist knowledge of the

following topic.

University education should be restricted to the very best academic students, rather than being

available to a large proportion of young people.

To what extend do you agree or disagree?

You should use your own ideas, knowledge and experience and support your arguments with

examples and relevant evidence.

Write at least 250 words.

-------THE END-------

1

SỞ GIÁO DỤC & ĐÀO TẠO

QUẢNG BÌNH

KỲ THI CHỌN ĐỘI TUYỂN CHÍNH THỨC DỰ THI

HSG QUỐC GIA LỚP 12 THPT NĂM HỌC 2012-2013

Môn thi: TIẾNG ANH (VÒNG 2)

Khoá thi ngày 01 tháng 11 năm 2012

HƯỚNG DẪN CHẤM

Tổng số điểm toàn bài: 200 điểm

Sau khi cộng toàn bộ số điểm, giám khảo quy về hệ điểm 20 (không làm tròn số).

PAPER ONE: LISTENING (50/200 points)

Section 1. Mỗi đáp án đúng được 2 điểm, tổng 20 điểm.

1. 692411 2. Rainbow Communications 3. white 4. two/2/boxes

5. light blue 6. 10 packs/packets 7. (coloured) floppy disks/computer disks/discs/disks

8. (a/one) wall calendar 9. (a/one) catalogue 10. before/not after/by 11.30

Section 2. Mỗi đáp án đúng được 1 điểm, tổng 10 điểm.

11. Royal Museum 12. Queen’s Park Road 13. 10

th

December 14. metal work

15. (garden) vegetables 16. (coloured) stones 17. (white) paper 18. Face to Face

19. pencil drawing 20. all materials

Section 3. Mỗi đáp án đúng được 1 điểm, tổng 10 điểm.

21. 40 million 22. dogs/the dog 23. (only) ate plants 24. E 25. C

26. D 27. B 28. A 29. B 30. E

Section 4. Mỗi đáp án đúng được 1 điểm, tổng 10 điểm.

31. C 32. B 33. C 34. B

35. A 36. C 37. first person 38. (a) new element /helium

39. (the) lost planet/ (the) new planet/ Vulcan 40. gravity

PAPER TWO: LEXICO-GRAMMAR (40/200 points)

Section 1. Mỗi đáp án đúng được 1 điểm, tổng 20 điểm.

41. C 42. B 43. A 44. B 45. C 46. A 47. C

48. D 49. B 50. B 51. B 52. D 53. A 54. C

55. D 56. D 57. D 58. A 59. A 60. A

Section 2. Mỗi đáp án đúng được 1 điểm, tổng 10 điểm.

61. overweight 62. inability 63. humiliation 64. endless

65. unwanted 66. unbelievable 67. statements 68. validate

69. disorientation 70. tiredness

Section 3. Tìm ra lỗi sai và sửa đúng được1 điểm, tổng 10 điểm.

Number

Mistake

Correction

Number

Mistake

Correction

71.

amazed

amazing

76.

taken

taking

72.

rate

rates

77.

a

the

73.

and

but

78.

good

well

74.

believe

believing

79.

will be

are

75.

become

becomes

80.

few

little

2

PAPER THREE: READING COMPREHENSION (55/200 points)

Section 1. Mỗi từ đúng được 1 điểm, tổng 15 điểm.

81. had 82. thanks 83. while/whilst 84. on/upon 85. but/although/though 86. first

87. to 88. can/may 89. another 90. this 91. in 92. not

93. both 94. work 95. thus/thereby/hence

Section 2. Mỗi đáp án đúng được 1 điểm, tổng 10 điểm.

96. C 97. B 98. A 99. C 100. D

101. A 102. B 103. A 104. B 105. D

Section 3. Mỗi đáp án đúng được 2 điểm, tổng 30 điểm.

106. iii 107. ii 108. vi 109. vii 110. ix

111. Bible 112. magnets and water 113. physiological/ human

114. (mental) concentration 115. (fully) aware

116. A 117. D 118. B 119. D 120. C

PAPER FOUR: WRITING (55/200 points)

Section 1. 25 điểm

Section 2. 30 điểm

* The mark given to section 2 and section 3 is based on the following scheme:

1. Content: 35% of the total mark.

2. Organization and presentation: 30% of the total mark.

3. Language: 30% of the total mark.

4. Handwriting, punctuation and spelling: 5% of the total mark.

-------THE END-------

Page 1 of 12

Lưu ý: Thí sinh làm bài trên tờ giấy thi

SECTION ONE: LISTENING (40/ 200 points)

Instruction: Listen to the recording and answer the questions. You will hear each part of the

recording twice. There will be a pause before each part so you can read the questions. There will be

other pauses to let you think about your answers. When you hear the tone, you should write your

answers on the question paper.

Part 1. In section 1, for questions 1-10, listen to a piece of news from the BBC about the best city

to live and fill in the missing information. Write ONE WORD taken from the recording for each

answer in the spaces provided.

A slick advert by the Melbourne tourist board shows pictures of its enviable schools, beaches,

transport system and (1)………, all of which have helped it earn the number one spot as the world's

most liveable city.

The 140 cities in the survey are judged on five broad categories: (2)………, healthcare, culture

and environment, education and (3) ………... The top scorers tend to be mid-sized cities in wealthy

countries with a low population (4) ………. Some seven of the top ten – including Vancouver, Toronto

and Sydney – are in Australia or Canada. Vienna, Helsinki and Auckland also made the top ten. Of the

cities (5) ……..– and some like Kabul and Baghdad were not included for safety reasons – Dhaka in

Bangladesh was rated the least (6)……... Lagos, Harare, Algiers and Karachi all scored (7) ………..as

well.

The city that has (8) ………fastest down the list in the last year is Damascus, due to the

ongoing (9) ………..in Syria, while infrastructure improvements in China mean that cities like

Shanghai and Suzhou have (10) ……………better than they did last year.

Part 2. In section 2, for questions 11-15, listen and complete the sentences below. Write NO

MORE THAN TWO WORDS for each question.

The police officer suggests neighbors give each other their (11)………………………

Neighbours should discuss what to do if there’s any kind of (12) ………………………

It’s a good idea to leave on the (13) ………………………

Think carefully about where you put any (14) ………………………

It’s a good idea to buy good quality (15) …………………………

From question 16 to question 20, which crime prevention measure is proposed for each

area affected by crime ? Choose FIVE answers from the box and write the correct letter, A- G,

next to questions 16 to 20.

SỞ GD&ĐT QUẢNG BÌNH

ĐỀ THI CHÍNH THỨC

SỐ BÁO DANH:……………

KỲ THI CHỌN ĐỘI TUYỂN CHÍNH THỨC DỰ THI HSG

QUỐC GIA LỚP 12 THPT NĂM HỌC 2014-2015

Môn thi: Tiếng Anh - Vòng I

(Khóa ngày 11 tháng 9 năm 2014)

Thời gian làm bài: 180 phút (không kể thời gian giao đề)

Đề có 12 trang

Proposed crime prevention measures

A. install more lighting

B. have more police officers on patrol

C. remove surrounding vegetation

D. contact local police

E. fix damage quickly

F. change road design

G. use security cameras

Page 2 of 12

Areas affected by crime

16. skate park ………………………

17. local primary schools ………………………

18. Abbotsford Street ………………………

19. shops on Victoria Street ………………………

20. supermarket car park ………………………

SECTION TWO: LEXICO- GRAMMAR (60/ 200 points)

Part 1. For questions 21- 40, choose the most suitable word to complete each sentence.

21. I was …………….to believe that she was a representative of the Labour Party.

A. declared B. carried C. led D. explained

22. It has been kept …………………. for about ten years that minister’s son committed a crime.

A. unaware B. secret C. mystery D. obscure

23. One could see with the ……………….. eye that there was a lighthouse on the promontory.

A. naked B. sole C. nude D. shut

24. I wouldn’t ……………..their position in the market. They may appear to be very influential one

day unless they were politicians.

A. undertake B. underestimate C. underwrite D. undercharge

25. Numerous ……………….. have prevented us from going to the lakeside again this year.

A. inhibitions B. deterrents C. impairments D. adversities

26. The police promised him …………….from prosecution if he co-operated with them fully.

A. safety B. protection C. immunity D. absolution

27. Public television stations are different from commercial stations……………….

A. because they receive money different types of shows

B. for money and program types

C. in the areas of funding and programming

D. because the former receive money and has programs differently from the latter

28. Charles Babbage’s “different engine” is widely regarded as the …………… of modern computers.

A. precedent B. precursor C. ancestor D. antecedent

29. According to psychiatrists, many violent criminals harbor a feeling of …………….and insecurity.

A. insufficiency B. shortage C. inadequacy D. scarcity

30. It must be true. I hear it straight from the ……………… mouth.

A. dog’s B. horse’s C. camel’s D. cat’s

31. I’m afraid we have …………. a lot of criticism over our decisions to close the hospital.

A. come in for B. come round C. come out with D. come up with

32. She was unaware that she had been under …………….since her arrival.

A. review B. consideration C. discussion D. surveillance

33. What happened……………..their car broke down on the motorway so they didn’t get to Joe’s

wedding on time.

A. to be that B. being that C. was that D. to that

34. The restaurant is popular with film stars and the …………………

A. like B. same C. similar D. such

35. Alex was …………….enough on becoming a professional sportsman and he didn’t want to listen

to anybody else’s advice.

A. intent B. eager C. definite D. certain

36. Michael was a terrible ……………….., he was even afraid to stay at home alone.

A. culprit B. coward C. fiancé D. boaster

37. After a lengthy debate, the spokesman announced the board had………an unanimous conclusion.

Page 3 of 12

A. committed B. solved C. reached D. compromised

38. I thought that Wendy’s action was rather out of …………………….

A. personality B. character C. being D. role

39. The planes were delayed and the hotel was awful, but………….we still had a good time.

A. on the contrary B. by the same token

C. on top of all that D. for all that

40. It was ………….time we did something about the case, but we had no idea how to react.

A. main B. high C. latest D. fair

Part 2. For questions 41-50, read the text below, Use the words given in capitals at the end of

some of the lines to form a word that fits in the gap in the same line.

TROLLEY BAGS

Wheeled trolley bags have become an (0.) ..essential…item of luggage

amongst frequent travelers. The compact version proves particularly (41) ……as

a piece of hand luggage. Carried onboard aeroplanes, it allows you to avoid the

queues at the baggage check-in counters on your (42) ………..journey and

waiting at the baggage (43) ………….carousel on your way home. These days,

there are (44) ……….guidelines regarding the maximum size for hand luggage

on flights, and these stipulated (45)…………are continuously subject to change.

Policies also vary between airlines and airports as well as being influenced by

your (46)………destination. The outcome of all this is that travelers are

recommended to check out the latest luggage (47)………before settling out for

the airport.

What’s more, before investing in a trolley bag, it’s wise to run a few checks.

You’re likely to be negotiating (48)……….surfaces as well as the smooth

flooring of airport lounges, so bear in mind that larger wheels are better able to

absorb bumps than their smaller (49)……..Also check the handle. You’re bound

to need to lift your bag at some point in your journey, probably when you are

suddenly confronted with an (50)……….flight of steps, and that’s not the

moment to discover that the handle is awkward to hold.

ESSENCE

USE

OUT

CLAIM

OFFICE

MEASURE

EVENT

RESTRICT

EVEN

COUNTER

CONVENIENCE

Part 3. For questions 51-60, the passage below contains 10 mistakes in spelling, grammar, word

form. Find the mistakes and correct them in the space provided in the column on the right.

ICE CREAM

Spaghetti with chicken, fish and chips, Indian tea. No, these is not

items on a restaurant menu, but ice cream flavours selling in a shop high

in the Venezuelan Andes. At this particular ice cream shop, you are

presented with a choice of 683 variety. It is no surprise, therefore,

that it is listed in much reference books as the place which has the

most flavours in the world. ‘I wanted to do something different’, the

owner said, 'so I bought an ice cream machine’. It's the best investment

I've ever done.' The Portuguese businessman started experimenting

17 years ago, trying to make avocado ice cream. He finally found a

successful formulae and became addicted to experimenting. Soon his

imagination knew no limits. Whatever food you think of, his shop has

the ice cream version. 'When I'm look along the rows of food in a

supermarket, I immediately ask myself which flavour I could use next’,

the owner said. This can occasionally led to problems. He once made

an ice cream with a chilli flavour that was so strong his customer's

0. is -> are

51. __________

52. ___________

53. ___________

54. ___________

55. ___________

56. ___________

57. ___________

58. ___________

Page 4 of 12

complained that their mouths were burning. The owner, Mr. Olvero,

who keeps the ice cream recipes in his head, says that there are still

room for more flavours. He adds that he would be gratefully for any

suggestions for the shop that he plans to open in the near future.

59. ___________

60.___________

Part 4. For questions 61 -70, fill the following sentences with suitable prepositions, or particles

in the box. Use each word only ONCE, there are more prepositions or particles.

between out up around off apart into on back to under

61. I’m so snowed …………….. with work at the moment – it’s awful.

62. I took my watch …………… to see what was wrong with it, but I couldn’t put it back together

again.

63. Your essay would make more sense if you changed …………….the second and third paragraphs.

64. I played so much football last season that I wore ……………….. a pair of boots.

65. I haven’t seen much of Cameron since he and Nicola broke ……………..

66. She really loves him and is determined not to let anything come ……………..them.

67. I didn’t take ……………… my stepbrother at first, but after a while we grew closer.

68. Don’t pick ……………. the other children in your class because you’re bigger than them.

69. I wish you would just do as you’re told and not answer ……………. every time I ask you to do

something.

70. Guess who I bumped ………….in town, our old physics teacher, Mr. Watson.

Part 5. For questions 71-80, replace each bold phrase or adjective with synonymous one.

petrified tempting miserable prompt strict

hostile negligible irritable grand overwhelming

71. If only it stopped raining for a while, I hate to think that this awful weather is forecast till the end

till the end of August.

72. It was Jim's rapid reaction that saved our lives. There's no saying what could have happened if he

hadn't noticed the oncoming lorry.

73.We found their offer most alluring. However, we couldn't leave our children behind and go skiing

for the whole week.

74. The law is very severe in such cases, so I assume the rapist will receive a heavy sentence.

75. The zoo visitors were scared stiff when the two lions got out of their cage.

76. Some mothers cried during the solemn ceremony of their sons being honoured by the President.

77. The enemy forces were too powerful to be defeated, so our troops were ordered to retreat to a

safer position.

78. I advise you to be careful with Mrs. Linton. She gets easily annoyed at times.

79. The details you are giving to me are of secondary importance, what I need is something really

extraordinary.

80. I can't understand his unfriendly attitude towards us. What's made him so angry?

SECTION THREE: READING COMPREHENSION (60/ 200 points)

Part 1. For questions 81 -95, read the text below and decide which answer (A, B,C or D) best fits

each space.

DINOSAUR DISCOVERIES

ln the late 1930s, a group of (0)..... American scientists seeking dinosaur fossils made some (81).....

finds, Although one of their expeditions discovered no bones at all, it nonetheless (82) .....to be

important in terms of the information about dinosaurs it provided.

During that historic expedition, which took place along the (83)..... of the Paluxy river in Texas,

something extraordinary was revealed: a dinosaur track, clearly (84) ..... in the rock. These dinosaur

footprints (85)..... their preservation to the salts and mud that covered them and then hardened into

rock, before (86) ..... to light 100 million years later. Tracks like these are (87)..... to experts. There

Page 5 of 12

have been great gaps in scientists' understanding of dinosaur (88) ..... , and so such footprints are useful

since they provide direct (89) .....of how dinosaurs actually moved. Scientists have been able to use

these footprints, and others like them, to (90)..... how quickly different species walked, and to conclude

that many kinds of dinosaur must have traveled in (91) ......

(92) …......, the tracks of four-legged dinosaurs seem to (93)..... that in spite of being reptiles, these

creatures must have moved in a very similar way to living mammals, such as elephants - a pattern of

movement (94)..... from that of most contemporary reptiles, such as crocodiles. This leads to an

intriguing question. Might existing mammals have more to teach us about the (95) ..... reptiles that

once walked the earth?

0. A. primary

B. dominant

C. leading

D. principal

81. A. noteworthy

B. noticeable

C. notifiable

D. notional

82. A. turned

B. arose

C. proved

D. occurred

83. A. verges

B. borders

C. coasts

D. banks

84. A. blatant

B. substantial

C. distinguishable

D. ostensible

85. A. owe

B. derive

C. result

D. thank

86. A. coming

B. bringing

C. appearing

D. surfacing

87. A. unique

B. invaluable

C. costly

D. rare

88. A. action

B. manners

C. behaviour

D. customs

89. A. basis

B. support

C. source

D. evidence

90. A. make up

B. determine

C. weigh up

D. reflect

91. A. sets

B. herds

C. masses

D. bunches

92. A. Accordingly

B. Characteristically

C. Interestingly

D. Alternatively

93. A. point

B. specify

C. express

D. indicate

94. A. separate

B. unconnected

C. detached

D. distinct

95. A. abolished

B. departed

C. extinct

D. extinguished

Part 2. For questions 96- 110, complete the following article by writing each missing word in the

correct box on your answer sheet. Use only one word for each space. The exercise begins with an

example (0).

Example: 0 -> set

SPACEMAN’S AUTOGRAPHS

Only twelve astronauts actually (0) ……… foot on moon during the US Apollo space programme

between 1969 and 1972. Some have since (96)……..household names, like Neil Armstrong,

(97)……… made “the original giant leap for mankind” and Buzz Aldrin, his co-pilot on that mission.

The other ten are less well-known, even (98)………..each made his own contribution to the program.

But to Paul Prendergast, a postal worker from London, they are all pioneers, worthy to be mentioned

in the (99)……….breath as the great explorers of earlier eras, (100) …….as Christopher Columbus.

Paul’s fascination (101)……..the subject began in 2000 (102)………he attended a convention for

people (103)……..hobby is collecting autographs. There he met Alan Bean (fourth man on the moon)

and Ed Mitchell (sixth). As he remembers: ‘There were television stars there, people from Bond

movies, and so (104)………, but these men had walked on the moon. I headed straight (105)

……….to meet them and ask for their autographs.’ For a collector, the challenge of (106) …………

hold of the remaining ten proved irresistible.

Yet Paul’s quest was never going to be entirely straightforward. After (107)……., at that time, only

nine of the astronauts were still alive and two (108)………given up signing autographs years before.

Paul eventually (109)………to achieve his goals, (110) ……., by establishing contacts with other

collectors by buying from reputable dealers and by attending specialist auctions.

Part 3. For questions 111- 120, choose the answer (A, B, C or D) which you think fits best

according to the text.

Page 6 of 12

TAKING A GAP YEAR

Journalist Lucy Tobin considers whether taking time out before university makes sense in the

current economic climate.

One upon a time the gap year was the preserve of rucksack-schlepping, sandal-wearing

teenagers who would doss around South America or Asia for a few months before university. No

longer. Today’s competitive job market means gapers must ensure a year out will leave behind a

sprinkling of CV fairy dust.

That doesn’t mean it has to be boring. Whether you’re considering a gap year before or after

university, or much later on in life, there are plenty of ways to make it boost your employability while

having fun. Spend a few months doing work experience and making contacts in a field that interests

you before jumping on that plane to Thailand. Test out different industries. Turn that business idea

you’ve been talking about into reality. If it takes off, it could lower your student loan, or save you the

need to find a “real job”. If not, it will show future employers your initiative.

Don’t be put off if you haven’t been incubating a gap – year dream since birth: there’s still

time to arrange a year out at very little notice. My gap year, for example, was a last – minute rush. I

had applied for politics at uni, decided very late on that I wanted to change to English, and when I

called up the university to enquire about this, I was told I’d have to take a gap year. I’d spent the

summer celebrating finishing school with friends, so when September rolled around, I had no plan or

job, or, consequently, any cash to travel with. Eventually, after a month sending a blitz of ignored

emails, I managed to wangle a job in publishing, then a journalism position at a prominent daily

newspaper. It was there I decided on my future career- all because I’d suddenly had to take a gap year.

(19) Ask people about their year-out experiences and it will become clear how many options there

are (although don’t ask too many questions: gapers tend to go on a bit). While I was commuting into

London every day, my friends were doing radically diverse things. One sold make up at Harrods

before saving vultures in Africa; another promoted classical music to kids, yet another was an intern in

parliament, and two traveled around Asia for a year.

But – as your family and friends will undoubtedly remind you when you mention a gap year-

these are tough economic times. Graduate employment is down: a quarter of graduate job vacancies

have disappeared and the competition for each job has grown, according to the Association of

Graduate Recruiters. The job market doesn’t look like it will improve overnight, so use a gap year to

help yourself stand out.

You don’t need to give up ideas of traveling – a year is a long time, and you might not have the

chance to go away for that long again. But think about combining a trip with six months’ work- or

study. If there’s something you’ve always wanted to do but been held back by a lack of time, a gap

year is the time to do it. Learn to drive, type or cook. Go to hairdressing school and build up a side

business in cutting friends’ hair. Or take a distance-learning course in your spare time.

Voluntary work abroad will benefit you and your CV, as well as the community or project

you’re helping. You may well be able to improve your language skills too- employers love linguists.

Make sure you choose a reputable company; do plenty of research, and ask any friends for personal

recommendations. A good starting point is the Year Out Group, whose members sign up to a code of

practice. It lists gap- year companies and the locations of gap-year fairs, which many firms attend.

If you’re staying at home, there are lots of rewarding and enjoyable charity work options.

It’s worth thinking about what you want to get out of your gap year. At the start of mine, a

fellow gapers and I listed things we wanted to do: big plans, like achieving at least three months’

relevant work experience, but also things like making our way through a list of 50 films to see before

you die, and partying with friends at local universities to make sure we had the chance to meet lots of

new people. Try to have fun on your gap year, whatever you do. It’s an incredible opportunity to see

Page 7 of 12

the world, work out what you want to do with your life, and help you on your way to achieving it.

Good luck- and have a great time.

111. What point is the writer making in the first paragraph?

A. Young people gain a great deal from the experience of traveling.

B. Teenagers on gap years increasingly look for work abroad.

C. Gap years today have to be about more than just pleasure.

D. Fewer young people are currently able to afford gap years.

112. The phrase “rucksack-schlepping” is closest in meaning to ………

A. rucksack-carrying B. rucksack-buying C. rucksack-using D. rucksack-selling

113. What does the writer say about trying out your business idea during a gap year ?

A. It might cover the costs of your higher education.

B. You can benefit even if the idea does not succeed.

C. You are unlikely to get a similar opportunity at another time.

D. I could provide you with future contacts when you are looking for work.

114. What is the main reason why the writer gives the example of her own gap year experience?

A. to show that your gap year can have important consequences.

B. to emphasise that planning a gap year often takes longer than is really necessary.

C. to explain that you need to save money if you want to travel in your gap year.

D. to stress that gap year activities can be forced on you by unexpected circumstances.

115. The word “incubating” is closest in meaning to …………

A. sitting on eggs B. having an infectious disease developing inside somebody

C. harbouring D. appearing

116. Why does the writer say you should avoid asking a lot of questions in lines 19 -20 ?

A. because you need to make up your own mind about what’s best for you.

B. because it may become confusing if gapers tell you much.

C. because it is not necessary to learn about all the different options.

D. because you may hear about more of their experiences than you want to.

117. The writer says a gap year can make young people stand out because…….

A. their confidence increases as they work or travel.

B. it can provide skills other job applicants may lack.

C. it helps them develop into mature adults.

D. they see places few people their own age have seen.

118. The word “reputable” is closest in meaning to………

A. well-done B. respected C. appropriate D. reliable

119. The writer recommends that people wishing to do voluntary work overseas should …………..

A. learn the language of their destination before they go there.

B. find out as mush as possible about their destination.

C. make arrangements to go with a friend.

D. make informed choices about what to do.

120. What is the main point the writer is suggesting about a gap year in the last paragraph?

A. if you plan it carefully there will be time for fun too.

B. You need to make plans because the year will pass very quickly.

C. it provides a chance to develop different sides of your life.

D. it offers excellent opportunities to meet new people.

Part 4. You are going to read an extract from a novel. Seven paragraphs have been removed

from the extract. Choose from the paragraphs A–H the one which fits each gap (121–127). There

is one extra paragraph which you do not need to use.

Trip%to#Tonbridge#

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Lisa was frantic to come up with someone she could visit. A girl called Buzz she had once met

was the only person she could think of. She had had a letter from Buzz some months before, saying

she was living alone in a Volkswagen van in a field outside Tonbridge. She had invited Lisa to visit.

‘Just turn up. Any time.’ Lisa searched frantically for the letter. It contained a list of directions.

121

Lisa felt confident the right one would reveal itself to her. The train journey might jog it into

place. She gave up on her search for the letter and prepared to be away for up to a week. She packed a

bag and left a note for her mother. The train to Tonbridge took just under an hour. Lisa spent the entire

journey matching buses with numbers until she began to feel sick with the effort. She decided that

once she had got off the train, everything would come back to her.

122

But when Lisa handed in her ticket and went out into the station forecourt, there was nothing in

sight that looked even remotely familiar. She stood dolefully on the concrete strip of pavement and

wondered which way she should go. There wasn’t a bus in sight. The people who had travelled with

her disappeared into taxis and waiting cars and were sped away.

123

Lisa turned away from it and continued to walk down the hill, which soon evened out into a

straight high street of shops, all closed up for the night. In the distance, she could see that the road

twisted away out of sight. But when she reached the point where the road curved, she found she had to

cross a wooden bridge over a wide and noisy river, and on the other side, around the corner, there

wasn’t in fact a bus stop at all, but the ruins of a dimly lit medieval castle that no one, no one at all,

could forget to mention.

124

Lisa turned abruptly and began to walk back the way she’d come. She kept walking until she

had walked right out through the other side of the town. She walked past a church and then the road

sloped up a hill.

125

Despite this doubt, she carried on, until there were no more street lights. The hill, with its

overgrown hedges, now lay shrouded in an eerie night. So she traced her way back towards the church.

There was a pub near it with warm, orange light seeping through its windows.

126

Lisa went over and peered through a window. The glass was frosted and gave nothing away.

She was about to edge her way through the doors when a contingent of bikers roared to a halt in the car

park and began to dismount. Lisa flattened herself against the wall of the porch and, as they got off

their bikes, she slipped away around the side of the pub. Once on the safety of the road, she resumed

her walk back into the town centre.

127

The more she thought about it, the more convinced she became that that was true. And she

knew what it was going to be. She would meet someone on the train. Someone with whom she could

mark this day as the beginning of the rest of her life. Someone to fall in love with.

A. She imagined Buzz sitting inside with a drink and a table covered with packets of cheese and-

onion crisps. She longed to see her smiling, freckled face, and her twinkling eyes clogged almost shut

with mascara. She imagined her at a table of men all vying for attention.

Page 9 of 12

B. Lisa had to accept that it was unlikely now anything was going to occur to change this day from the

failure that it was. She kept her head down as she wandered out. She was ashamed to be back there

again so soon.

C. And then she felt sure she remembered. ‘Get off the train, go down a hill, round a corner and there

will be a bus stop.’ She repeated this to herself over and over as she walked on, frightened that these

valuable directions would slip away now that she’d finally got a hold of them.

D. Lisa asked someone the way to the centre of town, and was pointed wordlessly down the sharp

slope of a hill where almost immediately she came upon a bus stop. Her heart leapt as she scanned the

timetable, but there were so many buses listed and with such foreign-sounding destinations that she felt

sure it couldn’t be the right stop.

E. She started to convince herself that she had made this journey before. That she would know her

way to the tobacconist and the sweetshop and the park in the centre of town, like a man in a film she

had once seen. The man, who had lost his memory during the war, was astounded to find he knew his

way around a sleepy, sepia-coloured village. It emerged that it was the village he had been born in.

F. It was almost utterly deserted now. She stared wistfully into the faces of the occasional passers-by.

Mostly young couples wandering aimlessly hand in hand. There was no one scruffy or wild enough to

look as if they were a friend of Buzz’s. Lisa clutched the return ticket lying deep in the bottom of her

pocket, and headed for the station. The last train to London didn’t leave until ten to ten and she sat

down on a bench to wait. ‘Something good has to happen,’ she told herself.

G. Get a train from Charing Cross, it began. She remembered that. She could remember the rhythm of

the directions but not the actual words. Get a train from Charing Cross, get off at Tonbridge, walk into

the tum te tum – the town centre? the bus station? Get the number something bus, up a hill, get off,

climb over a gate and there’s a field. Get the number 9 bus? The number 19 bus? The 92?

H. It was possible this might have been the one Buzz had meant in her letter, but if it was the one with

the field off it, then why would she have told her to catch a bus when there was no bus or bus stop?

Part 5. Read the following extracts and answer the questions.

DEER FARMING IN AUSTRALIA

Paragraph A

Deer are not indigenous to Australia. They were introduced into the country during the

nineteenth century under the acclimatization programs governing the introduction of exotic species of

animals and birds into Australia. Six species of deer were released at various locations. The animals

dispersed and established wild populations at various locations across Australia, mostly depending

upon their points of release into the wild. These animals formed the basis for the deer industry in

Australia today.

Commercial deer farming in Australia commenced in Victoria in 1971 with the authorized

capture of rusa deer from the Royal National Park, NSW. Until 1985, only four species of deer, two

from temperate climates (red, fallow) and two tropical species (rusa, chital) were confined for

commercial farming. Late in 1985, pressure from industry to increase herd numbers saw the

development of import protocols. This resulted in the introduction of large numbers of red deer hybrids

from New Zealand and North American elk directly from Canada. The national farmed deer herd is

now distributed throughout all states although most are in New South Wales and Victoria.

Paragraph B

The number of animals processed annually has continued to increase, despite the downward

trend in venison prices since 1997. Of concern is the apparent increase in the number of female

animals processed and the number of whole herds committed for processing. With more than 40,000

animals processed in 1998/99 and 60,000 in 1999/2000, there is justified concern that future years may

see a dramatic drop in production. At least 85% of all venison produced in Australia is exported,

Page 10 of 12

principally to Europe. At least 90% of all velvet antler produced is exported in an unprocessed state to

Asia.

Schemes to promote Australian deer products continue to have a positive effect on sales that in

turn have a positive effect on prices paid to growers. The industry appears to be showing limited signs

that it is emerging from a state of depression caused by both internal and external factors that include:

(i) the Asian currency downturn; (ii) the industry’s lack of competitive advantage in influential

markets (particularly in respect to New Zealand competition), and; (iii) within industry processing and

marketing competition for limited product volumes of venison.

Paragraph C

From the formation of the Australian Deer Breeders Federation in 1979, the industry

representative body has evolved through the Deer Farmers Federation of Australia to the Deer Industry

Association of Australia Ltd (DIAA), which was registered in 1995. The industry has established two

product development and marketing companies, the Australian Deer Horn and Co-Products Pty Ltd

(ADH) and the Deer Industry Projects and Development Pty Ltd, which trades as the Deer Industry

Company (DIC). ADH collects and markets Australian deer horn and co-products on behalf of

Australian deer farmers. It promotes the harvest of velvet antler according to the strict quality

assurance program promoted by the industry. The company also plans and co-ordinates regular velvet

accreditation courses for Australian deer farmers.

Paragraph D

Estimates suggest that until the early 1990s the rate of the annual increase in the number of

farmed deer was up to 25%, but after 1993 this rate of increase fell to probably less than 10%. The

main reasons for the decline in the deer herd growth rate at such a critical time for the market were: (i)

severe drought conditions up to 1998 affecting eastern Australia during 1993-96 and (ii) the

consequent slaughter of large numbers of breeding females, at very low prices. These factors combined

to decrease confidence within the industry. Lack of confidence saw a drop in new investment within

the industry and a lack of willingness of established farmers to expand their herds. With the

development of strong overseas markets for venison and velvet and the prospect of better seasons

ahead in 1996, the trends described were seen to have been significantly reversed. However, the

relatively small size of the Australian herd was seen to impose undesirable restraints on the rate at

which herd numbers could be expanded to meet the demands for products. Supply difficulties were

exacerbated when the supply of products, particularly venison, was maintained by the slaughter of

young breeding females. The net result was depletion of the industry’s female breeding herds.

Paragraph E

Industry programs are funded by statutory levies on sales of animals for venison, velvet antler

sales and the sale of live animals into export markets. The industry has a 1996 - 2000 five year plan

including animal nutrition, pasture quality, carcass quality, antler harvesting, promotional material and

technical bulletins. All projects have generated a significant volume of information, which

compliments similar work undertaken in New Zealand and other deer farming countries.

Major projects funded by levy funds include the Venison Market Project from 1992 to 1996. This

initiative resulted in a dramatic increase in international demand for Australian venison and an increase

in the domestic consumption of venison. In an effort to maintain existing venison markets in the short

term and to increase them in the long term, in 1997 the industry’s top priority became the increase in

size and production capacity of the national herds.

For questions 128 – 132, choose correct heading for paragraphs A – E from the list of headings

below. Write your answer in the corresponding numbered paragraphs.

There are more headings than paragraphs, so you will not use them all.

Page 11 of 12

List of headings

I. Industry Structures

II. Disease Affects Production

III. Trends in Production

IV. Government Assistance

V. How Deer Came to Australia

VI. Research and Development

VII. Asian Competition

VIII. Industry Development

Your answer:

128. Paragraph A _______________

129. Paragraph B _______________

130. Paragraph C _______________

131. Paragraph D _______________

132. Paragraph E _______________

For questions 133 – 137, write in the corresponding numbered boxes.

T: if the statement is true

F: if the statement is false

NG: if the information is not given in the reading passage

133. Until 1985 only 2 species of the originally released Australian deer were not used for farming.

134. Since 1985 many imported deer have been interbred with the established herds.

135. The drop in deer numbers since 1997 led to an increase in the price of venison.

136. Only a small amount of Australian venison production is consumed domestically.

137. Current economic conditions in Asian countries have had positive effect on the Australian deer

industry.

For questions 138–140, complete each of the following statements with words taken from the

passage. Write NO MORE THAN THREE WORDS for each answer.

138. A stringent ……….. allows the Australian deer industry to maintain their excellence of product.

139. Herd stock expansion was made difficult by the killing of …………. to continue product supply.

140. Foreign and home markets for Australian venison increased due to the ……………………...

SECTION FOUR: WRITING (40/ 200 points)

Part 1. For questions 141 to 150, complete the second sentence so that it has a similar meaning to

the first sentence, using the word given. Do not change the word given. You must use between

THREE and SIX words, including the word given.

141. What would you have done differently in my position last year ?

shoes

What would you have done differently if …………………………………………….last year?

142. Surely you should have informed him about the problem sooner?

attention

Why didn’t you …………………………………………………………………………..sooner?

143. We need to decide how we’re going to go to the theatre.

decision

We need to ……………………………………………………………………get to the theatre.

144. Jane loves New York now but it seemed a strange place to her for several months after she

moved there.

used

It took Jane several months ……………………………………………………………New York.

145. It’s important to defend what you believe in when others express their doubts.

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stand

You must ………………………………………………when others express doubts about them.

146. The judge told the jury that they should remember how young Smith was when considering their

verdict.

account

The judge told the jury ……………………………………….......when considering their verdict.

147. I imagine Paul missed the train he usually gets as he isn’t home yet.

usual

Paul can’t ………………………………………………………………..or he’d be home by now.

148. What I do in my free time has got nothing to do with my boss, has it ?

business

What I do in my free time…………………………………………………………….., is it ?

149. I was looking out of the window when I saw a boy take something from a man’s pocket.

sight

I was looking out of the window when I…………………….something from a man’s pocket.

150. It was the film’s music that impressed me most.

impression

The film’s music was ………………………………………………………………………me.

Part 2. The chart below shows demographic trends in Scotland. Summarize the information by

selecting and reporting the main features. Write at least 150 words.

-----------THE END-------------

SỞ GIÁO DỤC VÀ ĐÀO TẠO KỲ THI CHỌN ĐỘI TUYỂN CHÍNH THỨC DỰ THI HSG

QUẢNG BÌNH QUỐC GIA LỚP 12 THPT NĂM HỌC 2014- 2015

Môn thi: TIẾNG ANH (VÒNG I)

Khóa thi ngày 11 tháng 9 năm 2014

HƯỚNG DẪN CHẤM

Tổng số điểm toàn bài: 200 điểm

Sau khi cộng toàn bộ số điểm, giám khảo quy về hệ điểm 20 (không làm tròn số).

SECTION ONE: LISTENING (40/ 200 điểm)

Part 1. Mỗi chỗ đúng được 2 điểm, tổng 20 điểm.

1. nightlife 2. stability

3. infrastructure 4. density

5. surveyed 6. liveable

7. poorly 8. dropped

9. conflict 10. scored

Part 2. Mỗi chỗ đúng được 2 điểm, tổng 10 điểm.

11. contact detais

12. (an) emergency

13. radio

14. (spare/ extra) keys

15. (window) locks

Part 3. Mỗi chỗ đúng được 2 điểm tổng 10 điểm.

16. C 17. D 18. F 19. G 20. E

SECTION TWO: LEXICO- GRAMMAR (60/200 points)

Part 1. Mỗi đáp án đúng được 1 điểm, tổng 20 điểm.

21. C (led) 31. A (come in for)

22. B (secret) 32. D (surveillance)

23. A (naked) 33. C (was that)

24. B (underestimate) 34. A (like)

25. D (adversities) 35. A (intent)

26. C (immunity) 36. B (coward)

27. C ( in the areas of funding and programming) 37. C (reached)

28. B (precursor) 38. B (character)

29. C (inadequacy) 39. B (by the same token)

30. B (horse’s ) 40. B (high)

Part 2. Mỗi đáp án đúng được 1 điểm, tổng 10 điểm.

41. useful 46. eventual

42. outward 47. restrictions

43. reclaim 48. uneven

44. official 49. counterparts

45. measurements 50. inconvenient

Part 3. Mỗi đáp án đúng được 1 điểm, tổng 10 điểm.

51. selling > sold 56. look > looking

52. variety > varieties 57. led > lead

53. much > many 58. customer’s > customers

54. done > made 59. are > is

55. formulae > formula 60. gratefully > grateful

Part 4. Mỗi đáp án đúng được 1 điểm, tổng 10 điểm.

61. under 66. between

62. apart 67. to

63. around 68. on

64. out 69. back

65. up 70. into

Part 5. Mỗi đáp án đúng được 1 điểm, tổng 10 điểm.

71. miserable 76. grand

72. prompt 77. overwhelming

73. tempting 78. irritable

74. strict 79. negligible

75. petrified 80. hostile

SECTION THREE: READING COMPREHENSION (60/200 points)

Part 1. Mỗi đáp án đúng được 1 điểm, tổng 15 điểm.

81. A 82. C 83. D 84. C 85. A

86. A 87. B 88. C 89. D 90. B

91. B 92. C 93. D 94. D 95. C

Part 2. Mỗi đáp án đúng được 1 điểm, tổng 15 điểm.

96. become 97. who 98. though/ if 99. same 100. such

101. with 102. when 103. whose 104. on 105. over

106. getting 107. all 108. had 109. managed 110. though/

however

Part 3. Mỗi đáp án đúng được 1 điểm, tổng 10 điểm.

111. C 116. D

112. A 117. B

113. B 118. B

114. A 119. D

115. C 120. C

Part 4. Mỗi đáp án đúng án được 1 điểm, tổng 7 điểm.

121. G 122. E 123. D 124. C 125. H 126. A 127. F

Part 5. Mỗi đáp án đúng được 1 điểm, tổng 13 điểm

128. V 129. VIII 130. I 131. III 132. VI

133. F 134. NG 135. F 136. T 137. NG

138. quality assurance program

139. breeding females

140. Venison Market Project

SECTION FOUR: WRITING (40/200 points)

Part 1. Mỗi câu viết lại đúng được 1 điểm, tổng 10 điểm.

141. I had been in your shoes

142. bring the problem to his attention

143. make/ take a decision about how to

144. to get used to living in

145. stand up for your principles/ beliefs

146. to take into account Smith’s age/ youth

to take Smith’s age/ youth into account

147. have caught the/ his usual train

148. isn’t any of my boss’s business

none of my boss’s business

149. caught sight of a boy taking

150. what made the strongest/ greatest/ most impression on

Part 2. Bài viết hoàn thiện được 30 điểm.

The mark is based on the following scheme.

1. Content: 35% of the total mark.

2. Organization and presentation: 30% of the total mark.

3. Language: 30% of the total mark.

4. Handwriting, punctuation and spelling: 5% of the total mark.

----------------------------------------THE END-----------------------------

Page 1 of 10

Lưu ý: Thí sinh làm bài trên tờ giấy thi

SECTION ONE: LISTENING (40/ 200 points)

Instruction: Listen to the recording and answer the questions. You will hear each part of the

recording twice. There will be a pause before each part so you can read the questions. There will be

other pauses to let you think about your answers. When you hear the tone, you should write your

answers on the question paper.

Part 1. Questions 1-6. You will hear three different extracts. For questions 1-6, choose the

answer (A, B or C) which fits best according to what you hear. There are two questions for each

extract.

Extract 1.

You hear a teacher speaking about working with autistic children.

1. What does the speaker say about the general perception of autism?

A. Her experience supports it.

B. It can be misleading.

C. It was created by teachers.

2. The speaker implies that autistic children

A. could be taught better.

B. can communicate verbally.

C. do not enjoy life.

Extract 2.

You hear a man and a woman discussing endangered languages in the United States.

3. What do the speakers agree about?

A. The statistic is not what they expected.

B. The statistic is not accurate.

C. The statistic is unbelievable.

4. What is the woman’s outlook on the situation?

A. Little can be done.

B. Everyone recognizes the problem.

C. It is not hopeless.

Extract 3.

You hear a professor talking about getting reactions from his students.

5. What is the professor’s opinion about surveys?

A. They are less useful than his colleagues think.

B. They are a complete waste of time.

C. They cannot elicit a response from students.

6. The professor implies that his students

A. are reluctant to communicate.

B. need feedback on their performance.

C. know he values their opinions.

Part 2. Questions 7-15. You will hear a researcher talking about communication in the

environmental science fields, and how communication on environmental issues could be

improved. For questions 7-15, complete the sentence with one word or a short phrase.

SỞ GD&ĐT QUẢNG BÌNH

ĐỀ THI CHÍNH THỨC

SỐ BÁO DANH:……………

KỲ THI CHỌN ĐỘI TUYỂN CHÍNH THỨC DỰ THI HSG

QUỐC GIA LỚP 12 THPT NĂM HỌC 2015-2016

Môn thi: Tiếng Anh - Vòng I

(Khóa ngày 22 tháng 9 năm 2015)

Thời gian làm bài: 180 phút (không kể thời gian giao đề)

Đề có 10 trang

Page 2 of 10

There is a deep cultural view that knowledge leads people to do (7) ………. However, to solve

environmental problems, obstacles must also be (8)………… The idea that knowledge automatically

leads to the correct behavior is too (9)………. People are now convinced of climate change but don’t

know about the (10)……… . Martin Luther King was effective because he gave people a message of

(11)……….. Hard work and luck might produce warming at the (12)………of future projections. We

will see negative change in the environment in spite of (13)…….. Though those living today will see

only climate (14)………, they may see positive social change. It is important to sustain people’s

(15)……… in working towards a better climate.

Part 3. Questions 16-20. You will hear a theoretical biologist, Dr Nowak, being interviewed by a

colleague about the evolution of language. For questions 16-20, choose the answer (A, B or C)

which fits best according to what you hear.

16. Dr Nowak is seeking to

A. create a new branch of science. B. change his speciality.

C. combine disparate fields. D. recruit theoretical biologists.

17. Dr Nowak jokes that mathematical biologists

A. know little about the real world. B. are not as clever as shepherds.

C. covet other people’s possesions. D. don’t see well.

18. Why does the subject of language evolution attract Dr Nowak?

A. It is forbidden. B. It was studied by famous people.

C. It is virtually unexplored. D. It is complex and controversial.

19. What point is made about the significance of the evolution of language?

A. It is important because it is the most recent event.

B. It is unimportant compared to that of the nervous system.

C. It actually changed the rules of evolution.

D. It is the most significant evolutionary step of all.

20. The evolution of language has made what possible?

A. culture. B. cultural evolution.

C. the transfer of information in a different way. D. the transfer of information across generations.

SECTION TWO: LEXICO- GRAMMAR (60/ 200 points)

Part 1. For questions 21- 30, choose the most suitable word to complete each sentence.

21. Religion and politics interest him almost ......................... .

A. equally B. the same C. similarly D. alike

22. Our salesmen normally ......................... their travel expenses from the company.

A. settle B. reimburse C. cover D. claim

23. A property company was making a take-over ......................... for the supermarket site.

A. proposition B. bid C. tender D. proposal

24. At first the children enjoyed the game but quite soon the novelty ..........................

A. went off B. died out C. wore off D. died down

25. These suggestions are ......................... to be accepted by the majority of members.

A. unlikely B. impossible C. undoubtedly D. inconceivable

26. The train ..........................the bay and then turned inland for twenty miles.

A. coasted B. skirted C. edged D. sided

27. I’m not keen on .............................. control of the project to a relative newcomer.

A. undertaking B. charging C. entrusting D. allotting

28. Our party chairman is ..........................great admirer of the Prime Minister.

A. some B. very C. no D. not

29. I’m afraid we haven’t got a spare bed. Can you ..........................with a mattress on the floor?

A. make do B. make by C. make over D. make up

30........................... receipt of your instructions, I immediately sent a telex message to Algeria.

A. On B. In C. With D. By

Page 3 of 10

Part 2. For questions 31-40, read the text below, use the words given in capitals at the end of

some of the lines to form a word that fits in the gap in the same line.

THE ANTARCTIC ICE MARATHON

There is no other race quite like it; no other race in a place so (31)…….; no other

race which puts the body through a(n) (32)…….……………test of such extremes. The

Antarctic Ice Marathon was the (33).…………….of Richard Donovan, whose company,

Polar Running Adventures, gives runners the opportunity to (34) ………………in a race

through the barren wasteland that is the snow covered Union Glacier.

Last year, there were some 34 participants in the race, and this time, the number

of (35).. ……….. is expected to be higher still; such has been the level of interest shown

by members of the public, amateur and professional athletes and the media alike.

But, while the prospect of being part of as unique an experience as the Antarctic

Ice Marathon is, seems, on the face of it, a rather (36)………………………notion, those

considering putting their names in the mix would do well to be (37)………..................of

just how intense and demanding, both physically and psychologically, the event can be.

You will be cut off completely from civilization , with not even a penguin there to

cheer you on , and you may have to face temperature dipping considerably than the levels

your body would be (38) …………………………. to dealing with, not to mention the

(39)………………………of fine weather- think instead near whiteout conditions and zero

(40)………………………. But, if you still fancy giving it a go, get in touch with Richard

and he can make your dream (or nightmare) come true.

ACCESS

ENDURE

CHILD

TAKE

ENTER

AGREE

MIND

CUSTOM

PROBABLE

VISIBLE

Part 3. Fill each blank with a suitable preposition or particle.

41. The escaped prison was making ……the coast.

42. He is still run …… after his illness and unfit for work.

43. Don’t throw those books around. They won’t stand……to that kind of treatment.

44. I was going to buy that house, but I decided ……it.

45. Stop spying …… me.

46. Lorna resorted ……bribery in an attempt to avoid arrest.

47. Their skin broke……in a terrible rash. They were allergic to strawberries.

48. I didn’t know what to say. I was ……a loss for words.

49. They paid me ……the hour.

50. Short skirts are ……vogue now.

Part 4. For questions 51-65, read the text and look carefully at each line. Some of the lines are

correct, and some have a word which should not be there. If a line is correct, put a tick (P ) by

the number. If a line has a word which should not be there, write the word by the number.

Examples: 0. being 00 P

MIDSUMMER IN FINLAND

0. ……. Midsummer, the celebration of the turning of the sun, has been being the

00……. highlight of the northern summer for centuries - an event full of symbolism,

51……. customs, magic and superstitions. In Finland, Midsummer night is so short

52……. as that evening dusk flows into morning dawn almost unnoticed. Even in

53……. southern Finland, midnight is the best described as strong twilight.

54……. Midsummer night was, the most of all, the celebration of greenery and

55……. fruit. Nature is in a full bloom then and the day is never- ending. It was

56……. customary throughout Finland to bring branches and greenery to indoors on

57……. Midsummer Eve. Houses were so thoroughly cleaned and decorated with

58……. birch branches and flower garlands. This “indoor forest” was complete when

Page 4 of 10

59……. leaves on the scrubbed floor gave out a fresh forest aroma. Midsummer is

60…… still the Finns’ most important one summer celebration. They gather together

61…… around the bonfire to make dance, play and be with family and friends

62……. themselves. In some areas, Midsummer poles decorated with flower garlands and

63……. leaves are erected for the festivities. Although some of the bid ceremonies

64……. are now performed only for fun, Midsummer night, as bathed in the strange

65……. white light of the North, is still mysterious.

Part 5. For questions 66-80, complete the following article by writing each missing word in the

correct blank. Use only ONE word for each space.

In the age before the motor car, what was travelling in London (66) ……? Photographs taken

100 years ago showing packed streets indicate that it was much the same as it is now.

Commuters who choose the car to get to work probably travel at (67)…… average speed of 17 kph

from their homes (68)…...the suburbs to offices in the centre. It is virtually the same (69)…… that

they would (70) …… travelled at in a horse and carriage a century ago.

As towns and cities grow, (71)…… does traffic, whether in the form of the horse and

carriage (72) …… the modern motor car. It would seem that, wherever (73)…… are people who

need to go somewhere, they would (74) …… be carried than walk or pedal. The photographs

show that, in (75) … of congestion and speed, traffic in London hasn’t changed over the past 100

years. London has had traffic jams ever (76)…… it became a huge city. It is only the vehicles that

have changed.

However, although London had traffic congestion long (77) ……the car came along, the age

of the horse produced little unpleasantness apart (78) …… the congestion. Today, exhaust fumes create

dangerous smogs that cause (79) …... problems for a great many people. Such problems could be

reduced (80) ……many of us avoided jams by using bicycles or taking a brisk walk to school or work.

SECTION THREE: READING COMPREHENSION (60/ 200 points)

Part 1. For questions 81 -88, read the text below and decide which answer (A, B,C or D) best fits

each space.

Language is thought to be a(n) (81)……. for transmitting the information without thoughts.

One experiment used to demonstrate this idea (82) ……. subjects to listen to a short passage of several

sentences, then to repeat the passage. Most people will accurately convey the (83)…….of the passage

in the sentences they produce, but will not come close to repeating the sentences verbatim. It appears

that two (84)…… are occurring. Upon hearing the passage, the subjects convert the language of the

passage into a more abstract representation of its meaning, which is more easily (85)……. within

memory. Then in order to recreate the passage, the subject (86)…… this representation and converts

its meaning back into language.

This separation of thought and language is less intuitive than it might be because language can

be a powerful (87)…… with which to manipulate thoughts. It provides a mechanism to internally

rehearse, critique and (88) …… thoughts. This internal form of communication is essential for a social

animal and could certainly be, in part, responsible for the strong selective pressures for improved

language use.

81. A. indication

B. mechanism

C. obligation

D. invention

82. A. requires

B. obtains

C. demands

D. promotes

83. A. hunch

B. hub

C. gist

D. precision

84. A. transformations

B. instigations

C. iterations

D. applications

85. A. stored

B. reminded

C. acquired

D. retrieved

86. A. supplies

B. discovers

C. reveals

D. recalls

87. A. boon

B. prompt

C. tool

D. motive

88. A. obscure

B. modify

C. reflect

D. accept

Page 5 of 10

Part 2. Reading the following passage and answer questions 89 -102

Moles happy as homes go underground

A. The first anybody knew about Dutchman Frank Siegmund and his family was when workmen

tramping through a field found a narrow steel chimney protruding through the grass. Closer inspection

revealed a chink of sky-light window among the thistles, and when amazed investigators moved down

the side of the hill they came across a pine door complete with leaded diamond glass and a brass

knocker set into an underground building. The Siegmunds had managed to live undetected for six

years outside the border town of Breda, in Holland. They are the latest in a clutch of individualistic

homemakers who have burrowed underground in search of tranquillity.

B. Most, falling foul of strict building regulations, have been forced to dismantle their individualistic

homes and return to more conventional lifestyles. But subterranean suburbia, Dutch-style, is about to

become respectable and chic. Seven luxury homes cosseted away inside a high earth-covered noise

embankment next to the main Tilburg city road recently went on the market for $296,500 each. The

foundations had yet to be dug, but customers queued up to buy the unusual part-submerged houses,

whose back wall consists of a grassy mound and whose front is a long glass gallery.

C. The Dutch are not the only would - be moles. Growing numbers of Europeans are burrowing below

ground to create houses, offices, discos and shopping malls. It is already proving a way of life in

extreme climates; in winter months in Montreal, Canada, for instance, citizens can escape the cold in

an underground complex complete with shops and even health clinics. In Tokyo builders are planning

a massive underground city to be begun in the next decade, and underground shopping malls are

already common in Japan, where 90 percent of the population is squeezed into 20 percent of the

landspace.

D. Building big commercial buildings underground can be a way to avoid disfiguring or threatening a

beautiful or “environmentally sensitive” landscape. Indeed many of the buildings which consume most

land - such as cinemas, supermarkets, theatres, warehouses or libraries - have no need to be on the

surface since they do not need windows.

E. There are big advantages, too, when it comes to private homes. A development of 194 houses which

would take up 14 hectares of land above ground would occupy 2.7 hectares below it, while the number

of roads would be halved. Under several metres of earth, noise is minimal and insulation is excellent.

“We get 40 to 50 enquiries a week,” says Peter Carpenter, secretary of the British Earth Sheltering

Association, which builds 65 similar homes in Britain. “People see this as a way of building for the

future.” An underground dweller himself, Carpenter has never paid a heating bill, thanks to solar

panels and natural insulation.

F. In Europe, the obstacle has been conservative local authorities and developers who prefer to ensure

quick sales with conventional mass produced housing. But the Dutch development was greeted with

undisguised relief by South Limburg planners because of Holland’s chronic shortage of land. It was

the Tilburg architect Jo Hurkmans who hit on the idea of making use of noise embankments on main

roads. His two - floored, four - bedroomed, two - bathroomed detached homes are now taking shape.

“They are not so much below the earth as in it,” he says. “All the light will come through the glass

front, which runs from the second floor ceiling to the ground. Areas which do not need much natural

lighting are at the back. The living accommodation is to the front so nobody notices that the back is

dark.”

G. In the US, where energy-efficient homes became popular after the oil crisis of 1973, 10,000

underground houses have been built. A terrace of five homes, Britain’s first subterranean development,

is under way in Nottinghamshire. Italy’outstanding example of subterranean architecture is the Olivetti

residential centre in Ivrea. Commissioned by Roberto Olivetti in 1969, it comprises 82 one-bedroomed

apartments and 12 maisonettes and forms a house/ hotel for Olivetti employees. It is built into a hill

and little can be seen from outside except a glass facade. Patnzia Vallecchi, a resident since 1992, says

it is little different from living in a conventional apartment.

Page 6 of 10

H. Not everyone adapts so well, and in Japan scientists at the Shimizu Corporation have developed

“space creation” systems which mix light, sounds, breezes and scents to stimulate people who spend

long periods below ground. Underground offices in Japan are being equipped with “virtual” windows

and mirrors, while underground departments in the University of Minnesota have periscopes to reflect

views and light.

I. But Frank Siegmund and his family love their hobbit lifestyle. Their home evolved when he dug a

cool room for his bakery business in a hill he had created. During a heatwave they took to sleeping

there. “We felt at peace and so close to nature,” he says. “Gradually I began adding to the rooms. It

sounds strange but we are so close to the earth we draw strength from its vibrations. Our children love

it; not every child can boast of being watched through their playroom windows by rabbits.

Questions 89-96. Reading Passage has nine paragraphs (A-I). Choose the most suitable heading for

each paragraph from the list of headings below. Paragraph A has been done for you as an example.

NB There are more headings than paragraphs so you will not use all of them.

List of Headings

i. A designer describes his houses

ii. Most people prefer conventional housing

iii. Simulating a natural environment

iv. How an underground family home developed

v. Demands on space and energy are reduced

vi. The plans for future homes

vii. Worldwide examples of underground living accommodation

viii. Some buildings do not require natural light

ix. Developing underground services around the world

x. Underground living improves health

xi. Homes sold before completion

xii. An underground home is discovered

Example Answer: Paragraph A

Answer xii

89. Paragraph B …. 90. Paragraph C ….

91. Paragraph D …. 92. Paragraph E ….

93. Paragraph F …. 94. Paragraph G ….

95. Paragraph H …. 96. Paragraph I ….

Questions 97-102

Complete the sentences below with words taken from the reading passage. Use NO MORE THAN

THREE WORDS for each answer.

97. Many developers prefer mass-produced houses because they .........

98. The Dutch development was welcomed by .........

99. Hurkmans’ houses are built into .........

100. The Ivrea centre was developed for .........

101. Japanese scientists are helping people .........underground life.

102. Frank Siegmund’s first underground room was used for .........

Part 3. Reading the following text and answer questions 103 - 114

A Workaholic Economy

For the first century or so of the industrial revolution, increased productivity led to decreases in

working hours. Employees who had been putting in 12-hour days, six days a week, found their time on

the job shrinking to 10 hours daily, then, finally, to eight hours, five days a week. Only a generation

ago social planners worried about what people would do with all this new-found free time. In the US,

at least, it seems they need not have bothered.

Page 7 of 10

Although the output per hour of work has more than doubled since 1945, leisure seems

reserved largely for the unemployed and underemployed. Those who work full-time spend as much

time on the job as they did at the end of World War II. In fact, working hours have increased

noticeably since 1970 - perhaps because real wages have stagnated since that year. Bookstores now

abound with manuals describing how to manage time and cope with stress.

There are several reasons for lost leisure. Since 1979, companies have responded to

improvements in the business climate by having employees work overtime rather than by hiring extra

personnel, says economist Juliet B.Schor of Harvard University. Indeed, the current economic

recovery has gained a certain amount of notoriety for its “jobless” nature: increased production has

been almost entirely decoupled from employment.

Some firms are even downsizing as their profits climb. “All things being equal, we’d be better

off spreading around the work,” observes labour economist Ronald G. Ehrenberg of Cornell

University.

Yet a host of factors pushes employers to hire fewer workers for more hours and, at the same

time, compels workers to spend more time on the job. Most of those incentives involve what

Ehrenberg calls the structure of compensation: quirks in the way salaries and benefits are organised

that make it more profitable to ask 40 employees to labour an extra hour each than to hire one more

worker to do the same 40-hour job.

Professional and managerial employees supply the most obvious lesson along these lines. Once

people are on salary, their cost to a firm is the same whether they spend 35 hours a week in the office

or 70. Diminishing returns may eventually set in as overworked employees lose efficiency or leave for

more arable pastures. But in the short run, the employer’s incentive is clear.

Even hourly employees receive benefits - such as pension contributions and medical insurance

- that are not tied to the number of hours they work. Therefore, it is more profitable for employers to

work their existing employees harder.

For all that employees complain about long hours, they, too, have reasons not to trade money

for leisure. “People who work reduced hours pay a huge penalty in career terms,” Schor maintains.

“It’s taken as a negative signal about their commitment to the firm.” [Lotte] Bailyn [of Massachusetts

Institute of Technology] adds that many corporate managers find it difficult to measure the

contribution of their underlings to a firm’s well-being, so they use the number of hours worked as a

proxy for output. “Employees know this,” she says, and they adjust their behavior accordingly.

“Although the image of the good worker is the one whose life belongs to the company,” Bailyn

says, “it doesn’t fit the facts.” She cites both quantitative and qualitative studies that show increased

productivity for part-time workers: they make better use of the time they have, and they are less likely

to succumb to fatigue in stressful jobs. Companies that employ more workers for less time also gain

from the resulting redundancy, she asserts. “The extra people can cover the contingencies that you

know are going to happen, such as when crises take people away from the workplace.” Positive

experiences with reduced hours have begun to change the more-is-better culture at some companies,

Schor reports.

Larger firms, in particular, appear to be more willing to experiment with flexible working

arrangements...

It may take even more than changes in the financial and cultural structures of employment for

workers successfully to trade increased productivity and money for leisure time, Schor contends. She

says the U.S. market for goods has become skewed by the assumption of full-time, two - career

households. Automobile makers no longer manufacture cheap models, and developers do not build the

tiny bungalows that served the first postwar generation of home buyers. Not even the humblest

household object is made without a microprocessor. As Schor notes, the situation is a curious inversion

of the “appropriate technology” vision that designers have had for developing countries: U.S. goods

are appropriate only for high incomes and long hours.

Questions 103-108

Page 8 of 10

Do the following statements agree with the views of the writer in Reading Passage ?

YES if the statement agrees with the views of the writer

NO if the statement contradicts the views of the writer

NOT GIVEN if it is impossible to say what the writer thinks about this

Example Answer: During the industrial revolution people worked harder. NOT GIVEN

103. Today, employees are facing a reduction in working hours. ……………..

104. Social planners have been consulted about US employment figures. ……………..

105. Salaries have not risen significantly since the 1970s. ……………..

106. The economic recovery created more jobs. ……………..

107. Bailyn’s research shows that part-time employees work more efficiently. ……………..

108. Increased leisure time would benefit two-career households. ……………..

Questions 109 -110

Choose the appropriate letters A-D and write them in boxes 33 and 34 on your answer sheet.

109. Bailyn argues that it is better for a company to employ more workers because

A. it is easy to make excess staff redundant.

B. crises occur if you are under-staffed.

C. people are available to substitute for absent staff.

D. they can project a positive image at work.

110. Schor thinks it will be difficult for workers in the US to reduce their working hours because

A. they would not be able to afford cars or homes.

B. employers are offering high incomes for long hours.

C. the future is dependent on technological advances.

D. they do not wish to return to the humble post-war era.

Questions 111- 114

The writer mentions a number of factors that have resulted in employees working longer hours.

Which FOUR of the following factors are mentioned? Write your answers (A-H) in boxes 111- 114 .

A. Books are available to help employees cope with stress.

B. Extra work is offered to existing employees.

C. Increased production has led to joblessness.

D. Benefits and hours spent on the job are not linked.

E. Overworked employees require longer to do their work.

F. Longer hours indicate greater commitment to the firm.

G. Managers estimate staff productivity in terms of hours worked.

H. Employees value a career more than a family.

111.

112.

113.

114.

Part 4. You are going to read an extract from a magazine article about psychology. Six

paragraphs have been moved from the extract. Choose from the paragraphs A-G the

one which fits each gap.( 115-120).There is one extra paragraph you do not need to

use.

Unless you’re a loner, you’re probably a member of many different groups. Some are long

lasting, like your family, while others, such as a football crowd, are temporary. Every group

functions in enjoying yourself at a party where you are also just ways but there are still some

common psychological features to any group.

115

Being part of a group changes the way you behave. The presence of others has a generally

arousing effect on the nervous system. This is natural - you don’t know what they will do. They

may move about, speak to you, or even attack you and your brain has to pay attention to all these

messages. Having others around is just distracting. It divides your attention, so you can’t focus on

the task in hand.

Page 9 of 10

116

But when it comes to complex tasks, the prospect of not being evaluated may free you from anxiety

so encouraging you to perform better. To test this, psychologists asked volunteers to carry out a

complex computer task in separate rooms. Some were told performance would be evaluated

individually - causing performance anxiety - while others were told the results would be averaged

with the rest of the group. As expected, the second group did better than the first.

117

The problem becomes even worse when individuals are disguised with war paint or uniforms.

Analysis shows that the more people there are in a mob, the greater the antisocial behaviour. Being

“submerged” within a group does have many negative connotations but it’s not always a bad

thing. Instead of thinking about a rowdy mod, think of relaxing, dancing and enjoying yourself at a

party where you are also just a part of the crowd.

118

But surprisingly, research has shown that the use of this technique by groups isn’t that effective in

either the number or quality of ideas generated. You get better results if you set people to work

individually on a problem. We also tend to assume that decisions made by groups are better than

those made by individuals, which is why we form committees.

119

But any group can get a decision badly wrong, because their thought processes can go awry. This

is a process psychologists call “groupthink”. A close-knit group of advisers isolated from

argument and criticism can grow to believe they can do no wrong. The group then becomes more

important than the individuals who are part of it. Further, a leadership style which concentrates on

the group rather than the individual can contribute to this.

120

Many, but not all, leaders show dominance in the group. But the dominant person in the group

doesn’t always make the best leader, and it isn’t necessarily true that having the smartest people

always makes for the most successful group.

A. This lack of individual accountability may lead to people letting go of their inhibitions - a process

known as “deindividuation”. Sometimes this is dangerous, releasing violent and impulsive behaviours

that individuals would never dream of indulging in alone.

B. They have a need for power, characterised by talking a lot, wanting to be listened to and to make

decisions. In a group it can be easy to spot the dominant people. They make eye contact, point

and even touch people but don’t encourage return gestures. Such behaviour studies have been key

in shaping business organization.

C. For example, in general, humans are social animals, that’s why we get together in groups in the

first place. Important elements of our individual identity come from being part of a group. Most

people enjoy being in a group – it’s a way of forming emotionally satisfying relationships.

D. But it has to be a carefully selected team, not a randomly generated group, if creative decisions

are to be made. In fact, theory on team building has shown that it is better if people work in small

teams of complementary pairs. Big teams don’t get anything done, even though people like them.

E. For a group and its behaviour are shaped by who is in charge and the roles the other members play.

A good front man or woman is persuasive, not directive, communicates and speaks clearly, listens

well and appeals to group members’ emotions and feelings as well as thoughts and ideas.

F. So, how does all this stimulation affect achievement? It has been argued that people do better

on simple well-rehearsed activities when they’re with others than when they are alone. Also, if

their individual efforts within the group are not being monitored, there’s a tendency to relax and

merge into the crowd.

G. Another positive feature of groups is that they generate ideas and opinions, and use these to make

decisions. That’s why the modern trend in teaching is for students to work in small groups to

prepare presentations and why brainstorming is so popular in the work context.

Page 10 of 10

SECTION FOUR: WRITING (40/ 200 points)

Part 1. For each of the sentences below, write a new sentence as similar as possible in meaning to

the original sentence, using the word given. This word must not be altered in any way.

121. Not many people attended the meeting. turnout

…………………………………………………………………….

122. Whatever difficulties Mary had, she still attended university. shine

…………………………………………………………………….

123. I am fed up with his behaviour. enough

…………………………………………………………………….

124. He speaks German extremely well. command

…………………………………………………………………….

125. They disapprove of smoking in this restaurant. frowned

…………………………………………………………………..

Part 2. The chart below shows the amount of leisure time enjoyed by men and women of

different employment status.

Write a report for a university lecturer describing the information shown below.

You should write at least 150 words.

0

20

40

60

80

100

Employed/full /

time

Employed/part/

time

Unemployed

Retired

Housewives

Hours&of&leisure&time

leisure&time&in&a&typical&week:&by&sex&and&

employment&status:&1998- 1999

Males

Females

SỞ GIÁO DỤC VÀ ĐÀO TẠO KỲ THI CHỌN ĐỘI TUYỂN CHÍNH THỨC DỰ THI HSG

QUẢNG BÌNH QUỐC GIA LỚP 12 THPT NĂM HỌC 2015- 2016

Môn thi: TIẾNG ANH (VÒNG I)

Khóa thi ngày 22 tháng 9 năm 2015

HƯỚNG DẪN CHẤM

Tổng số điểm toàn bài: 200 điểm

Sau khi cộng toàn bộ số điểm, giám khảo quy về hệ điểm 20 (không làm tròn số).

SECTION ONE: LISTENING (40/ 200 điểm)

Mỗi chỗ đúng được 2 điểm, tổng 40 điểm

Part 1.

1. B 2. A 3. A 4. C 5. A 6. C

Part 2.

7. the right thing 8. addressed 9. simplistic

10. solutions 11. hold 12. lower end

13. trying really ( really) hard 14. degradation 15. engagement

Part 3.

16. C 17. A 18. D 19. C 20. C

SECTION TWO: LEXICO- GRAMMAR (60/200 points)

Mỗi đáp án đúng được 1 điểm, tổng 60 điểm

Part 1.

21. A 22. D 23. B 24. C 25. A

26. B 27. C 28. C 29. A 30. A

Part 2.

31. inaccessible 36. agreeable

32. endurance 37. mindful

33. brainchild 38. accustomed

34. partake 39. improbability

35. entrants 40. visibility

Part 3.

41. for 42. down 43. up 44. against 45. on

46. to 47. out 48. at 49. by 50. In

Part 4.

51. P 52. as 53. the 54. the 55. a

56. to 57. so 58. P 59. P 60. one

61. make 62. themselves 63. P 64. as 65. P

Part 5.

66. like 67. an 68. in 69. speed

70. have 71. so 72. or 73. there

74. rather/ sooner 75. terms 76. since 77. before

78. from 79. breathing 80. If

SECTION THREE: READING COMPREHENSION (60/200 points)

Mỗi đáp án đúng được 1,5 điểm, tổng 60 điểm.

Part 1.

81. B 82. A 83. C 84. A

85. A 86. D 87. C 88. B

Part 2.

89. XI 90. IX 91. VIII 92. V

93. I 94. VII 95. III 96. IV

97. sell (more) quickly 98. (South Limberg) planners 99. (road/noise) embankments

100. Olivetti employees 101. adapt to 102. his bakery business//a cool room

Part 3.

103. NO 104. NOT GIVEN 105. YES

106. NO 107. YES 108. NOT GIVEN

109. C 110. A

111. B 112. D 113. F 114. G

Part 4.

115. C 116. F 117. A 118. G 119. D 120. E

SECTION FOUR: WRITING (40/200 points)

Part 1. Mỗi câu viết lại đúng được 2 điểm, tổng 10 điểm.

121. There was a poor/low turnout for the meeting.

122. Mary still attended university ( come) rain or shine // come rain, come shine

123. I have had enough of his behaviour.

124. He has an excellent / good command of German.

125. Smoking is frowned upon/ on in this restaurant.

Part 2. Bài viết hoàn thiện được 30 điểm

Notes: The mark given to part 2 is based on the following scheme:

1. Content: ( 35% of the total mark)

2. Organization and presentation: (30% of the total mark)

3. Language: ( 30% of the total mark)

4. Handwriting, punctuation and spelling (5% of the total mark)

The chart shows the number of hours of leisure enjoyed by men and women in a typical week in

1998-1999, according to gender and employment status. Among those employed full-time, men on

average had fifty hours of leisure, whereas women had approximately thirty-seven hours. There

were no figures given for male part-time workers, but female part-timers had forty hours of leisure

time, only slightly more than women in full-time employment, perhaps reflecting their work in the

home.

In the unemployed and retired categories, leisure time showed an increase for both sexes, as might

have been expected. Here too, men enjoyed more leisure time - over eighty hours, compared with

seventy hours for women, perhaps once again reflecting the fact that women spend more time

working in the home than men.

Lastly, housewives enjoyed approximately fifty-four hours of leisure, on average. There

were no figures given for househusbands!

Overall, the chart demonstrates that in the categories for which statistics on male leisure

time were available, men enjoyed at least ten hours of extra leisure time.

----------------------------------------THE END-----------------------------

Page 1 of 10

Lưu ý: Thí sinh làm bài trên tờ giấy thi

SECTION ONE: LISTENING (50/ 200 points)

Instructions: Listen to the recording and answer the questions. You will hear each part of the

recording twice. There will be a pause before each part so you can read the questions. There will be

other pauses to let you think about your answers. When you hear the tone, you should write your

answers on the question paper.

Section 1. Questions 1-10

Complete the form below, write NO MORE THAN THREE WORDS AND/ OR A NUMBER for

each answer.

TOM’S COMPUTER MAINTENANCE

Computer Information Form

Date: Sunday 12

th

May

Example: Answer

Reason for call: computer problem

What happened: the screen (1) ……………….

Troubleshooting checklist:

- Restarted computer

- The computer is (2) ………………. - not running on battery.

Activity when the problem occurred: (3) ……………….

Possible diagnosis: a virus

Anti- virus programme: (4) ……………….

Appointment

Location: (5) ……………….

Time scheduled for visit: (6) ……………….

Street address: 14 (7) ……………….Crescent, 2F3

Customer name: Sandra (8) ……………….

Name on buzzer: the same as above

Fee: (9) ……………….for the first hour’s work, then £40 per hour

Estimated time for the job: less than (10) ……………….

Section 2 Questions 11-17

Choose the correct answer, A, B or C.

11. The speaker’s job requires…..

A. a great deal of walking

B. extensive travel

C. clean water

12. Why is this story being told?

A. to promote Charity- Water

B. for entertainment purposes

C. to encourage Helen

13. Why do the charity workers usually surprise communities?

A. It makes people happy.

SỞ GD&ĐT QUẢNG BÌNH

ĐỀ THI CHÍNH THỨC

SỐ BÁO DANH:……………

KỲ THI CHỌN ĐỘI TUYỂN CHÍNH THỨC DỰ THI HSG

QUỐC GIA LỚP 12 THPT NĂM HỌC 2015-2016

Môn thi: Tiếng Anh - Vòng II

(Khóa ngày 22 tháng 9 năm 2015)

Thời gian làm bài: 180 phút (không kể thời gian giao đề)

Đề có 10 trang

Page 2 of 10

B. It is difficult to spread news.

C. It makes their work easier

14. When villagers heard of the charity workers’ arrival, they…..

A. had a party

B. were suspicious

C. took no notice

15. Helen is feeling…..

A. ecstatic about her new life.

B. curious about the charity workers.

C. nostalgic about her old life.

16. What did the speaker notice about Helen?

A. that she had bathed recently

B. the care she took with her appearance

C. that she was wearing a green uniform

17. Making someone feel beautiful was…..

A. part of the speaker’s job description

B. an unexpected bonus for the speaker.

C. of little importance to the speaker.

Questions 18-20

In what THREE ways did the new well improve Helen’s life? Choose THREE letters A-G.

18……….. 19………… 20……….

A. Her children enjoyed better health.

B. It increased her household income.

C. It gave her more free time.

D. She got a leadership position.

E. She had more choices and options.

F. She made new friends in her village.

G. It allowed her to go to school.

Section 3 Questions 21-25

Complete the sentences below. Write NO MORE THAN TWO WORDS AND/OR A NUMBER

for each answer.

21. Jessica is interviewing Dr. Kitching for…………… for the school newspaper.

22. Everyone Jessica knows is rather…………..about how to ask for references.

23. Dr. Kitching gives Jessica permission to………..their conversation.

24. Dr. Kitching writes more than…………. a year.

25. The majority of………….are in the spring or early summer when students start thinking about

their future.

SETION TWO: LEXICO- GRAMMAR (60/ 200 points)

Part 1. For questions 26- 35, choose the most suitable word to complete each sentence.

26. I was………to believe that she was a representative of the Labour Party.

A. declared B. carried C. led D. explained

27. One could see with the …………..eye that there was a lighthouse on the promontory.

A. naked B. sole C. nude D. shut

28. This cheese isn’t fit for eating. It’s…………. all over after lying in the bin for so long.

A. rusty B. mouldy C. spoilt D. sour

29. To the best of my…………… that dentist’s name was Thomas Garreth.

A. thinking B. recollection C. mind D. remembrance

30. I’ve had my car examined three times now but no mechanic has been able to ………the problem.

A. pinpoint B. focus C. specify D. highlight

Page 3 of 10

31. Perhaps, the fresh scrap of evidence will throw some new…………on the murder case in Witshire.

A. light B. vision C. flash D. spark

32. Paul’s has been Alice’s bad………..ever since he offended her at the party.

A. eyes B. books C. likes D. treats

33. I offered you my most………..apologies for offending you as I did.

A. repentant B. servile C. candid D. abject

34. Although he was a hardened criminal, his one……feature was his love of children.

A. saving B. redeeming C. recovering D. acquitting

35. The demonstrations…………… in one hundred students being arrested.

A. culminated B. erupted C. escalated D. concluded

Part 2. For questions 36-45, read the text below. Use the words given in capitals at the end of

some of the lines to form a word that fits in the gap in the same line.

A GREAT STAYCATION

Holidays at home are usually a last (36)….., when all other options

have been ruled out for one reason or another, but in these tough times

when money is perhaps tighter than ever before, the grim (37)…..that

the stay-at-home vacation maybe the only realistic (38)….. is one that

more and more of us are faced with.

However, this does not have to mean a (39)….. time in the same old

(40)…..you are in for the other 355-odd days of the year. For those

willing to think outside the box a little, there are, in fact, a (41)…..of

possibilities that should be explored.

Ever thought about a house swap, for example? The house swap is the

ultimate holiday (42)…..buster. And there are now websites on which

(43)…..individuals, couples and families looking to get a flavor of the

life lived in someone else’s home can hook up and start house (44)…..

Okay, so it’s not the two weeks in Gran Canaria you might have hoped

for, but staying in someone else’s (45)…..for a few days at least,

whether it be ten, fifty or one hundred miles away, sure beats slouching

around at home on your own sofa.

COURSE

REAL

ALTER

MISERY

ROUND

MULTIPLE

RECEDE

MIND

SWAP

RESIDE

Part 3. For questions 46-55, replace each bold phrase with the synonymous one.

craze squalor catch snag aftermath

might flair fiasco hunch hitch

46. Read the small print. There is bound to be a hidden trick.

47. The meeting was a complete disaster. Half the delegates didn’t turn up and those that did started

fighting during the afternoon session.

48. “I’d be only glad to lend you the money you need,” he said “There is just one problem, though,

I’m completely broke at the moment”

49. She has an instinctive and natural talent for business.

50. He said hello, took Mr Firelii’s hand and squeezed it with all his strength.

51. Due to a technical problem, we will not be broadcasting tonight’s European Cup match between

Monaco and Parma.

52. A: What makes you think that Sandonato had a hand in this?

B: It’s a strong intuitive feeling, that’s all.

Page 4 of 10

53. Rollerblading is the latest fashionable activity to hit the streets of London.

54. He opened the door to his apartment. She had never seen such dirt and untidiness.

55. In the period of time following the Second World War, many families decided to leave Europe in

search of a better and happier life in the New World.

Part 4. For questions 56 -65, fill the following sentences with suitable words in the box. Use each

word only ONCE.

accounts ground mind blue cat

horse shadow colours terms light

56. I don’t like the presents they have given to me for Christmas. But as they say, never look a

gift……. in the mouth.

57. I wish I knew who let the………out of the bag and made the secret known to everyone.

58. The examiners were very satisfied with Jim’s vast knowledge of the subject, and so he passed the

exam with flying…….. .

59. It’s a very tempting offer to buy a house on such easy……….., isn’t it?

60. Louis Pasteur broke new…………..in medicine with his revolutionary discovery of the vaccine

against rabies.

61. It’s no use trying to persuade Cybil to give up the journey. She definitely knows her own………

and she won’t change the decision.

62. The question arose completely out of the………. . Nobody suspected there might be any overdue

bills to pay.

63. Beyond a ………… of a doubt, this is the man whom I saw kissing Cindy in front of the cinema.

64. “Have any new facts come to ………..about the plane catastrophe in Hamburge?”

65. Mrs. Pooley is by all………….the nicest teacher in our school. Both the children and the staff like

her a lot.

SECTION THREE: READING COMPREHENSION (60/ 200 points)

Part 1. For questions 66 -74, read the text below and decide which answer (A, B, C or D) best

fits each space.

BRAIN GEL

A gel that helps brains recover from (66)…..injuries has been developed by scientists at the

Clemson University in South Carolina. The gel, which is (67)…..in liquid form at the site where the

injury was sustained, (68)…..stem cell growth in the affected area. In terms of circumstances in which

it might be applied, the gel has the potential to treat a wide range of head injuries, including those

arising from car accidents, falls and gunshot wounds.

Serious brain injuries are (69)…..difficult to recover from on account of the fact that the

affected tissue can swell up considerably, which causes additional (70)…..damage to the rounding

cells. Existing treatments do little more than attempt to limit secondary damage and are relatively

(71)….., certainly when it comes to repairing the damaged cells, so the discovery of a gel which

stimulates cell repair is being (72)…..as revolutionary.

Despite the wave of excitement now running through medical circles, it is important to note

that results so far are (73)…..solely on observations of the effects of the gel on laboratory rats. The

development of the treatment is very much still in its (74)…..stages and human testing is expected to

be some three years or more away yet.

66. A. traumatic B. enigmatic C. sporadic D. aquatic

67. A. implanted B. instilled C. injected D. imposed

68. A. motivates B. vitalizes C. stimulates D. mobilizes

69. A. notionally B. incidentally C. notoriously D. increasingly

Page 5 of 10

70. A. corresponding B. collateral C. coincident D. dependent

71. A. integrated B. ineffective C. incompetent D. unproductive

72. A. heralded B. advertised C. promised D. ushered

73. A. based B. rested C. discovered D. stationed

74. A. penultimate B. preliminary C. concluding D. fundamental

Part 2. For questions 75- 83, read the text below and think of the word which best fits each gap.

Use only ONE word in each space.

THE EMERGENCE OF BRITISH POP

Before 1960, the UK pop scene offered (75)…..of substance. A faint shadow of its American

counterpart, it could boast (76)…..the questionable talents of sanitised singers like Cliff Richard and

Tommy Steele. But then along came the revolution; fizzing out of the teen-oriented coffee bars and the

budding club circuit came the likes of Koner and Barber as R&B emerged. It was not long before

“bluephoria” had taken (77)…..and the blue and R&B circuit quickly evolved with bands of the calibre

of the Rolling Stones and the Graham Bond Organization shaking things (78)…..in London.

But the capital did not have a monopoly as far as new talent was concerned- (79)…..from it.

The north was awakening, too, and soon the Beat groups would arrive, taking the music world by

(80)…... . Acts such as the Animals and the Beatles were formed, the latter needing no introduction, of

course.

It wasn’t long before the tables had (81)….. ; American pop was soon playing second fiddle to

Brit-style bands. The Beatles, championing the cause, took British popular music to new level of

success. Before (82)….. , the world couldn’t get enough of this plucky quartet. “Beatlemania” had

taken hold. John, Pauld, Ringo and George could do no (83)….. .

Part 3. You are going to read an article about cyclist Lance Armstrong. For questions 84-89,

choose the answer (A, B, C or D) which you think fits best according to the text.

Livestrong- but will the legacy?

In the early-to mid- 1990s, Lance Armstrong was on the up-and-up. Success seemed to be

written in his stars; he notched up a stage win at the ’95. This cyclist was clearly coming of age in the

sport, and he was, at 24 on registering his second tour win, still a relative baby in cycling terms- most

of his career lay ahead of him. Then, just when it looked like he would conquer all before him, his ’96

tour was cut disappointingly short due to illness. And, as it would soon emerge, this was no ordinary

illness; Armstrong had testicular cancer. Fans were aghast and there was an out-pouring of sympathy

for him.

But Armstrong would need more than goodwill to get through this. The cancer had

metastasized to the lung and the brain. The prognosis was not at all good. Months of spirit- and body-

breaking chemotherapy followed and a delicate surgical procedure to remove the malignancies on his

brain was performed. Cycling mourned the surely permanent loss to the sport of one of its most

promising young disciples. But Armstrong wasn’t finished yet.

In 1998, he made a remarkable, defiant and inspirational return to cycling and completed in the

Tour de France again the following year. But surely his would now only be a cameo role; after all,

what could one expect from a cancer survivor with a compromised liver and the other familiar scars of

cancer therapy? Except Armstrong had other ideas.

Four stage winds later, the legend of Armstrong was born; he had claimed the Tour and defied

the odds in the most emphatic of manners. His victory represented not just his announcement as a force

in cycling, but as a force for hopes for millions of cancer sufferers the world over. Indeed, Armstrong

threw himself into campaigning for his newly-established cancer foundation, Livestrong- so much so

that he metamorphosed into a sort of human-embodiment of the cause-he became the cause, and his

Page 6 of 10

annual battle with the French Alps came to represent the struggle against the deadly disease. So long as

Lance could succeed, there was hope.

And succeed he did, beyond the wildest expectations of even the most optimistic of his

supporters, amassing a further six titles- so seven in consecution-before he retired in 2005. His

achievements were simply remarkable; his story absorbing; his book a must-read for all cancer

sufferers- their ray of hope; proof that hopefulness should never fade and that sanguinity can and does

make light of the odds- the tunnel, through long and at times excruciating to pass through, has an end,

and it is a happy one- the light is in sight.

After his seventh victory, he retired and the supporting world entered congratulatory mode,

writing his eulogies. But Armstrong had one more surprise for us; he wasn’t finished yet. There were

whispers of a comeback, confirmed in 2009, and so it was that the legend would ride again.

But the renewed focus on him wasn’t all good; there were whispers of another kind, too;

sources, some credible, were claiming he had had an illicit ally all through his exploits; he was, they

claimed, in bed with the syringe. Our champion laughed off and dismissed these claims but the

rumours persisted and a cloud began to form over his legacy. Surely Armstrong could not have earned

his victories clean, some said.

We may never know for sure. Fast-forward to 2012 and despite an abandoned federal case,

those sharpening their knives for Armstrong seem to have finally nabbed him; ASADA, the US body

tasked with cracking down on drug offended charged. Armstrong with doping and the trafficking of

drugs and some say his failure to contest is indicative of his guilt. At any rate, because he pleaded no-

contest, he will now be stripped of all his titles; his legacy has been pulled from under him.

And yet he has not, and now may never be tried, so we have not seen the evidence against him.

We do not know if he is guilty or innocent, and it still remains fact that he never failed an official

drugs test. Did he cheat? Does it matter? Does anyone care? Time may tell, but for now, though his

legacy is tainted, his legend, in the eyes of many of his loyal supporters, lives on.

84. What does the writer mean when he says in the first paragraph that Lance Armstrong was “coming

of the age in the sport”?

A. he was of the right age to be a competitive cyclist

B. he was nearly at the age at which it is expected that a cyclist should win

C. he was of a mature age for a cyclist and had few years left in the sport

D. he was beginning to figure as a real contender in his sport.

85. Which of the following statements is true about the cancer Armstrong had?

A. he recovered remarkable quickly from it, suffering little

B. it started in the lungs and spread to the brain

C. doctors were optimistic about his chances of survival

D. the generally held view was that it would prevent him from cycling professionally ever

again

86. Why does the writer say, “Except Armstrong had other ideas”, at the end of the third paragraph?

A. Armstrong was determined to play some role in the Tour de France again.

B. Armstrong’s idea of victory had changed since he’d had cancer.

C. Armstrong was determined to defy the odds and become a real contender in the Tour de

France

D. Armstrong didn’t want to race for victory, he just wanted to represent cancer victims.

87. What does the writer compare Armstrong’s Tour de France campaign struggle each year after his

return to the sport with?

A. the general fight against cancer

B. a cancer organization

C. his fundraising for cancer

Page 7 of 10

D. Armstrong’s own personal experience

88. What is one of the ways in which his story became about more than just cycling?

A. his published biography became a source of inspiration for cancer sufferers

B. cycling through a tunnel was like fighting cancer

C. he gave people hope that they could one day be professional athletes, too

D. he gave people the belief to fight the disease that is drug-taking in sport

89. What can be inferred about the rumour of Armstrong’s drug-taking?

A. they were disproved in a state court case

B. they have not caused Armstrong’s reputation and record any harm

C. they were eventually proved true beyond doubt

D. he had, but passed up, an opportunity to disapprove them

Part 4. You are going to read the transcript of a series of interviews with ordinary people

conducted for the Have you say feature of a daily newspaper. For questions 90-99, choose from

the people (A-D). The people may be chosen more than once.

Which person gives each of these opinions about the education system?

- The testing of very young people to determine their academic pedigree is

unethical.

- The education system is designed in such a way as to unfairly favour

people who have the money to invest in education.

- Students in countries where extra evening classes have to be attended are

more prone to feeling the effects of extremely tiredness.

- The policy of giving out higher grades is making a mockery of the entire

testing system.

- The degree of difficulty of modern examinations is a lot lower than was the

case for students sitting the same exams in the past.

- Children are more likely to engage with what they are learning if

technology is incorporated into the teaching methods used

- While our third level education system is well funded and very modern, we

have neglected the primary level, where more investment is required.

- Students should not have to overly exert themselves study-wise in the

evenings as they must also have the opportunity to enjoy their youth.

- While we are often quick to criticize the education system, most of us

appreciate how to fortunate we are in this country to have such a good one.

- Many capable people are prevented from pursuing a third level education

due to the financial constraints they are under.

Have you say…on Education

Four ordinary people give their views on the country’s education system

Edward - A

90…………

91…………

92…………

93…………

94…………

95…………

96…………

97…………

98…………

99…………

The British Education system is fundamentally flawed in numerous ways. For a start, I believe

the 11-Plus exam is morally reprehensive. Children develop at different speeds, so to promote a

situation where we divide up our young so early based on their performance in one stupid test seems to

me ridiculous. Those who pass the 11-Plus are classed as success stories and they are expected to go

on to do great things academically speaking in what essentially becomes a self-fulfilling prophecy.

Meanwhile at such a young age, those who don’t manage to pass are already been labeled as failure

Page 8 of 10

and are not told to set their sights low. This, sadly, also becomes a self-fulfilling prophecy- of the

worst kind; if you expect to perform poorly and are of the mindset to do so, you will effectively

underperform- it is as good as guaranteed. I see no reason why we have to set children up for a fall like

this so early in life and divide them up into a two-tier education system which provides the upper tier

with a massive advantage over the lower one. I mean, our society has enough class-based problems

without manufacturing more. And that brings me to my next criticism. I believe the education system

in this country is biased towards the privileged. Let’s face it, the best education is the one which

money can buy. Fee-paying schools consistently outperform schools in the state system, and only the

wealthy can exploit the unfair advantage enjoyed by students who attend these exclusive institutions.

And if that wasn’t bad enough- as if ordinary working class people didn’t face an uphill struggle

already, if they do manage to make it through to university, they are then expected to pay astronomical

fee. In many cases, they are simply priced out of a third- level education system or are forced to take

on a massive burden of debt to finance their studies. Meanwhile, mummy’s little Elton boy can have

his pick of universities and cost is no barrier. It is sad really how unfair the whole system is.

Eleanor - B

People often groan about the faults of our education system, but I think we just like to

complain; my gut feeling is that most people are actually only too aware of how lucky they are to have

such a high quality of formal education open to them for free all the way up to the end of secondary

school. What we take for granted- free education- is not something students from other parts of the

world necessarily enjoy. The standard of teaching in our schools is only second-to-none. Another thing

which can’t be said anywhere. I mean, in Greece, for example, state school teachers are often so

indifferent that students are forced to attend extra study class at night- the cost of which has to be

borne by their parents. Not alone is this a waste of money, it also eats into students’ free time. The

situation is similar in South Korea- students have private lessons in the evenings to help them improve

their state school grades, and sometimes, between state school classes, private lessons and homework,

there are literally not enough hours in the day, leading to exhaustion and burnout in a worst- case

scenario, and even in the best one, a significant reduction in the amount of leisure time available to

pursue healthy activities and partake in the kind of fun and games that should characterize youth. In

Britain, we go to school from 9 a.m. until 4 p.m.; we have the evening to enjoy being young and that is

how it should be; to quote a well-known proverb, “you are only young one”.

Michelle - C

I think our education system still commands a lot of respect and I think many other countries

are still envious of the kinds of programmes we have in place, but I also worry that we are not

investing enough money into schools to enable them to keep up with the latest classroom innovations.

I mean, sure, our universities are state-of-the-art, but the formative years are the most important of all,

and as far as education is concerned, this means that it would be wise to invest more in the facilities

and resources of primary schools where young children will reap the benefits. Technologically

speaking, I would say a lot of our schools are behind the rest of the developed world. In Japan, for

example, every classroom has at least one computer, as well as a projector screen and a number of

other technology-driven interactive tools. It is vital, in this, the information age, that we introduce kids

to technology as early as possible, and that’s why I strongly feel that there is now a greater need than

ever to kit our primary schools with the latest gadgets. Besides, the children of the information age are

becoming so accustomed to using technology in the other areas of their lives that they will be more

likely respond well to technology-based lessons than the traditional kind, which will ultimately see

them learning more effectively, engaging more genuinely and developing more speedily.

Page 9 of 10

Alan - D

I have a problem with the testing mechanisms used today. I mean, if you look at the statistics

for the exams every year, there is one striking pattern; more and more people are getting As; the

nation’s results on average are getting better and better year-on-year. So, that means one of two things:

either students today are smarter than ever before, or their examinations are watered down and do not

represent a fair test. I personally believe the latter is true and I am incensed that this is being allowed to

happen. In ten or fifteen year’s time, it will have forgotten to the stage where an A is meaningless if

this continue. In order for the education system to be taken serious, it is vital, therefore, that a complete

overhaul of the examination system takes place and that we return to a situation where examination

offer a meaningful challenge and a true test of ability. That way, when a child receives an A, his or her

achievement will feel genuine; it will have been earned and the child concerned will have the right to

feel very proud of themselves. The problem is, in this country, we have forgotten that there is

absolutely no shame in getting a B, or a C or D grade for that matter. Provided we do our best, that is

always good enough. But, in this politically correct world-gone-mad of ours, assessors seem to think

the only way forward is to give more and more of us the best grades, devaluing the grading system

completely. It is as though they don’t think we could take it if we got anything less than an A; as

though we should all somehow be perfect students. The problem with that is that it is just not realistic,

and, when you set unrealistic objectives, the only way to achieve them is to “play” with the figures to

manufacture the right results.

Part 5. For questions 100-105, read the following text and then choose from the list A-I given

below the best phrase to fill each of the spaces. Each correct phrase may only be used ONCE.

Interview

Many people are unsure of how to behave in interviews. Often, the temptation is to present yourself

not as you really are, but as what you think the interviewer is looking for? We have all heard of people

who got their big breaks by saying they knew exactly what to do to please the interviewer. However, it

seems that most Careers Advisers would recommend a more honest approach. You may find yourself

exaggerating a little, but the trick is not (100)…..

When questioned about the qualities they were looking for in people applying for jobs, most

interviewers saw fitting into the corporate culture and a willingness (101)…..as very important. In the

interview, however, it is this skill of relating to other people that is so difficult (102)….. ; critics argue

that, as a result, interviewers often show the tendency (103)……

When getting ready for an interview, preparing answers is an obvious tactic, but you should

always pay extremely careful attention to what is asked. It is all too easy (104)….. . Always try to

extend your answer beyond a brief yes or no, but don’t go on for ever. If you need to clarify what the

interview means, ask a question of your own, taking care not (105)….. . Remember your future may be

in his or her hands.

A. to select people most like themselves

B. to underestimate your own ability

C. to keep to the point

D. to overdo it

E. to judge accurately

F. to imply that the interviewer is at fault

G. to misinterpret a question

H. to do a job when they didn’t

I. to work as part of a team

Page 10 of 10

SECTION FOUR: WRITING (40/ 200 points)

Part 1. For questions 106 to 110, complete the second sentence so that it has a similar meaning to

the first sentence, using the word given. Do not change the word given. You must use between

THREE and SIX words, including the word given.

106. He refusal to accept help and this led to his increasing isolation.

down

His increasing isolation……………………to accept help.

107. His fake arrogance only hid his genuine insecurity.

lay

Behind……………………insecurity.

108. Only the top fifteen players will make it through to the next round.

advance

The………………… to the next round.

109. Mike is never reluctant to make tough decision as a manager.

shrinks

Mike never…………………… as a manager.

110. The main focus of the plot is the adventures of two teenagers.

centred

The plot …………………… of two teenagers.

Part 2.

Do you agree or disagree with the following statement? It is more important for students to

study history and literature than it is for them to study science and mathematics.

You should use your own ideas, knowledge and experience and support your arguments with examples

and relevant evidence. Write at least 250 words.

-----------THE END-------------

SỞ GIÁO DỤC VÀ ĐÀO TẠO KỲ THI CHỌN ĐỘI TUYỂN CHÍNH THỨC DỰ THI HSG

QUẢNG BÌNH QUỐC GIA LỚP 12 THPT NĂM HỌC 2015- 2016

Môn thi: TIẾNG ANH (VÒNG II)

Khóa thi ngày 22 tháng 9 năm 2015

HƯỚNG DẪN CHẤM

Tổng số điểm toàn bài: 200 điểm

Sau khi cộng toàn bộ số điểm, giám khảo quy về hệ điểm 20 (không làm tròn số).

SECTION ONE: LISTENING (50/ 200 điểm)

Section 1. Mỗi chỗ đúng được 2 điểm, tổng 20 điểm.

1. went blank

2. plugged in

3. on the/ using the internet

4. Not sure

5. Morningside (area).

6. 7.45

7. Branston

8. Sarrencen

9. $ 60

10. half an hour

Section 2. Mỗi chỗ đúng được 2 điểm, tổng 20 điểm.

11. B

12. A

13. C

14. A

15. A

16. B

17. B

18. -20: C/D/E

Section 3. Mỗi chỗ đúng được 2 điểm tổng 10 điểm.

21. an article 22. puzzled 23. record 24. 50 references 25. (The) requests

SECTION TWO: LEXICO- GRAMMAR (50/200 points)

Part 1. Mỗi đáp án đúng được 1,5 điểm tổng 15 điểm.

26. C 27. A

28. B 29. B

30. A

31. A 32. B

33. D 34. B

35. A

Part 2. Mỗi đáp án đúng được 1.5 điểm, tổng 15 điểm.

36. RECOURSE

37. REALITY

38. ALTERNATIVE

39. MISERABLE

40. SURROUNDS

41. MULTITUDE

42. RECESSION

43. LIKE-MINDED

44. SWAPPING

45. RESIDENCE

Part 3. Mỗi đáp án đúng được 1 điểm, tổng 10 điểm.

46. catch 47. fiasco

48. snag 49. flair

50. might

51. hitch 52. hunch

53. craze 54. squalor

55. aftermath

Part 4. Mỗi đáp án đúng được 1 điểm, tổng 10 điểm.

56. horse 57. cat

58. colours 59. terms

60. ground

61. mind 62. blue

63. shadow 64. light

65. accounts

SECTION THREE: READING COMPREHENSION (60/200 points)

Part 1. Mỗi đáp án đúng được 1.5 điểm.

66. A 67.C

68. C 69. C

70. B

71. B 72. A

73. A 74. B

Part 2. Mỗi đáp án đúng được 1.5 điểm.

75. little 76. only

77. hold 78. up

79. far 80. storm

81. turned

82. long

83. wrong

Part 3. Mỗi đáp án đúng được 1.5 điểm.

84. D

85. D

86. C

87. A

88. A

89. D

Part 4. Mỗi đáp án đúng được 1 .5 điểm.

90. A

91. A

92. B

93. D

94. D

95. C

96. C

97. B

98. B

99. A

Part 5. Mỗi đáp án đúng được 1 .5 điểm.

100. D

101. I

102. E

103. A

104. G

105. F

SECTION FOUR: WRITING (40/200 points)

Part 1. Mỗi câu viết lại đúng được 2.0 điểm, tổng 10 điểm.

106. He refusal to accept help and this led to his increasing isolation.

down

His increasing isolation was down to his refusal to accept help.

107. His fake arrogance only hid his genuine insecurity.

lay

Behind his fake arrogance lay a hidden/ his insecurity.

108. Only the top fifteen players will make it through to the next round.

advance

The top fifteen players only will advance to the next round.

109. Mike is never reluctant to make tough decision as a manager.

shrinks

Mike never shrinks from making tough decision as a manager.

110. The main focus of the plot is the adventures of two teenagers.

centred

The plot is centred on the adventures of two teenagers.

Part 2. Bài viết hoàn thiện được 30 điểm.

The mark is based on the following scheme.

1. Content: 35% of the total mark.

2. Organization and presentation: 30% of the total mark.

3. Language: 30% of the total mark.

4. Handwriting, punctuation and spelling: 5% of the total mark.

----------------------------------------THE END-----------------------------

1

SỞ GIÁO DỤC VÀ ĐÀO TẠO

TỈNH QUẢNG NINH

KỲ THI CHỌN HỌC SINH GIỎI CẤP TỈNH THPT

NĂM 2015

Môn thi: Tiếng Anh (Bảng A)

§Ò thi CHÍNH THỨC Ngày thi: 08/ 12/ 2015

Chữ ký của giám thị

Thời gian làm bài: 180 phút, không kể thời gian giao đề.

SBD:

(Đề thi này có 12 trang)

1:

1. Họ, tên thí sinh:

Số phách

2. Ngày sinh:

chấm lần 1:

2:

3. Nơi sinh:

4. Học sinh trường:

5. Hội đồng coi thi:

Số phách

chấm phúc khảo:

Điểm bài thi:

Bằng số: ……….……….……

Bằng chữ:

………………….……………

Họ tên, chữ ký của hai người

chấm thi:

1: …………………………..……

2: ………………………….…..

Số phách

chấm phúc khảo:

Điểm bài thi chấm phúc khảo:

Bằng số:

…………………….………….

Bằng chữ:

…………………….………….

Họ tên, chữ ký của hai người

chấm phúc khảo:

1: ………..…………………..……..……

2: ……………………….………..…..…

Ghi chú: Thí sinh trả lời ngay vào bản đề thi này. Nếu viết sai phải gạch bỏ rồi viết lại.

2

I. LISTENING (6.0 points)

Activity 1: You will hear a man giving some advice on a school trip. For questions 1-5, choose

the answer A, B, C or D which fits best according to what you hear. (1.0 point)

1. How long will the trip last?

A. One day B. Two days

C. A week D. Two weeks

2. Which of these clothes are not mentioned?

A. Sweater B. Jeans

C. Gloves D. Socks

3. Why are strong sensible shoes necessary?

A. For running B. For walking

C. For driving D. For climbing

4. What should you take if you want to go swimming?

A. A towel and a swimming costume B. A swimming costume

C. Two towels and a swimming costume D. A swimming costume, a towel and spare socks

5. What’s going to happen in the evening?

A. A disco and then a meal B. A walk and then a disco

C. Either a disco or a meal D. A meal and then a disco

Your answers:

1.

2.

3.

4.

5.

Activity 2: You will hear an extract from a talk on a radio program about food and drink.

For questions 1- 5, write NO MORE THAN THREE WORDS AND/OR A NUMBER for each

answer. (2.0 points)

1. Which animal first provided humans with milk?

………………………………………………………………………………………………………

2. When were cows first milked?

…………………………………………………………………………………………………….....

3. What has been found in Egyptian tombs?

…………………………………………………………………………………………………..……

4. Before 1800, who was responsible for making cheese?

…………………………………………………………………………………………………….....

5. When were milking machines invented?

…………………………………………………………………………………………………….....

………………………………………………………………

3

Activity 3: You will hear part of a radio interview with a swimming instructor. For questions

1- 10, complete each of the sentences with NO MORE THAN THREE WORDS AND/OR A

NUMBER. (2.0 points)

Paul works at a hotel in the

.

1

He started his job in

.

2

He particularly likes meeting

3

there.

Paul isn’t interested in teaching

.

4

According to Paul

5

of all adults can’t swim.

Paul’s students are afraid of going

.

6

His students have to put their faces into a salad bowl and

7

below the surface.

The first thing they do in the pool is to

8

in the water with their faces down.

Paul thinks it’s essential to be

9

in the water.

Most people learn to swim after about

.

10

Activity 4: You will hear five different people giving advice about camping at a three-day

rock music festival. Choose from the list (A – F) what each person is saying. Use each letter

only once. There is one extra letter which you do NOT need to use. (1.0 point)

A. Don’t pack too many clothes.

B. Make friends with the people camping next to you.

C. Keep your money with you at all times.

D. Spend time planning the trip with your friends.

E. Leave anything valuable at home.

F. Remember where you put up your tent.

Speaker 1: _____________

Speaker 2: _____________

Speaker 3: _____________

Speaker 4: _____________

Speaker 5: _____________

4

II. LEXICO- GRAMMAR (2.0 points)

Activity 1: Circle the letter A, B, C, or D next to the right option to complete the sentences

below. (0.5 point)

1. Mary later became a/ an _______________ of some importance in the academic world.

A. figure B. adult C. being C. character

2. - I’m sorry to _______________, but did you happen to mention the name “Fiona”?

A. cut you B. butt in C. intercede D. jump

3. Were _______________ my dad, I would never have started playing tennis in the first place.

A. it for B. it hadn’t been for C. it not for D. it to be for

4. John: “I can’t stand this hot weather!”. Peter: “ No, _______________. Dreadful, isn’t it?”

A. so can’t I B. neither can I C. so I can’t D. nor I can

5. Thankfully we _______________ another ticket as Jean didn’t turn up.

A. needn’t have got C. needed not to get

B. hadn’t to get D. didn’t need to get

Activity 2: Fill in the blank with ONE word only. The first one has been done as an example.

(0.5 point)

Human and other life forms

Humans (0) ______ much in common with other life forms on Earth. (1) ______ the very first life

forms appeared, all living things have been desperately struggling to survive the harsh and

changing conditions of our planet. This has involved adapting to new situations and, in many cases,

has led to either evolution or extinction. We are not alone in making use (2) ______ the world

around us (birds use twigs to build nests, for example) or in being particularly skilful (spiders make

intricate webs). Where we (3) ______ differ from other life forms, however, is in our ability to

record, and learn from, our collective history. In this, it seems that we are unique.

There is still much mankind does not know about the earliest humans, of course, but we are

increasingly becoming a species with detail knowledge about our past. The more we learn, the

better (4) ___ our chances of survival in the future. It must also be recognised, however, that we are

also species on Earth which (5) ____ managed to create the means to destroy the planet we live on.

Your answers:

Activity 3: Use the word given in capitals at the end of each line to form a new word that fits

the gap in the same line. The first one has been done as an example. (0.5 point)

Being unable to read

It seems (0) unthinkable today not to provide children with a decent education. There

is such an emphasis on academic achievements these days that it’s easy to forget what

a problem (1) _______________ used to be. Being unable to read can be intensely

embarrassing and can make someone feel like a complete (2) _______________.

Someone who can’t read is often (3) _______________ afraid of certain situations.

The problem can seem (4) _______________. However, given the right teacher, a lot

of hard work and a (5) _______________ amount of time, anyone can learn. Being

able to read can lead to an improved quality of life.

THINK

LITERATE

FAIL

UNDERSTAND

SOLVE

REASON

0. have

1. _______

2. _______

3. _______

4. _______

5. _______

5

Activity 4: Each sentence has four underlined words or phrases. Circle the letter of the

underlined word or phrase that is NOT CORRECT. (0.5 point)

1. Manufacturers may use food additives for preserving, to color, to flavor, or to fortify foods.

A B C D

2. Only with a two-thirds vote by both houses are the U.S. Congress able to override a presidential veto.

A B C D

3. The grizzly bear, which can grow up to eight feet tall, has been called a more dangerous animal

of North America. A B C D

4. He was not able to define the process by which the body had protected by the immunologic system.

A B C D

5. Dislike sumac with red berries, sumac with white berries is poisonous.

A B C D

III. READING (6.0 points)

Activity 1: For questions 1–6, read the text and decide whether the statements that follow are

true or false. Write (T) for TRUE, (F) for FALSE. (1.2 points)

Some day people will certainly try to build settlements on the moon. The best place for houses in a

moon town will be a cave or a tunnel. Underground houses will not be squashed by meteorites that

constantly foil on the moon from outer space. This will be important on the moon, since daytime is

so hot that food could be cooked in the rocks, and the nights get bitterly cold.

Pioneer moon homes may be made of airtight plastic that can be blown up like a balloon inside the

cave. The reason for tins is that the moon has no air around it. The pioneers will have to take along

from the earth the oxygen masks when they are away from home. But the balloon house itself will

be filled with air. Perhaps the house will have beds, tables and chairs, built into it. These can be

inflated, too. So people will sleep, eat and work on air! Moon-house building will be easy. The

moon’s gravity is less than the earth’s. Everything weighs only one-sixth as much as it does on the

earth.

1. It is impossible to build a moon house in a cave or a tunnel.

2. The temperature on the moon is stable during the day and night.

3. The people on the moon will have to wear oxygen masks when they leave their home.

4. There is no air on the moon.

5. If a stone weighs 18 tons on the earth, it weighs only three tons on the moon.

6. Houses can not be built on the moon because of the weak gravity.

6

Activity 2: For questions 1–10, read the following passage and decide which answer (A, B, C,

or D) best fits each gap. Write your answers in corresponding numbered boxes. There is an

example at the beginning (0). (1.0 point)

UNIVERSAL WET WEEKEND

The weather across much of the British Isles (0) ____ settled last week, with a good (1) _____ of

sunshine. On Saturday, the lunchtime temperature at Bridlington in the northeast of England was

28.2

o

C, which compared favourably with Alicante in southern Spain at 29

o

C. The rest of the world,

however, was (2) ______ with some extreme conditions. A tropical storm, given the name Helen,

hit Hong Kong on Saturday morning, though her presence had been felt in (3) ________ from noon

on Friday, the showers and (4) _______ of rain became more and more frequent so that by

midnight on Sunday, thirty-six hours later, there had been 333mm of rainfall, not far off the (5)

______ for the month of August, at 367mm. Even on Sunday there was a (6) _______ in Helen’s

tail. The town centre of Shanwei, near Hong Kong, was flooded when 468mm of rain fell in the

sixty hours leading up to midday on Sunday, (7) _______ twice the normal August rainfall. On the

other (8) _______ of the globe, tropical storm Gabrielle moved across the Gulf of Mexico and

overnight rain exceeded the usual rainfall for the (9) ________ month. Although most of Europe

enjoyed sun, the high temperatures were sufficient to set off some (10) ________ showers. On

Tuesday morning, a thunderstorm at Lyons in eastern France deposited 99mm of rain in just six

hours.

0. A. kept B. remained C. lasted D. held

1. A. extent B. quantity C. deal D. proportion

2. A. coping B. matching C. colliding D. queuing

3. A. light B. advance C. likelihood D. day

4. A. outbursts B. outbreaks C. outputs D. outlets

5. A. general B. standard C. medium D. average

6. A. sting B. prick C. stab D. poke

7. A. only B. fairly C. hardly D. nearly

8. A. section B. side C. face D. part

9. A. total B. sole C. single D. whole

10. A. huge B. weighty C. heavy D. strong

Your answers: 0. B

1.

2.

3.

4.

5.

6.

7.

8.

9.

10.

7

Activity 3: Read the text and choose the most suitable heading from the list A-G for each

paragraph (1-6). There is one extra heading which you do NOT need to use. (1.8 points)

A. World interest in Esperanto

B. Easy to learn- and plenty to read!

C. Will it survive or disappear?

D. Problems for a language with no home

E. What is Esperanto trying to do?

F. A school project

G. One person’s idea

ESPERANTO

1

The language “Esperanto” is about 120 years old. It doesn’t come from any country. People

call it a “planned” language, because someone created it- a Pole, Dr L.L. Zamenhof.

2

The word “Esperanto” means “someone who hopes”. The idea is for Esperanto to be a

language for international communication. Everyone learns it as a foreign language, rather than

learning a language from one particular country, like French or English.

3

Esperanto isn’t a difficult language. The rules are simple, and every word is easy to

pronounce and to spell. There are Esperanto textbooks and dictionaries, as well as other books, and

translations into Esperanto from other languages. There are 30,000 books in the British Esperanto

library.

4

There are other “planned languages”, but Esperanto is the biggest. Many countries have

their own Esperanto societies. There are over half a million Esperanto Internet sites, and you can

even learn it by email! There are also some very famous Esperanto speakers - for example, six

Nobel Prize winners.

5

Sadly, the fact that Esperanto doesn’t have its own country or culture also causes some

problems. For example, no country uses Esperanto in schools, and no people learn it as their own

language. Its speakers come from all over the world, but they also have their own languages.

6

Although Esperanto speakers care very much about its future, it’s not always easy to make

other people speak it or teach it to their children. The future of Esperanto depends on new people

learning it, but at the moment there are only around two million speakers of Esperanto in the world.

But more than 700 million speakers of English!

8

Activity 4: For questions 1–10, read the passage and circle the best answer (A, B, C, or D) for

the questions that follow. (2.0 points)

Long before they can actually speak, babies pay special attention to the speech they hear around

them. Within the first month of their lives, babies' responses to the sound of the human voice will

be different from their responses to other sorts of auditory stimuli. They will stop crying when they

hear a person talking, but not if they hear a bell or the sound of a rattle. At first, the sounds that an

infant notices might be only those words that receive the heaviest emphasis and that often occur at

the ends of utterances. By the time they are six or seven weeks old, babies can detect the difference

between syllables pronounced with rising and falling inflections. Very soon, these differences in

adult stress and intonation can influence babies' emotional states and behavior. Long before they

develop actual language comprehension, babies can sense when an adult is playful or angry,

attempting to initiate or terminate new behavior, and so on, merely on the basis of cues such as the

rate, volume, and melody of adult speech.

Adults make it as easy as they can for babies to pick up a language by exaggerating such cues. One

researcher observed babies and their mothers in six diverse cultures and found that, in all six

languages, the mothers used simplified syntax, short utterances and nonsense sounds, and

transformed certain sounds into baby talk. Other investigators have noted that when mothers talk to

babies who are only a few months old, they exaggerate the pitch, loudness, and intensity of their

words. They also exaggerate their facial expressions, hold vowels longer, and emphasize certain

words.

More significant for language development than their response to general intonation is observation

that tiny babies can make relatively fine distinctions between speech sounds. In other words, babies

enter the world with the ability to make precisely those perceptual discriminations that are

necessary if they are to acquire aural language.

Babies obviously derive pleasure from sound input, too: even as young as nine months they will

listen to songs or stories, although the words themselves are beyond their understanding. For

babies, language is a sensory-motor delight rather than the route to prosaic meaning that it is often

for adults.

1. What does the passage mainly discuss?

A. How babies differentiate between the sound of the human voice and other sounds.

B. The differences between a baby's and an adult's ability to comprehend language.

C. How babies perceive and respond to the human voice in their earliest stages of language

development.

D. The response of babies to sounds other than the human voice.

2. Why does the author mention a bell and a rattle in paragraph 1?

A. To contrast the reactions of babies to human and nonhuman sounds.

B. To give examples of sounds that will cause a baby to cry.

C. To explain how babies distinguish between different nonhuman sounds.

D. To give examples of typical toys that babies do not like.

3. Why does the author mention syllables pronounced with rising and falling inflections

in paragraph 1?

A. To demonstrate how difficult it is for babies to interpret emotions.

B. To illustrate that a six-week-old baby can already distinguish some language differences.

C. To provide an example of ways adults speak to babies.

D. To give a reason for babies' difficulty in distinguishing one adult from another.

9

4. The word "diverse" in paragraph 2 is closest in meaning to

A. surrounding B. divided C. different D. stimulating

5. The word "noted" in paragraph 2 is closest in meaning to

A. theorized B. requested C. disagreed D. observed

6. The word "They" in paragraph 2 refers to

A. mothers B. investigators C. babies D. words

7. The passage mentions all of the following as ways adults modify their speech when

talking to babies EXCEPT

A. giving all words equal emphasis B. speaking with shorter sentences

C. speaking more loudly than normal D. using meaningless sounds

8. Which of the following can be inferred about the findings described in paragraph 2?

A. Babies who are exposed to more than one language can speak earlier than babies exposed to a

single language.

B. Mothers from different cultures speak to their babies in similar ways.

C. Babies ignore facial expressions in comprehending aural language.

D. The mothers observed by the researchers were consciously teaching their babies to speak.

9. What point does the author make to illustrate that babies are born with the ability to

acquire language?

A. Babies begin to understand words in songs.

B. Babies exaggerate their own sounds and expressions.

C. Babies are more sensitive to sounds than are adults.

D. Babies notice even minor differences between speech sounds.

10. According to the author, why do babies listen to songs and stories, even though they

can not understand them?

A. They understand the rhythm. B. They enjoy the sound.

C. They can remember them easily. D. They focus on the meaning of their parents' words.

IV. WRITING (6.0 points)

Activity 1: Read the following text and use your own words to summarize it (in less than 50

words). You MUST NOT copy or re-write the original. (1.0 point)

Rarely do neighbours have the best of relationships for any length of time. Of course, some people

become close friends, but only if there is a lot of give and take is this possible. So common are

disputes between neighbours that there are many laws to cover arguments over noise, property and

rubbish. Before things go too far for the relationship to be saved, there are a few simple things you

can do. The first is to speak to your neighbour. You’d be amazed at how many arguments are

avoided by such a simple step. Not only does it give you the chance to express your complaint, it

also gives your neighbour the chance to explain and, perhaps, take action.

Secondly, check your rights. On no account should you do anything to damage your neighbours’

property, or their overhanging trees if that’s the problem, without knowing what your legal rights

are. Not until you are sure you are acting within the law should you do anything. And remember – a

little understanding can go a long way.

10

________________________________________________________________________________

Activity 2: The graph below shows the amount of money spent on books in Germany, France,

Italy and Austria between 1995 and 2005. Write a report of at least 150 words for a university

lecturer describing the information below. (2.0 points)

Money&spe nt&on&Books

0

10

20

30

40

50

60

70

80

90

100

1995 1997 1999 2001 2003 2005

$,US,dollars,(millions)

Austria Italy France Germany

________________________________________________________________________________

11

________________________________________________________________________________

Activity 3: (3.0 points)

Write about the following topic:

Some think students can learn more effectively in groups, while others think

they should study alone. Which method do you think is more effective?

Give reasons for your answers and include any relevant examples from your own knowledge

or experience. Write about 250 words.

________________________________________________________________________________

12

________________________________________________________________________________

---------------------------THE END---------------------------------

1

SỞ GIÁO DỤC VÀ ĐÀO TẠO

TỈNH QUẢNG NINH

HƯỚNG DẪN CHẤM THI CHỌN HỌC SINH GIỎI

CẤP TỈNH THPT NĂM 2015

Môn thi: Tiếng Anh (Bảng A)

§Ò thi CHÍNH THỨC Ngày thi: 08/ 12/ 2015

(Hướng dẫn này có 02 trang)

I. LISTENING (6.0 điểm)

Activity 1: 1.0 điểm. Mỗi câu trả lời đúng 0.2 điểm.

1. B

2. C

3.B

4. A

5. D

Activity 2: 2.0 điểm. Mỗi câu trả lời đúng 0.4 điểm.

1. sheep (did)

2. 4,000 years ago

3. (some) old cheese

4. women (were)

5. (about) 1830

Activity 3: 2.0 điểm. Mỗi câu trả lời đúng 0.2 điểm.

1. south of France

2. 1970

3. famous people

4. (young) children

5. (about) 50%

6. under (the) water

7. breathe (out)

8. (try to) float

9. (feeling) confident

10. 3 hours/ lessons

Activity 4: 1.0 điểm. Mỗi câu trả lời đúng được 0.2 điểm.

Speaker 1: E

Speaker 2: D

Speaker 3: A

Speaker 4: F

Speaker 5: B

II. LEXICO- GRAMMAR (2.0 điểm)

Activity 1: 0.5 điểm. Mỗi câu trả lời đúng được 0.1 điểm.

1. A

2. B

3. C

4. B

5. D

Activity 2: 0.5 điểm. Mỗi câu trả lời đúng được 0.1 điểm.

1. Since

2. of

3. do

4. are

5. has

Activity 3: 0.5 điểm. Mỗi câu trả lời đúng được 0.1 điểm.

1. illiteracy

2. failure

3. understandably

4. unsolvable

5. reasonable

Activity 4: 0.5 điểm. Mỗi câu trả lời đúng được 0.1 điểm.

1. B

2. B

3. D

4. C

5. A

III. READING (6.0 điể m)

Activity 1: 1.2 điểm. Mỗi câu trả lời đúng được 0.2 điểm.

1. F

2. F

3. T

4. T

5. T

6. F

Activity 2: 1.0 điểm. Mỗi câu trả lời đúng được 0.1 điểm.

1. C

2. A

3. B

4. B

5. D

6. A

7. D

8. B

9. D

10. C

Activity 3: 1.8 điểm. Mỗi câu trả lời đúng được 0.3 điểm.

1.G

2.E

3.B

4.A

5.D

6.C

Activity 4: 2.0 điểm. Mỗi câu trả lời đúng được 0.2 điểm.

1. C

2. A

3. B

4. C

5. D

6. A

7. A

8. B

9. D

10. B

2

IV. WRITING (6.0 điểm)

Activity 1:1.0 điểm.

Yêu cầu thí sinh viết 1 đoạn văn tóm tắt gồm 3 phần đảm bảo các ý chính sau, nhưng không được viết

lại y nguyên như trong văn bản gốc.

Topic sentence

Despite many laws, you can do a few simple things to avoid

disputes which commonly happen between neighbours.

0.2 điểm

Supporting sentences

- Speaking to your neighbour so that you and your neighbours

can express complaints, explanation and take action.

- Checking your rights to make sure you are acting legally.

0.3 điểm

Closing sentence

Although there are many laws on neighbour disputes, you can

have a talk with your neighbours and check your rights before

things go too far.

0.2 điểm

Activity 2: 2.0 điểm. Yêu cầu thí sinh viết thành bài văn hoàn chỉnh gồm 3 phần:

Introduction

- What/ Where/ When

0.3 điểm

Body

(Một biểu đồ có thể có nhiều đặc điểm, việc

lựa chọn đặc điểm nào để miêu tả là tùy thuộc

vào từng thí sinh. Những bài được điểm tối đa

theo biểu điểm chấm phải là những bài chỉ ra

được những đặc điểm nổi bật nhất của biểu đồ

đồng thời đưa ra được dẫn chứng (số liệu) để

chứng minh. Ngoài ra, bài viết phải viết mạch

lạc, dùng từ chính xác, đa dạng và linh hoạt.)

- Reporting the main ideas.

- Making comparisons.

0.7 điểm

Conclusion

Restate the most significant feature(s)

in other words.

0.3 điểm

Activity 3: 3.0 điểm. Điểm của bài viết được chấm dựa trên các tiêu chí sau:

Content:

- a provision of all main ideas and appropriate details.

1.0 điểm

Language:

- a variety of appropriate vocabulary and structures are used.

1.0 điểm

Organization &

Presentation:

- ideas are organized and presented with coherence, style,

and clarity appropriate to the level of English language

gifted upper-secondary school students.

1.0 điểm

Thí sinh phải biết biện giải cho sự lựa chọn của mình (lý do, dẫn chứng..?) viết đúng chủ đề, đúng ngữ

pháp, dùng từ chuẩn xác, diễn đạt mạch lạc, không sai lỗi chính tả, không quá ngắn hoặc quá dài

(khoảng 250 từ và với tối thiểu 3 lí do) mới được điểm tối đa.

TỔNG SỐ: 20 ĐIỂM (không làm tròn số)

---------------------- HẾT ----------------------

1

SỞ GIÁO DỤC VÀ ĐÀO TẠO kú thi chän häc sinh

giái CẤP tØnh tHPT

TỈNH QUẢNG NINH NĂM 2015

Môn thi: Tiếng Anh ( Bảng B)

§Ò thi CHÍNH THỨC Ngày thi: 08/12/2015

Chữ ký giám thị

Thời gian làm bài: 180 phút, không kể thời gian giao đề.

SBD:

(Đề thi này có 11 trang)

1:

Họ, tên thí sinh:

Số phách

Ngày sinh:

2:

Nơi sinh:

Học sinh trường:

Hội đồng coi thi:

Số phách

chấm phúc khảo:

Điểm bài thi

Bằng số: ……….……….………

Bằng chữ:

………………….……………….…

Họ tên, chữ ký của hai người

chấm thi

1: …………………………..….

2: ………………………….…..

Số phách

chấm phúc khảo:

Điểm bài thi chấm phúc khảo

Bằng số: ……….…………........

Bằng chữ:

…………………….………………...

Họ tên, chữ ký của hai người

chấm phúc khảo:

1: ………………………………………………

2: ……………………….………..……………….

Ghi chú: Thí sinh trả lời ngay vào bản đề thi này. Nếu viết sai phải gạch bỏ rồi viết lại.

2

I. LISTENING (6.0 points)

Activity 1: You are going to hear a conversation between two students, a girl and a boy called

Sarah and Eric. Answer questions 1-8. You do NOT need to write a full sentence. (1.6 points)

1. Who is new at the school, Sarah or Eric?

……………………………………………………

5. What time does he get up on other school days?

……………………………………………………

2. What year is Sarah in?

……………………………………………………

6. What does Eric do before dinner?

……………………………………………………

3. What lesson has Sarah got now?

……………………………………………………

7. Does Eric watch TV?

……………………………………………………

4. Why does Eric get up early on Thursdays?

……………………………………………………

8. Does Sarah like computer games?

……………………………………………………

Activity 2: Listen to the flight announcements. Put a tick in the box next to the answer (A, B, C

or D) which fits best according to what you hear. (1.4 points)

1. Flight number YZ 243 is going to………………….

* A. Ankara * B. Accra * C. Anchorage * D. Dakar

2. Dominic Andrews is………………….

* A. a pilot * B. on the security staff

* C. a passenger * D. on the airline staff

3. For the flight to New York, go to Gate………………….

* A. 9 * B. 19 * C. 16 * D. 90

4. The flight to Jakarta is………………….

* A. early * B. cancelled * C. on time * D. late

5. Mr. and Mrs. El Ghazi will find Mustapha………………….

* A. on the aeroplane * B. in the arrivals hall

* C. at Gate 21 * D. at the Customs desk

6. The flight from Cairo will be …………………. late.

* A. one hour * B. about one hour * C. eighteen hundred hours * D. eighteen hours

7. Flight BB 621 has been cancelled because of the………………….

* A. heavy rain * B. snow and ice * C. low cloud * D. freezing fog

3

Activity 3: You will hear a girl called Lisa and a boy called Sam talking about a book they have

both read and decide whether the statements that follow are true or false. Write (T) for TRUE,

(F) for FALSE. (1.5 points)

1. Lisa disliked the book when she first started reading it.

2. Sam and Lisa felt sorry for Paul, the main character in the book.

3. Sam was interested in the mystery about Paul and his brother.

4. Lisa thought the author helped the readers to understand Paul.

5. Lisa liked the way the author developed Paul’s character.

Activity 4: Listen to a conversation and fill in the numbered gaps in the table. Write NO MORE

THAN THREE WORDS AND/OR A NUMBER for each answer. (1.5 points)

TIM

JANE

Day of arrival

Sunday

(1) ……………………………

Subject

(2) ……………………………

Biology

Number of books being read

Fifty seven

(3) ……………………………

Day of the first lecture

Tuesday

Wednesday

First essay’s topic / title

(4) ……………………………

(5) ……………………………

II. LEXICO-GRAMMAR (2.0 points)

Activity 1: Circle the letter A, B, C, or D next to the right option to complete the sentences below.

(1.0 point)

1. The two computers for sale were in poor condition, so I didn’t buy _______.

A. either of them B. none of them

C. neither of them D. both of them

2. _______ daily promotes physical as well as emotional well – being in people of all ages.

A. Having exercised B. Those who exercise

C. Exercising D. For exercising

3. Peter : “ I thought your game was much better last night.”

Dave : “ You’ve got to be kidding! _______.”

A. I myself liked it very much B. I thought it was terrible

C. I’m sure you enjoyed it D. I supposed it was not bad

4

4. _______ ten minutes earlier, you would have got a better seat.

A. Had you arrived B. If you arrived

C. Were you arrived D. If you hadn’t arrived

5. _______ his exhaustion, he won the marathon by nearly three minutes.

A. Despite B. In spite C. Although D. However

6. Your success in life_______ very largely on yourself.

A. is keen B. depends C. lies D. goes

7. The bomb_______ in the garage; fortunately no one hurt.

A. put on B. got out C. went off D. kept up

8. She is looking forward_______ him again.

A. to meet B. on meeting C. for meeting D. to meeting

9. David learned to play _______violin when he was at _______ university.

A. -/- B. the/- C. the/the D. -/the

10. -"Let's have a pizza." -"_______".

A. Not again B. It doesn't matter C. Not really D. It’s a good idea

Activity 2: Read the text below. Use the word given in capitals at the end of each line to form a

new word that fits the gap in the same line. The first one has been done as an example. (0.5 point)

Unusual beliefs

Despite the fact that this is now the 21

st

century, an (0) ________

number of English people appear to believe in the paranormal. What is the

(1) ________________ for this?

Scientists have found the answers to many of our questions, but the

more (2) ________________ we make, the more we want to know. The

psychological need for (3) ________________ that we have appears to be

very strong. For this reason, a belief in the (4) ________________of aliens

and especially, the possibilities of contact with alien life forms is (5)

________________ common.

INCREASE

EXPLAIN

DISCOVER

SECURE

EXIST

EXTREME

Your answers: 0. increasing

1.

2.

3.

4.

5.

5

Activity 3: Each sentence below has four underlined parts. Circle the letter of the underlined

part that is NOT CORRECT. (0.5 point)

1. Visitors may realize that even though they can’t make their homes in Venice city, they can take

A B

away with them memories of their beauty.

C D

2. Had you told me that this is going to happen, I would never have believed it.

A B C D

3. A five-thousand-dollars reward was offered for the capture of the escaped criminals.

A B C D

4. Education is a subject which many British people deeply care about it.

A B C D

5. You can apply for a better job when you will have had more experience.

A B C D

III. READING (6.0 points)

Activity 1: There are 5 blanks in the passage below. From the words provided in the box, choose

the most suitable for each blank. There are THREE extra words that you do NOT need to use.

(2.0 points).

but

need!

bad

true

help

good!

benefit

indeed!

In Britain, the average young person now spends more money on games each year than on

going to the cinema or renting videos. But is this necessarily a (1) __________ thing? For years,

newspaper reports have been saying that children who spend too much time playing computer games

become unsociable, bad- tempered, even violent as a result. But a new research, carried out in both

Europe and the USA, suggests that the opposite may be (2) __________.

(3) __________, playing some of the more complicated games may help people of all ages to

improve certain skills. Researchers claim that this is because the games make the brain work harder in

certain ways, like imagining sounds and movements quickly and identifying what they are. The fact

that people play the games repeatedly means that they get a lot of practice in these skills which are

therefore likely to become highly developed.

Social skills may (4) __________, too. Researchers in Chicago think that fans of first- person

shooter games such as “Counterstrike” are better than non-players when it comes to building trust and

co-operation, and that this helps them to make good friendships and become strong members of their

communities. So rather than giving up computer games, perhaps young people (5) __________to

spend more time on them?

Your answers:

1.

2.

3.

4.

5.

6

Activity 2: Read the following passage and decide which answer (A, B, C, or D) best fits each

gap. Write your answers in corresponding numbered boxes. (1.0 point)

These days in business, people have to face many challenging questions when designing and

implementing new projects in undeveloped areas of the countryside. One issue which has to be faced is

whether it is possible to introduce new technology without destroying the local environment.

Economic (1) __________and environmental conservation are often seen as natural enemies. It

is unfortunate that in the past this has often been true, and it has been necessary to choose between

(2) __________the project or protecting the environment. However, by taking environmental

considerations (3) __________at an early stage in a project, companies can significantly reduce any

impacts on local plants and animals.

For example, in southern Africa, a company called CEL was asked to put up 410 km of a power

transmission line without disturbing the rare birds which inhabit that area. The project was carried out

with (4) __________disturbance last summer. What may surprise many business people is the fact that

this consideration for local wildlife did not in any way (5) __________down the project. Indeed, the

necessary advance planning (6) __________with local knowledge and advanced technology, (7)

__________that the project was actually completed ahead of schedule. CEL was contracted to finish

the job by October and (8) __________to do so two months earlier.

CEL is one of those companies which is (9) __________ to the principle of environmental

conservation. Many other companies have yet to be (10) __________ of the importance of balancing

the needs of people with those of the environment. However, it may be the only realistic way forward.

1. A. development!

B. progression!

C. rise!

D. increase!

2. A. running!

B. dealing!

C. controlling!

D. leading!

3. A. deeply!

B. gravely!

C. seriously!

D. severely!

4. A. bare!

B. smallest!

C. minimal!

D. least!

5. A. turn!

B. slow!

C. speed!

D. hold!

6. A. tied

B. combined

C. added

D. related

7. A. led

B. caused

C. resulted

D. meant

8. A. managed

B. succeeded

C. achieved

D. fulfilled

9. A. promised

B. persuaded

C. convicted

D. committed

10. A. argued

B. convinced

C. urged

D. impressed

Your answers:

1.

2.

3.

4.

5.

6.

7.

8.

9.

10.

7

Activity 3: Read the following text and match headings A-F with the paragraphs 1-5. There is

one heading you do NOT need. The first one has been done as an example. (1.2 points)

A. Living life through books

B. The hard work of writing

C. Writing about my own life

D. A famous writer?

E. Something better than sport!

F. Unhappy endings

FOR THE LOVE OF BOOKS

0

E

When I was a child I loved reading and I read anything I could find. But I detested

sport, and even hated going for walks, so I spent most of my time with my nose in a book. I was the

only girl in a family of five brothers, and I was quite quiet – but in the world of my books, I was

strong, and beautiful – the lovely princess with the handsome prince, the girl who fights enormous

monsters, the star…

1

As I grew older, books became my life. I didn’t need to go out, or watch TV – I lived the highs

and lows of my characters in their fight for success – I worried about the dancer who broke her leg, I

cried when the rider’s favourite horse died and I was so happy when the doctor got through floods and

thunderstorms to save the life of a sick child!

2

Of course, after time, I started to write my own stories. And of course, at first, I wasn’t very

good at it! I found it easier to write about sad things, so my first stories were full of disasters, accidents

and deaths. My father read one story and couldn’t quite understand why three characters died, a dog

had an accident and a horse burned down – and that was all before the end of the fourth page!

3

Then one day my aunt said I should write about my own life. I was in bed with a broken arm,

and even I got bored of books after a while. My aunt came to visit and brought my some paper and a

pen. “Go on”. She said, “Write about your life with five brothers. Tell it like it is”. And so I did.

(Luckily, my right arm wasn’t broken, so I could still write!)

4

Ten years later, my first story was published. And I used those early childhood memories. The

main character is a writer. And guess what? She breaks her arm falling out of a tree, and her aunt

comes to visit – and then she becomes a very famous writer! And me? Well, I’m still waiting…

8

Activity 4: Read the passage and circle the correct answer (A, B, C or D) for the questions that

follow. (1.8 points)

Are you a good listener?

You may think that listening is the same as hearing, that is a dangerous misconception. One

study has estimated that the average person spends 40 % of his or her time at work listening yet only

30% as an effective listener. Failure to listen well can lead to conflicts, misunderstandings and lost

opportunities. The good news is that effective listening is a skill that can be learned. Awareness of

your listening behaviour is the first step toward improvement. Experts have identified three levels of

listening. [A]

Level one listeners are effective listeners who view speaker with respect and empathy. [B]

They see the conversation as an opportunity to gather interesting and useful information. As they

listen, they make an effort to see the speaker’s point of view, to predict what he or she will say next.

To pay attention to body language, and to ask questions when necessary.

At level two, a person may appear to be listening but makes little effort to truly understand

what is being said. He or she is focusing on the words of message, but not on nonverbal cues and the

intent of the speaker. Level two listeners may make sounds of agreement and nod while the speaker

talks, but they fail to ask questions to ensure good communication. [C]

Level three listeners “tune out” speakers. In other words, they pretend to be listening while they

are actually daydreaming or thinking about something entirely different. In this case, the speaker may

feel insulted, and the result can be an argument or even a breakdown of the relationship. [D]

1. Which of the following would be a good title for the reading?

A. The Different Levels of Listening B. The Benefits of Being a Good Listener

C. Three Steps to Becoming a Good Listener D. Why Some People Don’t Listen

2. According to the reading, listening is different from hearing because of all of the following

EXCEPT ________________.

A. listening is a skill B. listening requires effort

C. listening has several levels D. listening is quite easy

3. Which is the best place for the following sentence?

This can give the speaker a false sense of being understood.

A. [A] B. [B] C. [C] D. [D]

4. According to the reading, how may a level three listener insult a speaker?

A. by disagreeing with him/her B. by not paying attention

C. by changing the subject D. by asking too many questions

5. The words “he or she” in paragraph 2 refer to ________________.

A. level one listener B. listener

C. speaker D. the author

6. The author mentioned the underlined sentence in paragraph 1 in order to ________________.

A. indicate that listening is the same as hearing

B. show that people spend too much time at work

C. prove that there are too many effective listeners

D. show that most people have some problems with listening

9

IV. WRITING (6.0 points)

Activity 1: Read the following text and use your own words to summarize it (in a paragraph of

40-50 words). You MUST NOT copy or re-write the original. (1.0 point)

You can be a good conversationist by being a good listener. When you are conversing with

someone, pay close attention to the speakers’ words while looking at his or her face. Show your

interest by smiling and/ or nodding. Furthermore, don’t interrupt when someone is speaking; it is

impolite to do so. If you have a good story, wait until the other is finished. Also, watch your body

language; it can affect your communication whether you are the speaker or the listener. For instance,

don’t sit slumped in a chair or make nervous hand and foot movements. Be relaxed and bend your

body slightly forward to show interest in the person and the conversation. To conclude, a successful

conversationist must know how to listen.

__________________________________________________________________________________

Activity 2: (2.0 points)

You are going to another country to study. You would like to do a part-time job while you are

studying, so you want to ask a friend who lives there for some help.

Write a letter to this friend. In your letter

• give details of your study plans

• explain why you want to get a part-time job

• suggest how your friend could help you find a job

Write at least 120 words.

You do NOT need to write any addresses.

10

Begin your letter as follows:

Dear ______________,

__________________________________________________________________________________

Yours sincerely,

Nguyen Ngoc Ha

Activity 3: Which is a better place for the aged, home or nursing home?

Use specific reasons and examples to write an essay (about 200 words) to express your personal

points of view. (3.0 points)

__________________________________________________________________________________

11

__________________________________________________________________________________

---------------------------THE END----------------------------------

1

SỞ GIÁO DỤC VÀ ĐÀO TẠO

TỈNH QUẢNG NINH

HƯỚNG DẪN CHẤM THI CHỌN HỌC SINH GIỎI

CẤP TỈNH THPT NĂM 2015

§Ò thi CHÍNH THỨC Môn thi: Tiếng Anh ( Bảng B)

Ngày thi:

08/12/2015

(Hướng dẫn chấm này có 2 trang)

I. LISTENING (6.0 điểm)

Activity 1: 1.6 điểm. Mỗi câu trả lời đúng 0.2 điểm.

1. Sarah (is)

5. (at) 7.30 (half past seven)

2. (year) 10

6. (do) homework

3. music (lesson)

7. No, he doesn’t / No

4. to do karate

8. Yes, she does/ Yes

Activity 2: 1.4 điểm. Mỗi câu trả lời đúng 0.2 điểm.

1. C

2.C

3.B

4.D

5.B

6.B

7.A

Activity 3: 1.5 điểm. Mỗi câu trả lời đ úng 0.3 điểm.

1.F

2.F

3.F

4.T

5.T

Activity 4: 1.5 điểm. Mỗi câu trả lời đúng 0.3 điểm.

1. Friday

2. History

3. Forty-three (43)

4. Why study history

5. Animal language

II. LEXICO-GRAMMAR. (2,0 điểm)

Activity 1. 1,0 điểm. Mỗi câu trả lời đúng được 0,1 điểm.

1. A

2. C

3. B

4. A

5. A

6. B

7. C

8. D

9. B

10. D

Activity 2: 0,5 điểm. Mỗi câu trả lời đúng được 0,1 điểm.

1. explanation

2. discoveries

3. security

4. existence

5. extremely

Activity 3: 0,5 điểm. Mỗi câu trả lời đúng được 0,1 điểm.

1. D

2. B

3. A

4. D

5. C

III. READING (6,0 điểm)

Activity 1: 2,0 điểm. Mỗi câu trả lời đúng được 0,4 điểm.

1. bad

2. good

3. indeed

4. benefit

5. need

Activity 2: 1,0 điểm. Mỗi chỗ trống điền đúng được 0,1 điểm.

1. A

2. A

3. C

4. C

5. B

2

6. B

7. D

8. A

9. D

10. B

Activity 3: 1,2 điểm. Mỗi câu trả lời đúng được 0,3 điểm.

1.A

2.F

3.C

4.D

Activity 4: 1,8 điểm. Mỗi câu trả lời đúng được 0,3 điểm.

1. A

2. D

3. C

4. B

5. C

6. D

IV. WRITING (6,0 điểm)

Activity 1: 1,0 điểm. Yêu cầu thí sinh viết 1 đoạn văn tóm tắt gồm 3 phần đảm bảo các ý chính sau,

nhưng không được viết lại y nguyên như trong văn bản gốc.

Topic sentence

You can be a good conversationist by being a good listener.

0.2 điểm

Supporting sentences

- Pay close attention to the speakers’ words while looking at

his or her face.

- Don’t interrupt when someone is speaking.

- Watch your body language.

0.2 điểm

Closing sentence

A successful conservationist must know how to listen.

0.2 điểm

Activity 2: 2,0 điểm.

Outline

Viết đúng cấu trúc của một lá thư

0,5 điểm

Content (đủ 3 nội

dung, văn phong thân

mật)

• Give details of your study plans.

• Explain why you want to get a part-time job

• Suggest how your friend could help you find a job

0,3 điểm

0.3 điểm

Accuracy

Đúng ngữ pháp, dùng từ chuẩn xác, diễn đạt mạch lạc, không

sai lỗi chính tả

0.6 điểm

Activity 3: 3,0 điểm. Điểm của bài viết được chấm dựa trên các tiêu chí sau:

Content:

- a provision of all main ideas and appropriate details.

1.0 điểm

Language:

- a variety of appropriate vocabulary and structures are used.

1.0 điểm

Organization &

Presentation:

- ideas are organized and presented with coherence, style,

and clarity appropriate to the level of English language gifted

upper-secondary school students.

1.0 điểm

Thí sinh phải biết biện giải cho quan điểm của mình (lý do, dẫn chứng..?) viết đúng chủ đề, đúng ngữ

pháp, dùng từ chuẩn xác, diễn đạt mạch lạc, không sai lỗi chính tả, không quá ngắn hoặc quá dài (khoảng

200 từ) với ít nhất 3 lý do mới được điểm tối đa.

TỔNG SỐ: 20 ĐIỂM (KHÔNG LÀM TRÒN SỐ)

Chữ ký giám thị

Môn: Tiếng Anh

Thời gian làm bài: 180 phút, không kể thời gian giao đề.

SBD:

1:

Ngày thi: 22/10/2015

Họ, tên thí sinh:

Số phách

Ngày sinh:

2:

Nơi sinh:

Học sinh trường:

Hội đồng coi thi:

------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------

Điểm bài thi

Bằng số: ……….……….………...........

Bằng chữ:…………………….…………

Họ tên, chữ ký của giám khảo

1: …………………………..…………

2: ………………………….……..……

Số phách

Ghi chú: - Thí sinh trả lời ngay vào bài thi này. Nếu viết sai phải gạch bỏ rồi viết lại. Thí sinh

không được sử dụng bút xóa trong bài thi.

- Thí sinh không được sử dụng tài liệu, kể cả từ điển.

- Giám thị không giải thích gì thêm.

HƯỚNG DẪN THÍ SINH PHẦN NGHE HIỂU:

- Thí sinh có 04 phút (được tính vào thời gian làm bài) để đọc trước câu hỏi. Sau khi phát đề 04 phút

giám thị mới bật đài.

- Phần nghe có 04 bài, mỗi bài thí sinh được nghe 02 lần.

SỞ GIÁO DỤC VÀ ĐÀO TẠO

QUẢNG NINH

------------------

ĐỀ THI CHÍNH THỨC

KỲ THI LẬP ĐỘI TUYẾN DỰ THI CHỌN HỌC SINH GIỎI

QUỐC GIA THPT NĂM 2016

---------------------

(Đề thi này có 12 trang)

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I. LISTENING (5.0 points)

Part 1: For questions 1 - 5, listen to a piece of BBC news about the huge increase in obesity and fill in the

missing information. Write NO MORE THAN THREE WORDS taken from the recording for each answer

in the spaces provided. (1.0 point)

Globally, one in three adults is now considered overweight or obese. In 1980 it was one in five.

(1)____________ report analyzed existing data and found the steepest rise has been in developing nations like

Mexico and Egypt, where people are spending their increasing (2)_____________ on fatty sugary foods.

Numbers almost ______________ (3) from 250 million to 904 million.

The report also said that western countries which have been dealing with the obesity problem for longer have

so far failed to tackle it effectively. It highlighted a more (4) _______________________ in South Korea to

train women how to prepare traditional low-fat meals.

The report suggests following the example of some American states in taxing things like fizzy drinks and

sugary sweets. It also warns if (5) _____________________ continue, there will be a huge increase in heart

attacks, strokes and diabetes.

Your answers:

1.

2.

3.

4.

5.

Part 2: You will hear five short extracts in which different people are talking about things that have

recently happened at work. For questions 6-10 match the extracts with the situations listed A-H. (1.0 point)

A. receiving an unwelcome visitor

B. being unfairly blamed for something

C. making a terrible mistake

D. receiving an unexpected offer

E. doing something uncharacteristic

F. resolving a misunderstanding

G. avoiding an argument

H. changing an opinion of someone

Speaker 1: ______ (6)

Speaker 2: ______ (7)

Speaker 3: ______ (8)

Speaker 4: ______ (9)

Speaker 5: ______ (10)

Part 3: Complete the information in the table, using NO MORE THAN THREE WORDS for each gap.

(1.8 points)

UK

Parts

Geography

Industries

11._________

England

mostly lowland

upland in 12._____________

manufacturing farming services

Scotland

mountains,

lochs (13._______________)

Glens (valleys)

oil

electronics

biotechnology

fishing

forestry

Wales

14.____________mountains,

lakes

electronics

auto parts

15.________________

health care

professional services

Northern Ireland

beautiful countryside

tourism

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Answer the following questions, using NO MORE THAN THREE WORDS for each answer.

16. What kind of weather do many foreigners think Britain has?

_____________________________________________________________

17. Which is the driest month in London?

_____________________________________________________________

18. Where is snow usual in winter?

_____________________________________________________________

19. When is the weather generally most variable?

_____________________________________________________________

Part 4: You will hear part of an interview with someone who founded a magazine. For questions 20-25,

choose the correct answer A, B, C or D. (1.2 points)

20. How was Time Out unlike other publications in 1968?

A. It was written by one person. B. Information was more accurate.

C. It had a comprehensive list of events. D. It was in the form of a magazine.

21. What experience did Tony have of publishing?

A. He had worked for What’s On. B. He had written numerous articles.

C. He had transformed an existing magazine. D. He had started a student magazine.

22. Why did Tony leave university?

A. He wanted to go to France. B. He didn’t have time to study.

C. He had failed his French examinations. D. He had found an alternative career.

23. What led to the magazine becoming a weekly?

A. some market research. B. the quality of information.

C. technical improvements. D. external pressure.

24. Why were the big publishers not interested in third type of magazine?

A. It was popular with students. B. It was considered too expensive.

C. It came out too frequently. D. It threatened their publications.

25. Compared to 1968, people who buy Time Out today are_____________.

A. more intelligent and active B. more likely to be parents

C. more or less the same age D. more mature and professional

Your answers:

20.

21.

22.

23.

24.

25.

II. LEXICO-GRAMMAR (3.0 points)

Part 1: For questions 26- 37, choose the correct answer (A, B, C or D) to each of the following questions

and write your answers in the corresponding numbered boxes. (1.2 points)

26. Over the ______________of the next few weeks, their relationship changed completely.

A. span B. duration C. course D. term

27. Charles was not sure which profession to enter but finally ____________for law.

A. chose B. opted C. accepted D. selected

28. I didn’t_____________ to cause a problem, but unfortunately that’s what happened.

A. get off B. take on C. set out D. make for

29. It stands to reasons that a touch of humor and optimism can work____________.

A. on all cylinders B. spectacles C. wonders D. your fingers to the bone

30. Tom’s normally very efficient but he’s been making a lot of mistakes ___________.

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A. of late B. for now C. in a while D. shortly

31. __________ they make show that young children are capable of arriving at surprisingly subtle

grammatical generalizations.

A. The mistake B.The very mistakes C. Some very mistakes D. Very mistakes

32. Although he was a hardened criminal, his one _____________ feature was his love of children.

A. saving B. redeeming C. recovering D. acquitting

33. My cousin was nervous about being interviewed on television, but she rose to the ___________

wonderfully.

A. event B. performance C. incident D. occasion

34. Despite all the interruptions, he _____________with his work.

A. stuck at B. held on C. hung out D. pressed on

35. When I got stuck in the elevator, I was scared out of my _____________.

A brains B head C wits D nerves

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word or phrase that is CLOSEST in

meaning to the underlined part in each of the following questions

36. A. “Edwards seems like a dog with two tails this morning”.

B. “Haven’t you heard the news? His wife gave birth to a baby boy early this morning”.

A. extremely proud B. exhausted C. extremely pleased D. extremely dazed

37. At every faculty meeting, Ms. Volatile always manages to put her foot in her mouth.

A. trip over her feet B. speak in a violent way

C. get her ideas across D. say the wrong thing

Your answers

26.

27.

28.

29.

30.

31.

32.

33.

34.

35.

36.

37.

Part 2: For questions 38-45 write the correct form of each bracketed word in the numbered space provided

in the column on the right. There is an example at the beginning (0). (0.8 point)

BATTLE TO SAVE THE AMAZON!

As the Brazilian (0) ________(NATION) plane banked over the Amazonian

rainforest, (38)_____( BOTANY) Ghilean Prance gazed at the dark-green canopy

below: an expanse of trees almost (39)__________( BREAK) for 2.5 million

square miles, with more (40)__________( VARY) of plant and animal life than

any other place on earth.

Few (41) ______ (OUT) knew more about the rainforest and its ecosystem than

Prance. He had just been appointed (42) _________ (DIRECT) of postgraduate

studies at the National Amazonian Research Institute in Manaus, the Amazonian

region’s capital. Before that, as research assistant at and latterly a curator of the

(43) _________ (PRESTIGE) New York Botanical Garden, he had spent almost

ten years studying the forest. In his search for new plant specimens he was more

used to travelling on foot or by boat.

But now, Brazilian (44) _________ (GOVERN) documents showing that a road

had been constructed through the Amazon basin had been discovered. On this

bright November morning he was flying out with two other course tutor and 14

botany (45) _________ (STUDY) to make sure its impact on the surrounding

habitat was not as serious as he feared.

Your answers:

0. INTERNATIONAL

38._________

39._________

40._________

41. _________

42._________

43._________

44._________

45. _________

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Part 3: The passage below contains 11 errors. For questions 46-55, underline the errors and write the

corrections in the corresponding numbered boxes. There is ONE example at the beginning. (1.0 point)

TAKE CARE IN THE SUN

The Sun should be enjoying but overexposure can cause sunburnt, leading to mature skin ageing and

increased risk of skin cancer. It is the ultraviolet rays which cause this; even in the UK they can damage your

skin, but UV is much more powerful the nearer the equator you go. You must stay out of the sun during the

two hours around midday, use shade at other times, the sun hat and tight woven but loose clothing. Protective

creams suitable for your skin type can help protect unavoidably exposing parts of the body. A farther related

risk is heart stroke, caused by overheating. Avoid strenuous activity during the hot hours and make sure you

drink plenty of non-alcohol drinks (best is water which has been boiled or soft drink from sealed cans or

bottles) to replace body fluid.

Your answers:

0. enjoyed

46.

47.

48.

49.

50.

51.

52.

53.

54.

55.

III. READING (5.0 points)

Part 1: For questions 56 to 65, fill each of the following numbered blanks with ONE suitable word and

write your answers in the corresponding boxes provided below the passage. There is an example at the

beginning (0). (1.0 point)

KARAOKE FEVER

Karaoke is fast (0)__becoming___the nation’s Number One party pastime. Public humiliation has

(56)_______ been so fashionable. It’s 1 a.m. at an exclusive location in the (57)___________of London. A

major pop singer has taken the stage but rather than sing her latest hit, she treats the crowd to a Michael

Jackson song. What was (58)__________the party habit of teenagers is now favored by London’s coolest

crowd and everyone is having a (59)__________. So why are so many of our young celebrities queuing up to

make fool of (60)__________in clubs and bars across the country? Maybe because belting out a naff pop song

to a public audience shows that even though you may be a celebrity, you don’t (61) ____________ yourself

too seriously. And if you are a big movie star, that’s a good message to get across. Nobody gets away without

being laughed (62)________ on a karaoke evening, no matter how famous they are.

(63)____________all, that’s the whole points of the exercises. But for the musical experts among you, a word

(64)_________warning: this isn’t about proving to the world that you know all the lyrics to a serious song.

It’s about expressing your inner performer. Don’t bother to (65)_____________up at a karaoke night if you

aren’t prepared to sing you’ve got to put in the effort and prove that you are one of the ‘ in-crowd’. Break a

leg!

Your answers:

56.

57.

58.

59.

60.

61.

62.

63.

64.

65.

Part 2: For questions 66-75, read the following passages and decide which answer ( A, B, C or D) best fits

each gap. Write your answers (A, B, C or D) in the corresponding boxes. (1.0 point)

TRAVEL BOOK OF THE YEAR

The best travel books of this year fall into three main categories; purely informational, narrative, and

what, for (66)___________ of a better term, I’ll call ‘anecdotal’. Between these broad categories, however,

the boundaries are blurred. One problem with travel writers into genres is that they are (67) __________to be

pigeon-holed. Many of them see their role as a mixture of the documentary and creative. Some (68)

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__________to be more like novelists, employing some of the elements of fiction writing. Others regard

themselves as sociologists, exploring the customs and more of other societies. At the end of the day, what (69)

_________is how readable or useful the book is, and in many cases, how well it is presented. However, it is

quite clear that travel and books were (70) ______________ for each other

66. A. want B. absence C. shortage D. need

67. A. wary B. loath C. cautious D. resistant

68. A. allege B. hold C. claim D. contend

69. A. counts B. reckons C. bears D. signifies

70. A. given B. cut C. lent D. made

VANCOUVER

In the last ten years or so, hundreds of thousands of people from all over the world have

(71)___________up residence in Vancouver, in western Canada. To relax in the evening, residents

(72)___________ down the city streets and, if you join them, you are likely to overhear a different language

at almost every other step. People come to Vancouver for its mild climate, its wonderful setting between the

ocean and the mountains, its clean and safe environment and its educational and job opportunities. And much

as some may grumble about the speed at which new buildings have (73)____________, there’s no doubt that

the new arrivals and (74)___________ tourism industry have helped fuel an urban renaissance. Locals once

referred to Vancouver as ‘Terminal City’ because of the city’s role as a terminus or gateway to all other place.

Through the name has fallen slightly out of (75) __________, Vancouver is more a gateway than ever.

71. A. taken B. put C. made D. built

72. A. prowl B. stumble C. trudge D. stroll

73. A. sprung up B. gathered C. piled up D. moved up

74. A. progressing B. blooming C. flourishing D. swelling

75. A. approval B. favor C. opinion D. support

Your answers:

66.

67.

68.

69.

70.

71.

72.

73.

74.

75.

Part 3: For questions 76-81, choose the best phrase or sentence A- I below the text to fill each of the blanks

in the following text. Write one letter (A-I) in corresponding numbered box. (0.6 point)

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THE BIRTH OF WRITING

Evidence of keeping records dates from around 30,000 years ago, but neither cutting notches in sticks

nor the use of pictures could convey a great variety of meanings. Their capabilities were far too restricted for

societies that were more and more dependent on detailed and complicated instructions. (76) ________ of the

stage of human evolution that has become known as civilization - life based on eivis, the Latin word for a

dweller. With its development, people were able to extend their influence over much greater areas, and to pass

on knowledge from one generation to the next. (77) __________largely through person-to-person contact. But

once population reaches a certain level of complexity, both technological and social, personal contacts are no

longer enough. Complexity demands formal, lasting and widely comprehensible written communication. The

development of writing enabled people to communicate without speech. (78)__________ over great distances,

safe in the knowledge that they did not have to rely on a messenger's memory. (79)__________ that could be

recalled accurately years later. (80)__________ by populations in the future. 'History' had arrived. Once

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invented, the effect of writing was to stimulate the creation of yet greater social complexity.

(81)____________: law, commerce, administration, food production, manufacturing, education and literature.

A Leaders could transmit instructions

B Instructions to people have been considered necessary

C Small communities are able to communicate

D They could make records of objects, events and thoughts

E Writing is one of the main distinguishing marks

F The accumulated wisdom of civilizations would be understood

G This had implications for every branch of society

H Experts have achieved great success in deciphering ancient scripts

I Systems of this kind were normally used

Your answers:

76.

77.

78.

79.

80.

81.

Part 4: Read the following passage and for questions 82-88, choose the best answers (A, B, C or D)

according to the text. Write your answers in the corresponding boxes. (1.4 points)

I have never begun a novel with more misgiving. If I call it a novel it is only because I don’t know

what else to call it. I have little story to tell and end neither with a death or a marriage. Instead I leave my

reader in the air. This book consists of my recollections of a man with whom I was thrown into close contact

only at long intervals, and I have little knowledge of what happened to him in between. I suppose that by the

exercise of invention I could fill the gaps plausibly enough and so make my narrative more coherent; but I

have no wish to do that. I only want to set down what I know.

To save embarrassment to people still living I have given to the persons who play a part in this story

names of my own contriving, and I have in other ways taken pains to make sure that no one should recognize

them. The man I am writing about is not famous. It may be that he never will be. It may be that when his life

at last comes to an end he will leave no more trace of his sojourn on earth than a stone thrown into a river

leaves on the surface of the water. Then my book, if it is read at all, will be read only for what intrinsic

interest it may possess. But it may be that the way of life that he has chosen for himself and the peculiar

strength and sweetness of his character may have an ever-growing influence over his fellow men so that, long

after his death perhaps, it may be realized that there lived in this age a very remarkable creature. Then it will

be quite clear of whom I write in this book and those who want to know at least a little about his early life

may find in it something to their purpose. I think my book, within its acknowledged limitations, will be a

useful source of information to my friend’s biographers.

I do not pretend that the conversations I have recorded can be regarded as verbatim reports. I never

kept notes of what was said on this or the other occasions, but I have a good memory for what concerns me,

and though I have put these conversations in my own words they faithfully represent, I believe, what was said.

I remarked a little while back that I have invented nothing but I have taken the liberty that historians have

taken to put into the mouths of the persons of my narrative speeches that I did not myself hear and could not

possibly have heard. I have done this for the same reasons that the historians have, to give liveliness and

verisimilitude to scenes that would have been ineffective if they had been merely recounted. I want to be read

and I think I am justified in doing what I can to make my book readable. The intelligent reader will easily see

for himself where I have used this artifice, and he is at perfect liberty to reject it.

Another reason that has caused me to embark upon this work with apprehension is that the persons I

have chiefly to deal with are of another culture. It is very difficult to know people and I don’t think one can

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ever really know any but one’s own countrymen. For men and women are not only themselves; they are also

the region in which they were born, the city apartment or the farm in which they learnt to walk, the games

they played as children, the food they ate, the schools they attended, the sports they followed and the poets

they read. It is all these things that have made them what they are, and these are the things that you can’t come

to know by hearsay, you can only know them if you have lived them. You can only know if you are them.

And because you cannot know persons of a nation foreign to you except from observation, it is difficult to

give them credibility in the pages of a book. I have never attempted to deal with any but my own countrymen,

and if I have ventured to do otherwise in short stories it is because in them you can treat your characters more

summarily. You give the reader broad indications and leave him to fill in the details. In this book, I do not

pretend that my characters are as they would see themselves; they are seen, as in my main character, through

my own eyes.

82. In the first paragraph, the author reveals that he______________.

A. is dissatisfied with the conclusion of his novel

B. has superficial understanding of his main character

C. has resisted employing certain literary techniques

D. is disapproving of mainstream of fiction writing

83. In discussing the identity of the characters in the novel, the author shows his____________.

A. respect for historical fact

B. sensitivity towards others

C. awareness of stylistic conventions

D. understanding of human relationships

84. What does the author suggest about his main character in paragraph 2?

A. His appeal to the reader is difficult to predict.

B. The role he plays is likely to be controversial.

C. The choices he makes are rather conventional.

D. His approach to life reflects the era in which he lived.

85. In discussing the dialogue in the novel, the author states that it_____________.

A. involves some distortion of the facts

B. contains some obvious literary embellishments

C. can be trusted to reflect the spirit of the age

D. has been re-worked to fit the style of the novel

86. In the third paragraph, while expanding on his inventiveness as a writer, the author__________.

A. denies an influence on his work

B. supports an earlier statement that he made

C. corrects a false assumption about his style

D. defends the technique he has used in the novel

87. The author’s tone in discussing culture in the final paragraph is___________.

A. accusatory B. embarrassed C. explanatory D. ambivalent

88. In the extract, the writer makes it clear that this novel_______.

A. will benefit a certain type of reader

B. successfully combines fact and fiction

C. may contain some inaccurate claims

D. is untypical of his work in general

Your answers

82.

83.

84.

85.

86.

87.

88.

! !

Page%|%8%%

!

Part 5: Read the following passage and answer the questions 89-98. (1.0 point)

CHILDREN TESTED TO DESTRUCTION?

English primary school pupils subjected to more tests than in any other country

Primary school pupils have to deal with unprecedented levels of pressure as they face tests more

frequently, at a younger age, and in more subjects than children from any other country, according to one of

the biggest international education inquiries in decades. The damning indictment of England's primary

education system revealed that the country's children are now the most tested in the world. From their very

earliest days at school they must navigate a set-up whose trademark is "high stakes" testing, according to a

recent report.

Parents are encouraged to choose schools for their children based on league tables of test scores. But

this puts children under extreme pressure which could damage their motivation and self-esteem as well as

encouraging schools to "teach to the test" at the expense of pupils' wider learning, the study found. The

findings are part of a two-year inquiry – led by Cambridge University – into English primary schools. Other

parts of the UK and countries such as France, Norway and Japan used testing but it was, "less intrusive, less

comprehensive, and considerably less frequent", Cambridge's Primary Review concluded.

England was unique in using testing to control what is taught in schools, to monitor teaching standards

and to encourage parents to choose schools based on the results of the tests, according to Kathy Hall, from the

National University of Ireland in Cork, and Kamil Ozerk, from the University of Oslo, who conducted the

research. "Assessment in England, compared to our other reviewed countries, is pervasive, highly

consequential, and taken by officialdom and the public more generally to portray objectively the actual quality

of primary education in schools," their report concluded. Teachers' leaders said the testing regime was "past

its sell-by date" and called for a fundamental review of assessment.

Steve Sinnott, general secretary of the National Union of Teachers, said England's testing system was

having a "devastating" impact on schools. "Uniquely, England is a country where testing is used to police

schools and control what is taught," he said. "When it comes to testing in England, the tail wags the dog. It is

patently absurd that even the structure and content of education is shaped by the demands of the tests. "I call

on the Government to initiate a full and independent review of the impact of the current testing system on

schools and on children's learning and to be prepared to dismantle a system which is long past its sell-by

date."

John Dunford, general secretary of the Association of School and College Leaders, warned that the

tests were having a damaging effect on pupils. "The whole testing regime is governed by the need to produce

league tables," he said. "It has more to do with holding schools to account than helping pupils to progress.”

The fear that many children were suffering intolerable stress because of the tests was voiced by Mick

Brookes, general secretary of the National Association of Head Teachers. "There are schools that start

rehearsing for key stage two SATs [Standard Assessment Tests] from the moment the children arrive in

September. That's just utterly ridiculous," he said. “There are other schools that rehearse SATs during

Christmas week. These are young children we are talking about. They should be having the time of their lives

at school not just worrying about tests. "It is the breadth and richness of the curriculum that suffers. The

consequences for schools not reaching their targets are dire – heads can lose their jobs and schools can be

closed down. With this at stake it's not surprising that schools let the tests take over."

David Laws, the Liberal Democrat schools spokes-man, said: "The uniquely high stakes placed on

national tests mean that many primary schools have become too exam focused”. But the Government rejected

the criticism. "The idea that children are over tested is not a view that the government accepts," a spokesman

said. "The reality is that children spend a very small percentage of their time in school being tested. Seeing

that children leave school up to the right standard in the basics is the highest priority of the government."

! !

Page%|%9%%

!

In another child-centred initiative, both major political parties in the UK - Labour and the Conservatives -

announced plans to make Britain more child-friendly following a report by UNICEF which ranked the UK the

worst place to be a child out of 21 rich nations.

Parents were warned that they risked creating a generation of "battery-farmed children" by always

keeping them indoors to ensure their safety. The Families minister, Kevin Brennan, called for an end to the

"cotton wool" culture and warned that children would not learn to cope with risks if they were never allowed

to play outdoors.

Questions 89-92: Complete the sentences. Write NO MORE THAN TWO WORDS from the passage for

each answer.

89. According to the inquiries, the amount of testing puts a lot of ______________on young children.

90. The education report describes testing in England as _______________testing.

91. Kathy Hall and Kamil Ozerk believe testing in England is also used to evaluate ___________in schools.

92. The major political parties have promised to make Britain ___________in view of the UNICEF report.

Answers:

89.

90.

91.

92.

Questions 93-95: Write in the corresponding spaces provided.

YES if the statement agrees with the information

NO if the statement contradicts the statement

NOT GIVEN if there is no information on this in the passage

93. Mick Brookes wants to see earlier student preparation for SAT.

94. According to John Dunford, children would make more progress with much shorter and easier tests.

95. David Laws agrees with the opinions of Mick Brookes.

Answers:

93.

94.

95.

Questions 96-98: Choose the correct letter, A, B, C, or D.

96. What does the government argue?

A. There is not enough testing at present.

B. Tests at primary school are too easy.

C. Tests are not given frequently.

D. Teachers should take more tests.

97. The government spokesman______________.

A. is extremely critical of the way exams are written

B. accepts many of the points made by the teachers’ leaders

C. thinks education is what the government is most interested in

D. argues it is the teachers’ fault that students are tested so much

98. According to UNICEF, children in the UK___________________.

A. often spend too much time in the worst kind of places

B. are not so well behaved as in other countries

C. are not as rich as children in 21 other countries

D. could be having much more fulfilling childhoods

Answers:

96.

97.

98.

! !

Page%|%10%%

!

IV. WRITING (5.0 points)

Part 1: Read the following extract and use your own words to summarize it. Your summary should be about

100 words long. You MUST NOT copy the original. (1.0 point)

This majestic creature is unfortunately not the most attractive. It is an endangered species but it is

neither cute nor lovable like the panda or the orangutan.

What makes this giant so odd? Well, its legs appear too short to support its weight. The rhinoceros'

skin hangs loosely over its body. It is huge. A full grown rhino is about two meters high and about four meters

long from nose to tail. African rhinos have two horns, one much larger than the other. It is a heavy animal

weighing more than a ton. The animal has a keen sense of smell and acute hearing but it has very weak

eyesight. The rhino cannot see until it is almost in front of its target.

Clumsy as it looks, the rhino is an agile animal. It can easily climb up steep slopes, charge at 50 km an

hour and leap up from a lying position.

The rhino's temper is also well known. It often attacks trucks, jeeps and even moving trains. Yet it is

also considered a wild African animal that is very easy to tame. A penned rhino will even eat out of the hands

of its keeper.

The black rhino is also very adaptable. It can be found over a large area - from mountainous areas, to

plains, and desert areas. The two countries with the most rhinos are Kenya and Tanzania.

About fifty years ago, the rhinoceros was a common animal in Africa. However, today it is becoming

rare. It is being hunted to extinction for its horn. Unfortunately, the rhino horn is considered very powerful

medicine, especially for men. The horn can fetch several thousand dollars in Asia. The lure of money means

the animal is hunted even though it is a protected species. The Sumatran rhino is almost extinct and if we are

not careful, the African rhino will follow suit.

……………………………………………………………………………………………………………………

! !

!"#$%&%''%%

!

Part 2: The graph shows the contribution of three sectors- agriculture, manufacturing, and business and

financial services- to the UK economy in the twentieth century. Summarize the information by selecting

and reporting the main features, and make comparisons where relevant. You should write about 150 words.

(1.5 points)

……………………………………………………………………………………………………………………

0

10

20

30

40

50

60

1900

1950

1975

2000

(%

Contribution of selected sectors to the UK economy

in the 20th century

Agriculture

Manufacturing

Business and Financial

! !

Page%|%12%%

!

Part 3: Write an essay of about 350 words on the following topic: (2.5 points)

Young people are much more aware of and concerned about issues like the environment,

poverty, and animal welfare than previous generations. What is your own opinion?

Give reasons for your answer, and include any relevant examples from your knowledge or experience. You

may continue your writing on the back page if you need more space.

……………………………………………………………………………………………………………………

THE END

SỞ GIÁO DỤC VÀ ĐÀO TẠO

QUẢNG NINH

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ĐỀ THI CHÍNH THỨC

HƯỚNG DẪN CHẤM THI LẬP ĐỘI TUYẾN DỰ THI

CHỌN HỌC SINH GIỎI QUỐC GIA THPT NĂM 2016

---------------------

Môn: Tiếng Anh

Ngày thi : 22/10/2015

(Hướng dẫn chấm này có 02 trang)

I. LISTENING (5.0 điểm)

Part 1: 1 điểm, mỗi câu trả lời đúng được 0.2 điểm.

1. The Future

Diets

2. disposable

incomes

3. quadrupled

4. successful mass

campaign

5. current global trends

Part 2: 1điểm, mỗi câu trả lời đúng được 0.2 điểm.

6. B

7. A

8. C

9. D

10. G

Part 3: 1.8 điểm, mỗi câu trả lời đúng được 0.2 điểm.

11. Great Britain

16. rain and fog

12. north and west

17. April

13. lakes

18. (parts of) Scotland

14. coastline

19. (the) early spring

15. food processing

Part 4: 1.2 điểm, mỗi câu trả lời đúng được 0.2 điểm.

20. C

21.C

22. D

23. D

24.A

25.C

II. LEXICO- GRAMMAR (3.0 điểm)

Part 1: 1.2 điểm, mỗi câu trả lời đúng được 0.1 điểm

26.C

27.B

28.C

29.C

30.A

31.B

32B

33.D

34.D

35.C

36.C.

37.D

Part 2: 0.8 điểm, mỗi câu trả lời đúng được 0.1 điểm

38. botanist

39. unbroken

40. varieties/ variety

41. outsiders

42. director

43. prestigious

44. government(al)

45. students

Part 3: 1 điểm, mỗi câu trả lời đúng được 0.1 điểm

46. sunburnt à sunburn

51. tight à tightly

47. mature à premature

52. exposing à exposed

48. but à and

53. farther à further

49. must à should

54. hot à hottest

50. the à a

55. non-alcohol à non-alcoholic

III. READING (5.0 điểm)

Part 1: 1.0 điểm, mỗi câu trả lời đúng được 0.1 điểm

56. never/rarely

57. heart/center

58. once

59.go/try

60. themselves

61. take

62. at

63. After

64. of

65. turn/show

Part 2: 1.0 điểm, mỗi câu trả lời đúng được 0.1 điểm.

66.A

67. B

68. C

69. A

70.D

71.A

72.D

73.A

74.C

75.B

Part 3: 0.6 điểm, mỗi câu trả lời đúng được 0.1 điểm.

76.E

77.C

78.A

79.D

80.F

81.G

Part 4: 1.4 điểm, mỗi câu trả lời đúng được 0.2 điểm.

82. C

83. B

84.A

85.B

86.D

87.C

88.D

Part 5: 1.0 điểm, mỗi câu trả lời đúng được 0.1 điểm.

89. pressure

90. high stakes

91.teaching standards

92.more child-friendly

93.No

94. Not Given

95. Yes

96.C

97.C

98.D

IV. WRITING (5.0 điểm)

Part 1: 1.0 điểm. The mark given to part 1 is based on the following criteria:

1. Write good summary with enough content and clear, logical information.

0.2 pt

2. Present the key points and main ideas in the right form of a paragraph. Make sure

that no important points have been omitted or distorted. The summary should include

the following information:

+ The topic sentence: The rhino is majestic in size but is not an attractive animal.

+ Supporting ideas: Appearance: huge body, short legs; ability to hear, smell,

see, move; quick-tempered but easily tamed; the horn with medicinal properties.

+ Conclusion: in danger of extinction.

0.5pt

3. Use your own words or paraphrases with a variety use of synonyms, different

sentence structures and word class. You can change the order of ideas where

necessary.

0.3 pt

Part 2: 1.5 điểm.

Part 3: 2.5 điểm. The mark given to parts 2 & 3 is based on the following criteria:

1. Content: (40%)

- Providing all main ideas and details as required

- Communicating intentions sufficiently and effectively

2. Language: (40%)

- Demonstration of a variety of vocabulary and structures

appropriate to the level of English language gifted upper-

secondary school students

- Good use and control of grammatical structures

- Good punctuation and no spelling mistakes

- Legible handwriting

3. Organization and

Presentation: (20%)

- Ideas are well organized and presented with coherence,

cohesion, and clarity

- The essay is well-structured

TOTAL POINTS: 18,0

__________________________

Môn: Tiếng Anh

Ngày thi: 23/10/2015

Ghi chú:

- Mỗi thí sinh chuẩn bị trong 05 phút, nói ghi âm trong 05 phút.

- Trước khi thực hiện phần nói, thí sinh cần nói rõ số câu hỏi và nội dung câu hỏi bằng tiếng Anh.

Question 1: Extra private lessons outside school hours, where students work alone with a tutor

or in a small group with a teacher, can help them do better at school. Do you agree? Use specific

examples and reasons to support your ideas.

__________THE END__________

Môn: Tiếng Anh

Ngày thi: 23/10/2015

Ghi chú:

- Mỗi thí sinh chuẩn bị trong 05 phút, nói ghi âm trong 05 phút.

- Trước khi thực hiện phần nói, thí sinh cần nói rõ số câu hỏi và nội dung câu hỏi bằng tiếng Anh.

Question 2: Young people who are still at school often feel just as much stress as working adults.

What are the causes of this stress, and how does it affect individual student? What can you do

to avoid it?

__________THE END__________

SỞ GIÁO DỤC VÀ ĐÀO TẠO

QUẢNG NINH

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ĐỀ THI CHÍNH THỨC

KỲ THI LẬP ĐỘI TUYẾN DỰ THI CHỌN HỌC SINH GIỎI

QUỐC GIA THPT NĂM 2016

---------------------

(PHẦN THI NÓI)

SỞ GIÁO DỤC VÀ ĐÀO TẠO

QUẢNG NINH

------------------

ĐỀ THI CHÍNH THỨC

KỲ THI LẬP ĐỘI TUYẾN DỰ THI CHỌN HỌC SINH

GIỎI QUỐC GIA THPT NĂM 2016

---------------------

(PHẦN THI NÓI)

Môn: Tiếng Anh

Ngày thi: 23/10/2015

Ghi chú:

- Mỗi thí sinh chuẩn bị trong 05 phút, nói ghi âm trong 05 phút.

- Trước khi thực hiện phần nói, thí sinh cần nói rõ số câu hỏi và nội dung câu hỏi bằng tiếng Anh.

Question 3: Today many students are trying their best to achieve scholarships to study abroad.

What are the advantages and disadvantages of studying in a foreign country?

__________THE END__________

Môn: Tiếng Anh

Ngày thi: 23/10/2015

Ghi chú:

- Mỗi thí sinh chuẩn bị trong 05 phút, nói ghi âm trong 05 phút.

- Trước khi thực hiện phần nói, thí sinh cần nói rõ số câu hỏi và nội dung câu hỏi bằng tiếng Anh.

Question 4: Children should be required to help with household tasks as soon as they are able to

do so. Do you agree or disagree? Use specific reasons to support your opinion.

__________THE END__________

SỞ GIÁO DỤC VÀ ĐÀO TẠO

QUẢNG NINH

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ĐỀ THI CHÍNH THỨC

KỲ THI LẬP ĐỘI TUYẾN DỰ THI CHỌN HỌC SINH

GIỎI QUỐC GIA THPT NĂM 2016

---------------------

(PHẦN THI NÓI)

SỞ GIÁO DỤC VÀ ĐÀO TẠO

QUẢNG NINH

------------------

ĐỀ THI CHÍNH THỨC

KỲ THI LẬP ĐỘI TUYẾN DỰ THI CHỌN HỌC SINH

GIỎI QUỐC GIA THPT NĂM 2016

---------------------

(PHẦN THI NÓI)

Môn: Tiếng Anh

Ngày thi: 23/10/2015

Ghi chú:

- Mỗi thí sinh chuẩn bị trong 05 phút, nói ghi âm trong 05 phút.

- Trước khi thực hiện phần nói, thí sinh cần nói rõ số câu hỏi và nội dung câu hỏi bằng tiếng Anh.

Question 5: Many teachers assign much homework to students every day in order to help

students study well. Do you think that this can really help? What other ways can teachers use to

encourage students to study better?

_____________THE END__________

Môn: Tiếng Anh

Ngày thi: 23/10/2015

Ghi chú:

- Mỗi thí sinh chuẩn bị trong 05 phút, nói ghi âm trong 05 phút.

- Trước khi thực hiện phần nói, thí sinh cần nói rõ số câu hỏi và nội dung câu hỏi bằng tiếng Anh.

Question 6: With recent developments in technology like e-books, some people feel that printed

media like books, newspapers, and magazines will soon be a thing of the past. Others feel that

these forms of media will never disappear. What is your opinion?

____________THE END__________

SỞ GIÁO DỤC VÀ ĐÀO TẠO

QUẢNG NINH

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ĐỀ THI CHÍNH THỨC

KỲ THI LẬP ĐỘI TUYẾN DỰ THI CHỌN HỌC SINH

GIỎI QUỐC GIA THPT NĂM 2016

---------------------

(PHẦN THI NÓI)

SỞ GIÁO DỤC VÀ ĐÀO TẠO

QUẢNG NINH

------------------

ĐỀ THI CHÍNH THỨC

KỲ THI LẬP ĐỘI TUYẾN DỰ THI CHỌN HỌC SINH

GIỎI QUỐC GIA THPT NĂM 2016

---------------------

(PHẦN THI NÓI)

Môn: Tiếng Anh

Ngày thi: 23/10/2015

Ghi chú:

- Mỗi thí sinh chuẩn bị trong 05 phút, nói ghi âm trong 05 phút.

- Trước khi thực hiện phần nói, thí sinh cần nói rõ số câu hỏi và nội dung câu hỏi bằng tiếng Anh.

Question 7: “State-owned companies or private companies” Which do you choose to work for

when you graduate from university? Give specific reasons for your choice?

______________THE END__________

Môn: Tiếng Anh

Ngày thi: 23/10/2015

Ghi chú:

- Mỗi thí sinh chuẩn bị trong 05 phút, nói ghi âm trong 05 phút.

- Trước khi thực hiện phần nói, thí sinh cần nói rõ số câu hỏi và nội dung câu hỏi bằng tiếng Anh.

Question 8: “Studying brings happiness to you and other people.”

How do you understand about this statement? Use specific examples to support your opinion.

___________THE END__________

SỞ GIÁO DỤC VÀ ĐÀO TẠO

QUẢNG NINH

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ĐỀ THI CHÍNH THỨC

KỲ THI LẬP ĐỘI TUYẾN DỰ THI CHỌN HỌC SINH

GIỎI QUỐC GIA THPT NĂM 2016

---------------------

(PHẦN THI NÓI)

SỞ GIÁO DỤC VÀ ĐÀO TẠO

QUẢNG NINH

------------------

ĐỀ THI CHÍNH THỨC

KỲ THI LẬP ĐỘI TUYẾN DỰ THI CHỌN HỌC SINH

GIỎI QUỐC GIA THPT NĂM 2016

---------------------

(PHẦN THI NÓI)

Môn: Tiếng Anh

Ngày thi: 23 /10/2015

Ghi chú:

- Mỗi thí sinh chuẩn bị trong 05 phút, nói ghi âm trong 05 phút.

- Trước khi thực hiện phần nói, thí sinh cần nói rõ số câu hỏi và nội dung câu hỏi bằng tiếng Anh.

Question 9: Do you think that participating actively in volunteer work makes you a responsible

person to the community. What are other benefits of doing voluntary work?

_____________THE END__________

Môn: Tiếng Anh

Ngày thi: 23/10/2015

Ghi chú:

- Mỗi thí sinh chuẩn bị trong 05 phút, nói ghi âm trong 05 phút.

- Trước khi thực hiện phần nói, thí sinh cần nói rõ số câu hỏi và nội dung câu hỏi bằng tiếng Anh.

Question 10: There are social, medical, and technical problems associated with the use of mobile

phones? Do you agree the problems of mobile phones outweigh the benefits? Use specific

reasons and examples for your opinion.

___________THE END__________

SỞ GIÁO DỤC VÀ ĐÀO TẠO

QUẢNG NINH

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ĐỀ THI CHÍNH THỨC

KỲ THI LẬP ĐỘI TUYẾN DỰ THI CHỌN HỌC SINH

GIỎI QUỐC GIA THPT NĂM 2016

---------------------

(PHẦN THI NÓI)

SỞ GIÁO DỤC VÀ ĐÀO TẠO

QUẢNG NINH

------------------

ĐỀ THI CHÍNH THỨC

KỲ THI LẬP ĐỘI TUYẾN DỰ THI CHỌN HỌC SINH

GIỎI QUỐC GIA THPT NĂM 2016

---------------------

(PHẦN THI NÓI)

Môn: Tiếng Anh

Ngày thi: 23/10/2015

Ghi chú:

- Mỗi thí sinh chuẩn bị trong 05 phút, nói ghi âm trong 05 phút.

- Trước khi thực hiện phần nói, thí sinh cần nói rõ số câu hỏi và nội dung câu hỏi bằng tiếng Anh.

Question 11: Particular cultures are under threat nowadays due to the fact that we are living in

a global village. What do you think can be done to protect a society’s traditional values and

cultures?

___________THE END__________

Môn: Tiếng Anh

Ngày thi: 23/10/2015

Ghi chú:

- Mỗi thí sinh chuẩn bị trong 05 phút, nói ghi âm trong 05 phút.

- Trước khi thực hiện phần nói, thí sinh cần nói rõ số câu hỏi và nội dung câu hỏi bằng tiếng Anh.

Question 12: The number of elderly people in the world is increasing. What do you think are

the positive and negative effects of this trend? Give specific reasons and examples for your

opinion.

___________THE END__________

SỞ GIÁO DỤC VÀ ĐÀO TẠO

QUẢNG NINH

------------------

ĐỀ THI CHÍNH THỨC

KỲ THI LẬP ĐỘI TUYẾN DỰ THI CHỌN HỌC SINH

GIỎI QUỐC GIA THPT NĂM 2016

---------------------

(PHẦN THI NÓI)

SỞ GIÁO DỤC VÀ ĐÀO TẠO

QUẢNG NINH

------------------

ĐỀ THI CHÍNH THỨC

KỲ THI LẬP ĐỘI TUYẾN DỰ THI CHỌN HỌC SINH

GIỎI QUỐC GIA THPT NĂM 2016

---------------------

(PHẦN THI NÓI)

Môn: Tiếng Anh

Ngày thi: 23/10/2015

Ghi chú:

- Mỗi thí sinh chuẩn bị trong 05 phút, nói ghi âm trong 05 phút.

- Trước khi thực hiện phần nói, thí sinh cần nói rõ số câu hỏi và nội dung câu hỏi bằng tiếng Anh.

Question 13: Some people believe that competitive sports and life skill courses should be

introduced into high school curriculum. How far do you agree or disagree? Use specific reasons

and examples to support your opinion.

___________THE END__________

Môn: Tiếng Anh

Ngày thi: 23/10/2015

Ghi chú:

- Mỗi thí sinh chuẩn bị trong 05 phút, nói ghi âm trong 05 phút.

- Trước khi thực hiện phần nói, thí sinh cần nói rõ số câu hỏi và nội dung câu hỏi bằng tiếng Anh.

Question 14:

It is becoming more and more difficult to escape the influence of the media on our lives. What

are the advantages and disadvantages of living in a media-rich society?

___________THE END__________

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ĐỀ THI CHÍNH THỨC

KỲ THI LẬP ĐỘI TUYẾN DỰ THI CHỌN HỌC SINH

GIỎI QUỐC GIA THPT NĂM 2016

---------------------

(PHẦN THI NÓI)

SỞ GIÁO DỤC VÀ ĐÀO TẠO

QUẢNG NINH

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ĐỀ THI CHÍNH THỨC

KỲ THI LẬP ĐỘI TUYẾN DỰ THI CHỌN HỌC SINH

GIỎI QUỐC GIA THPT NĂM 2016

---------------------

(PHẦN THI NÓI)

Môn: Tiếng Anh

Ngày thi: 23/10/2015

Ghi chú:

- Mỗi thí sinh chuẩn bị trong 05 phút, nói ghi âm trong 05 phút.

- Trước khi thực hiện phần nói, thí sinh cần nói rõ số câu hỏi và nội dung câu hỏi bằng tiếng Anh.

Question 15:

Increasing the price of petrol is the best way to solve growing traffic and pollution problems. Do

you agree or disagree? What other measures do you think might be effective?

___________THE END__________

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ĐỀ THI CHÍNH THỨC

KỲ THI LẬP ĐỘI TUYẾN DỰ THI CHỌN HỌC SINH

GIỎI QUỐC GIA THPT NĂM 2016

---------------------

(PHẦN THI NÓI)

1

SỞ GIÁO DỤC VÀ ĐÀO TẠO

QUẢNG NINH

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ĐỀ THI CHÍNH THỨC

(PHẦN THI NÓI)

HƯỚNG DẪN CHẤM THI LẬP ĐỘI TUYẾN DỰ THI

CHỌN HỌC SINH GIỎI QUỐC GIA THPT NĂM 2016

---------------------

Môn: Tiếng Anh

Ngày thi: 23/10/2015

(Hướng dẫn chấm này có 01 trang)

SPEAKING CRITERIA

1. Fluency and

coherence

These refer to students’ ability to talk with normal levels or

continuity, speech rate and effort and to link ideas and language

together in coherent, connected speech and formal structure

0.6pt

2. Lexical resource

This refers to the range of vocabulary students can use and how

clearly meaning and attitudes can be expressed

0.6pt

3. Grammatical

range and accuracy

This refers to the range of structures available to the students

and how accurately and appropriately students can use them

0.4pt

4. Pronunciation

Being able to use English pronunciation features like stress and

intonation appropriately

0.4pt

TOTAL POINTS: 2,0

_________THE END_______

1

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ĐỀ THI ĐỀ XUẤT

KỲ THI LẬP ĐỘI TUYẾN DỰ THI CHỌN HỌC SINH GIỎI

QUỐC GIA THPT NĂM 2016

---------------------

(Đề thi này có 5 trang)

Chữ ký giám thị

Môn: Tiếng Anh

Thời gian làm bài: 180 phút, không kể thời gian giao đề.

SBD:

1:

Ngày thi: 22/10/2015

Họ, tên thí sinh:

Số phách

Ngày sinh:

2:

Nơi sinh:

Học sinh trường:

Hội đồng coi thi:

------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------

Điểm bài thi

Bằng số: ……….……….………...........

Bằng chữ:…………………….…………

Họ tên, chữ ký của giám khảo

1: …………………………..…………

2: ………………………….……..……

Số phách

Ghi chú: - Thí sinh trả lời ngay vào bài thi này. Nếu viết sai phải gạch bỏ rồi viết lại. Thí sinh

không được sử dụng bút xóa trong bài thi.

- Thí sinh không được sử dụng tài liệu, kể cả từ điển.

- Giám thị không giải thích gì thêm.

2

Part A: Phonetics ( 5 points)

Question I- Choose the word whose underlined part is pronounced differently from that of the others: (5 pts)

1. A. drama B. grammar C. damage D. mammal

2. A. releases B. faces C. places D. advises

Question II- Choose the words with the different stress pattern from the others: (5 pts)

3. A. retail B. exchange C. submit D. success

4. A. agency B. shortcoming C. confident D. employment

5. A. curriculum B. certificate C. kindergarten D. companion

Part B: Lexical and grammar ( 45 points)

Question I. Choose the word or phrase that best fits the space in each sentence.

6. If you have anything important to do, do it straight away. Don't put it ______.

A. on B. off C. over D. up

7. Madeleine struggled for a long time before she finally……to free herself.

A. managed B. succeeded C. achieved D. enabled

8. ______before, his first performance for the amateur dramatic group was a success.

A. Though having never acted B. Despite he had never acted

C. As he had never acted D. In spite of his never having acted

9. 'What did Professor Spencer say when you asked him if the final exam could be postponed?'

“He said that it was out of ______ because there's no time to reschedule the test”.

A. the question B. order C. all proportion D. reach

10. Solar heat penetrates more deeply into water than _____.

A. it is penetrating into soil B. it does into soil

C. does it into soil D. that it does into soil

11. The bank is reported in the local newspaper ………..in broad day light.

A. to be robbed B. robbed C. to have been robbed D. having been robbed

12. Are you shopping for ……………health club to join so you can get in shape?

A. a B. an C. the D. no article is needed

13. Simon ………in me on the understanding that I wouldn’t tell anyone else.

A. intimated B. confessed C. confided D. disclosed

14. Go on. Tell me the gossips. I’m all ……..

A. full B. head C. eyes D. ears

15. Although it is impossible to give a ______ age, we believe that the woman was between 25 and 30 when she

died.

A. clear B. certain C. absolute D. definite

16……..daily promotes physical as well as emotional well-being in people of all ages.

A. Having exercised B. Those who exercise C. Exercising D. For exercising

17. When she looked in her purse she found she had been ……….

A. broken B. thieved C. stolen D. robbed

18. We asked him to go back, but he insisted on watching the sun coming down at…….

A. sunrise B. dawn C. dusk D. twilight

19. Jenny: “Thank you very much for your donation, Mr. Robinson.”

Mr. Robinson: “………………………..”

A. You can say that again. B. I see.

C. You are right. D. Delighted I was able to help.

20. Having been served dinner, ……………………...

A. the problem was discussed by the members of the committee.

B. the committee members discussed the problem.

C. it was discussed by the committee members the problem.

D. a discussion of the problem was made by the members of the committee.

Question II. There are 10 errors in the passage. Find and correct them. The first one has done as an example.

The ability to deceive other is thought by some psychologists to be a character that

Eg: otherà others

3

has been genetically selected through human evolution. Comparisons have been made

with animal deception, such as camouflage and mimicry. For hundreds of generations, it

is arguing, the ability to make others believe insincere remarks and promises have

conferred advantages in struggles to control resources and win mating partners. The less

cunning have, quite simply, produced fewer offspring, and a talent for creating false

impressions has dominated the human gene pool.

What the merits or shortcomings of this line of thinking, they are undoubtedly many

occasions in everyday sociable encounters when people, for the reason or another, want

to avoid expressing their true feelings. The ability to do these varies and success tends to

breed success. Those which lie effectively will tend to lie more often, perfecting their

social skills in a process. Those who fail are deterred from future attempts and get few

practice. With lying, as with everything else, practice makes perfect.

21.

22.

23.

24.

25.

26.

27.

28.

29.

30.

Question III: Put the verbs given in brackets into their appropriate tense or form (10 pts)

31. But for their support we …………( not, overcome ) the problem.

32. By the time I go to bed tonight, I ….( write) more than ten pages of the novel.

33. Up to then, we (complete)_____ four tests.

34. The students (punish)_____ yesterday is my brother .

35. I’d rather ……….( not/ invite) to the party with my parents because there was nothing interesting there.

36. I didn’t do the test well. I (prepare)____ it very carefully at home.

37. It has been suggested that the government (assist) ____the poor in improving their living condition.

38. Neither my colleagues nor I (be) ……particularly interested in the training course next month.

39. ASEAN (found) in 1967 in Bangkok, Thai land.

40. If you don’t mind, I’d sooner you…….(practise)… your violin somewhere else.

Question IV. Give the correct form of the words in brackets: (10 points)

41. Deforestation and excessive farming have ……………………... the soil.

42. The damage caused by the terrible storm two days ago was……………………... by the

government. The real figures go up every minute.

43. Barack Obama is the first President of the United States with ……………….…...

background.

44. From the hotel there is a……………………...view across the canyon.

45. The policeman examined the parcel ……………………... as he had no idea what it

could be.

45. He finds it difficult to accept ……from others.

47. In his …………………….., Mike smashed all the breakable items in the kitchen.

48. We must learn about keeping the environment ____.

49. Mr. John, who teaches us Latin, usually stresses the need for regular

……………………...

50. The government has yet to make an official ……………………...on the issue.

(POOR)

(ESTIMATE)

(RACE)

(BREATH)

(SUSPECT)

(CRITICISE)

(FURIOUS)

(POLLUTE)

(ATTEND)

(PRONOUNCE)

Part C: Reading (30 points)

Question I: Read the passage carefully and choose a suitable word to fill in each blank. (10 point)

Getting good results in your studies come from (51) ________ good study habits. The best place to study is a

comfortable room with good (52) ________. The best chair for studying should be one which you would be

comfortable in, (53) ________ so comfortable that you may fall asleep in it after a while! Before you study, look

for a (54) ________ environment without distractions. If you find your home too noisy for studying, try the library

or community center (55) ________.

When you study, set (56) ________ targets for yourself to (57) ________. For example, do not aim to study

five chapters of Geography in one (58) ________ when you know that it will take more than an hour to finish one

chapter. Furthermore, remember not to push yourself too (59) ________. When you have studied for a period of

time, (60) ________ yourself by taking a short break. You could perhaps take a short walk or listen to some music

for a while.

4

51. A. creating B. developing C. getting D. making

52. A. lighting B. light C. brightness D. shining

53. A. rather than B. without C. unless D. but not

54. A. silent B. still C. quiet D. mute

55. A. then B. or else C. just so D. instead

56. A. real B. realistic C. true D. life-like

57. A. achieve B. reach C. fulfill D. attain

58. A. stretch B. moment C. sitting D. serving

59. A. strongly B. hardly C. powerfully D. hard

60. A. award B. reward C. compliment D. congratulate

Question II: Fill in each numbered blank with a suitable word ( 10points)

Speech is one of the most important ...61... of communicating. It consists of far more than just making

noises. To talk and also to be ...62... by other people, we have to speak a language, that is , we have to use

combinations of ...63.... that everyone agrees stand for particular object or idea. Communication would be

impossible if everyone made up their own language.

Learning a language properly is very ...64..... The basic ...65.... of English is not very large, and only about

2000 words are needed to speak it quite ..6.6.... But the more words you know, the more idea you can ...67..... and

the more precise you can be about their exact meaning.

Words are the ...68.....thing we use in communicating what we want to say. The way we ....69... the words is

also very important. Our tone of voice can express many emotions and ...70....whether we are pleased or angry, for

instance.

Question III: Read the passage carefully and choose the best answers. (10 points)

Millions of people are using mobile phones today. In many places, it is actually considered unusual not to

use one. In many countries, mobile phones are very popular with young people. They find that the phones are more

than a means of communication - having a mobile phone shows that they are cool and connected. The explosion in

mobile phone use around the world has made some health professionals worried. Some doctors are concerned that

in the future many people may suffer health problems from the use of mobile phones. In England, there has been a

serious debate about this issue. Mobile phone companies are worried about the negative publicity of such ideas.

They say that there is no proof that mobile phones are bad for your health. On the other hand, medical studies have

shown changes in the brain cells of some people who use mobile phones. Signs of changes in the tissues of the

brain and head can be detected with modern scanning equipment. In one case, a traveling businessman had to retire

at young age because of serious memory loss. He could not remember even simple tasks. He would often forget the

name of his own son. This man used to talk on his mobile phone for about six hours a day, everyday of his working

week, for a couple of years. His family doctor blamed his mobile phone use but his employer's doctor did not agree.

What is it that makes mobile phones potentially harmful? The answer is radiation. High-tech machines can

detect very small amounts of radiation from mobile phones. Mobile phone companies agree that there is some

radiation, but they say the amount is too small to worry about. As the discussion about their safety continues, it

appears that it's best to use mobile phones less often. Use your regular phone if you want to talk for a long time.

Use your mobile phone only when you really need it. Mobile phones can be very useful and convenient, especially

in emergencies. In the future, mobile phones may have a warning label that says they are bad for your health. So

for now, it's wise not to use your mobile phone so often.

71. According to the passage, mobile phones are popular with young people because ________.

A. they are indispensable in everyday communications

B. they make them look more stylish

C. they keep the users alert all the time

D. they can not be replaced by regular phones

72. The changes possibly caused by mobile phones are mainly concerned with ________.

A. the mobility of the mind and body B. the smallest units of the brain

C. the arteries of the brain D. the resident memory

73. The word "means" in the passage is closest in meaning to ________.

A. meanings B. expressions C. method D. transmission

74. The word "potentially" mostly means ________.

A. obviously B. possibly C. certainly D. privately

5

75. "negative publicity" most likely means ________.

A. information on the lethal effects of mobile phones

B. widespread opinion about bad effects of mobile phones.

C. the negative public use of mobile phones

D. poor ideas about the effects of mobile phones

76. Doctors have tentatively concluded that mobile phones ________.

A. cause some mental malfunction B. damage their user's emotions

C. change their users' temper D. change their users' behaviors

77. The man mentioned in the passage, who used his mobile phone too often, ________

A. had a problem with his memory B. could no longer think lucidly

C. abandoned his family D. suffered serious loss of mental ability

78. According to the passage, what makes mobile phones potentially harmful is ________

A. their radiant light B. their power of attraction

C. their raiding power D. their invisible rays

79. According to the writer, people should ________.

A. only use mobile phones in certain cases B. never use mobile phones in all cases

C. keep off mobile phones regularly D. only use mobile phones in medical emergencies.

80. The most suitable title for the passage could be ________.

A. Mobile phones; a must of our time B. Technological innovations and their prices

C. The way mobile phones work D. The reasons why mobile phones are popular

PART V: WRITING (20 points)

Question I: Rewrite these sentences so that the new one has a similar meaning as the given one. ( 5points)

81. As I get older, I want to travel less.

à The older……………………………………

82. He warned me not to use the mountain road.

à "I wouldn't ……………………………………………………."

83. She discovered a new chemical element in her experiment.

à Her experiment resulted ………………………………….

84. I assumed that she would learn how to take shorthand after this course.

à I took it……………………………………………………

85. When the Minister was asked about the strike, he declined to comment.

à On ................................................................................................

Question II: Rewrite each of the sentences using the given word so that the new one has a similar meaning as

the one preceded. You must not change the given word. (5 points)

86. As far as I know he is still working in Bristol. (KNOWLEDGE)

………………………………..

87. The power went out as soon as I turned on the computer. (NO)

…………………………………

88. Both John and Jim don't wear helmets when going to school. (NOR)

………………………………………………………

89. They worked together to clean up the mess after the storm. (HANDS)

….......................................

90. There's nothing new about the generation gap in every family. (HILLS)

………………………………………………………………………

Question III: Writing an essay about 200 words ( 10 points)

In developed country world, average expectancy is increasing.

What problems will this cause for individuals and society?

Suggest some measures that could be taken to reduce the impact of ageing populations.

THE END

6

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HƯỚNG DẪN CHẤM

ĐỀ THI ĐỀ XUẤT

HƯỚNG DẪN CHẤM THI LẬP ĐỘI TUYẾN DỰ THI

CHỌN HỌC SINH GIỎI QUỐC GIATHPT NĂM 2016

---------------------

Môn: Tiếng Anh

Ngày thi: 22/10/2015

(Hướng dẫn chấm này có 01 trang)

1A 2D 3A 4D 5C 6B 7A 8D 9A 10B 11C 12A 13C 14D 15D 16C 17D 18C

19D 20B

21 .CHRACTER-characteristics 22.comparison-comparison

23 .arguing-argued 24. have-has

25.they-there 26.sociable-social

27.a/one 28.these-this

29.a-the 30.few-less

31.wouldn’t have overcome 32.will have written

33.had completed 34.punished

35.not having been invited 36.should have prepared

37.assist/should assist 38.am

39.was founded 40.practised

41. impoverished 42. underestimated

43.multiracial 44.breathtaking

45.suspiciously 46. criticism

47.fury 48.unpoluted

49.attendance 50.pronouncement

51B 52A 53D 54C 55D 56B 57A 58C 59D 60B

61.ways 62.understood 63.sounds 64.important 65.vocabulary

66.well 67.express 68.main 69.say 70.show

71B 72B 73C 74B 75B 76A 77A 78D 79A 80B

81.The older I get, the less I want to travel.

82.” I wouldn’t use the mountain road” said he

83.Her experiment resulted in discovering/ the discovery of a new chemical element

84.I A that she would learn how to take shorthand after this course.

85.On being asked about the strike, he declined to comment

86.To ( the best of) my knowledge, he is still working in Bristol

87.No sooner had I turned on the company than the power went off

88.Neither Jim nor John wears helmets when going to school

89.They joined hands to clean up the mess after the storm

90.The generation gap in the family is as old as the hills

WRITING AN ESSAY

Marking scheme: The impression mark should be based on the following scheme:

1.Format: 2 pts ( coherence , cohesion , style )

a. Introduction: should be put in one paragraph in which students’ points of view are expressed clearly

b. Body: should consist of at least 2 paragraphs: one for problems, one for sollutions.

c. Conclusion (summary of the main reasons, students’ comment)

2. Content : 5pts

3. Language : 3pts ( grammatical accuracy , wide range of vocabularies and structures )

SỞ GIÁO DỤC VÀ ĐÀO TẠO

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ĐỀ THI ĐỀ XUẤT

KỲ THI LẬP ĐỘI TUYẾN DỰ THI CHỌN HỌC SINH GIỎI

QUỐC GIA THPT NĂM 2016

---------------------

(Đề thi này có 6 trang)

Chữ ký giám thị

Môn: Tiếng Anh

Thời gian làm bài: 180 phút, không kể thời gian giao đề.

SBD:

1:

Ngày thi: 22/10/2015

Họ, tên thí sinh:

Số phách

Ngày sinh:

2:

Nơi sinh:

Học sinh trường:

Hội đồng coi thi:

------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------

Điểm bài thi

Bằng số: ……….……….………...........

Bằng chữ:…………………….…………

Họ tên, chữ ký của giám khảo

1: …………………………..…………

2: ………………………….……..……

Số phách

Ghi chú: - Thí sinh trả lời ngay vào bài thi này. Nếu viết sai phải gạch bỏ rồi viết lại. Thí sinh

không được sử dụng bút xóa trong bài thi.

- Thí sinh không được sử dụng tài liệu, kể cả từ điển.

- Giám thị không giải thích gì thêm.

Page 1 of 6

SECTION A – PHONETICS

I. Choose the word whose underlined part is pronounced differently from that of the others.

1. A. breath B. break C. thread D. tread

2. A. believes B. pencils C. contents D. tables

3. A. ragged B. wicked C. naked D. packed

4. A. cherish B. chorus C. chaos D. scholar

5. A. hysteria B. hypocrite C. hypocrisy D. hydroplane

1.

2.

3.

4.

5.

II. Find the word with the stress on the SECOND syllable.

6. A. comparable B. company C. comparative D. compass

7. A. committee B. refugee C. employee D. absentee

8. A. coherent B. permanent C. continent D. sentiment

9. A. fountain B. predict C. population D. colorful

10. A. unconcerned B. tropical C. represent D. conspicuous

6.

7.

8.

9.

10.

SECTION B – VOCABULARY AND GRAMMAR

I. Choose the best answer from A, B, C or D to complete the following sentences.

11. She was ______ to discover that she had won the first prize.

A. excited B. lucky C. astonished D. nervous

12. ______ a minute! I can’t find my keys.

A. Keep on B. Hold on C. Go on D. Carry on

13. I have just taken a Test of English as a Foreign Language or TOEFL _______ short.

A. of B. in C. on D. for

14. She is a kind of woman who does not care much of work but generally _______ only with

colleagues for meals, movies or late nights at a club.

A. supposes B. socializes C. attends D. discusses

15. A good way of ______ food is keeping it in a fridge.

A. enduring B. extending C. prolonging D. preserving

16. Our seats were _____ far from the stage that we couldn't see the actors and actresses clearly.

A. very B. too C. enough D. so

17. It is very easy for the undereducated to be ______ by slick-talking salesmen.

A. put aside B. put up C. taken in D. taken away

18. The ______ of the family following the divorce was a great shock to the children.

A. break-down B. break-in C. break-up D. break-out

19. I can’t believe how cheap these shorts were. They were a real ______.

A. discount B. sale C. bargain D. offer

20. Never ______ off until tomorrow what you can do today.

A. set B. put C. do D. turn

21. I have got a _____ headache.

A. spitting B. raving C. splitting D. burning

22. For a while I was at a ______ to know what to say.

A. blank B. loss C. pain D. crisis

23. I don’t think this fashion will ______.

A. catch on B. catch up C. catch out D. catch over

24. We need guaranteed financial ______ before we can even start the design work.

A. agreement B. backing C. analysis D. plans

25. The telephone rang and interrupted my ______ of thought.

A. train B. chain C. series D. circle

Page 2 of 6

11.

12.

13.

14.

15.

16.

17.

18.

19.

20.

21.

22.

23.

24.

25.

II. Read the following passage. There is ONE mistake in each of the numbered lines. Find and

correct it.

26

27

28

29

30

The UK Government ensures that all schools in the UK meet certain standards, and this includes

independent schools as well as those are run by the Government. All qualifications are awarded

by national agencies accredited by the Qualification and Curriculum Authority (QCA), so that

the quality of the qualifications you will gain is guaranteed.

At many independent schools in England, you will encourage to take part in extracurricular activities to

develop your hobbies and learn new skills, and you may be encouraged to take graded music exams

offering by the Associated Board of the Royal Schools of Music, or Trinity College. The exam grades

gained from these are wide accepted toward university entry requirements.

Mistake

Correction

Mistake

Correction

26

29

27

30

28

III. Supply the correct forms of the words in brackets.

31. The judges were especially impressed by the (IMAGINE) ______ use of light and shade in the painting.

32. Slavery is the opposite of (FREE) ______.

33. The athlete (AMBITION) ______ decided to aim for three gold medals.

34. The villages in the mountains are quite (ACCESS) ______ during winter.

35. In critical situations, they often lose because they play so (PROFESSION) ______.

31.

34.

32.

35.

33.

SECTION C – READING

I. Read the following passage, and then choose the best answer from A, B, C or D.

WHY SEAT BELTS ARE NECESSARY

More than 30,000 drivers and front seat passengers are killed or seriously injured each year. The

impact on you of an accident can be very serious. At a speed of only 30 miles per hour it is the same

as falling from a third - floor window. Wearing a seat belt saves lives; it reduces your chance of

death or serious injury by more than half.

Who has to wear a seat belt?

Drivers or front seat passengers in most vehicles. If you are 14 or over it will be your

responsibility to wear the belt. If you do not, you could be fined up to £50. It will not be up to the

driver to make sure you wear your belt. But it will be the driver’s responsibility to make sure that

children under 14 do not ride in the front unless they are wearing a seat belt of some kind.

A very few vehicles have a middle front seat between the front passenger seat and the driver’s

seat, for example a bench seat. Your vehicle may be one of them. If just one passenger sits in front,

he must wear a seat belt. But if two passengers sit in front, the person sitting in the middle will not

have to wear a belt.

When you do not have to wear a seat belt

You do not have to wear a seat belt in certain circumstances, such as if you are reversing your

vehicle, if you are making a local delivery or collection using a vehicle constructed or adapted for

Page 3 of 6

that purpose, or if you have a valid medical certificate which excuses you from wearing it. Make

sure these circumstances apply to you before you decide not to wear your seat belt. Remember you

may be taken to court for not doing so, and you may be fined if you cannot prove to the court that

you have been excused from wearing it.

Medical exemptions

Certain people ought not to wear a seat belt because of their health. It may be more risky for

them to wear a belt than to be in a road accident without one. But they will not have to wear a belt if

they get a valid medical certificate from a doctor. If you think this applies to you, go and talk to a

doctor as soon as possible. The doctor may reassure you that you can wear a seat belt. Or he may

have to examine you before he can decide whether or not to give you a certificate. When you go and

see him you should ask him at the start how much this would cost. Keep the certificate. If the police

ask you why you are not wearing a seat belt, you should show them the certificate. If you cannot

show it to them on the spot, you should take the certificate to a police station of your choice within

five days.

36. This text is taken from ______.

A. a medical magazine B. a police report on safety

C. a legal document D. a government information leaflet

37. Wearing a seat belt in a vehicle ______.

A. reduces the risk of death and injury to drivers and passengers

B. reduces road accidents by more than half

C. saves lives only at a speed of 30 miles per hour

D. saves the lives of more than 30,000 drivers and front seat passengers

38. It is the driver’s responsibility to ______.

A. make the front seat passenger wear a seat belt

B. stop children riding in the front seat

C. wear a seat belt on all occasions

D. make children under 14 wear a seat belt in the front

39. According to the text, which of the following people does not have to wear a seat belt?

A. Someone who is picking up the children from the local school.

B. Someone who is backing into a parking space.

C. Someone who is delivering invitations to a party.

D. Someone who is under 14.

40. If you are excused from wearing a seat belt on medical grounds, ______.

A. you must take the certificate to the police station within five days

B. the doctor will give you a certificate

C. you must show the certificate to the police on the spot

D. the doctor will have to examine you

36.

37.

38.

39.

40.

II. Choose the best answer from A, B, C or D to fill in the gaps in the following passage.

MUSIC - A UNIVERSAL LANGUAGE

Music is universal - it is produced by all cultures. Some scientists believe that music

came before speech and (41) ______ as a development of mating calls. In fact, there is one

theory that the (42) ______ languages were chanted or sung, rather than spoken. Indeed, in some

cultures, music is a form of (43) ______ history. The Aboriginal Australians, for example, use

music as a means to (44) ______ on stories of the land and spirits to the next generation.

New evidence suggests that music does not just (45) ______ the feel - good factor but it is also

good for the brain. A study of intellectually (46) ______ children showed that they could recall

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more information after it was given to them in a song than after it was read to them as a story.

Researchers also report that people (47) ______ better on a standard intelligence test

after listening to Mozart. The so-called “Mozart effect” has also been (48) ______ by

findings that rats brought up on Mozart run faster through a complex network of paths or

passages, (49) ______ as a maze. Overall, it seems that in most instances people who suffer

from any form of mental (50) ______ benefit from listening to music.

41. A. was B. swelled C. arose D. reacted

42. A. earliest B. newest C. easiest D. simplest

43. A. enjoying B. making C. recording D. stating

44. A. move B. pass C. hand D. happen

45. A. convince B. satisfy C. please D. prefer

46. A. disabled B. inactive C. incapable D. disordered

47. A. examine B. prepare C. achieve D. score

48. A. supported B. given C. marked D. remembered

49. A. called B. heard C. regarded D. known

50. A. badness B. hurt C. illness D. pain

41.

42.

43.

44.

45.

46.

47.

48.

49.

50.

III. Fill in each numbered gap with ONE suitable word.

FRUITIBIX

Do you want to be slim?

Do you worry about your family’s health?

Then you should try Fruitibix, the new (51) ______ fruit and nut biscuit. Fruitibix

(52) ______ wonderful, but it contains less sugar than most other biscuits. Each biscuit

contains dried fruit and nuts, (53) ______ apples, coconut and bananas. Sometimes you

(54) ______ like eating something between meals. Now, instead of (55) ______ a chocolate

bar, bite into a Fruitibix. It will keep you healthy.

At lunchtime, instead of chips or hamburgers, have a Fruitibix. It contains all the essential

foods for a balanced (56) ______. And if you are in a (57) ______, and don’t have time for a proper

meal, Fruitibix will give you the (58) ______ to keep on going.

So whenever your children ask for (59) ______ sweet, give them Fruitibix instead of cakes or

chocolate. They will love the taste and it won’t (60) ______ their teeth. Discover Fruitibix. It’s on

your supermarket shelves now!

51.

52.

53.

54.

55.

56.

57.

58.

59.

60.

SECTION D – WRITING

I. Complete the second sentence so that it has the same meaning as the first one.

61. I can't believe this is the best hotel in the city!

→ There must ..............................................................................................................................

62. Your scheme is brilliant, but I do not think it will work.

→ Brilliant ..................................................................................................................................

63. The two sides never looked likely to reach an agreement.

→ At ............................................................................................................................................

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64. We must continue our efforts whether there are problems or not.

→ Regardless ...............................................................................................................................

65. Basically, a couple’s happiness depends on their ability to communicate.

→ Basically, the ..........................................................................................................................

II. Use the word given in brackets and make any necessary additions to write a new sentence in

such a way that it is as similar as possible in meaning to the original sentence. Do NOT change

the form of these words.

66. If you are in London by any chance, come and see me. (HAPPEN)

→ ................................................................................................................................................

67. Fred tried hard to start the car, but without success. (MATTER)

→ ................................................................................................................................................

68. I didn’t agree with the idea. (FAVOR)

→ ................................................................................................................................................

69. He pretended to be enjoying himself, but he wasn’t really. (AS)

→ ................................................................................................................................................

70. He is certainly not a reliable witness. (MEANS)

→ ................................................................................................................................................

III. Write a composition about 150 – 200 words on the following topic:

“PARENTS ARE THE BEST TEACHERS”.

Do you agree or disagree with this statement?

Use specific reasons and examples to support your answer.

…………………………………………………………………………………………………………

……………………..…………………………………………………………………………………

…………………………………………………………………………………………………………

Page 6 of 6

…………………………………………………………………………………………………………

-------- THE END --------

Page 7 of 6

SỞ GIÁO DỤC VÀ ĐÀO TẠO

QUẢNG NINH

------------------

HƯỚNG DẪN CHẤM

ĐỀ THI ĐỀ XUẤT

HƯỚNG DẪN CHẤM THI LẬP ĐỘI TUYẾN DỰ THI

CHỌN HỌC SINH GIỎI QUỐC GIATHPT NĂM 2016

---------------------

Môn: Tiếng Anh

Ngày thi: 22/10/2015

(Hướng dẫn chấm này có 02 trang)

SECTION A – PHONETICS

I. Choose the word whose underlined part is pronounced differently from that of the others.

5 x 1 pt/ correct answer = 5 pts

1. B

2. C

3. D

4. A

5. D

II. Find the word with the stress on the second syllable.

5 x 1 pt/ correct answer = 5 pts

6. C

7. A

8. A

9. B

10. D

SECTION B – VOCABULARY AND GRAMMAR

I. Choose the best answer from A, B, C or D.

15 x 1 pt/ correct answer = 15 pts

11. C

12. B

13. D

14. B

15. D

16. D

17. C

18. C

19. C

20. B

21. C

22. B

23. A

24. B

25. A

II. Read the following passage. There is ONE mistake in each of the numbered lines. Find and

correct them.

5 x 1 pt/ correct answer = 5 pts

Mistake

Correction

Mistake

Correction

26

those are

those that are

29

offering

offered

27

so that

so

30

wide

widely

28

encourage

be encouraged

III. Supply the correct forms of the words in brackets.

5 x 1 pt/ correct answer = 5 pts

31. imaginative

34. inaccessible

32. freedom

35. unprofessionally

33. ambitiously

SECTION C – READING

I. Read the following passage, and then choose the best answer from A, B, C or D.

5 x 2 pts/ correct answer = 10 pts

36. D

37. A

38D

39. B

40. C

II. Choose the best answer from A, B, C or D to fill in the gaps in the following passage.

10 x 1 pt/ correct answer = 10 pts

41. C

42. A

43. C

44. B

45. B

46. A

47. D

48. A

49. D

50. C

III. Fill in each numbered gap with ONE suitable word.

10 questions x 1 pt/ question = 10 pts

51. healthy

52. tastes/ is

53. including

54. feel

55. having/ eating

56. meal

57. hurry

58. energy

59. something

60. harm

Page 8 of 6

SECTION D – WRITING

I. Complete the second sentence so that it has the same meaning as the first one.

5 x 1 pt/ correct answer = 5 pts

61. There must be better hotels than this one in the city

62. Brilliant as /though your scheme is/ may be, I do not think it will work

63. At no time did the two sides look likely to reach an agreement

64. Regardless of whatever problems, we must continue our efforts

65. Basically, the more a couple can communicate, the happier they are/ will be

II. Use the word given in brackets and make any necessary additions to write a new sentence in

such a way that it is as similar as possible in meaning to the original sentence. Do NOT change

the form of these words.

5 x 1 pt/ correct answer = 5 pts

66. If you happen to be in London, please come and see me.

67. No matter how hard Fred tried (to start his / the car), he didn’t succeed.

68. I wasn’t in favor of the idea.

69. He acted as if he were enjoying himself, but he wasn’t really.

70. He is by no means a reliable witness.

III. Write a composition about 150 – 200 words on the following topic: (25 pts)

“Parents are the best teachers”. Do you agree or disagree with this statement?

Use specific reasons and examples to support your answer.

Notes:

The mark given to this part is based on the following scheme:

1. Content: (40% of total mark) a provision of all main ideas and as details as appropriate.

2. Organization & Presentation: (30% of total mark) ideas are organized and presented

with coherence, style, and clarity appropriate to the level of English language gifted

upper-secondary school students.

3. Language: (30% of total mark) a variety of vocabulary and structures appropriate to the

level of English language gifted upper-secondary school students.

TOTAL: 100 / 5 = 20

Thank you for your cooperation and considerations.

-------- THE END --------

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1!

SỞ GIÁO DỤC VÀ ĐÀO TẠO

QUẢNG NINH

------------------

ĐỀ THI ĐỀ XUẤT

KỲ THI LẬP ĐỘI TUYẾN DỰ THI CHỌN HỌC SINH GIỎI

QUỐC GIA THPT NĂM 2016

---------------------

(Đề thi này có 9 trang)

Chữ ký giám thị

Môn: Tiếng Anh

Thời gian làm bài: 180 phút, không kể thời gian giao đề.

SBD:

1:

Ngày thi: 22/10/2015

Họ, tên thí sinh:

Số phách

Ngày sinh:

2:

Nơi sinh:

Học sinh trường:

Hội đồng coi thi:

------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------

Điểm bài thi

Bằng số: ……….……….………...........

Bằng chữ:…………………….…………

Họ tên, chữ ký của giám khảo

1: …………………………..…………

2: ………………………….……..……

Số phách

Ghi chú: - Thí sinh trả lời ngay vào bài thi này. Nếu viết sai phải gạch bỏ rồi viết lại. Thí sinh

không được sử dụng bút xóa trong bài thi.

- Thí sinh không được sử dụng tài liệu, kể cả từ điển.

- Giám thị không giải thích gì thêm.

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I. LEXICO-GRAMMAR. (50 POINTS)

PART 1: Choose the best answer

1. The old lady came near to_______of pneumonia but to everyone's amazement she pulled through.

a. death b. die c. dying d. being dead

2. Thank you very much — I haven't been to _______ party for ages.

a. a so enjoyable b. the so enjoyable c. so enjoyable d. so enjoyable a

3. The President resigned; the whiff of scandal remained _______

a. otherwise b. therefore c. immediately d. nevertheless

4 .He escaped by _______

a. the hair's breadth b. the breadth of a hair

c. a hair's breadth d. a breadth of a hair

5. He crept in _______ his parents should wake up.

a. lest b. otherwise c. whereby d. unless

6. Capital punishment was done _______ in Britain nearly half a century ago.

a. off by b. out for c. away with d. over from

7. Serena is still _______ ignorant of the fact that she is about to be made redundant.

a. blissfully b. jubilantly c. ecstatically d. delightedly

8. It's as if that silly argument we had has driven a _______ between us and we've lost all our old

closeness.

a. ledge b. plank c. wedge d. beam

9. Marlene is quite _______ - I don't know she manages to fit everything in.

a. tiresome b. inexorable c. inexhaustible d. indefatigable

10. Sources in France suggested that further _______ would be needed before they would agree to

a deal.

a. consolations b. contractions c. contortions d. concessions

11. Nathalie seems very tough at work. She’s a different person at home, _________.

A. though B. although C. as though D. even though

12. I kept out of the conversation because it _________ me.

A. wasn’t concerned B. wasn’t concerning C. didn’t concern D. didn’t concern to

13. The entire city was _________ electricity last night – it was chaotic.

A. no B. almost no C. hardly any D. without

14. Henry was overweight, so he went on a strict diet and _________ twenty kilos.

A. missed B. lost C. failed D. fell

15. He was arrested because he answered to the description of the _________ man.

A. searched B. pursued C. wanted D. hunted

16. Humanity has done great damage to the environment in its search for _________ materials.

A. live B. raw C. crude D. rude

17. _________, the balcony chairs will be ruined in this weather.

A. Leaving uncovered B. Having left uncovered

C. Left uncovered D. Been left uncovered

18. One way to let off _________ after a stressful day is to take some vigorous exercise.

A. cloud B. tension C. steam D. sweat

19. Their research into the causes of cancer promises to break the new _________ in the field and

possibly lead to a cure.

A. earth B. ground C. soil D. land

20. After three days in the desert, his mind began to play _________ on him.

A. games B. jokes C. tricks D. fun

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PART 2: Supply the correct verb form

1. It is essential that the plan (inform) _________________to everyone in advance.

2. To avoid (take) _________________photos by journalists, she left without saying a word.

3. The cake (make) _______________ by my mom tastes really delicious.

4. We (not use) _________________this machine for ages, so we intend to give it away.

5. If Tom had much money, he (travel) __________________ around the world.

6. While my mom was laying the table for dinner, my dad (listen) _________________ to the radio.

7. The antique vase was broken while it (move) ________________ to another room in the museum.

8. I (meet) _______________ Michael before I was in Paris.

9. (Do) ___________________ all the homework, her kids went to bed.

10. By the time my father retires, he (work) ______________ for this company for almost 25 years.

PART 3: Write the correct form of each word in the corresponding numbered boxes. There is an

example at the beginning (0).

Fears of Future Global Hunger

A recent report has warned of global food (0) shortages unless the current

system of farming and food distribution is changed. The report highlights

fears that currently rapid increases in yields come at the expense of

(1)…………., and that unless action is taken, hunger and (2)………… will

become growing problems.

The population is expected to rise to around 8.3 billion in the next twenty

years, and (3)……………… is set to continue, and it is expected that 65-

70% of the world’s population will live in cities.

Increasing world (4)…………. will lead to the rise in demand for energy,

food and fresh water.

The report also considers the billion people worldwide who (5)………….

and are therefore obese to be another example of the (6)…………. of the

current system to provide health and well-being to the world’s population.

The authors believe that the (7) …………. of new technologies can play a

role in (8)……………. future food shortages. They see cloning,

nanotechnology and genetic (9)…………… as potential solutions.

However, although many of these technologies have been adopted

worldwide, there is still (10)……………. to their use in parts of Europe.

0. SHORT

1. SUSTAIN

2. NUTRIENT

3. URBAN

4. PROSPEROUS

5. EAT

6. FAIL

7. APPLY

8. MINIMAL

9. MODIFY

10. RESIST

PART 4: Fill in the gaps with suitable particles

1. A staring incident sparked …………….. violent clashed between two rival gangs.

2. My childhood friend gave me the brush …………….after he became rich and famous.

3. Lolita came ………… great wealth after the demise for her millionaire grandmother.

4. The rioters fell ………….the lone policeman on duty outside the factory.

5. Don’t worry. Although only one of us holds a job right now, we’ll get ………….somehow.

6. Mr. Horrid was a terrible teacher and obviously not cut ________for teaching.

7. I can’t cancel my arrangements ________such short notice.

8. All the police’s efforts to find him were ________vain.

9. The farmhouse we stayed in was completely ________the beaten track.

10. She’s gone and this time it’s ________good.

II. READING (50 points)

PART 1: Read the following passage and decide which answer (a, b ,c, or d) best fits each gap.

(15 points)

Legal fight hits music pirates

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4!

The global recording industry has launched its largest wave of legal (1) ___________ against people

suspected of (2) ___________ music files on the internet. The latest move by the International

Federation of the Phonographic Industry (IFPI) (3) ___________ 2,100 alleged uploaders (4)

___________ peer-to-peer (P2P) networks in 16 nations (5) ___________ the UK, France, Germany

and Italy. Thousands of people have agreed to pay compensation since the campaign (6)

___________ In the US, civil lawsuits have been (7) ___________ against more than 15,597 people

(8) ___________ September 2003 and there have been 3,590 settlements. 'This is a significant (9)

___________. of our enforcement actions against people who are uploading and distributing (10)

___________ music on p2p networks,' said IFPI chief John Kennedy. 'Thousands of people - mostly

internet-savvy men in their 20s or 30s - have learnt to their (11) ___________ the legal and financial

risks involved in file-sharing copyrighted music in large quantities.' Individual cases are generally

brought by the national associations (12) ___________ the recording industry, and in some cases by

the labels, (13) ___________ civil complaints. The UK record industry has so far brought 97 cases,

with a (14) ___________ 65 covered by the latest action. More than 140,000 in compensation has

been paid to the British Phonographic Industry by 71 individuals. Those who (15) ___________ to

resolve cases face civil court action.

1. a. action

b. acting

c. activity

d. acts

2. a. stealing

b. sharing

b. using

d. downloading

3. a. aimed

b. targeted

c. directed

d. pointed

4. a. with

b. having

c. using

d. who

5. a. such

b. including

c. with

d. throughout

6. a. begin

b. began

c. begun

d. begins

7. a. carried

b. instigate

c. brought

d. active

8. a. during

b. throughout

c. in

d. since

9. a. increasing

b. feature

c. result

d. escalation

10. a. copyrighted

b. registered

c. trademark

d. illegal

11. a. benefit

b. charge

c. cost

d. fortune

12. a. for

b. working

c. representing

d. inside

13. a. in

b. with

c. for

d. as

14. a. newly

b. addition

c. further

d. another

15. a. intend

b. wish

c. fail

d. don’t

PART 2: Read the text carefully and then decide on the best word to write in each gap. Only put

one word in each gap. (15 points)

The Atmosphere of (1. ………….) .

Would you like to (2………….) an astronaut? To do this, you must travel at least 50 miles (80

kilometres) above the surface of the earth. But even after you have done that you are still

(3………….) earth's atmosphere. Indeed, there are at least 300 miles of air still between you and the

true vacuum of space.

Most of what we think of as our atmosphere is actually the troposphere, that part of the atmosphere

closest to earth. This is where most of our weather happens, and it is the only part of the atmosphere

which has enough oxygen and warmth for humans to survive. (4……………….) part of the

atmosphere is about ten miles thick at the equator and slightly half that height at the (5……………)

(6………….) the troposphere is the stratosphere, which you have probably (7…………….) if you

have travelled on an international jet liner. But there is another kind of 'jet' at this altitude. Huge

rivers of air called 'jet streams' (8………………..) through the stratosphere, and the stratosphere

contains the ozone layer which filters harmful ultraviolet rays which could (9……………) make life

on earth extinct. Above the stratosphere is the mesosphere, and above that the ionosphere, which is

important for radio communications as signals can be (10………………) off the ionosphere to

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different (11………………) of the world.

Many people think that the atmosphere is mostly oxygen, (12…………….) that is what we breathe.

But in (13…………..) oxygen makes up only about 21% of the atmosphere, and carbon dioxide,

which we breathe out, makes up less than 1%. Over three quarters of the atmosphere is nitrogen,

which was expelled from inside the planet while it was still very volcanically (14……………..) .

We have a lot of nitrogen in our bodies, but we do not get it (15…………..) from the atmosphere.

Instead we get our nitrogen from plants which we eat.

PART 3: Read the passage. Then answer the questions below. After you have answered the first

10 questions you will answer a 'Summary Question'. (10 points)

The Creators of Grammar

No student of a foreign language needs to be told that grammar is complex. By changing word

sequences and by adding a range of auxiliary verbs and suffixes, we are able to communicate tiny

variations in meaning. We can turn a statement into a question, state whether an action has taken

place or is soon to take place, and perform many other word tricks to convey subtle differences in

meaning. Nor is this complexity inherent to the English language. All languages, even those of so-

called 'primitive' tribes have clever grammatical components. The Cherokee pronoun system, for

example, can distinguish between 'you and I', 'several other people and I' and 'you, another person

and I'. In English, all these meanings are summed up in the one, crude pronoun 'we'. Grammar is

universal and plays a part in every language, no matter how widespread it is. So the question which

has baffled many linguists is - who created grammar?

At first, it would appear that this question is impossible to answer. To find out how grammar is

created, someone needs to be present at the time of a language's creation, documenting its

emergence. Many historical linguists are able to trace modern complex languages back to earlier

languages, but in order to answer the question of how complex languages are actually formed, the

researcher needs to observe how languages are started from scratch. Amazingly, however, this is

possible.

Some of the most recent languages evolved due to the Atlantic slave trade. At that time, slaves from

a number of different ethnicities were forced to work together under colonizer's rule. Since they had

no opportunity to learn each other's languages, they developed a make-shift language called a

pidgin. Pidgins are strings of words copied from the language of the landowner. They have little in

the way of grammar, and in many cases it is difficult for a listener to deduce when an event

happened, and who did what to whom. [A] Speakers need to use circumlocution in order to make

their meaning understood. [B] Interestingly, however, all it takes for a pidgin to become a complex

language is for a group of children to be exposed to it at the time when they learn their mother

tongue. [C] Slave children did not simply copy the strings of words uttered by their elders, they

adapted their words to create a new, expressive language. [D] Complex grammar systems which

emerge from pidgins are termed creoles, and they are invented by children.

Further evidence of this can be seen in studying sign languages for the deaf. Sign languages are not

simply a series of gestures; they utilise the same grammatical machinery that is found in spoken

languages. Moreover, there are many different languages used worldwide. The creation of one such

language was documented quite recently in Nicaragua. Previously, all deaf people were isolated

from each other, but in 1979 a new government introduced schools for the deaf. Although children

were taught speech and lip reading in the classroom, in the playgrounds they began to invent their

own sign system, using the gestures that they used at home. It was basically a pidgin. Each child

used the signs differently, and there was no consistent grammar. However, children who joined the

school later, when this inventive sign system was already around, developed a quite different sign

language. Although it was based on the signs of the older children, the younger children's language

was more fluid and compact, and it utilized a large range of grammatical devices to clarify

meaning. What is more, all the children used the signs in the same way. A new creole was born.

Some linguists believe that many of the world's most established languages were creoles at

first. The English past tense –ed ending may have evolved from the verb 'do'. 'It ended' may once

have been 'It end-did'. Therefore it would appear that even the most widespread languages were

partly created by children. Children appear to have innate grammatical machinery in their brains,

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which springs to life when they are first trying to make sense of the world around them. Their

minds can serve to create logical, complex structures, even when there is no grammar present for

them to copy.

1. In paragraph 1, why does the writer include information about the Cherokee language?

A. To show how simple, traditional cultures can have complicated grammar structures

B. To show how English grammar differs from Cherokee grammar

C. To prove that complex grammar structures were invented by the Cherokees.

D. To demonstrate how difficult it is to learn the Cherokee language

2. What can be inferred about the slaves' pidgin language?

A. It contained complex grammar.

B. It was based on many different languages.

C. It was difficult to understand, even among slaves.

D. It was created by the land-owners.

3. All the following sentences about Nicaraguan sign language are true EXCEPT:

A. The language has been created since 1979.

B. The language is based on speech and lip reading.

C. The language incorporates signs which children used at home.

D. The language was perfected by younger children.

4. In paragraph 3, where can the following sentence be placed?

“It included standardised word orders and grammatical markers that existed in neither the pidgin

language, nor the language of the colonizers.”

A. A B. B C. C D. D

5. 'From scratch' in paragraph 2 is closest in meaning to:

A. from the very beginning B. in simple cultures

C. by copying something else D. by using written information

6. 'Make-shift' in paragraph 3 is closest in meaning to:

A. complicated and expressive B. simple and temporary

C. extensive and diverse D. private and personal

7. Which sentence is closest in meaning to the highlighted sentence?

“Grammar is universal and plays a part in every language, no matter how widespread it is.”

A. All languages, whether they are spoken by a few people or a lot of people, contain grammar.

B. Some languages include a lot of grammar, whereas other languages contain a little.

C. Languages which contain a lot of grammar are more common that languages that contain a little.

D. The grammar of all languages is the same, no matter where the languages evolved.

8. All of the following are features of the new Nicaraguan sign language EXCEPT:

A. All children used the same gestures to show meaning.

B. The meaning was clearer than the previous sign language.

C. The hand movements were smoother and smaller.

D. New gestures were created for everyday objects and activities.

9. Which idea is presented in the final paragraph?

A. English was probably once a creole.

B. The English past tense system is inaccurate.

C. Linguists have proven that English was created by children.

D. Children say English past tenses differently from adults.

10. Look at the word 'consistent' in paragraph 4. This word could best be replaced by which of the

following?

A. natural B. predictable C. imaginable D. uniform

PART 5: (10 points)

The US City and the Natural Environment

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A While cities and their metropolitan areas have always interacted with and shaped the natural

environment, it is only recently that historians have begun to consider this relationship. During our

own time, the tension between natural and urbanized areas has increased, as the spread of

metropolitan populations and urban land uses has reshaped and destroyed natural landscapes and

environments.

B The relationship between the city and the natural environment has actually been circular, with

cities having massive effects on the natural environment, while the natural environment, in turn, has

profoundly shaped urban configurations. Urban history is filled with stories about how city dwellers

contended with the forces of nature that threatened their lives. Nature not only caused many of the

annoyances of daily urban life, such as bad weather and pests, but it also gave rise to natural

disasters and catastrophes such as floods, fires, and earthquakes. In order to protect themselves and

their settlements against the forces of nature, cities built many defences including flood walls and

dams, earthquake-resistant buildings, and storage places for food and water. At times, such

protective steps sheltered urbanites against the worst natural furies, but often their own actions –

such as building under the shadow of volcanoes, or in earthquake-prone zones – exposed them to

danger from natural hazards.

C City populations require food, water, fuel, and construction materials, while urban industries need

natural materials for production purposes. In order to fulfill these needs, urbanites increasingly had

to reach far beyond their boundaries. In the nineteenth century, for instance, the demands of city

dwellers for food produced rings of garden farms around cities. In the twentieth century, as urban

populations increased, the demand for food drove the rise of large factory farms. Cities also require

fresh water supplies in order to exist – engineers built waterworks, dug wells deeper and deeper into

the earth looking for groundwater, and dammed and diverted rivers to obtain water supplies for

domestic and industrial uses. In the process of obtaining water from distant locales, cities often

transformed them, making deserts where there had been fertile agricultural areas.

D Urbanites had to seek locations to dispose of the wastes they produced. Initially, they placed

wastes on sites within the city, polluting the air, land, and water with industrial and domestic

effluents. As cities grew larger, they disposed of their wastes by transporting them to more distant

locations. Thus, cities constructed sewerage systems for domestic wastes. They usually discharged

the sewage into neighbouring waterways, often polluting the water supply of downstream cities.

The air and the land also became dumps for waste disposal. In the late nineteenth century, coal

became the preferred fuel for industrial, transportation, and domestic use. But while providing an

inexpensive and plentiful energy supply, coal was also very dirty. The cities that used it suffered

from air contamination and reduced sunlight, while the cleaning tasks of householders were greatly

increased.

E In the late nineteenth and early twentieth centuries, reformers began demanding urban

environmental cleanups and public health improvements. Women's groups often took the lead in

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agitating for clean air and clean water, showing a greater concern than men in regard to quality of

life and health-related issues. The replacement of the horse, first by electric trolleys and then by the

car, brought about substantial improvements in street and air sanitation. The movements demanding

clean air, however, and reduction of waterway pollution were largely unsuccessful. On balance,

urban sanitary conditions were probably somewhat better in the 1920s than in the late nineteenth

century, but the cost of improvement often was the exploitation of urban hinterlands for water

supplies, increased downstream water pollution, and growing automobile congestion and pollution.

F In the decades after the 1940s, city environments suffered from heavy pollution as they sought to

cope with increased automobile usage, pollution from industrial production, new varieties of

chemical pesticides and the wastes of an increasingly consumer-oriented economy. Cleaner fuels

and smoke control laws largely freed cities during the 1940s and 1950s of the dense smoke that they

had previously suffered from. Improved urban air quality resulted largely from the substitution of

natural gas and oil for coal and the replacement of the steam locomotive by the diesel-electric.

However, great increases in automobile usage in some larger cities produced the new phenomenon

of smog, and air pollution replaced smoke as a major concern.

G During these decades, the suburban out-migration, which had begun in the nineteenth century

with commuter trains and streetcars and accelerated because of the availability and convenience of

the automobile, now increased to a torrent, putting major strains on the formerly rural and

undeveloped metropolitan fringes. To a great extent, suburban layouts ignored environmental

considerations, making little provision for open space, producing endless rows of resource-

consuming and fertilizer-dependent lawns, contaminating groundwater through leaking septic tanks,

and absorbing excessive amounts of fresh water and energy. The growth of the outer city since the

1970s reflected a continued preference on the part of many people in the western world for space-

intensive single-family houses surrounded by lawns, for private automobiles over public transit, and

for the development of previously untouched areas. Without better planning for land use and

environmental protection, urban life will, as it has in the past, continue to damage and stress the

natural environment.

Questions 1-7

The passage has seven sections, A-G. Choose the correct heading for each section from the list of

headings below. Write the correct number, i-x, in boxes 1-7 on your answer sheet.

List of Phrases

i Legislation brings temporary improvements

ii The increasing speed of suburban development

iii A new area of academic interest

iv The impact of environmental extremes on city planning

v The first campaigns for environmental change

vi Building cities in earthquake zones

vii The effect of global warming on cities

viii Adapting areas surrounding cities to provide resources

ix Removing the unwanted by-products of city life

x Providing health information for city dwellers

1. Paragraph A ___

2. Paragraph B ___

3. Paragraph C ___

4. Paragraph D ___

5. Paragraph E ___

6. Paragraph F ___

7. Paragraph G ___

Questions 8-13

Do the following statements agree with the information given in the passage.In boxes 8-10 on your

answer sheet, write

TRUE

if the statement is true according to the passage

FALSE

if the statement is false according to the passage

NOT GIVEN

if the information is not given in the passage

8) In the nineteenth century, water was brought into the desert to create productive farming land.

9) Women were often the strongest campaigners for environmental reform.

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10) Reducing urban air and water pollution in the early twentieth century was extremely expensive.

III. WRITING

PART 1: Use the word given in brackets and make any necessary additions to write a new

sentence in such a way that it is as similar as possible in meaning to the original sentence. DO

NOT change the form of the given word. (10 points)

1. I am getting very upset and frustrated by Fred. (BEND)

……………………………………………………………………………………………

2. It's only a matter of time before you need one. (SOONER)

……………………………………………………………………………………………

3. I am not going to that party whatever happens. (QUESNTION)

……………………………………………………………………………………………

4. Even if they don't win, our team will do well. (MONEY)

……………………………………………………………………………………………

5. She is absolutely delighted about her new job. (MOON)

……………………………………………………………………………………………

PART 2:

The table below shows CO2 emissions for different forms of transport in the European Union.

The Pie Chart shows the percentage of European Union funds being spent on different forms of

transport. (20 points)

Write a report for a university lecturer describing the information shown below. Write at least 150

words

CO2 emissions per passenger kilometer

EU Funds for transport 2007-2013

______________________________________________________________________________

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______________________________________________________________________________

PART 3: Essay (30 points)

As mass communication and transport continue to grow, societies are becoming more and

more alike leading to a phenomenon known as globalization. Some people fear that

globalization will inevitably lead to the total loss of cultural identity. To what extent do you

agree or disagree with this statement?

You should write at least 300 words.

______________________________________________________________________________

The end

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SỞ GIÁO DỤC VÀ ĐÀO TẠO

QUẢNG NINH

------------------

HƯỚNG DẪN CHẤM

ĐỀ THI ĐỀ XUẤT

HƯỚNG DẪN CHẤM THI LẬP ĐỘI TUYẾN DỰ THI

CHỌN HỌC SINH GIỎI QUỐC GIATHPT NĂM 2016

---------------------

Môn: Tiếng Anh

Ngày thi: 22/10/2015

(Hướng dẫn chấm này có 03 trang)

I. Lexico- grammar (50 points)

PART 1: (20 points)

1. C 2. D 3. D 4. C 5. A

6. C 7. A 8. C 9. D 10. D

11. A

12. C

13. D

14. B

15. C

16. B

17. B

18. C

19. B

20. C

PART 2: Supply the correct verb form (10 points)

1. be informed / should be informed 2. being taken

3. made 4. Haven’t used

5. would travel 6. Was listening

7. was being moved 8. Had met

9. Having done 10. Will have worked/ will have been working

PART 3 (10 points)

1. sustainability

2. malnutrition

3. urbanization

4. prosperity

5. overeat

6. failure

7. application

8. minimizing

9. modification

10. resistance

PART 4 ( 10 points)

Fill in the gaps with suitable particles.

1. up

2. off

3. into

4. upon

5. by

6. out

7. at

8. in

9. off

10. for

II. READING (50 points)

PART 1. (15 points)

1. A

2. B

3. B

4. C

5. B

6. B

7. C

8. D

9. D

10. A

11. C

12. C

13. D

14. C

15. C

PART 2 (15 points)

Remember: your answer might be different but still correct. If you are not sure, check with a

teacher.

1. Earth

2. become

3. within

4. This

5. poles

6. Above/After

9. otherwise

10. bounced

11. parts

12. since/because

13. fact/reality

14. active

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7. visited

8. flow

15. directly

PART 3. (10 points)

1. A

2. C

3. B

4. D

5. A

6. B

7. A

8. D

9. A

10. D

PART 4. (10 points)

1. iii

2. iv

3. viii

4. ix

5. v

6. i

7. ii

8. F

9. T

10. NG

III. WRITING (60 points)

PART 1. (10 points)

1. Fred is driving me around the bend.

3. Sooner or later you'll need one.

3. My going to that party is out of the question.

4. Our team will give the opposition a run for their money.

5. She is over the moon about her new job.

PART 2. (20 points)

Marking(scheme(

The!mark!given!is!based!on!the!following!scheme:!!

Task achievement (25 % of total mark)

Coherence and cohesion (25 % of total mark)

Grammar range and Accuracy (25 % of total mark)

!!!!!!!!!!!!!Lexical!resource!(25!%!of!total!mark

Transport in the European Union

The chart shows CO2 emissions per passenger kilometre for various methods of transport in the

European Union while the pie chart shows European Union spending on transport . Flying by air

produces by far the greatest CO2 emissions , approximately three times as much as passenger cars

which are the next largest producers!

Very little is spent by the EU on air travel while roads make up more than half of the EU transport

budget .

Trains produce about three times less CO2 emissions per passenger kilometre than passenger cars

and eight times less than air travel . Nearly a third of EU transport funds are spent on railways .

Ships are a clean form of transport and produce about the same amount of CO2 per passenger

kilometre as trains do . However , only 2 percent of EU funds are spent on ports . A further one

percent is spent on inland waterways .

Coaches are the cleanest form of transport . Emissions of CO2 per passenger kilometre from

coaches are half those of buses . Buses emit less than half as much CO2 per passenger kilometre as

cars . The European union spends 10 percent of its transport budget on public transport , such

PART 3. ( 30 points)

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Marking(scheme(

The!mark!given!is!based!on!the!following!scheme:!!

Task achievement (25 % of total mark)

Coherence and cohesion (25 % of total mark)

Grammar range and Accuracy (25 % of total mark)

!!!!!!!!!!!!!Lexical!resource!(25!%!of!total!mark

model answer:

Globalisation has become integrated through the global network of trade, transportation,

communication and immigration. It is feared by many to eventually bring an end to cultural identity.

However, I am convinced that not only will globalization help retain and improve local cultures, but

it also will strengthen cultural bonds between distant communities.

First of all, people can realise how they are different from others in distant lands, which may lead to

their interest in learning about other cultures. This means every culture will have to preserve and

present its unique features such as local cuisine or craftsmanship in order to maintain foreign interest

in itself and have something to offer in competition with other communities. As a result, a sense of

cultural identity can be reinforced – even rekindled and restored where it has already been lost.

Secondly, cultures in different parts of the world familiarise themselves with the ceremonies, food

and clothes of other people, it is highly likely that they will begin to improve on their own, thus

developing more efficient ways of life while retaining their original characteristics.

Finally, although some people might think that the aforementioned “trade” of cultural features can

doom the unique identity of a culture, they need to consider that this will not necessarily result in

local people abolishing their culture and fully embracing another. Instead, the communication and

exchange involved in globalisation can improve understanding and tolerance in the international

community, which certainly can help with the conservation of older cultures and their sense of

identity.

In conclusion, I think if the positive aspects of globalisation are considered and stressed, it is not

likely to pose any threats to the cultural identity of local communities and will instead contribute to

it in a variety of ways.

(293 words)

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1

SỞ GIÁO DỤC VÀ ĐÀO TẠO

QUẢNG NINH

------------------

ĐỀ THI ĐỀ XUẤT

KỲ THI LẬP ĐỘI TUYẾN DỰ THI CHỌN HỌC SINH GIỎI

QUỐC GIA THPT NĂM 2016

---------------------

(Đề thi này có 9 trang)

Chữ ký giám thị

Môn: Tiếng Anh

Thời gian làm bài: 180 phút, không kể thời gian giao đề.

SBD:

1:

Ngày thi: 22/10/2015

Họ, tên thí sinh:

Số phách

Ngày sinh:

2:

Nơi sinh:

Học sinh trường:

Hội đồng coi thi:

------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------

Điểm bài thi

Bằng số: ……….……….………...........

Bằng chữ:…………………….…………

Họ tên, chữ ký của giám khảo

1: …………………………..…………

2: ………………………….……..……

Số phách

Ghi chú: - Thí sinh trả lời ngay vào bài thi này. Nếu viết sai phải gạch bỏ rồi viết lại. Thí sinh

không được sử dụng bút xóa trong bài thi.

- Thí sinh không được sử dụng tài liệu, kể cả từ điển.

- Giám thị không giải thích gì thêm.

2

I. LEXICO-GRAMMAR (50 points)

Part 1: Choose the word or phrase (A, B, C or D) which best completes each sentence

1. I don't agree with his policies but I'm going to ______ them for now.

A. play along with B. play cat and mouse with

C. play havoc with D. play down

2. Well, I’m sorry, that’s all I can offer you. ______.

A. Take it or forget it B. Get it or forget it

C. Take it or leave it D. Leave it or take it

3. Don’t bother Alice with the problem - she’s in the ______ of moving house.

A. anguish B. throes C. agony D. pains

4. Although the Moon appears ______, it reflects on average only 7 percent of the light that falls on it.

A. bright to the eye B. brightly to the eye

C. bright in the eye D. brightly in the eye

5. I got very nervous during exam. When the examiner asked my name, my mind went completely

_______.

A. empty B. blank C. white D. void

6. In the last century, it was widely _______ that Indian fakirs were capable of superhuman feats.

A. held B. grasped C. kept D. shaken

7. What a mad thing to do! You could all have been killed! It was _____folly.

A. merely B. only C. sheer D. wild

8. Of course you’ll pass. You write well and you have an excellent _____of the subject.

A. grip B. seizure C. embrace D. grasp

9. Chris was _____between buying a new house and going on a round -the-world cruise.

A. pulled B. torn C. moving D. leaning

10. _____ virtue of his youth, he was free from charged.

A. with B. In C. By D. For

11. Don’t quote me. What I am about to say is _____ the record.

A. on B. off C. without D. above

12. In the _____ of security, personnel must wear their identity badges at all times.

A. requirement B. interest C. demands D. assistance

13. Linda’s excuses for being late are beginning to _____ rather thin.

A. get B. turn C. wear D. go

14. They wandered around in circles for an hour before finally admitting they were well and _____ lost.

A. completely B. thoroughly C. truly D. utterly

15. The teacher obviously didn’t like me because she was always_____ on me.

A. setting B. picking C. keeping D. getting

16. I thought I had made it_____ that I didn’t wish to discuss this matter.

A. distinct B. plain C. frank D. straight

17. It never_____ my mind that such a terrible thing would happen.

A. struck B. dawned C. occurred D. entered

18. It was a bad mistake but it had no_____ on the outcome of the match.

A. bearing B. significance C. relevance D. repercussion

19. We took such a great_____ to the place that we decided to go and live there.

A. affection B. fondness C. liking D. attraction

20. In the_____ of demand for tickets, it has been decided that an extra performance will be staged.

A. view B. light C. consideration D. grounds

3

Part 2. Complete the following sentences with the words given in the brackets. You have to change the

form of the word .

1. British Prime Minister Margaret Thatcher called the hanging an act of _____ which is deeply repugnant

to all civilized people. (BARBARIC)

2. Students mustn’t be _______________ and illiterate when they leave school. (NUMBER)

3. Very soon, ‘Third World’ came to _______________ poverty. (NOTE)

4. Scientists are convinced that, because crocodiles have such a long _______________, they must have a

natural ability to combat infection. (LIFE)

5. University professors both teach and _______________ research. (TAKE)

6. Treat them with this kind of spray to make them _______________. (WATER)

7. Steroids often help reduce the _______________ and itching in the skin. (FLAME)

8. An NGO is helping to make ozone-friendly natural _______________ designed to replace R-22 in

existing air conditioning and _______________ systems. (FRIDGE)

9. In my opinion, this book is just _____________________ rubbish. (INTELLECT)

10. He was standing in the middle, in the _____________________ of the picture. (GROUND)

Part 3. Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the underline part that needs

correcting and correct it.

Question 1. Barely had the patrons been led through the museum by a woman who they took to be the

A B

curator than it dawned on them that their tour guide was actually the owner of the museum.

C D

Question 2. The brightly-eyed children spoke only a little English but were more than happy to

A B C

burst into song.

D

Question 3. To appreciate the advantages that legs offer over wheels, you have only examined the dust

A B C

accumulating on stairs of any household cleaned by a Roomba robotic vacuum cleaner.

D

Question 4. The skin receives nearly the third of the blood pumped out by the heart

A B C D

Question 5. As much as we may pride ourselves on our good taste, no more are we free to choose

A B

what we want, for advertising exerts a subtle influence on us.

C D

Question 6. Should we really speak of the “breakdown” of families when we are perhaps witnessing

A B

new family forms and a new social structure arising late capitalism?

C D

Question 7. Economy is heavy dependent on industry, and economic growth has always been

A B

of greater concern than environmental preservation.

C D

Question 8. On the bottom of the New York MetroCard have three arrows and little white letters that

A B

say "Insert this way/This side faces you." What is it about that instruction that is so impossible to

C D

understand?

4

Question 9. Televisions are now an everyday feature of most households in the United States, and

A B

television viewing is the number one activity leisure.

C D

Question 10. In general, novels are thought of extended works of prose fiction depicting the inner and

A B

lives of their characters.

C D

Part 4: Fill in the blank with suitable prepositions or particles.

1. Computer games are not so interesting to me anymore – I have gone ……… it.

2. His parents pulled him ……… difficult periods of multiple financial problems.

3. The portly women were excited about going into the city to indulge ……… a lavish buffet.

4. He won simply because he was ……… no pressure to win.

5. As the team shakes ………, their performance should improve.

6. “Your credit card can be done ……… with already,” her father said.

7. I am not friends with David anymore – we have fallen ……… .

8. A great sense of relief flooded ……… her when she heard that her father was all right.

9. I do not understand what he is driving ……… .

10. The animals can be blending ……… the tall grass to avoid exposure.

III. READING (50 points)

Part 1. For questions 1-10, read the three texts below and decide which answer (A, B, C or D) best fits

each gap.

In 1830, there were under 100 miles of public railway in Britain. Yet within 20 years, this figure

had grown to more than 5000 miles. By the end of the century, almost enough rail track to (1) _____ the

world covered this small island, (2) _____ the nature of travel for ever and contributing to the industrial

revolution that changed the (3) _____ of history in many parts of the world.

Wherever railways were introduced, economic and social progress quickly (4) _____. In a single

day, rail passengers could travel hundreds of miles, (5) _____ previous journey times by huge margins and

bringing rapid travel within the (6) _____ of ordinary people. Previously, many people had never ventured

beyond the outskirts of their town and villages. The railway brought them greater freedom and

enlightenment.

In the 19th century, the railway in Britain (7) _____ something more than just the business of

carrying goods and passengers. Trains were associated with romance, adventure and, frequently, (8)

_____ luxury. But the railways did more than revolutionise travel; they also (9) _____ a distinctive and

permanent mark on the British landscape. Whole towns and industrial centres (10) _____ up around major

rail junctions, monumental bridges and viaducts crossed rivers and valleys and the railway stations

themselves became desirable places to spend time between journeys.

1. A. revolve B. enclose C. encircle D. orbit

2. A. altering B. amending C. adapting D. adjusting

3. A. route B. way C. line D. course

4. A. pursued B. followed C. succeeded D. chased

5. A. cancelling B. subtracting C. cutting D. abolishing

6. A. reach B. capacity C. facility D. hold

7. A. served B. functioned C. represented D. performed

8. A. considerable B. generous C. plentiful D. sizeable

9. A. laid B. set C. settled D. left

10. A. jumped B. stood C. burst D. sprang

5

Part 2. Read the passage and choose the best answer to each of the questions

Over the last century the world has become increasingly smaller. Not geographically, of course, but in

the sense that media, technology and the opening of borders has enabled the world’s citizens to view,

share and gain access to a much wider range of cultures, societies and world views. In this melting pot that

the world has become, today’s child is privy to facets of the human experience that his immediate

predecessors had no inkling even existed. It stands to reason that in order to absorb, configure and finally

form opinions about this information-laden planet, children must be supplied with certain tools. Included

in this list of ‘tools’ are: education, social skills, cultural awareness and the acquisition of languages, the

most important of these being the latter. Until recently, a child who had the ability to speak more than

one language would have been considered a very rare entity. This one-language phenomenon could be

attributed to a combination of factors. Firstly, the monolingual environment in which a child was raised

played a strong role, as did the limited, biased education of the past. With regard to immigrants, the sad

fact was that non-native parents tended to withhold the teaching of the mother tongue so that the child

would acquire the ‘more prestigious’ language of the adopted country.

Nowadays, the situation has undergone an almost complete reversal. In the majority of North

American and European countries, most children are given the opportunity to learn a second or even a

third language. Children acquire these foreign languages through various and diverse means. In many

countries, learning a foreign language is a compulsory subject in the state school curriculum. Other

children rely on language schools or private tuition to achieve their goal. In other instances, children are

born to bilingual parents, who, if they so desire, may teach the children two languages.

Bringing up one’s child bilingually is not a decision to be taken lightly. Both parents must consider

long and hard the implications involved in raising a child in a two-language home. This decision is one of

those all-important choices which will affect not only the parents’ lives but also the life of the child.

Raising a child bilingually has a two-fold effect. Firstly, of course, the child learns the two languages of

the parents. Secondly, the parents’ decision will influence factors which will have a far-reaching effect on

the child’s life. Some of these factors include: style and place of education; diameter of social circle;

employment potential and preference; and, most importantly, the way in which the child views himself

and his global environment.

One of the more advantageous by-products of being a member of a bilingual family is the

inherent awareness of two different cultures. This bicultural child inherits a wealth of knowledge brought

about by an exposure to: historical backgrounds; traditional songs and folklore; rituals of marriage;

models of social interaction; and therefore, two varying interpretations of the world. The monolingual

child seems to be at a disadvantage in comparison to the bilingual child, who has a set of languages and an

accompanying set of abstract cultural ideas. Practically speaking, when a child comes from a two-

language family, he must be taught both languages in order to communicate with the extended family

members. When, for example, the grandparents speak a language which differs from that of the child’s

locale, a monolingual child would be deprived of the interaction which occurs between grandparents and

grandchildren. On the other hand, a bilingual child will not only be able to speak to grandparents, but will

also comprehend where these people have ‘come from’. There will be a shared cultural empathy within

the family. Because all family members can communicate, on both a verbal and cultural level, no one will

feel excluded and the child will develop a sense of rootedness.

On a more abstract level, it has been said that a bilingual child thinks differently from a

monolingual child. Current research in linguistics indicates that there may be a strong correlation between

bilingualism and cognitive skills. This new research concerns itself with the fact that a bilingual child has

two lexical structures for any given physical or abstract entity. This leads logically to the assumption that

the child also has two associations for many words, as a word can mean different things in different

languages. For example, the word ‘fire’ in many western hemisphere languages connotes warmth and

relaxation. In the Inuit language however, where fire is a necessity of life, it may connote heat and

6

survival. For the bilingual child, then, vocabulary items and the abstract idea behind them are both dual in

nature and more elastic. Researchers maintain that this elasticity of ideas may allow the child to think

more flexibly and, therefore, more creatively.

1. In the author’s view, the world is becoming a _____.

A. more culturally diverse place B. place where only privileged children will prosper

C. less complex place to live in D. much more integrated place

2. According to the first paragraph, which of the following was true of immigrants?

A. Children were reluctant to use their mother tongue.

B. The mother tongue was considered less important.

C. Parents encouraged children to use their mother tongue.

D. Most parents made it a priority for children to grow up bilingual.

3. The phrase “privy to” in paragraph 1 mostly means _____.

A. acquainted with B. advised of C. apprised of D. in the know about

4. The phrase “attributed to” mostly means _____.

A. ascribed to B. associated with C. connected with D. held responsible for

5. According to the writer, second or foreign language learning is something _____.

A. people are still apathetic towards

B. mainly associated with private sector education

C. that few people take seriously

D. about which general attitudes have evolved considerably

6 . According to the article, the decision to raise bilingual children is difficult because ______.

A. it may limit the child’s choice of friends

B. though simple for parents, it can impact negatively on children

C. it may cause children to lose their sense of identity

D. it needs to be considered from many different angles

7. With regard to the ‘extended family’ in immigrant situations, the writer feels it is important that _____.

A. adults try to understand the child’s difficult cultural situation

B. children are not pressured to speak their parents’ native language

C. adults recognise the child’s need to identify more with local culture

D. children can relate to all aspects of their parents’ native culture

8. The word “by-products” in paragraph 4 mostly means ___.

A entailments B knock-on effects C side effects D spin-offs

9. The word “connotes” in paragraph 5 mostly means _____.

A underpins B implies C signifies D smacks of

10. According to current research, the benefit of learning two languages is that _____.

A. different types of knowledge can be accessed in different languages

B. bilinguals become more aware the origin of words in languages

C. it helps to develop different capabilities of the mind

D. bilinguals develop a greater sense of the value of culture

Part 3. Fill in each of the blanks with one suitable word

Processing information is a quality unique (1) __________ the human brain and one which (2)

__________ human beings from their animal relatives. The way in which different types of data is

processed (3)__________ according to its content. Using sophisticated new technology, scientists are

discovering how the brain conducts (4) __________ upon receiving emotionally charged information.

It strikes us that the two hemispheres of the brain have different functions when (5) __________

to emotional input. The left side decodes the literal meaning, while the right side assesses the tone of the

7

message, something known as prosody. By measuring the velocity of blood flow to brain tissue, scientists

were able to see which areas required more (6) __________ of oxygen and glucose, essential for brain

activity. Increased blood flow implies increased demand, hence increased mental activity in these areas.

When tested subjects focused (7) __________ the meaning of a statement, blood flow increased

significantly to the left side of the brain. When they were asked about the emotion expressed, it was

(8) __________ the left and right sides that received an increase in velocity, implying that meaning and

emotional content are considered together when reacting to a message.

This new understanding is of (9) __________ importance for victims of brain damage caused by

accidents or strokes. It can help explain why some experience difficulties confusing literal meaning with

the emotional content of a message, which can lead to series misunderstandings. By identifying which

areas are (10) __________ responsible for these functions, doctors hope that future research will lead

them to ways to effect repairs.

Part 4: Read the text. Complete the text with sentences A–F from the box below. There is one

sentence you do not need.

A top newspaper recently published a list of what it called the 50 best film adaptations of all time

and in doing so sparked a vigorous debate on whether film adaptations of books can ever be better than

the books themselves.

This is of course a matter that has provided food for discussion for a very long time. [1 .............]

And there are others who maintain that films like The English Patient are far more accessible than the

book and more than do justice to it.

[2 .............] Many insist that it is impossible to attempt to put on the screen the essence of what has

been created on the page. [3 .............] Film gives us just one environment and one interpretation. The

author of a book can go inside the characters’ heads and bring us their thoughts, worries and emotions,

whereas in film we depend on the actor’s ability to convey this in speech and expression. Many people

believe that film adaptations will always fall short and they simply provide a lazy alternative for those

who like to be spoon-fed their entertainment.

Of course, film buffs have a different argument. According to them, film opens up the scope of the

book. [4 .............] Another argument is that film takes a story to a much wider audience than the book and

therefore in the long run more people are touched by it.

But can we really compare the two? [5 .............] We can’t say one is better than the other because we’re

not comparing like with like. There are good books and bad books; there are bad films of good books and

good films of bad books. However, it is probably true to say that seeing a film before reading the book

may impair the enjoyment as it is impossible not to bring preconceptions to the reading. The actor from

the film will forever be fixed as the main character in your mind! Conversely, seeing the film after reading

the book can spoil any enjoyment a surprise ending might have!

Maybe the answer is to forget the bad book if there’s a good film of it and forgo the film if the

book is your favorite!

A They see reading a book as entering a world of the imagination where readers build their own

pictures and make their own interpretations.

B Aren’t film and print completely different media?

C So, why are the ‘purists’ so fervently against adaptations?

D But writers don’t necessarily have a film in mind when they create their books.

E Soundtracks, special effects, good acting and directing all work together to bring the writer’s world

to life and to extend it.

F There are those who insist that classics such as 1984 should never have been adapted for the big

screen.

Part 4: Read the passage and do the tasks that follow.

8

THE TWO HENRY FORDS

1 The public knows two Henry Fords. There is the kindly, benign Ford, a man of rough manners, down-

to-earth humour and sound common-sense: an ordinary man made extraordinary by hard work and

perseverance and his own mechanical and organizational genius. He was eccentric, of course – he detested

cigarettes and allowed no one to smoke in his factories. He pronounced on public issues with the

confidence of ignorance. He even, it is rumoured, set his sights on the Presidency of the United States,

although he was in fact practically illiterate. He once described the word ‘commenced’ as a technical term,

and claimed he seldom read books since ‘they mess up my mind’. His cars brought untold benefits to

untold numbers. His starting of the ‘Five Dollar Day’ in 1914 made him a great benefactor of the working

classes, while the establishment of the Ford Foundation in 1936 made him rank among the world’s

greatest philanthropists.

2 But there was the other Ford: the man who sacrificed partners, colleagues, workers, even family, to his

god of mass production. There is a German word Fordismus which conjures up the epitome of maximum

industrial productivity, where everything yields place to the tyranny of economic efficiency. The Five

Dollar Day and the conveyor belt meant more money for the workers. It also meant insecurity, for skilled

labour could be dispensed with, and the lure of high wages meant an assured pool of willing labour ready

to step into the shoes of any dissatisfied or incompetent worker. Indeed, on the very day that the Five

dollar wage was announced, violence flared at Ford’s factory as men clamoured for work. Ford was also a

bigot, who allowed his personal prejudices to govern his actions and his dealings with men.

3 How can we account for these contradictions? It is partly a question of time, for until the middle of the

1920s Henry Ford was a national folk hero, whose enterprise symbolised the American dream of earthly

rewards for the ordinary self-made man. But as Ford grew older, his natural authoritarian views were

fostered and made dangerous by his wealth. His words were power, and the yes-men around him did as

their master wanted.

4 The personality of Henry Ford continued to dominate the Ford company as he stumbled towards

senility. He became increasingly suspicious of his subordinates, and allowed his only son Edsel (who had

been nominal president of the company since 1918) little independence. Ford’s weaknesses lay in the

organization of his company, if ‘organization’ it can be called. He distrusted ‘experts’ and he avoided as

far as possible specialized executive posit ions. In theory, any job was open to anyone, yet no job was

safe, and many of Ford’s leading executives were sacked. William Knudsen, who eventually became

president of General Motors, left in 1921, during Ford’s highly characteristic reaction to a catastrophic

slump. This was to purge the organization (the office staff was cut by half), cut costs in every way,

produce more at lower prices, and force thousands of cars upon the desperate dealers.

5 In the mid-1920s Ford’s adherence to a single, very basic car became a liability, as the American

public began to look for something more stylish and less obviously mass-produced. Moreover, the very

reliability of the Model T’s posed formidable competition, as millions of second-hand Model T’s came on

the market. In May 1927, with sales slipping alarmingly, Henry Ford, now an old man of sixty-four, made

another momentous decision. The Model T would be scrapped and the whole plant closed for nearly a

year while experiments and machinery for a new car, the ‘Model A’, were undertaken. For a time the new

car was very successful, but Ford’s preeminence was gone for ever. When depression struck in 1929, sales

of the Model A fell away.

6 Henry Ford, once the workers, champion wit h his Five Dollar Day, the man who considered himself

an ordinary workman and hated the capitalists, became himself a byword for exploitation. Not

unnaturally, therefore, among the scores of protest and hunger marches which occurred in the USA in the

midst of the great depression, was one by unemployed people, aimed at Ford’s plant. A procession of

several hundred took place in the spring of 1932. Gunfire started, some from Ford’s own company police

(Ford actually had more police on his payroll than the whole of Detroit Cit y). Four of the marchers were

killed, and twenty were wounded. The tragedy served to confirm Ford’s evil reputation among workers.

9

When Edsel Ford died in 1943, Henry became company president once more. Senility now added to the

dangers of his personality. Not until 1945, at the age of eighty-two, did he finally yield power, and it was

left to his grandson Henry Ford II to revitalise the most famous automobile company in the world.

Choose the correct title (A–I) for each paragraph (1–6).

1. Paragraph 1

2. Paragraph 2

3. Paragraph 3

4. Paragraph 4

5. Paragraph 5

6. Paragraph 6

A. A New Line in Cars

B. Efficiency first

C. Ford at his Best

D. Ford’s Two Faces

E. Hanging onto Power

F. Sacked Workers’ Anger

G. The Company Under Edsel Ford

H. The five Dollar Day

I. Unrest and Bitterness

Read these statements (7-10) and decide whether they are T (True) or F (False)

7. Ford had a mixed reputation because his faults became more pronounced as he aged.

8. In his younger days what mattered most to Ford was becoming President.

9. Ford did not mind sacking ordinary workers because he wanted to make cars cheaply and efficiently.

10. In the 1920s Ford took advantage of dealers who were desperate for his cars.

IV. WRITING (60 points)

Part 1. Read the following extract and use your own words to summarize it. Your summary should be

about 150 words long. You MUST NOT copy the original.

The English were not the first Europeans to land their ships on American soil. The Vikings had

discovered North America in the 11th century. Columbus landed in the Bahamas in 1492 for Spain, and

the French began expeditions to the New World in 1524. But the first English presence in North America

is important because the thirteen English colonies that would later be established eventually became the

country now known as the United States of America.

In April of 1585 Sir Walter Raleigh, under the authority of Queen Elizabeth of England, sent an

expedition of seven ships carrying 600 men, half of them soldiers, to found an English colony in North

America. The colony was to be used to establish an English presence in the New World as well as a base

from which English privateers, or pirates, could attack and plunder Spanish treasure fleets. Raleigh’s

cousin, Sir Richard Grenville, led the expedition.

In July of that year the bulk of the fleet reached a small island off the coast of Virginia that was

called Roanoke. After building a small fort on the north side of the island, the colonists initiated relations

with a Native American tribe that lived on the island, the Aquascogoc. These natives showed little interest

in building relations with the English colonists, and they soon parted company. After this encounter,

however, the English noticed that one of their silver cups had gone missing, and they attributed its

disappearance to the Aquascogoc. Grenville, the English captain, was furious. He believed that the

Aquascogoc had stolen the silver cup. Whether or not this was true, angry exchanges followed and soon

the English burned the Aquascogoc village. The English held their fort against the subsequent attacks of

the natives.

Despite their success in battle, the colonists had a miserable time because they were mainly

soldiers and adventurers, not farmers. They were hungry. They missed the comforts of England, such as

soft feather beds and dainty foods. Also they had expected to find gold and silver on the island, and were

disappointed when they found none. Grenville soon tired of these conditions and set out on his ship to

plunder Spanish treasure fleets and return to England. The colony was gradually abandoned.

10

Part 2: The bar chart shows the results of a survey on whether people in England, Scotland,

Northern Ireland and Wales stayed in hotels, caravans, campsites or self-catering accommodation

when they went on holiday in 2010.

Summarize the information by selecting and reporting the main features, and make comparisons where

relevant. (150 – 200 words)

0

10

20

30

40

50

60

En g l a nd Scotland Wales Northern Ireland

The holiday accommodation chosen by the British in 2010

Self-catering

Caravan

Camping

Hotel

Part 3. Write an essay of about 300 words on the following topic:

Do you agree or disagree with the following statement? Grades (marks) encourage students to learn.

Use specific reasons and examples to support your opinion.

11

SỞ GIÁO DỤC VÀ ĐÀO TẠO

QUẢNG NINH

------------------

HƯỚNG DẪN CHẤM

ĐỀ THI ĐỀ XUẤT

HƯỚNG DẪN CHẤM THI LẬP ĐỘI TUYẾN DỰ THI

CHỌN HỌC SINH GIỎI QUỐC GIATHPT NĂM 2016

---------------------

Môn: Tiếng Anh

Ngày thi: 22/10/2015

(Hướng dẫn chấm này có 04 trang)

I. LISTENING (40 pts)

Part 1 (20 pts)

1. world language 6. determine

2. voyages of discovery 7. inherently

3. two factors 8. objective standards

4. mother tongue 9. complex

5. 70 per cent 10. dependent

Part 2 (10 pts)

11. bigger / more comfortable

12. recent (release) films / recent (release) blockbusters

13. atmosphere more pleasant

14. fire risk reduced

15. offer more / vegetarian meals / two hot meals / interesting / exotic /gourmet food

Part 3 (10 pts)

16. B 17. B 18. D 19. C 20. A

II. LEXICO-GRAMMAR (40 pts)

Part 1 (10 pts)

1. A

2. C

3. B

4. A

5. B

6. A

7. C

8. D

9. B

10. C

11. B

12. B

13. C

14. C

15. B

16. B

17. D

18. A

19. C

20. B

Part 2 (10 pts)

1. barbarism/barbarity 2. innumerate 3. connote 4. lifespan 5. undertake

6. waterproof / water-resistant 7. inflammation 8. refrigerants – refrigeration

9. pseudo-intellectually 10. foreground

Part 3 (10 pts)

1. C à when

6. D à raising

2. A à bright-eyed

7. A à heavily dependent

3. C à only have to examine

8. B à are

4. B à a third

9. D à leisure activity

5. A à Much as

10. A à of as extended works

Part 4. Complete each of the following sentences with a suitable preposition or particle (10 pts).

1. off 2. through 3. in 4. under 5. down

6. away 7. out 8. over 9. at 10. into

III. READING (50 pts)

Part 1 (10 pts)

1. C

2. A

3. D

4. B

5. C

6. A

7. C

8. A

9. D

10. D

12

Part 2 (10 pts)

1. A

2. B

3. D

4. A

5. D

6. D

7. D

8. D

9. B

10. C

Part 3 (10pts)

1. to 2. separates/distinguishes 3. varies 4. itself 5. responding/

reacting 6. supply 7. on 8. both 9. great/ utmost 10. held

Part 4 (10 pts)

1.

F

2.

C

3.

A

4.

E

5.

B

Part 5 (10 pts)

1. C 2. B 3. D 4. E 5. A 6. I

7. T 8. F 9. F 10. T

IV. WRITING (50 pts)

Part 1: (10 pts)

Part 2: (20 pts)

1. Completion: 2 pts

2. Content: 4 pts

- Cover the main information in the chart yet not go into too many details.

- Make general remarks and effective comparisons.

3. Organisation: 3 pts

- The ideas are well organized

- The description is sensibly divided into paragraphs

4. Language: 4 pts

- Use a wide range of vocabulary and structure

- Good grammar

5. Punctuation and spelling: 2 pt

Part 3: (30 pts)

1. Completion: (3 pts)

2. Content: (9 pts)

Provide relevant and convincing ideas about the topic, supported by specific example and/or

reasonable justification.

3. Organisation: (9 pts)

- Ideas are well organized and presented with unity, cohesion and coherence.

4. Language: (7 pts)

- Demonstrate of a wide range of vocabulary and structures.

- Good use of grammatical structures.

- Present the ideas with clarity.

5. Punctuations and spelling. (2 pts)

LISTENING TRANSCRIPT

Part 1

Right now, English is either the dominant or official language in over 60 countries and is spoken in

every continent and across the three major oceans, the Atlantic, Indian and Pacific. It is without any

doubt a world language now but this wasn’t always the case. How did English achieve this

extraordinary wide representation?

Well, English started to move around the world with the early voyages of discovery to the Americas,

Asia and Antipodes, and continued in the 19

th

century when colonies were established in Africa, and

the South Pacific. Then in the 20

th

century, it took a significant further step when many newly

independent states adopted it as an official or semi-official language. Two factors make English

important today; the expansion of British colonial power, which peaked towards the end of the 20

th

century, and the emergence of the US as the dominant economic power of the 20

th

century. It is this

13

which continues to explain the position of English language today-although there are people in Britain

who find this difficult to accept. But if you look at the statistics, you will see that the US contains

nearly 4 times as many English mother tongue speakers as the UK, and although together these two

countries comprise 70 per cent of all English mother tongue speakers in the world, this dominance

gives the Americans a controlling interest in the way the language is likely to develop.

But, as we’ve already seen, Britain and the US are not the only places where English is used as an

important vehicle for communication. In countries where English is used as a second or foreign

language or where English is used simultaneously as a first or second language like Canada for

example or in a country like India, the history of language contact has produced a legacy of language

conflict, it is not easy to determine how and in what situations English is used.

One reason you often find people put forward for English having achieved its worldwide status is it

intrinsic linguistic features. People have claimed that it is inherently a more logical or beautiful

language than others, or it’s easier to pronounce; it’s simpler; or it has a larger vocabulary. This is

simply not true. There are no objective standards of logic or beauty to compare different languages,

and the questions of phonetic, grammatical or lexical complexity are never capable of simple answers.

For example, English do not have many inflectional endings, (this is what most people are thinking of

when they talk about English as grammatically simple), but it has a highly complex syntax. The

number of endings actually has no bearing on whether a language has become worldwide. You just

have to look at the success of Latin or Ancient Greek in the past to see that.

There has always been one language in a particular era which was high in world esteem and probably

always will. What gives a language this particular position is dependent on many factors: political,

economic, social, religious, literary maybe but not necessarily linguistic.

Part 2

Sue: So, have you seen many changes in the type of services you offer?

Julie: Oh, yes. These days the competition is much tougher. I suppose the result is that the consumer,

the traveller, has a much better deal. Well, the seats are bigger, more comfortable than they were 10

years ago - the in-flight entertainment, the films ... now they are all recent release blockbusters. They

weren't l0 years ago. But the two biggest improvements have been to do with the smoking restrictions

and the upgrading of the meals.

Sue: Oh right, tell me about these two changes.

Julie: Yes, the restriction on smoking has had a two-fold benefit. Firstly, the atmosphere is much more

pleasant, and, secondly, the fire risk is greatly reduced. You know, we used to have people dropping

cigarettes, burning the seats. A dreadful fire risk. Can you imagine?

Sue: Terrible.

Julie: I, for one, never understood why anyone was ever allowed to smoke on aeroplanes in the first

place.

Sue: Um ... and the meals?

Julie: Ah, with so many carriers vying for passengers on the same route, you just have to offer more.

Vegetarian meals, choice of two hot meals, interesting, exotic, gourmet food – all this is now

commonplace in our economy class galleys. And for the business and first-class passengers, the food

is as good as in any world-class restaurant - top chefs, great presentation, nutritious ingredients ...

really quite lovely.

Sue: And finally, what advice or words of warning would you give to school leavers considering a

career in this industry?

Julie: That's a difficult question. I'd say think long and hard about why you want to do it. It's not all

glamorous, and it can be very hard work.

Sue: Julie, it's been fascinating talking to you. Thank you for your time. And just before we go, next

week we will be talking to ...

Part 3

Interviewer: Anyone surprised that a 25-year-old children’s book character could suddenly be

transformed into one of TV’s hottest animation properties has nothing on Jack Brown, the creator of

Arthur, that perennially 8-year-old, bespectacled, all too-human aardvark. Jack, welcome to the show.

14

Jack: Thanks Pat. It’s a pleasure to be here. As you said before, no one was more shocked than myself

at Arthur’s longevity and success. This just amazes me, and puzzles me that this unlikely character, I

mean he is an aardvark after all, could have related so strongly to so many kids and their families.

Interviewer: Jack, where did Arthur originate from?

Jack: Actually Arthur has rather humble beginnings. It all started in my son’s bedroom. One evening at

bedtime, my son complained that he was bored with the same old stories every night, and asked me to

make something up. Well I hummed and hawed for a bit, and then just started talking about this

aardvark. Arthur’s personification and personality came about bit by bit, usually as something in my

son’s life promoted it. For example, Arthur got glasses at the same time as my boy found out that he

was short-sighted. The fact that his friend Arthur wore glasses made him feel better.

Interviewer: Can you give us a few details about Arthur’s path to success?

Jack: Of course. In the beginning it looked as if Arthur was attractive and endearing only to my son.

When the first Arthur book “Arthur’s nose” was published in 1976, I made a grand total of $68 in

royalties in the first six months. I was considering packing in Arthur for good, but I had a change of

heart and decided to take him on the road instead. For the next ten years or so, I toured the country,

visiting schools and libraries and reading Arthur stories to children. I think it as the excitement and

enjoyment of the character that made me persevere. I mean, by this time, my 18-year-old son was

pretty fed up with his childhood friend. It would have been strange if he hadn’t been.

Interviewer: So when did Arthur make his big career move and become a TV personality?

Jack: That’s an interesting story in itself. You’ve heard of would-be stars getting big break when they

are spotted by talent scouts when they are waiting at tables or washing cars or whatever? Well, that’s

pretty much what happened to Arthur. One afternoon, I had just finished an appearance and I was

approached by Mary Greenwold, who introduced herself as a producer. She asked if I’d be willing to

work on an animated series starring Arthur. Of course I jumped at the chance and things took off from

there.

Interviewer: Did you have any involvement with the actual series? I mean besides the fact that your

brainchild aardvark was the star performer?

Jack: Definitely. I was there from the very beginning. Actually, Cinar, the production company, was

incredibly open to any suggestions I offered. At our first meeting I said to them that I wanted a really

good theme song that both parents and their kids were going to love. Well I never thought they’d get

somebody as big as Ziggy Marly to do the theme, but they did. The show was first broadcast in 1996

and it zoomed to the top of the preschool rating charts, and it has stayed there ever since.

Interviewer: Have you ever tired of it? I mean…

Jack: I must admit there have been times when I have thought about moving on to other projects. For

example, after we had been doing for a couple of years, we were up to about 65 episodes, we sort of

scratched our heads, and thought “have we done enough? Have we done it all?” I was worried that we

were overdoing a good thing. The company disagreed and hired an independent research team who

came back and basically said we should just keep plugging away. They were adamant that we had a

product that nobody else had.

Interviewer: So is Arthur destined to go down in history?

Jack: Let’s put it this way, in my heart, I feel that Arthur will be there long after I’m gone.

SỞ GIÁO DỤC VÀ ĐÀO TẠO

QUẢNG NINH

------------------

ĐỀ THI DỰ BỊ

KỲ THI LẬP ĐỘI TUYẾN DỰ THI CHỌN HỌC SINH GIỎI

QUỐC GIA THPT NĂM 2016

---------------------

(Đề thi này có 11 trang)

Chữ ký giám thị

Môn: Tiếng Anh

Thời gian làm bài: 180 phút, không kể thời gian giao đề.

SBD:

1:

Ngày thi: Ngày thi thứ nhất

Họ, tên thí sinh:

Số phách

Ngày sinh:

2:

Nơi sinh:

Học sinh trường:

Hội đồng coi thi:

------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------

Điểm bài thi

Bằng số: ……….……….………...........

Bằng chữ:…………………….…………

Họ tên, chữ ký của giám khảo

1: …………………………..…………

2: ………………………….……..……

Số phách

Ghi chú: - Thí sinh trả lời ngay vào bài thi này. Nếu viết sai phải gạch bỏ rồi viết lại. Thí sinh

không được sử dụng bút xóa trong bài thi.

- Thí sinh không được sử dụng tài liệu, kể cả từ điển.

- Giám thị không giải thích gì thêm.

HƯỚNG DẪN THÍ SINH PHẦN NGHE HIỂU:

- Thí sinh có 04 phút (được tính vào thời gian làm bài) để đọc trước câu hỏi. Sau khi phát đề 04

phút giám thị mới bật đài.

- Phần nghe có 04 bài, mỗi bài thí sinh được nghe 02 lần. Hết mỗi bài nghe đều có tín hiệu nhạc.

1

I. LISTENING (5.0 points)

Part 1: Questions 1 – 10 (2.0 points)

Questions 1 – 5: Complete the notes below, write NO MORE THAN THREE WORDS for each

answer.

Transport from Airport to Milton

Example: Distance: (0). 147 miles

Options:

* Car hire: * Airport Shuttle

- don’t want to drive - (4) ____________________ service

* (1) __________________________ - every two hours

- expensive - $35 single, $65 return

* Greyhound bus - needs to (5) __________________

- $15 single, $27.50 return

- direct to the (2) ________________

- long (3) ______________________

Questions 6 – 10: Complete the booking form below, write ONE WORD AND/OR A NUMBER for

each answer.

AIRPORT SHUTTLE BOOKING FORM

To: Milton

Date: (6) ______________________ No. of passengers: One

Bus Time: (7) ______________ pm Type of ticket: Single

Name: Janet (8) __________________

Flight No: (9) _________________ From: London Heathrow

Address in Milton: Vacation Motel,

24, Kitchener Street

Fare: $35

Credit Card No: (Visa) (10) ____________________________________________

Part 2: Questions 11 – 20 (2.0 points)

Questions 11 – 16: Choose the correct letter A, B, or C.

11. PS Camping has been organizing holidays for ___________.

A. 15 years. B. 20 years C. 25 years

12. The company has most camping sites in ___________.

A. France B. Italy C. Switzerland

13. Which organized activity can children do every day of the week?

A. football B. drama C. model making

14. Some areas of the sites have a ‘no noise’ rule after ___________.

A. 9.30 p.m. B. 10.00 p.m. C. 10.30 p.m.

15. The holiday insurance that is offered by PS camping ___________.

A. can be charged on an annual basis.

B. is included in the price of the holiday.

C. must be taken out at the time of booking.

16. Customers who recommend PS camping to friends will receive ___________.

A. a free gift B. an upgrade to a luxury tent C. a discount

2

Questions 17-20:

What does the speaker say about the following items?

Write the correct letter A, B or C next to questions 17-20

A. They are provided in all tents.

B. They are found in central areas of the campsite

C. They are available on request

17. barbecues ___________ 19. cool boxes ___________

18. toys ___________ 20. mops and buckets ___________

Part 3: (1.0 point)

Listen to a radio news bulletin about dogs and decide whether the statements are true (T) or false (F).

21. In French advertisements, dogs are being used in lieu of human models.

______

22. Parisian dog-owners take their pets to beauty treatments.

______

23. The popularity of a film is instrumental in the appetite for dogs and models.

______

24. French people are well-known to be dog-lovers.

______

25. The bulletin is aimed at amusing its audience.

______

II. LEXICO- GRAMMAR (3.0 points)

Part 1: For questions 26-36, choose the correct answer (A, B, C, or D) to each of the following

questions and write your answers in the corresponding numbered boxes. (1.4 points)

26. I am fully prepared for my interview and I am confident that I can answer any questions they may

care to ___________ me.

A. throw at B. drop on C. slide to D. roll to

27. The planes were delayed and the hotel was awful, but ___________ we still had a good time.

A. on the contrary B. for all that C. on top of all that D. by the same token

28. If he tries to ___________ ignorance as his excuse, just tell him we’ve got a copy of the

authorization with his signature on it.

A. defend B. plead C. pretend D. protest

29. John was ___________ something under his breath, but I didn’t catch what he said.

A. whispering B. muttering C. growling D. swallowing

30. Rumors going around, Mr. Long is ___________ Head of the Department.

A. in adjacent to B. in view of C. in line for D. in the proximity

31. Your request for greater financial support has to be ___________ the claim from other departments.

A. banked on B. broken through C. built up D. balanced against

32. Did you see Jonathan this morning? He looked like ___________. It must have been quite

a party last night.

A. death warmed up B. a wet blanket C. a dead duck D. a bear with a sore head

33. I am sorry to have bothered you – I was under the ___________ that you wanted me to call you.

A. mistake B. miscalculation C. misconception D. misapprehension

34. Don’t take it as ___________ that you you’ll be promoted in your job; other colleagues stand a good

chance, too.

A. fixed B. standard C. read D. word

35. I heard ___________ that Jack has been dropped from the basketball team.

A. in the woods B. on the grapevine C. under your feet D. on the olive branch

36. Jane really ___________ it on thick when she told the boss that she was not feeling very well.

Unfortunately for her, he realized immediately that she just wanted the afternoon off.

A. put B. spread C. laid D. painted

For questions 37- 39, choose the letter A, B, C, or D to indicate the word or phrase that is CLOSEST

in meaning to the underlined part of the following sentences.

37. At every faculty meeting, Ms. Volatile always manages to put her foot in her mouth.

3

A. trip over her big feet B. say the wrong thing

C. move rapidly D. fall asleep

38. The expression “out of the frying pan and into the fire” means to go from one dilemma to a worse

one.

A. situation B. predicament C. embarrassment D. aura

39. His new yacht is certainly an ostentatious display of his wealth.

A. showy B. expensive C. large D. ossified

Your answers

26.

27.

28.

29.

30.

31.

32.

33.

34.

35.

36.

37.

38.

39.

Part 2: Use the word given in capitals at the end of some of the lines to form a word that fits in the

space. Write your answers in the corresponding numbered boxes. (1.6 points)

We are (0) ___assured___ by the experts that we are, as a species, designed for

face-to-face communication. But does that really mean having every meeting in

person? Ask the bleary-eyed sales team this question as they struggle (40)

___________ through their weekly teambuilding session and that answer is

unlikely to be in the (41) ___________. Unless you work for a very small business

or have an (42) ___________ high boredom threshold, you doubtless spend more

time sitting in meetings than you want to. Of course, you could always follow

business guru Archie Norman’s example. He liked to express (43) ___________

with customers queuing at the checkout by holding management meetings standing

up.

Is email a realistic (44) ___________? It’s certainly a powerful tool for

disseminating information, but as a meeting substitute it’s seriously flawed. Words

alone can cause trouble. We’re all full of (45) ___________ that can be

unintentionally triggered by others and people are capable of reading anything they

like into an email.

There is also a (46) ___________ for email to be used by people who wish to avoid

‘real’ encounters because they don’t want to be (47) ___________ with any

awkwardness.

SURE

LABOUR

AFFIRM

EXCEPT

SOLID

ALTERNATE

SECURE

TEND

FRONT

Your answers

40.

41.

42.

43.

44.

45.

46.

47.

III. READING (5.0 points)

Part 1: For questions 48-57, fill each of the following numbered blanks with ONE suitable word.

Write your answers in the corresponding numbered boxes. (1.0 point)

After living (48) ___________ the threat of extinction for more than 30 years, the national bird of the

United States has been granted an official reprieve, as the bald eagle and twenty-eight other animal and

plant species have been earmarked (49) ___________ removal from America’s list of endangered

species. The bald eagle, also known as the white-headed sea eagle, took pride of place at the top of a list

of species likely to be taken off the endangered register in the coming years. The proposed “delistings”

are (50) ___________ promoted (51) ___________ the US interior secretary to counter a growing

feeling among Republicans that endangered-species laws do not work. Charges of ineffectiveness have

4

been (52) ___________ against these laws before, but more recently it has even been suggested that the

situation may actually have been (53) ___________ worse by them. The recovery of the bald eagle

follows thirty-one years on the critical list. Its numbers had been (54) ___________ to fewer than five

hundred by the use of pesticides that reacted adversely (55) ___________ its reproductive system. The

number of nesting pairs is now estimated at five thousand. The interior secretary claims that the new list

was a vindication of the legislation under which the eagle, a national symbol (56) ___________

originally from the Indians, and more than a thousand other species were protected. (A spokesperson

denied that it was simply a publicity stunt timed to coincide (57) ___________ the swearing in of the

president for his second term.). Until now, few species have ever been removed from the list. When they

were, it was usually because they had become extinct.

Your answers

48.

49.

50.

51.

52.

53.

54.

55.

56.

57.

Part 2: Read the following passage and answer questions 58-67 (2.0 points)

SO YOU WANT TO BE AN ACTOR?

A.

If you tell someone that you want to make a career as an actor, you can be sure that within two

minutes the word “risky” will come up. And, of course, acting is a very risky career – let there be

more mistakes about that. The supply of actors is far greater than the demand for them.

B.

Once you choose to become an actor, many people who you thought were your closest friends will

tell you “You’re crazy”, though some may react quite differently. No two people will give you the

same advice. [A]

C.

There are no easy ways of getting there – no written examinations to pass, and no absolute

guarantee that when you have successfully completed your training you will automatically make

your way in the profession. It’s all a matter of luck plus talent. Yet there is a demand for new faces

and new talent, and there is always the prospect of excitement, glamour and the occasional rich

reward.

D.

I have frequently been asked to define this magical thing called talent, which everyone is looking

out for. I believe it is best described as natural skill plus imagination – the latter being the most

difficult quality to access. And it has a lot to do with the person’s courage and their belief in what

they are doing and the way they are putting it across.

E.

Where does the desire to act come from? It is often very difficult to put into words your own

reasons for wanting to act. Certainly, in the theatre the significant thing is that moment of contact

between the actor on the stage and a particular audience. And making this brief contact is central

to all acting, wherever it takes place – it is what drives all actors to act.

F.

If you ask actors how they have done well in the profession, the response will most likely be a

shrug. They will know certain things about themselves and aspects of their own technique and the

techniques of others. But they will take nothing for granted, because they know that they are only

as good as their current job, and that their fame may not continue. [B]

G.

Disappointment is the greatest enemy of the actor. Last month you may have been out of work,

selling clothes or waitressing. Suddenly you are asked to audition for a part, but however much

you want the job, the truth is that it may deny you. So actors tend not to talk about their chances.

They come up with ways of protecting themselves against the stress of competing for a part and

the possibility of rejection. [C]

5

H.

Nobody likes being rejected. And remember that the possibility is there from the very first moment

you start going in for parts professionally. You are saying that you are available, willing and

hopefully, talented enough for the job. And, in many ways, it’s up to you, for if you don’t care

enough, no one will care for you. [D]

For questions 58-65, choose the correct heading for paragraphs A-H from the list of headings below.

Write the correct numbers (i-viii) in the corresponding numbered boxes.

i.

Dealing with unpleasant feelings

ii.

What lies behind the motive?

iii.

Your own responsibility

iv.

A risky job

v.

The road to success

vi.

Reactions toward the job

vii.

Uncertainties about the future

viii.

Essential qualities

Your answers

58. Paragraph A______

59. Paragraph B______

60. Paragraph C______

61. Paragraph D______

62. Paragraph E______

63. Paragraph F______

64. Paragraph G______

65. Paragraph H______

For questions 66-71, choose the correct option A, B, C or D which best completes the sentence or

answers the question. Write your answers in the corresponding numbered boxes.

66. The writer says acting is a risky career because___________.

A. the chance for success may be low B. there are few opportunities to act

C. actors are higher in demand than in supply D. the family members may not support your choice

67. According to the writer, the chance for success will come if___________.

A. actors are new faces B. actors are rich enough to start their career

C. actors are lucky and skillful in the job D. actors are full of energy and money

68. The actors believe their fame___________.

A. depends on how well they do their job B. may not last long

C. depends on their chance for success D. is subject to how talented they are

69. A shrug is a signal___________.

A. to indicate you are sure about something B. to say you disagree with something

C. to indicate you take something serious D. to indicate you do not know something for sure

70. In which of the following position should the sentence “But it is a very personal choice you are

making.” be placed?

A. [A] B. [B] C. [C] D. [D]

71. What does it mean by the phrase “to take nothing for granted” in paragraph 6?

A. to believe things are getting worse

B. to worry about anything that comes up

C. to show appreciation for everything that comes up

D. to accept everything as a fact

Your answers

66.

67.

68.

69.

70.

71.

For questions 72-77, complete the sentences below by writing NO MORE THAN THREE WORDS

taken from the reading passage in the corresponding numbered boxes.

72. Every actor cares about the ___________ between himself and a group of audience.

73. Talent is characterized as a combination of skills and ___________.

6

74. What the actor has to deal with very often is the sense of ___________ - chances for a part are

narrow no matter how much you like the part.

75. If actors become famous, it is very likely that they will be ___________ as a return.

76. The ___________ is very likely to happen as soon as you start your profession and it is very

stressful.

77. The ___________ in what they are doing is a contributory factor to success.

Your answers

72.

73.

74.

75.

76.

77.

Part 3: Read the text and answer questions 78-87. (1.0 point)

PLEASE HOLD THE LINE

Nearly all of us know what it’s like to be put on “musical hold”. Call almost any customer service

number, and you can expect to hear at least a few bars of boring elevator music before an operator picks

up. The question is: do you hang up or do you keep holding? That may depend on your gender and what

type of music is playing, according to research reported by University of Cincinati Associate Professor

of Marketing, James Kellaris.

Kellaris, who has studied the effects of music on consumers for more than 12 years, teamed with Sigma

Research management Group to evaluate the effects of “hold music” for a company that operates a

customer service line.

The researchers tested your types of “on-hold” music with 71 of the company’s clients, 30 of them were

women. Light jazz, classical, rock and the company’s current format of adult alternative (a mix of

contemporary styles) were all tested. The sample included individual consumers, small business and

large business segments. Participants were asked to imagine calling a customer assistance line and being

placed on hold. They were then exposed to “on-hold” music via head-sets and asked to estimate how

long it played. Their reactions and comments were also solicited and quantified by the researchers.

Service providers, of course don’t want you to have to wait on hold, but if you do, they want it to be a

pleasant experience for you. But Kellaris’ conclusions may hold some distressing news for companies.

No matter what music was played, the time spent “on hold” was generally overestimated. The actual

wait in the study was 7 minutes and 6 seconds.

He did find some good news for the client who hired him. The kind of music they’re playing now,

alternative, is probably their best choice. Two things made it a good choice. First, it did not produce

significantly more positive or negative reactions in people. Second, males and females were less

polarized in their reactions to this type of music.

Kellaris’ other findings, however, make the state of musical hold a little less firm: time spent “on-hold”

seemed slightly shorter when light jazz was played, but the effect of music format differed for men and

women. Among the males, the wait seemed shortest when classical music was played. Among the

females, the wait seemed longest when classical music was played. This may be related to differences in

attention levels and musical preference.

In general, classical music evoked the most positive reactions among males: light jazz evoked the most

positive reactions (and shortest waiting time estimate) among females. Rock was the least preferred

across both gender groups and produced the longest waiting time estimates. “The rock music’s driving

beat kind aggravates people calling customer assistance with a problem,” said Kellaris. “The more

positive the reaction to the music, the shorter the waiting time seemed to be. So maybe time does tend to

fly when you’re having fun, even if you are on musical hold,” Kellaris joked.

7

But unfortunately for companies operating on-hold lines, men and women have different ideas about

what music is “fun”. “The possible solution”, Kellaris joked, “might be for the recorded message to say:

if you are a male, please press one: if you are a female, please press two. If you are in a bad mood,

please hang up and try later.”

For questions 78-82, choose the type of music from the list A-D below which corresponds to the

findings of the study.

Types of music

A. light jazz

B. alternative

C. classical

D. rock

78. music preferred by men

79. longest waiting time estimate (both sexes)

80. music to avoid on telephone

81. music to use if clients are mostly women

82. best choice of “on-hold” music overall

Your answers

78.

79.

80.

81.

82.

For questions 83-87, write T(True), F(False), and NG(Not given) in the corresponding numbered

boxes.

TRUE (T)

FALSE (F)

NOT GIVEN (NG)

If the statement agrees with the claims of the writer.

If the statement contradicts the writer.

If it is impossible to say what the writer thinks about this.

83. Business want to minimize the time spent “on-hold”.

84. The research sample consisted of real clients of a company.

85. The sample consisted of equal numbers of men and women.

86. Advertising is considered a poor alternative to “hold-on” music.

87. The consumer service company surveyed was playing classical music.

Your answers

83.

84.

85.

86.

87.

Part 4: Read the passage and answer questions 88-97. (1.0 point)

COMPUTER GENERATED POP STAR

A.

Young music fans might soon find themselves buying records by a new star called CyberGirl.

CyberGirl is blonde and very attractive. She has the looks of a supermodel, and Fashion magazine

has booked her for their next issue. She has a great voice and looks like a typical star in many

ways, but at the same time she is fundamentally different. She is computer generated and doesn’t

really exist. Or does she?

B.

The company behind CyberGirl, Anfield Promotion, has constructed a website for her, and is

working on a pop video for her first single, which will be released next summer. Why is the

response to this virtual pop star so astonishing? CyberGirl has been successfully promoted as an

ordinary sixteen-year-old teenage singer. Research has established that idols must have the same

strengths and weakness as their fans. Teenagers, especially girls, have identified themselves with

8

CyberGirl who dyes her hair and worries about fashion.

C.

Over the last few months, CyberGirl website has been visited by over 100,000 teenagers. Fans can

email questions and receive answers from CyberGirl herself. When asked if she is real, CyberGirl

replies enigmatically that she is as real as any of the teen groups around these days, adding

defiantly that at least she is always there for her fans. This gives virtual pop stars a competitive

advantage over mass-marketed artists or boy bands who have very little time contact with their

fans.

D.

CyberGirl may not be real, but her creators deny that she is merely a cheap alternative to a real

singer. In fact, Tommy Tomlinson of Anfield Promotions is convinced that CyberGirl has a great

many advantages over flesh-and-blood stars. “She’s cool and will never do embarrassing things.”

he says. “Virtual pop stars cannot disagree with their managers because they have different ideas

about songs, styles and marketing policies. With computer generated pop stars, there will be no

arguments between stars, managers and their companies.”

E.

Could CyberGirl ever go on tour? “Sure she could,” replies Tomlinson. “We’d just project her

image on a huge screen, maybe with a hologram image of her own stage.” He likens the prospect

of a cyber creation going on tour to watching a film in a cinema: “You know the people you see on

that screen aren’t real- it’s just a trick done with lights- but you still get moved by the experience

of watching if it’s done well.”

F.

A French male cyberstar, Cy-lui, has enjoyed considerable success, with hundreds of emails each

day from teenager girls. The fans want to know whether he gets hungry in outer space, and what

his favorite cyberfood is. Cy-lui has also had an amazing number of marriage proposals. “Fans

will treat artificial pop stars as real pop stars provided they like their music,” says Tomlinson. “It’s

encouraging that if fans like the music, they will ignore the fact that the artist is not real.”

G.

Sarah Underwood, Professor of Media Studies at Cumbia University, says we have nothing to

worry about. “It’s just like the soap opera obsession that has been around for about 60 years,” she

says. “Viewers identify so closely with the characters in a soap opera that if one of them is in

hospital, an incredible number of people send flowers and chocolates to the TV studios. The

people who that aren’t crazy – they are just getting a bit carried away. The same applies to fans of

artificial artists.”

H.

Rob Cooper of the music magazine Musical World has no time for this latest idea: It’s just another

way for business people to make money from teenagers, and this time the teenagers aren’t even

idolizing a real person. It’s utterly pathetic, sad and a bit ridiculous, but I’m afraid it will probably

work. Young people can be really crazy if they’re convinced something is fashionable.

For questions 88-97, identify in which paragraph the following information is located. Some

information can appear in more than one paragraph. Write your answers in the corresponding

numbered boxes.

Paragraph

88. The age of the CyberGirl.

89. The techniques to authenticate CyberGirl in front of the audience.

90. An example of a successful cyberstar.

91. Going to the cinema is less interesting than watching the CyberGirl in

concert

92. The number of people who logged in CyberGirl website.

93. A comparison between CyberGirl and a similar phenomenon.

____________

9

94. The similarities between CyberGirl and her fans.

95. Teenagers get crazy if they like the music of the artificial pop star.

96. The as-a-model appearance of the CyberGirl.

97. The differences of CyberGirl from other real singers.

____________

Your answers

88.

89.

90.

91.

92.

93.

94.

95.

96.

97.

IV. WRITING (5.0 points)

Part 1: Read the following extract and use your own words to summarize it (in about 80 words). You

MUST NOT copy or re-write the original. (1.0 point)

Stems are the structures that support a plant’s buds and leaves, carrying nutrients to all parts of the plant.

Water and carbohydrates (sugar) are transported through the stem’s interior tissues, which are typically

arranged in a concentric ring formation.

The outermost ring, called the phloem, is where carbohydrates are transported from the leaves to the

roots. This occurs through a process called the pressure-flow mechanism. A movement called

translocation transports nutrients from the source, where carbohydrates are made and stored in the plant,

to the sink, where they are needed. Sinks can be roots, flowers, fruits, stems, and young leaves. As

carbohydrates enter the phloem from the leaves, water is transported in by osmosis, which causes

pressure to build up, pushing the nutrients downward toward the roots.

Conversely, in the innermost ring of the stem, called the xylem, water moves in an upward direction

according to the cohesion-tension theory. Since water molecules attract each other (a property called

cohesion), more water is pulled up from the plant’s root system toward the leaves. This movement

causes tension within the stem’s xylem, creating continuous, thin columns of water that extend through

the stem. As water evaporates within the plant, the tension becomes greater, moving the water molecules

up the plant. Additional water from the soil enters through the roots to sustain the process and the life of

the plant.

…………………………………………………………………………………

….………………………………………………………………………………

…………………………………………………………………………………

….………………………………………………………………………………

…………………………………………………………………………………

10

Part 2: The chart below shows the amount of time an average student spends on various subjects in

certain years from 1995 to 2007. Study the chart carefully and comment on the proportion of time

they spend on these subjects every two weeks. (1.5 points)

Hour

0

5

10

15

20

25

30

35

40

45

50

1995 2000 2005 2007

Natural

sciences

English

Social

sciences

…………………………………………………………………………………

….………………………………………………………………………………

…………………………………………………………………………………

….………………………………………………………………………………

…………………………………………………………………………………

11

Part 3: Write an essay of about 350 words on the following topic: (2.5 points)

As mass communication and transport continue to grow, societies are becoming more and more

alike leading to a phenomenon known as globalization. Some people fear that globalization will

inevitably lead to the total loss of cultural identity. To what extent do you agree or disagree with this

statement?

Give reasons for your answer, and include any relevant examples from your knowledge or experience.

…………………………………………………………………………………

….………………………………………………………………………………

…………………………………………………………………………………

---------------------------THE END----------------------------------

SỞ GIÁO DỤC VÀ ĐÀO TẠO

QUẢNG NINH

------------------

ĐỀ THI DỰ BỊ

KỲ THI LẬP ĐỘI TUYẾN DỰ THI CHỌN HỌC SINH

GIỎI QUỐC GIA THPT NĂM 2016

--------------------

(PHẦN THI NÓI)

Môn: Tiếng Anh

Ngày thi thứ hai

Ghi chú:

- Mỗi thí sinh chuẩn bị trong 05 phút, nói ghi âm trong 05 phút.

- Trước khi thực hiện phần nói, thí sinh cần nói rõ số câu hỏi và nội dung câu hỏi bằng tiếng

Anh.

Question 1: In today’s competitive world, many families find it necessary for both

parents to go out to work. While some say the children in these families benefit from

the traditional income, others feel they lack support because of their parents’

absence. Discuss both these views and give your own opinion. Use specific reasons

and examples to support your opinion.

____________THE END___________

SỞ GIÁO DỤC VÀ ĐÀO TẠO

QUẢNG NINH

------------------

ĐỀ THI DỰ BỊ

KỲ THI LẬP ĐỘI TUYẾN DỰ THI CHỌN HỌC SINH

GIỎI QUỐC GIA THPT NĂM 2016

--------------------

(PHẦN THI NÓI)

Môn: Tiếng Anh

Ngày thi thứ hai

Ghi chú:

- Mỗi thí sinh chuẩn bị trong 05 phút, nói ghi âm trong 05 phút.

- Trước khi thực hiện phần nói, thí sinh cần nói rõ số câu hỏi và nội dung câu hỏi bằng tiếng

Anh.

Question 2:

Do you agree or disagree with the following statement? When people succeed it is

because of hard work. Luck has nothing to do with success.

Use specific reasons and examples to support your opinion.

____________THE END___________

SỞ GIÁO DỤC VÀ ĐÀO TẠO

QUẢNG NINH

------------------

ĐỀ THI DỰ BỊ

KỲ THI LẬP ĐỘI TUYẾN DỰ THI CHỌN HỌC SINH

GIỎI QUỐC GIA THPT NĂM 2016

--------------------

(PHẦN THI NÓI)

Môn: Tiếng Anh

Ngày thi thứ hai

Ghi chú:

- Mỗi thí sinh chuẩn bị trong 05 phút, nói ghi âm trong 05 phút.

- Trước khi thực hiện phần nói, thí sinh cần nói rõ số câu hỏi và nội dung câu hỏi bằng tiếng

Anh.

Question 3:

“Today water is considered to be like blood in the body as the water resources on

earth are becoming less and less”.

What people should and should not do in order to conserve fresh water?

Use specific reasons and examples to support your opinion.

____________THE END___________

SỞ GIÁO DỤC VÀ ĐÀO TẠO

QUẢNG NINH

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ĐỀ THI DỰ BỊ

KỲ THI LẬP ĐỘI TUYẾN DỰ THI CHỌN HỌC SINH

GIỎI QUỐC GIA THPT NĂM 2016

--------------------

(PHẦN THI NÓI)

Môn: Tiếng Anh

Ngày thi thứ hai

Ghi chú:

- Mỗi thí sinh chuẩn bị trong 05 phút, nói ghi âm trong 05 phút.

- Trước khi thực hiện phần nói, thí sinh cần nói rõ số câu hỏi và nội dung câu hỏi bằng tiếng

Anh.

Question 4: Do you agree or disagree with the following statement? Children should

be required to help with household tasks as soon as they are able to do so.

Use specific reasons and examples to support your opinion.

____________THE END___________

SỞ GIÁO DỤC VÀ ĐÀO TẠO

QUẢNG NINH

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ĐỀ THI DỰ BỊ

KỲ THI LẬP ĐỘI TUYẾN DỰ THI CHỌN HỌC SINH

GIỎI QUỐC GIA THPT NĂM 2016

--------------------

(PHẦN THI NÓI)

Môn: Tiếng Anh

Ngày thi thứ hai

Ghi chú:

- Mỗi thí sinh chuẩn bị trong 05 phút, nói ghi âm trong 05 phút.

- Trước khi thực hiện phần nói, thí sinh cần nói rõ số câu hỏi và nội dung câu hỏi bằng tiếng

Anh.

Question 5: While the Ministry of Education and Training places high hopes on the

new assessment method using comments instead of marks, primary schools have

voiced their opposition. What is your opinion?

Use specific reasons and examples to support your answer.

____________THE END___________

SỞ GIÁO DỤC VÀ ĐÀO TẠO

QUẢNG NINH

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ĐỀ THI DỰ BỊ

KỲ THI LẬP ĐỘI TUYẾN DỰ THI CHỌN HỌC SINH

GIỎI QUỐC GIA THPT NĂM 2016

--------------------

(PHẦN THI NÓI)

Môn: Tiếng Anh

Ngày thi thứ hai

Ghi chú:

- Mỗi thí sinh chuẩn bị trong 05 phút, nói ghi âm trong 05 phút.

- Trước khi thực hiện phần nói, thí sinh cần nói rõ số câu hỏi và nội dung câu hỏi bằng tiếng

Anh.

Question 6: In developed country world, average expectancy is increasing. What

problems will this cause for individuals and society? Suggest some measures that could be

taken to reduce the impact of ageing populations. Use specific reasons and examples to

support your answer.

______________THE END___________

SỞ GIÁO DỤC VÀ ĐÀO TẠO

QUẢNG NINH

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ĐỀ THI DỰ BỊ

KỲ THI LẬP ĐỘI TUYẾN DỰ THI CHỌN HỌC SINH

GIỎI QUỐC GIA THPT NĂM 2016

--------------------

(PHẦN THI NÓI)

Môn: Tiếng Anh

Ngày thi thứ hai

Ghi chú:

- Mỗi thí sinh chuẩn bị trong 05 phút, nói ghi âm trong 05 phút.

- Trước khi thực hiện phần nói, thí sinh cần nói rõ số câu hỏi và nội dung câu hỏi bằng tiếng

Anh.

Question 7: “Every country has poor people and different ways of dealing with the

poor.” What are some of the reasons for the world poverty? What can we do to help

the poor? Use specific reasons and examples to support your answer.

____________THE END___________

SỞ GIÁO DỤC VÀ ĐÀO TẠO

QUẢNG NINH

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ĐỀ THI DỰ BỊ

KỲ THI LẬP ĐỘI TUYẾN DỰ THI CHỌN HỌC SINH

GIỎI QUỐC GIA THPT NĂM 2016

--------------------

(PHẦN THI NÓI)

Môn: Tiếng Anh

Ngày thi thứ hai

Ghi chú:

- Mỗi thí sinh chuẩn bị trong 05 phút, nói ghi âm trong 05 phút.

- Trước khi thực hiện phần nói, thí sinh cần nói rõ số câu hỏi và nội dung câu hỏi bằng tiếng

Anh.

Question 8: Do you agree or disagree with the following statement? “Participating

actively in volunteer work makes you a responsible person to the community.”

Use specific reasons and examples to support your opinion.

____________THE END___________

SỞ GIÁO DỤC VÀ ĐÀO TẠO

QUẢNG NINH

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ĐỀ THI DỰ BỊ

KỲ THI LẬP ĐỘI TUYẾN DỰ THI CHỌN HỌC SINH

GIỎI QUỐC GIA THPT NĂM 2016

--------------------

(PHẦN THI NÓI)

Môn: Tiếng Anh

Ngày thi thứ hai

Ghi chú:

- Mỗi thí sinh chuẩn bị trong 05 phút, nói ghi âm trong 05 phút.

- Trước khi thực hiện phần nói, thí sinh cần nói rõ số câu hỏi và nội dung câu hỏi bằng tiếng

Anh.

Question 9:

Some people say that the Internet provides people with a lot of valuable

information. Others think access to so much information creates problems. Which

view do you agree with? Use specific reasons and examples to support your opinion.

______________THE END___________

SỞ GIÁO DỤC VÀ ĐÀO TẠO

QUẢNG NINH

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ĐỀ THI DỰ BỊ

KỲ THI LẬP ĐỘI TUYẾN DỰ THI CHỌN HỌC SINH

GIỎI QUỐC GIA THPT NĂM 2016

--------------------

(PHẦN THI NÓI)

Môn: Tiếng Anh

Ngày thi thứ hai

Ghi chú:

- Mỗi thí sinh chuẩn bị trong 05 phút, nói ghi âm trong 05 phút.

- Trước khi thực hiện phần nói, thí sinh cần nói rõ số câu hỏi và nội dung câu hỏi bằng tiếng

Anh.

Question 10: Some people believe that history has little to tell us. Other people

believe that people must have knowledge of history in order to understand the

present. Which view do you agree with? Use specific reasons and examples to

support your opinion.

______________THE END__________________

SỞ GIÁO DỤC VÀ ĐÀO TẠO

QUẢNG NINH

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ĐỀ THI DỰ BỊ

KỲ THI LẬP ĐỘI TUYẾN DỰ THI CHỌN HỌC SINH

GIỎI QUỐC GIA THPT NĂM 2016

--------------------

(PHẦN THI NÓI)

Môn: Tiếng Anh

Ngày thi thứ hai

Ghi chú:

- Mỗi thí sinh chuẩn bị trong 05 phút, nói ghi âm trong 05 phút.

- Trước khi thực hiện phần nói, thí sinh cần nói rõ số câu hỏi và nội dung câu hỏi bằng tiếng

Anh.

Question 11: Many people have a close relationship with their pets. These people

treat their birds, cats, or other animals as members of their family. In your opinion,

are such relationships good? Why or why not? Use specific reasons and examples to

support your answer.

______________THE END__________________

SỞ GIÁO DỤC VÀ ĐÀO TẠO

QUẢNG NINH

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ĐỀ THI DỰ BỊ

KỲ THI LẬP ĐỘI TUYẾN DỰ THI CHỌN HỌC SINH

GIỎI QUỐC GIA THPT NĂM 2016

--------------------

(PHẦN THI NÓI)

Môn: Tiếng Anh

Ngày thi thứ hai

Ghi chú:

- Mỗi thí sinh chuẩn bị trong 05 phút, nói ghi âm trong 05 phút.

- Trước khi thực hiện phần nói, thí sinh cần nói rõ số câu hỏi và nội dung câu hỏi bằng tiếng

Anh.

Question 12: People do many different things to stay healthy. What do you do

for good health? Use specific reasons and examples to support your answer.

______THE END______

SỞ GIÁO DỤC VÀ ĐÀO TẠO

QUẢNG NINH

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ĐỀ THI DỰ BỊ

KỲ THI LẬP ĐỘI TUYẾN DỰ THI CHỌN HỌC SINH

GIỎI QUỐC GIA THPT NĂM 2016

--------------------

(PHẦN THI NÓI)

Môn: Tiếng Anh

Ngày thi thứ hai

Ghi chú:

- Mỗi thí sinh chuẩn bị trong 05 phút, nói ghi âm trong 05 phút.

- Trước khi thực hiện phần nói, thí sinh cần nói rõ số câu hỏi và nội dung câu hỏi bằng tiếng

Anh.

Question 13: Some people think that the family is the most important influence

on teenagers. Other people think that friends are the most important influence

on teenagers. Which view do you agree with? Use specific reasons and

examples to support your position.

______THE END______

SỞ GIÁO DỤC VÀ ĐÀO TẠO

QUẢNG NINH

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ĐỀ THI DỰ BỊ

KỲ THI LẬP ĐỘI TUYẾN DỰ THI CHỌN HỌC SINH

GIỎI QUỐC GIA THPT NĂM 2016

--------------------

(PHẦN THI NÓI)

Môn: Tiếng Anh

Ngày thi thứ hai

Ghi chú:

- Mỗi thí sinh chuẩn bị trong 05 phút, nói ghi âm trong 05 phút.

- Trước khi thực hiện phần nói, thí sinh cần nói rõ số câu hỏi và nội dung câu hỏi bằng tiếng

Anh.

Question 14: Should parents use corporal punishment or loving guidance in

educating their children? Use specific reasons and examples to support your

opinion.

______THE END______

SỞ GIÁO DỤC VÀ ĐÀO TẠO

QUẢNG NINH

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ĐỀ THI DỰ BỊ

KỲ THI LẬP ĐỘI TUYẾN DỰ THI CHỌN HỌC SINH

GIỎI QUỐC GIA THPT NĂM 2016

--------------------

(PHẦN THI NÓI)

Môn: Tiếng Anh

Ngày thi thứ hai

Ghi chú:

- Mỗi thí sinh chuẩn bị trong 05 phút, nói ghi âm trong 05 phút.

- Trước khi thực hiện phần nói, thí sinh cần nói rõ số câu hỏi và nội dung câu hỏi bằng tiếng

Anh.

Question 15: People have different ways of escaping the stress and difficulties

of modern life. Some read; some exercise; others work in their gardens. What

do you think are the best ways of reducing stress? Use specific details and

examples in your answer.

______THE END______

1

SỞ GIÁO DỤC VÀ ĐÀO TẠO

QUẢNG NINH

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ĐỀ THI DỰ BỊ

HƯỚNG DẪN CHẤM THI LẬP ĐỘI TUYẾN DỰ THI

CHỌN HỌC SINH GIỎI QUỐC GIATHPT NĂM 2016

---------------------

Môn: Tiếng Anh

Ngày thi: Ngày thi thứ nhất

(Hướng dẫn chấm này có 02 trang)

I. LISTENING (5.0 điểm)

Part 1: 2.0 điểm, mỗi câu trả lời đúng được 0.2 điểm.

1. taxi, cab

2. City center

3. wait

4. door to door

5. reserve (a seat)

6. (the) 17

th

(of) October

7. 12.30

8. Thomson

9. AC 936

10. 3303 8450 20456837

Part 2: 2.0 điểm, mỗi câu trả lời đúng được 0.2 điểm.

11. B

12. A

13. B

14. C

15. C

16. A

17. C

18. A

19. C

20. B

Part 3: 1.0 điểm, mỗi câu trả lời đúng được 0.2 điểm.

1. F

2. T

3. T

4. F

5. T

II. LEXICO- GRAMMAR (3.0 điểm)

Part 1: 1.4 điểm, mỗi câu trả lời đúng được 0.1 điểm

26. A

27. D

28. B

29. B

30. C

31. D

32. A

33. D

34. C

35. B

36. C

37. B

38. B

39. A

Part 2: 1.6 điểm, mỗi câu trả lời đúng được 0.2 điểm

40. laboriously

41. affirmative

42. exceptionally

43. solidarity

44. alternative

45. insecurity / insecurities

46. tendency

47. confronted

III. READING (5.0 điểm)

Part 1: 1.0 điểm, mỗi câu trả lời đúng được 0.1 điểm

48. under

49. for

50. being

51. by

52. levelled

53. made

54. reduced

55. with

56. taken/borrowed

57. with

Part 2: 2.0 điểm, mỗi câu trả lời đúng được 0.1 điểm

58. iv

59. vi

60. v

61. viii

62. ii

63. vii

64. i

65. iii

66. B

67. C

68. C

69. D

70. A

71. C

72. moment of contact

73. imagination

74. disappointment

75. rich

76. possibility of rejection

77. belief

Part 3: 1.0 điểm, mỗi câu trả lời đúng được 0.1 điểm

78. C

79.D

80.D

81.A

82.B

83.T

84.T

85.F

86.NG

87.F

Part 4: 1.0 điểm, mỗi câu trả lời đúng được 0.1 điểm

88. B

89. E

90. F

91. E

92. C

93. G

94. B

95. H

96. A

97. C, D

IV. WRITING (5.0 điểm)

Part 1: 1 điểm

The summary should be about 80 words long. The candidates MUST NOT copy the original.

2

1. Completion: 0.1 điểm

- The writing is complete.

- Neither too long nor too short.

2. Content: 0.4 điểm

-Cover the main information in the extract yet not go into too much

detail.

- The summary should include the following information:

+ Stems are the support structure for a plant’s buds and leaves.

+ Concentric rings within the stem transport nutrients downward from

the source to the plant’s roots through the pressure-flow mechanism.

+ Water evaporates from the leaves, which attracts more water

molecules upward from the roots.

+ This process creates tension in the interior of the stem for

continuous water movement. More water enters through the roots

from the soil, sustaining the life of the plant.

3. Organisation: 0.1 điểm

- The ideas are well-organized and developed with unity, cohesion and

coherence.

4. Language: 0.3 điểm

- Use a wide range of vocabulary and structure.

- Good grammar.

5. Punctuation and spelling:

0.1 điểm

- Intelligible handwriting.

- Good punctuation and no spelling mistakes.

Part 2: 1.5 điểm

1. Completion: 0.1 điểm

- The writing is complete.

- The writing is neither too long nor too short.

2. Content: 0.5 điểm

- Cover the main information of the two graphs yet not go into too

much detail.

- Make general remarks and effective comparisons.

3. Organization: 0.4 điểm

- The ideas are well-organized.

- The description is sensibly divided into paragraphs.

4. Language: 0.4 điểm

- Use a wide range of vocabulary and structures.

- Good use and control of grammatical structures.

5. Handwriting, punctuation

and spelling: 0.1 điểm

- Intelligible handwriting.

- Good punctuation and no spelling mistakes.

Part 3: 2.5 điểm

1. Completion: 0.2 điểm

- The writing is complete.

- The writing is neither too long nor too short.

2. Content: 0.8 điểm

- Provide relevant and convincing ideas about the topic.

- Supported by specific example and/or reasonable justifications.

3. Organization: 0.7 điểm

- Present the right form of an essay.

- Ideas are well organized and presented with unity, cohesion and

coherence.

4. Language: 0.6 điểm

- Use a wide range of vocabulary and structures.

- Good use and control of grammatical structures.

5. Handwriting, punctuation

and spelling: 0.2 điểm

- Intelligible handwriting.

- Good punctuation and no spelling mistakes.

TỔNG SỐ: 18,0 ĐIỂM (không làm tròn số)

THE END

page 1/14

SỞ GIÁO DỤC VÀ ĐÀO TẠO

THỪA THIÊN HUẾ

ĐỀ CHÍNH THỨC

(ĐỀ THI CÓ 14 TRANG)

KỲ THI CHỌN HỌC SINH GIỎI TỈNH

LỚP 12 THPT NĂM HỌC 2015-2016

Môn: TIẾNG ANH (PHỔ THÔNG)

Thời gian làm bài:180 phút (Không kể thời gian giao đề)

Điểm (bằng số)

Điểm (bằng chữ)

Họ tên, chữ ký

Mã phách

Giám khảo 1:

Giám khảo 2:

Kết quả điểm

Câu I:……….………. điểm

Câu II:

Câu III:

Câu IV:

Cộng:

I. LISTENING (50/200 points)

Section 1: You will hear a conversation between a student and a

saleswoman. Listen and choose the correct answer for each question.

You will hear the recording twice. (2.5 x 10 = 25 points)

QUESTIONS 1-4

Circle the correct answer from the choices given.

1.

Where is Mr. Garcia living?

A.

Private accommodation.

B.

With friends.

C.

Self-catering university accommodation.

D.

Catered university accommodation.

2.

Why doesn't he like his accommodation?

A. The food is not good. B. The meals are at inconvenient times.

C. He doesn't like his cohabitants. D. It's on the university campus.

3.

Where are Mr. Garcia and his friends from?

A.

Costa Rica, Spain, Bolivia.

B.

Ecuador, Spain, Mexico.

C.

Mexico, Columbia, Spain.

D.

Spain, Brazil, Argentina.

4.

What kind of place are they hoping to find?

A. A house with a garden next to the university. B. A flat or a house next to the university.

C. A house not too near to the university. D. A flat or a house not too near to the university.

QUESTIONS 5-7

Complete the details below using NO MORE THAN THREE WORDS AND

/ OR NUMBERS for each gap.

page 2/14

Name

Manuel Garcia

Current address

5. __________

Telephone number

0453672348

E-mail address

6. __________

Age

19

Gender

Male

Smoker?

No

Budgeted monthly rent

7. £ _________

QUESTIONS 8-10

Circle the correct answer from the choices given.

8.

Why can Mr. Garcia expect a small reduction in rent?

A.

The salesman like him.

B.

There is no contract.

C.

July is a good month to move in. D. He and his friends will stay all year.

9. How much is the accommodation agency's fee for Mr. Garcia?

A . 1/2 month's rent. B. 1 month's rent.

C. 1

1/2

month's rent. D. There's no fee.

10. Which items does Mr. Garcia consider necessary?

A.

Kitchen utensils, washing machine, Internet connection.

B.

Washing machine, Internet connection, TV.

C.

DVD player, TV, Internet connection.

D. Shower, TV, washing machine.

Section 2: You will hear a conversation between an interviewer and an

interviewee. Listen and choose the correct answer for each question.

You will hear the recording twice. (2.5 x 10 = 25 points)

QUESTIONS 11-13

Circle the correct answers to the following questions. Only ONE answer

is possible for each question.

11. Which member or members of the speaker's family have health problems?

A. The speaker.

C.

The speaker's father and younger sister.

B. The speaker's parents. D. None of the speaker's family does.

12. Why didn't the family go to Rotorua?

A. They couldn't afford it. B. They wanted to go somewhere with friends.

C. Because of health problems D. Because they wanted to go somewhere new.

13. How did the speaker's family first find out about the Waiwera spa?

A. From people they met in their home town. C. From people they met in Rotorua.

B. From the internet. D. From a travel agent.

QUESTIONS 14-16

Complete the sentences using NO MORE THAN TWO WORDS OR

NUMBERS for each gap.

14.

Altogether, the number of people in the speaker's holiday group was _______________ .

page 3/14

15. One of the children from the other family was a __________________ than the speaker.

16.

Before leaving, the speaker and his family got information from the Internet and a _____

_________ .

QUESTIONS 17-20

Answer the following questions using NO MORE THAN THREE WORDS

for each answer.

17. What did the speaker especially like about the holiday?

…………………………………………………………………………………………………………….

18. Where were the children most of the time?

…………………………………………………………………………………………………………….

19. How does the speaker describe the people at the resort?

…………………………………………………………………………………………………………….

20. Which activities didn't the speaker participate in, even though those activities were

available?

…………………………………………………………………………………………………………….

II. VOCABULARY AND GRAMMAR (50 /200 points)

Part 1: Choose the word or phrase which best completes each sentence.

Circle your best answers (A, B, C or D). (1 x 15 = 15 points)

1. When he woke up, he realized that the things he had dreamt about could not

____________ have happened.

A. possibly B. likely C. certainly D. potentially

2. $50? $60? Let's ___________ the difference and say $55.

A. avoid B. split C. agree D. decrease

3. There is a lot of friendly ____________ between the supporters of the two teams.

A. contest B. rivalry C. contention D. defiance

4. The purpose of the survey was to __________ the inspectors with local conditions.

A. inform B. acquaint C. instruct D. notify

5. I'd like to ___________ this old mobile phone for a new model but I can't afford it.

A. interchange B. exchange C. replace D. convert

6. They were awaiting official __________ of the news they had heard from a friend.

A. recommendation B. statement C. confirmation D. announcement

7. These plants usually flower in spring, ____________ won't if there is frost.

A. but B. however C. nevertheless D. otherwise

8. I enjoyed reading the story. It was rather sad, ____________ .

A. also B. but C. so D. though

9. Jasmine is working as a dental assistant. What she does is ________ people's teeth.

A. clean B. cleans C. cleaning D. cleaned

10. I liked the coat but was rather ____________ off by the price.

page 4/14

A. shaken B. put C. set D. held

11. This man is so arrogant that he is completely ____________ to all criticism.

A. impervious B. unaware C. regardless D. unconscious

12. - Hanh: “Excuse me, is anybody sitting here?” - Pierre: “_________.”

A. Sorry, the seat is taken B. Yes, I am so glad

C. No, thanks D. Yes, yes. You can't sit here

13. - Ngan: “You didn't go to school yesterday, did you?”

- Peter: “____________. I saw you I was too busy to talk you.”

A. Yes, I did B. No, I did C. No, I didn't D. Yes, I didn't

14. - Hoa: “Who do you think will win this beauty contest?”

- David: “____________ .”

A. No idea B. I really couldn't

C. It doesn't matter D. It was not important

15. - Lisa: "How would you like your tea?" - Hellen: “____________ .”

A. Yes, please. Thanks B. With milk, please

C. Thank you very much D. It's fantastic. Thank you

Part 2: For questions 1–10, read the text below. Use the word given in

capitals at the end of each line to form a word that fits in the space in the

same line. Write your answers in the numbered space. (1 x 10 = 10

points)

School report

Margaret started English Literature this term, and I am

afraid that her (1) ______________ to the subject has not

been entirely (2) ______________. She has not shown much

enthusiasm, and does not always pay (3) ______________

in class. Her assignments are often (4) ______________,

because she is so untidy, and because of her (5)

______________ to check her work thoroughly. She failed

to do any (6) ______________ before the end of term test,

and had poor results. She seems to have the (7)

____________ idea that she can succeed without studying.

She has also had many (8) _______________ and has

frequently arrived late for class. This has resulted in several

(9) _______________ . Although Margaret is a (10)

_______________ student in some respects, she has not

had a satisfactory term.

INTRODUCE

SUCCESS

ATTEND

READ

FAIL

REVISE

MISTAKE

ABSENT

PUNISH

GIFT

page 5/14

Part 3: Decide which answer best fits each space. Circle the letter (A, B,

C or D) before the chosen answer. (1 x 15 = 15 points)

Learning how to learn

There is usually one important (1) _______

missing from most school (2) _______ . Very few

students are (3) _______ how to organize their learning, and how to (4) _______ the best use

of their time. Let's take some simple (5) _______ . Do you know how to (6) ________ up

words in a dictionary, and do you understand all the (7) _______ the dictionary contains? Can

you (8) ________ notes quickly, and can you understand them (9) ________? For some

reason, many schools give learners no (10) ________ with these matters. Teachers ask

students to (11) ________ pages from books, or tell them to write ten pages, but don't explain

(12) _______ to

do it. Learning by (13) _______ can be useful, but it is important to have a

genuine (14) ________ of a subject. You can (15) _______ a lot of time memorizing books,

without understanding anything about the subject!

1.

A.

theme

B. book

C. subject

D. mark

2.

A.

agendas

B. timetables

C. terms

D. organizations

3.

A.

taught

B. learnt

C. educated

D. graduated

4.

A.

take

B. give

C. get

D. make

5.

A.

sentences

B. results

C. rules

D. examples

6.

A.

find

B. look

C. research

D. get

7.

A.

information

B. advise

C. subjects

D.

themes

8.

A.

do

B. send

C. make

D. revise

9.

A.

after

B. afterwards

C. lastly

D. at last

10.

A.

teaching

B. ability

C. instruction

D. help

11.

A.

concentrate

B. remind

C. forget

D. memorize

12.

A.

how

B. what

C. why

D. it

13.

A.

the way

B. heart

C. now

D. law

14.

A.

information

B. success

C. understanding

D. attention

15.

A.

pass

B. waste

C. tell

D. use

Part 4: Identify 10 errors in the following passage and correct them. (0)

has been done as an example. (1 x 10 = 10 points)

It was the human factor that contributes to the absolute majority

of road accidents which involves the tremendous toll of fatalities

each year. Other, less decisive, causes are vehicle functions or

0. was

is

………….......

page 6/14

road shortcomings.

Speeding motorists are notorious about failing to give way at

junctions, judging the situation on the road or being unable to

accurately estimate the distance while overtaking the 'snailpacers'

ahead.

Drinkers who settle behind the wheel after one glass or two may

be running the risk of causing a tragedy through their impairing

perception, which is not so rare a case, again.

Unfortunately, it is much simpler to introduce the necessary

alterations in the traffic system that change the behavioral patterns

of drivers. There are voices that more severe disciplinary

resolutions ought to put into practice if the vehicle users are to

benefit from greater security on the road. The idea of producing

safe road users through pre-school parental instruction or through

incorporating the safety regulations for the school curriculum has

been widely acclaimed in many communities and are expected to

yield the required results as the first step in bettering the

qualifications of the future drivers and acquaint them with the

potential hazards that may arise en route.

………….......

…………......

………….......

III. READING (50/200 points)

Part 1: For questions 1-10, read the text below and think of the word

which best fits each gap. Use only one word in each gap. There is an

example at the beginning (0). (1 x 10 = 10 points)

Learning to play an instrument is (0) something that can give a lot of pleasure. It's

also an achievement and a skill (1) ________ stay with you for life. Music has a part

to play in everyone's life, and has been described (2) ________ a 'primary language'.

Learning to play an instrument isn't easy at the beginning and takes efforts and

determination. And while there is nothing wrong with aiming (3) ________ the top,

music is definitely (4) ________ something to take up because you ought to do it.

A lot of adults regret not (5) ________ learnt to play an instrument when they were

younger. But it is never (6) ________ late to learn! And the advantages of learning an

instrument are greater than just the pleasure of producing a marvelous sound. When

you've progressed far (7) ________, there are lots of amateur groups which you can

join (8) ________ you want to be part of a larger group. Once you have reached a

good enough standard to join a band or orchestra, you add team skills like (9)

________ you get from playing sport. There's also a great social side to play with

others, as (10) ________ as the chance to travel the touring.

page 7/14

Part 2: For questions 1-13, read the passage and answer the questions

below. (1 x 13 = 13 points)

Sleepy Students Perform Worse

A. Staying up an hour or two past bedtime makes it far harder for kids to learn, say

scientists who deprived youngsters of sleep and tested whether their teachers could

tell the difference. They could. If parents want their children to thrive academically,

"Getting them to sleep on time is as important as getting them to school on time,"

said psychologist Gahan Fallone, who conducted the research at Brown Medical

School.

B. The study, unveiled Thursday at an American Medical Association (AMA) science

writers meeting, was conducted on healthy children who had no evidence of sleep- or

learning-related disorders. Difficulty paying attention was among the problems the

sleepy youngsters faced - raising the question of whether sleep deprivation could

prove even worse for people with attention deficit hyperactivity disorder, or ADHD.

Fallone now is studying that question, and suspects that sleep problems "could hit

children with ADHD as a double whammy".

C. Sleep experts have long warned that Americans of all ages do not get enough

shuteye. Sleep is important for health, bringing a range of benefits that, as

Shakespeare put it, "knits up the ravelled sleave of care". Not getting enough is

linked to a host of problems, from car crashes as drivers doze off to crippled memory

and inhibited creativity. Exactly how much sleep correlates with school performance

is hard to prove. So, Brown researchers set out to test whether teachers could detect

problems with attention and learning when children stayed up late - even if the

teachers had no idea how much sleep their students actually got.

D. They recruited seventy-four 6- to 12-year-olds from Rhode Island and southern

Massachusetts for the three-week study. For one week, the youngsters went to bed

and woke up at their usual times. They already were fairly good sleepers, getting

nine to 9.5 hours of sleep a night. Another week, they were assigned to spend no

fewer than ten hours in bed a night. The other week, they were kept up later than

usual: First- and second-graders were in bed no more than eight hours and the older

children no more than 6.5 hours. In addition to parents' reports, the youngsters wore

motion detecting wrist monitors to ensure compliance.

E. Teachers were not told how much the children slept or which week they stayed up

late, but rated the students on a variety of performance measures each week. The

teachers reported significantly more academic problems during the week of sleep

deprivation, the study, which will be published in the journal Sleep in December,

concluded. Students who got eight hours of sleep or less a night were more forgetful,

had the most trouble learning new lessons, and had the most problems paying

attention, reported Fallone, now at the Forest Institute of Professional Psychology.

page 8/14

F. Sleep has long been a concern of educators. Potter-Burns Elementary School

sends notes to parents reminding them to make sure students get enough sleep prior

to the school's yearly achievement testing. Another school considers it important

enough to include in the school's monthly newsletters. Definitely, there is an impact

on students' performance if they come to school tired. However, the findings may

change physician practice, said Dr. Regina Benjamin, a family physician in Bayou La

Batre, who reviewed the data at the Thursday's AMA meeting. "I don't ask about

sleep" when evaluating academically struggling students, she noted. "I'm going to

start."

G. So how much sleep do kids need? Recommended amounts range from about ten

to eleven hours a night for young elementary students to 8.5 hours for teens. Fallone

insists that his own second-grader get ten hours a night, even when it meant

dropping soccer - season that practice did not start until 7:30 - too late for her to fit in

dinner and time to wind down before she needed to be snoozing. "It's tough," he

acknowledged, but "parents must believe in the importance of sleep."

QUESTIONS 1-4

The text has 7 paragraphs (A - G). Which paragraph contains each of the

following pieces of information? Write the letter (A-G) after each

sentence.

1. Traffic accidents are sometimes caused by lack of sleep.

2. The number of children included in the study.

3. How two schools are trying to deal with the problem.

4. How the effect of having less sleep was measured.

QUESTIONS 5-8

Complete the following sentences using NO MORE THAN TWO WORDS

from the text for each gap.

5. Fallone is now studying the sleep patterns of children with __________________.

6. The researchers used _________________________ that show movement to

check that children went to bed at the right time.

7. Students with less sleep had problems with memory, remembering new material,

and _________________________ .

8. Fallone admitted that it was _________________________ for children to get

enough sleep.

QUESTIONS 9-13

Do the following statements agree with the information given in Reading

Passage? In the space at the end of statements 9 - 13, write

TRUE if the information in the text agrees with the statement

FALSE if the information in the text contradicts the statement

NOT GIVEN if there is no information on this

page 9/14

9. The results of the study were first distributed to principals of American schools.

_______

10. Some of the children in the study had previously shown signs of sleeping

problems. _______

11. The study could influence how doctors deal with children's health problems.

_______

12. Fallone does not let his daughter play soccer. _______

13. Staying up later is acceptable if the child is doing homework. _______

Part 3: For questions 1-12, read the text below and decide which answer

best fits each gap. Circle the letter (A, B, C, or D) next to chosen answer.

There is an example at the beginning (0). (1 x 12 = 12 points)

THE CHANGING EARTH

Although the earth was formed about 4,500 million years ago, human beings have (0)

_______ it for less than half a million years. Within this time, population has

increased hugely and people have had a vast (1) ________ upon the earth. They

have long been able to (2) ________ the forces of nature to use. Now, with modern

technology, they have the power to alter the balance of life on earth.

Reports back from the first astronauts helped dispel the dangerous (3) ________

that the world had no boundaries and had limitless resources. (4) ________,

ecologists have shown that all forms of life on earth are interconnected, so it (5)

________ that all human activity has an effect on the natural environment.

In recent years, people have been putting the environment under stress. As a result,

certain (6) ________ materials such as timber, water and minerals are beginning to

(7) ________ short. Pollution and the (8) ________ of waste are already critical

issues, and the (9) ________ of the environment is fast becoming the most pressing

problem (10) ________ us all. The way we response to the challenge will have a

profound effect on the earth and its life support (11) ________.

However, despite all these threats there are (12) ________ signs. Over the past few

decades, the growth in population has been more than matched by food production,

indicating that we should be able to feed ourselves for some time yet.

0.

A.

inhabited

B. lived

C.

dwelled

D

.

resided

1.

A.

imprint

B. indication

C.

impression

D

.

impact

2.

A. put

B. make

C.

place

D.

stand

3.

A. judgment

B. notion

C.

reflection

D.

concept

4.

A.

However

B. Likewise

C.

Moreover

D.

Otherwise

5.

A.

results

B. follows

C.

complies

D.

develops

6.

A.

raw

B. coarse

C.

crude

D.

rough

7.

A. turn

B. come

C. go

D.

run

8.

A.

disposal

B. displacement

C.

dismissal

D.

disposition

9.

A.

state

B. situation

C.

case

D.

circumstance

10.

A. encountering

B. opposing

C.

meeting

D.

confronting

11.

A.

projects

B. systems

C.

methods

D.

routines

12.

A.

stimulating

B. welcoming

C.

satisfying

D.

reassuring

page 10/14

Part 4: For questions 1–10, read the passage and answer the questions

below. (1.5 x 10 = 15 points)

ALCOHOLICS ANONYMOUS

Alcoholics Anonymous, or A. A., was founded by two friends who were themselves

alcoholics. Bill Wilson was a stockbroker from New York City, and Dr. Robert Smith

was a surgeon from Ohio. When the two met in May, 1935, Wilson had already been

sober for several months, after years of struggling with his drinking. He shared with

Smith three important aspects that he had learned about alcoholism.

The first was that alcoholism is not a moral weakness, or a lack of willpower. A New

York specialist, Dr. William Duncan Silkworth had taught Wilson that it was more like

a disease than a sin. Alcoholism, he said, is

comparable

to allergies, in that it

produces abnormal reactions to alcohol that do not afflict non-alcoholics.

These

include the intense craving for alcohol that makes it so hard for an alcoholic to stop

drinking, once he or she has started, Second, alcoholics develop an obsession that

leads them to begin drinking again even after long periods of sobriety, even knowing

that the powerful cravings would return. These facts explained the enormous rate of

relapse among "reformed" alcoholics.

The third of Wilson's discoveries is that recovery is possible through a spiritual

transformation. He first learned of this approach through a friend who told him the

story of Rowland H. Rowland H. was an alcoholic who had undergone treatment with

the famous Swiss psychologist Carl Jung. After a prolonged period of therapy that

produced no results, Jung told Rowland that his case, like that of most alcoholics,

was almost hopeless. Rowland had only one chance: a spiritual conversion

experience. According to Jung, virtually every successful alcoholic recovery was due

to a spiritual transformation. Heeding Jung's advice, Rowland became a member of

the Oxford Group, a Christian movement that

advocated

finding God through moral

self-examination, confession of faults, reliance upon God, and helping others.

Rowland's story suggested that such a spiritual conversion could cure an alcoholic of

the obsession that kept sending him or her back to drinking. Also, Wilson told Smith

he had found that simply talking to other alcoholics about his personal struggle with

drinking seemed to be very beneficial.

The two men decided together to put these ideas into practice. Smith's last drink is

thought to have been on June 10, 1935, and

that

is still considered to be the date of

A. A.'s founding. In 1939 they published their book Alcoholics Anonymous, which is

still in print and remains a bestseller. There are now more than 100,000 A. A. groups

in 150 countries, with a total membership of about two million people.

1. Which the following best describes the passage?

A.

An explanation the Alcoholics Anonymous program.

B.

A history of the founding of Alcoholics Anonymous.

C.

Short biographies of the two men who founded Alcoholics Anonymous.

D.

A discussion of the origin and symptoms of alcoholism.

2. Which of the following is true?

A.

Wilson stopped drinking before Smith did.

B.

Smith told Wilson several important things he had learned.

C.

Smith' and Wilson believed that alcoholism was a moral weakness.

D.

Wilson learned from Carl Jung that alcoholism was disease.

page 11/14

3. According to paragraph 2, there is a high rate of relapse among alcoholics

because ______ .

A. most of them do not have enough willpower to stop drinking

B.

they have abnormal reactions to alcohol

C.

they have an allergy to alcohol that cannot be cured

D.

most of them do not really wish to stop drinking

4. It is indicated in paragraph 3 that Rowland H. 's therapy with Carl Jung _______ .

A.

was entirely successful

B.

lasted only a short time

C.

led to Rowland's joining the Oxford Group

D.

is the model for the Alcoholics Anonymous program

5. It can be inferred from the passage that _______ .

A.

Rowland. H. failed to quit drinking

B.

spiritual conversion is an important part of the Alcoholics Anonymous program

C.

Rowland H. convinced Smith to stop drinking

D.

joining Alcoholics Anonymous is the only way to cure alcoholism

6.

The word "

These

" in paragraph 2 refers to _______ .

A. alcoholics B. reactions C. non-alcoholics D. allergies

7. The word "

that

" in paragraph 4 refers to _______ .

A. idea B. practice C. drink D. June 10, 1935

8. The word "

comparable

" in paragraph 2 could best be replaced by _______ .

A. similar B. identical C. relevant D. related

9.

The word "

advocated

" in paragraph 3 is closest in meaning to _______ .

A. developed B. encouraged C. questioned D. tried

10. Why does the author discuss Rowland H. in

paragraph

3

?

A.

To explain how Wilson learned about the spiritual conversion approach.

B.

To give an example of one of Alcoholics Anonymous's early successes.

C.

To contrast his story with that of Wilson.

D.

To show that most cases of alcoholism are hopeless.

IV. WRITING (50/200 points)

Part 1: Finish each of the following sentences in such a way that it is as

similar as possible in meaning to the sentence printed before it. (2 x 5 =

10 marks)

1. We couldn't have managed without my father's money.

If it _________________________________________________________.

2. I had only just put the phone down when the boss rang back.

Hardly ______________________________________________________.

3. While I strongly disapprove of your behavior, I will help you this time.

Despite _____________________________________________________.

page 12/14

4. I was not surprised to hear that Harry had failed his driving test.

It came _____________________________________________________.

5. I'm sorry I missed Professor Baker's lecture.

I'm sorry ___________________________________________________.

Part 2: Complete the second sentence so that it has a similar meaning to

the first sentence, using the word given. Do not change the word given.

You must use between THREE and SIX words, including the word given.

(2 x 5 = 10 points)

1. Dr. Long wants you to look after his patients while he's away. (CARE)

Dr. Long would like you to _____________________________ his absence.

2. I was surprised how hard I had to work when I became an English teacher.

(EXPECTED)

I had to ___________________________ when I became an English teacher.

3. Once the visitors had gone, Michael started his homework immediately.

(DOWN)

Once the visitors had gone, Michael immediately ____________________

________________________ his homework.

4. Mark's presentation showed he was against the proposed takeover.

(OBJECTED)

In his presentation, Mark made it _________________________________

_____________ the proposed takeover.

5. People believe that Leonard da Vinci foresaw the invention of aircraft.

(BELIEVED)

The invention of aircraft ________________________________ foreseen

by Leonardo da Vinci.

Part 3: Write a composition of about 250-300 words about the following

topic: (30 points)

"Physical education should be a compulsory subject in schools."

Do you agree or disagree with it? Use specific reasons and examples to

support your opinions.

……………………………………………………………………………………………………………

page 13/14

……………………………………………………………………………………………………………

page 14/14

……………………………………………………………………………………………………………

----- THE END -----

page 1/4

SỞ GIÁO DỤC VÀ ĐÀO TẠO

THỪA THIÊN HUẾ

ĐÁP ÁN CHÍNH THỨC

(CÓ 04 TRANG)

KỲ THI CHỌN HỌC SINH GIỎI TỈNH

LỚP 12 THPT NĂM HỌC 2015-2016

Môn: TIẾNG ANH (PHỔ THÔNG)

Thời gian làm bài:180 phút (Không kể thời gian giao đề)

ANSWER KEY

I. LISTENING (50/200 points)

Section 1: You will hear a conversation between a student and a saleswoman. Listen

and choose the correct answer for each question. You will hear the recording twice. (2.5

x 10 = 25 points)

QUESTIONS 1-4

Circle the correct answer from the choices given.

1. D

2. B

3. C

4. D

QUESTIONS 5-7

Complete the details below using NO MORE THAN THREE WORDS AND / OR NUMBERS

for each gap.

5.

35c Campus Lane

6.

Garcianuk@email.uk

7.

200-250/200 to 250

QUESTIONS 8-10

Circle the correct answer from the choices given.

8.

D

9.

A

10.

B

Section 2: You will hear a conversation between an interviewer and an interviewee.

Listen and choose the correct answer for each question. You will hear the recording

twice. (2.5 x 10 = 25 points)

QUESTIONS 11-13

Circle the correct answers to the following questions. Only ONE answer is possible for

each question.

11.

C

12.

D

13.

C

QUESTIONS 14-16

Complete the sentences using NO MORE THAN TWO WORDS OR NUMBERS for each

gap .

14.

9/nine

15.

year older

13.

travel agency

QUESTIONS 17-20

Answer the following questions using NO MORE THAN THREE WORDS for each answer.

17. What did the speaker especially like about the holiday? (the) accommodation / hotel

18. Where were the children most of the time? (in/the/some) play areas

19. How does the speaker describe the people at the resort?

gentle/warm/helpful

20. Which activities didn't the speaker participate in, even though those activities were

available? basketball and volleyball

page 2/4

II. VOCABULARY AND GRAMMAR (50 /200 points)

Part 1: Choose the word or phrase which best completes each sentence. Circle your

best answers (A, B, C or D). (1 x 15 = 15 points)

1. A

2. B

3. B

4. B

5. B

6. C

7. A

8. D

9. A

10. B

11. A

12. A

13. A

14. B

15. B

Part 2: For questions 1–10, read the text beblow. Use the word given in capitals at the

end of each line to form a word that fits in the space in the same line. Write your

answers in the numbered space. (1 x 10 = 10 points)

1. introduction

2. successful

3. attention

4. unreadable

5. failure

6. revision

7. mistaken

8. absences

9. punishments

10. gifted

Part 3: Decide which answer best fits each space. Circle the letter (A, B, C or D) before

the chosen answer. (1 x 15 = 15 points)

1. C

2. B

3. A

4. D

5. D

6. B

7. A

8. C

9. B

10. D

11. D

12. A

13. B

14. C

15. B

Part 4: Identify 10 errors in the following passage and correct them. (0) has been done

as an example. (1 x 10 = 10 points)

1. involves-

involve

2. functions-

malfunctions

3. about -for

4. judging-

misjudging

5. impairing-

impaired

6. that-than

7. to put- to be

put

8. for-into

9. are-is

10. acquaint-

acquainting

III. READING (50/200 points)

Part 1: For questions 1-10, read the text beblow and think of the word which best fits

each gap. Use only one word in each gap. There is an example at the beginning (0). (1 x

10 = 10 points)

1. which/that

2. as

3. for

4. not

5. having

6. too

7. enough

8. if/should

9. those

10. well

Part 2: For questions 1-13, read the passage and answer the questions below. (1 x 13 =

13 points)

QUESTIONS 1-4

The text has 7 paragraphs (A - G). Which paragraph contains each of the following pieces of

information? Write the letter (A-G) after each sentence.

1. C

2. D

3. F

4. E

QUESTIONS 5-8

Complete the following sentences using NO MORE THAN TWO WORDS from the text for

each gap.

page 3/4

5. ADHD

6. wrist monitors

7. paying attention

8. tough

QUESTIONS 9-13

Do the following statements agree with the information given in Reading Passage

?

In the

space at the end of statements 9 - 13, write

9. FALSE

10. FALSE

11. TRUE

12. NOT GIVEN

13. NOT GIVEN

Part 3: For questions 1-12, read the text below and decide which answer best fits each

gap. Circle the letter (A, B, C, or D) next to chosen answer. There is an example at the

beginning (0). (1 x 12 = 12 points)

1. D

2. A

3. B

4. C

5. A

6. A

7. D

8. A

9. A

10. D

11. B

12. D

Part 4: For questions 1–10, read the passage and answer the questions below. (1.5 x 10

= 15 points)

1. B

2. A

3. B

4. C

5. B

6. B

7. D

8. A

9. B

10. A

IV. WRITING (50/200 points)

Part Finish each of the following sentences in such a way that it is as similar as

possible in meaning to the sentence printed before it. (2 x 5 = 10 points)

1. If it hadn't been for my father's money, we couldn't have managed.

2. Hardly had I put the phone down when the/my boss rang back.

3. Despite my [(strong) disapproval / strongly disapproving] of your behavior, I

will help you this time.

4. It came as no surprise (to me) that Harry had failed his driving test

5. I'm sorry for having missed / not to have [heard/attended/been present at]

Professor Baker's lecture.

Part 2: Complete the second sentence so that it has a similar meaning to the first

sentence, using the word given. Do not change the word given. You must use between

THREE and SIX words, including the word given. (2 x 5 = 10 points)

1. Dr. Long would like you to take care of his patients in/ during/ throughout

his absence.

2. I had to work [harder/more] than I had expected when I became an English

teacher.

3. Once the visitors had gone, Michael immediately [got/sat/settled] down to

[do/start] his homework.

4. In his presentation, Mark made it clear/obvious (that) he objected to the

proposed takeover.

5. The invention of aircraft is believed to have been foreseen by Leonardo da

Vinci.

page 4/4

Part 3: (30 points)

1. Content (12 points)

Arguing and supporting their points of view

2. Organization and cohesion (8 points)

Clear organization of ideas, with suitable paragraphing and linking

3. Grammar (5 points)

Using good grammar in standard English.

4. Variety of vocabulary (5 points)

Using a large variety of vocabulary.

-------THE END------

page 1/15

SỞ GIÁO DỤC VÀ ĐÀO TẠO

THỪA THIÊN HUẾ

ĐỀ CHÍNH THỨC

(ĐỀ THI CÓ 14 TRANG)

KỲ THI CHỌN HỌC SINH GIỎI TỈNH

LỚP 12 THPT NĂM HỌC 2015-2016

Môn: TIẾNG ANH (CHUYÊN)

Thời gian làm bài:180 phút (Không kể thời gian giao đề)

Điểm (bằng số)

Điểm (bằng chữ)

Họ tên, chữ ký

Mã phách

Giám khảo 1:

Giám khảo 2:

Kết quả điểm

Câu I:……….………. điểm

Câu II:

Câu III:

Câu IV:

Cộng:

I. LISTENING (50 points)

HƯỚNG DẪN PHẦN THI NGHE HIỂU

 Bài nghe gồm 3 phần, mỗi phần được nghe 2 lần, mỗi lần cách nhau 15 giây, mở đầu và kết thúc

mỗi phần nghe có tín hiệu.

 Mở đầu và kết thúc bài nghe có tín hiệu nhạc. Thí sinh có 3 phút để hoàn chỉnh bài trước tín hiệu

nhạc kết thúc bài nghe.

 Mọi hướng dẫn cho thí sinh (bằng tiếng Anh) đã có trong bài nghe.

Part 1: You will hear a man giving a lecture about nuclear fusion at university. Listen and

answer questions 1 -10.

Questions 1-3

1. What does the speaker say about newspapers?

A. They never report developments in science accurately.

B. He became interested in his subject because of a newspaper report.

C. They only report developments in renewable energy technology.

2. What significant event took place in 1956?

A. Scientists discovered a new source of energy.

B. A new type of power station came into service.

C. Helium was first produced from hydrogen.

3. What does the speaker consider to be the main problem with nuclear fusion?

A. Irresponsible scientists make false claims on the subject.

B. It takes too long to produce the required reaction.

C. The reaction has not produced usable quantities of energy

Questions 4-5

Complete the sentences below. Write NO MORE THAN TWO WORDS AND/OR A

NUMBER for each answer.

4. Temperatures of at least _______________________ degrees are needed for fusion to take place.

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5. Creating the pressure required in a ______________________ is a major technological problem.

Questions 6-10

Complete the summary below. Write NO MORE THAN TWO WORDS for each answer.

In order for nuclear fusion to produce useful quantities of energy, isotopes of hydrogen must be

brought together at extremely high temperatures and pressures. A number of (6)_____________

will suspend the fuel so that it does not come into contact with the sides of the (7)_____________ .

Another one will raise the temperature of the fuel pellet to that required to start the

(8)_____________ . Extra energy released in this process will be used to produce

(9)_____________ that can be used to generate electricity. It is believed that the amount of energy

that can be produced from (10)_____________ of fusion fuel is equivalent to that which can be

produced from 10,000 tonnes of fossil fuel.

Part 2: You will hear part of a talk about shopping centres. For questions 11 – 19, complete

the sentences with a word or a short phrase.

Laughter Yoga

David says that people building shopping centres need to concentrate on what he refers to as

11.____________________________.

He has discovered that women don’t like it if there are a lot of 12.__________________________

on their journey to a shopping centre.

For the floors of shopping centres, 13.__________________________ are not acceptable.

People consider that shopping centres with a lot of 14._____________and_____________ in them

are better than others.

David has come up with the term 15._________________ to describe shoppers who have a lot in

common with each other.

In the shopping centre he has most recently been involved with, there are

16._______________and_______________ malls.

David calls shoppers who are no longer ambitious in life 17.__________________________ .

David calls shoppers who haven’t got much money and are looking for bargains 18.___________ .

For David, newly married couples may come into the category of 19.________________________.

Part 3: You will hear a radio interview with a chef about the process of eating. For questions

20-25, choose the answer (A, B, C or D) which fits best according to what you hear.

20. Heston mentions eating fish from a paper plate with a plastic knife and fork ______________

A. because it is something listeners may have done.

B. because doing so made him think about the process of eating.

C. as an example of an unpleasant eating experience.

D. as an example of what influences the eating experience.

21. What does Heston say about taste?

A. Fat should be considered a taste. B. Taste and flavor are separate from each other.

C. The sense of smell is involved in it. D. The number of taste buds gradually decreases.

22. The experiment involving salt and other food shows that_________________________

A. it is possible to taste something that you can’t smell.

B. the sense of smell is not as powerful as other senses.

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C. food can taste better when you can’t smell it.

D. the flavor of food can change as you eat it.

23. The story about the trainee waiters illustrates that _________________________

A. certain colors are more appealing than others.

B. something can seem to taste good because of its appearance.

C. one sense can strongly influence another.

D. some people can perceive taste better than others.

24. What does Heston say about bitterness?

A. It can give a false impression that something is harmful.

B. It can become the main reason why people like something.

C. Reactions to it can change over time.

D. Its function is widely misunderstood.

25. The problem with the dish Heston describes was caused by ________________________

A. its appearance. B. the taste of it.

C. its combination of flavors. D. the fact that people ate it repeatedly.

20.

21.

22.

23.

24.

25.

II. LEXICO-GRAMMAR (30 points)

Part 1: Circle the best answer (A, B, C, or D) to complete each of the following sentences.

26. Tom trains hard, is talented and eager to win – he is, in ________, the perfect competitor.

A. total B. whole C. short D. part

27. ________ attempts were made to reach those buried beneath the rubble of the collapse building.

A. Strong B. Strenuous C. Energetic D. Exhausting

28. The company doesn’t have a graphics section and _________ out all its design work.

A. farms B. sends C. tenders D. offers

29. This singer is on the _________ of a wonderful career.

A. threshold B. start C. edge D. point

30. There was _________ coverage of the story on all the television channels.

A. complete B. extensive C. total D. absolute

31. Your son has the _________ of a fine musician.

A. beginnings B. makings C. looks D. talents

32. The minister received _________ a show of support that it was impossible to think he would

resign.

A. such B. so C. as D. alike

33. There are hundreds of endangered _________ in the world.

A. clans B. breeds C. species D. varieties

34. He’s a tough politician – he knows how to ___________ the storm.

A. ride out B. run down C. keep up D. push back

35. I revise my views ________ comments from colleagues.

A. consequent upon B. further to C. against D. in the light of

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Part 2: For questions 36-45, write the correct form of each bracketed word.

There are (0) __________ (PERSUADE) arguments for rewarding winners in

sport (36) __________ (FINANCE), thereby allowing the more talented to

take (37) __________ (CORRESPOND) more from their sport than those of

lesser lights. If someone is able to (38) __________ (REPEAT) beat the rest

of the best in the world at tennis or golf, few would begrudge him or her the

biggest pot of gold. It is quite another thing, however, to pay (39) __________

(ASTRONOMY) weekly sums of money to a member of an 11-man team –

far in (40) __________ (EXCEED) of most people’s annual salary. This team

member may have a knack with the odd (41) __________ (SUCCEED) free

kick or (42) __________ (SPECTACLE) header, but he will often be out of

action for (43) __________ (TERMINATE) periods with mysterious injuries,

and after a few years will allow himself to be sold to the highest (44) _______

(BID) for the whole sordid process to be repeated elsewhere. It is little short

of an (45) __________ (OBSCENE).

0. persuasive .

36._____________

37._____________

38._____________

39._____________

40._____________

41._____________

42._____________

43._____________

44._____________

45._____________

Part 3: For questions 46 – 55, read the following text which has TEN words or phrases used

wrongly. Underline them and correct them. Write your correction on each numbered space

provided.

THE BOSS FROM HELL

Before I went for my interview for the job with Cramer and Blake Services,

I talked to a few people and found out some information about the company.

This strategy worked very effective as it gave the impression that I was keen

and committal and I was offered the job by the personnel manager in the

spot.

I was very delighted at first, but I soon discovered that my new boss, Tom,

worked very hard, spending all his time in the office and never leaving

before 8 p.m. He expected the same grade of commitment from his

employees - the workload he expected each and every one of us to carry was

totally unreasonable. He accused anyone who didn’t work overtime

regularly of not making their fair share and letting the team down. I decided

to put up to the situation without complaining for a while but finally I felt I

had to confront Tom. I told him I wasn’t prepared to work so hard for such a

low salary. Tom said that I had great potential and could easily get to the top

if I was prepared to make an effort. However, he absolutely refused to

reduce my workload and so in the end I decided to hand out my resignation.

Just a week later I got another job in Cramer and Blake’s main competitors.

Now I’m earning twice as much as my old boss, and my job’s twice as

interesting. I work equally long hours – but I’m glad I moved. I haven’t got

to the top yet – but I’m far on the way!

46._____________

47._____________

48._____________

49._____________

50._____________

51._____________

52._____________

53._____________

54._____________

55._____________

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III. READING (50 points)

Part 1: For questions 56-61, read the following passages and decide which answer (A, B, C, or

D) best fits each gap. (6 points)

CADET SCHOOL

The Director nodded, ‘Yes. Well, we’ve (56) ________ our system over a long period of time, and

we’ve found that home visits just don’t fit into the picture until the cadet is thoroughly oriented to

our (57) ________ of doing things. We say a year merely as a general guide. Sometimes it’s longer

than that. Parents can visit here at (58) ________ times. ‘The Director (59) ________ enquiringly at

Mr. Holston, who tried to think of some more questions but could not. ‘Actually,’ the Director

continued, ‘the cadets seem to prefer it this way, once they get started. What we’re (60) ________,

Mr. Holston, is to motivate them to achieve success, which means success in becoming a fully

oriented member of this community and you can see how home visits might cause a little (61)

________ in the process.’

56

. A. written out B. worked out C. phased out D. brought out

57

. A. usage B. process C. way D. custom

58

. A. specific B. distinctive C. characteristic D. distinguishing

59

. A. leered B. gazed C. ogled D. gaped

60. A. standing for B. looking for C. hunting for D. making for

61. A. distortion B. disorganisation C. disruption D. distinction

Part 2: For questions 62-71, read the text below and think of the word which best fits each

space. Use only ONE word in each gap. (15 points)

What science is all about

We do not know how art began any more than we know how language started. If we take art to

mean (62) ________ activities as building temples and houses, making pictures and sculptures, or

weaving patterns, there are (63) ________ people in all the world without art. If, on the other hand,

we mean by art some kind of beautiful luxury, we must realize that (64) ________ use of the word

is a very recent development and that many of the greatest artists of the past never (65) ________ of

it. We can best understand this difference if we think of architecture. We all know that there are

beautiful buildings and that some of them are true (66) ________ of art. But there is (67) ________

any building in the world which was not erected (68) ________ a particular purpose. Those who use

these buildings as (69) ________ of worship or entertainment, or as dwellings, judge them (70)

________ and foremost by the standards of utility. But apart from this, they may like or dislike the

design or the proportion of the structure. In the past the attitude to paintings and statues was often

similar. We are not likely to understand the art of the past if we are quite ignorant of the (71)

________ it had to serve.

62.

63.

64.

65.

66.

67.

68.

69.

70.

71

Part 3: For questions 72-86, read the following text and answer the questions. (15 points)

SPORTS PARTICIPATION AND RETENTION – HOW AND WHY

____________________________________________________________________________

There is a growing awareness that starting an active lifestyle when you are young and continuing

into adulthood is beneficial. The government, therefore, needs to understand how and why people

take part in sports in order to encourage more participation. Unfortunately, assessing levels of

participation is extremely difficult due to a wide range of factors.

_____________________________________________________________________________

page 6/15

A. Both government and individuals have recognised for some time the need to establish an active

lifestyle which does not end when people leave school or university. In order to develop a coherent

approach to how sports are organised in the future, and to encourage participation from all levels of

society, it is necessary to review some of the issues which affect people’s attitudes towards sporting

activities.

B. It is very difficult to envisage exactly what directions sport will take in the future. In the late

seventies, experts predicted that badminton and squash would become hugely popular. In reality, the

number of participants has decreased for squash, and remained static in the case of badminton. The

current interest in yoga and pilates was unpredicted. There are a variety reasons for these erroneous

predictions. Thirty years ago, academic research was limited in this area. Furthermore, and more

fundamentally, participation in sports is affected by a wide range of factors. Disposable income and

health awareness significantly affect different levels of sports participation while socio-economic class,

gender, education and age also play a role.

C. Traditionally, there is a significant decline in participation in sports and other physical activities as

people get older. Whilst this remains common, there are indications that a new generation of more

active older people is emerging. In a recent General Household Survey, participation in at least one

sport (excluding walking) in the 60-69 age group increased from 23% in 1980 to 30% in 1996. This

tendency can be traced to a number of factors. The generation approaching retirement has had access to

a much wider range of sports. This group will carry their sporting experience into their later years.

Furthermore, a large number of the population are retiring at an earlier age, which means more active

people are entering retirement.

D. A survey conducted in 1994 indicated that those who continued in full-time education after the

minimum school-leaving age had higher rates of sports participation than school leavers. Furthermore,

this group was also more likely to participate as they grew older. Reasons for this include a diverse

range of activities available at universities and the establishment of sporting habits and networks which

continue into adulthood. It is worth noting that the increase in female sports participation (an increase of

268% between 1975 and 1995 compared to 81% for males) has paralleled a dramatic increase in the

number of females in higher education.

E. The major investment in school-aged sport at both primary and secondary levels has a dual purpose.

First of all it is designed to improve the physical activity levels of children and young people and assist

in addressing the growing concern over child obesity. Secondly, and perhaps more importantly, it helps

establish the platform of life-long involvement in sports. Such policies are based on the concept that

early variety in sports participation is linked to continuing adult participation. What this means very

simply is that the more sports young people take part in, the more likely they are to continue taking part

into adulthood.

F. Clearly, how sport develops is influenced by a wide range of factors: changing cultural attitudes and

attitudes towards health and fitness, in addition to how education policies are formulated. Traditional

sports are very likely to continue, and in certain areas, expand. In order to broaden the participation base

and contribute to the government’s health agenda, there is a need to address the issue of ‘life-time

sports’. There is a clear need, for instance, to improve our understanding of the processes of

participation and retention in order to successfully address the needs of the population for access to a

diverse range of sports activities.

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Questions 72-76

Choose the correct heading for each paragraph (A-F) from the list of headings below.

List of headings

i. The future direction of research into sport participation

ii. The development of more sporting venues

iii. A more active generation

iv. Increased diversification in sports

v. A re-examination of view on sport

vi. Advantages of participation from an early age

vii. The impact of further education

viii. Inaccurate predictions

ix. Awareness of health issues

Example:

Answer

Paragraph A ____v____

72. Paragraph B _________

73. Paragraph C _________

74. Paragraph D _________

75. Paragraph E _________

76. Paragraph F _________

Questions 77-81

Answer the questions below using NO MORE THAN THREE WORDS for each answer.

77. What two activities showed an unexpected rise in participation?

___________________________________________________

78. Why did it use to be difficult to foresee future interest in particular sports?

___________________________________________________

79. As well as retiring earlier, how is the new generation of retirees different?

___________________________________________________

80. What choice of sports and activities do people have at university?

___________________________________________________

81. Apart from participation in sports, where else have numbers increased for females in the last thirty

years?

___________________________________________________

Questions 82-86

Complete the summary below. Choose NO MORE THAN THREE WORDS from the passage for

each answer.

Encouraging sports in school fulfils a (82) ______________ in an area which is a (83) ______________

to many people. Firstly, if we want to overcome the problem of (84) ________________, it is necessary

to increase the amount of sport the children do. Secondly, taking part in sports at school can help

encourage a child’s (85) ________________ in sport, so that the child continues to participate as an

adult. However, in order to increase the chances of adult participation, research suggests that

participating in a (n) (86) ________________ in sports is a key factor.

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Part 4: For questions 87-93, choose the answer (A, B. C or D) which you think fits best

according to the text. (7 points)

Photography and Old Masters

David Hockney’s breakthrough work on the use made by the old masters of mirrors and lenses is

becoming well known. Though there are capers and hecklers, it has leapt from hunch, through

theory, to accepted fact, in a remarkably short time. His basic idea, that the use of lenses -

effectively photography without the chemical fixing - spread throughout European painting from

the Renaissance onwards, alters forever our own perception of some of the greatest artists in

history.

Two years ago, Hockney was at the National Gallery’s Ingres show in London. He was gripped

with curiosity at the speed, accuracy and odd certainties of Ingres’ extraordinarily fast portrait

sketches done in Rome and thought Ingres might have used an optical device called a camera

lucida. Hockney obtained one and, with its help, was soon also doing very fast, accurate pencil

portraits. The more paintings Hockney studied, the more evidence he found that lenses were used.

This is not to say that the great names in Western art were cheating. Why is using a lens cheating,

any more than using a plumb line? But they were certainly being helped ... with photography.

When I met Hockney in his London studio, he was flinging out ideas. ‘The photograph is far, far

older than we think. It’s just that they didn’t have the chemical fixative until the nineteenth

century,’ he says. It frees us. It makes the artists of the past much closer. They were marvellous

artists and their techniques have a great deal to teach the artists of today.’

Hockney created a massive gallery of photos and postcards of paintings on a wall of his Californian

studio, running from the 1300s to the last century, divided into Northern and Southern European,

along which breakthroughs in realism become strikingly obvious. Each, he thinks, corresponds to a

new technological breakthrough in lens making, with the first around 1420. That is well known and

much discussed. But why did it happen? Hockney chuckles in derision; ‘Oh, they say, suddenly in

1420 everyone could draw better. From that moment you never see a badly drawn basket again in

Western art. They are suddenly all perfectly woven, in perfect perspective. The answer is in fact the

new lenses that spread from the Low Countries to Florence and then the rest of Italy.’

Lenses show movement; the projections, hundreds of years ago, are far better than high-definition

television. In clarity and colour, they are amazing, but they could not be preserved, except by

drawing. They were living projections. There is no doubt that painters saw colour images, optical

projections which look like paintings, and they made paintings which look like optical projections.

The old masters saw moving colour pictures.

Hockney pursued the theory with art historians and friends, from everywhere, the evidence

accumulated. A mere artist, a hand, brush and pencil man, seemed to have spotted what the

combined intellects of academic art history had missed. It sounds, at first hearing, a complex theory.

But here is the simple version. Think of three periods of art history, all defined by photography.

First, the use of lenses from the Renaissance to the mid-nineteenth century. A trick of the artist’s

trade, not much talked about to laymen. Second, the arrival of chemically fixed photography, which

immediately threatens the painters’ trade. Artists respond by either trying to turn back to the pre-

lens era or by emphasising an anti-photographic style of painting. The third phase, through which

we are living today, is that of the computer.

page 9/15

The computer allows the manipulation of the photographic image. Chemical photography gives

way to digital technology, which can be infinitely manipulated and manipulation means drawing.

Since photographs are going to be increasingly made by drawing, the photograph has really lost its

veracity.

Here, triumphantly, the Hockney case that the great masters used lenses comes full circle, returning

us in 2001 to the revival of drawing, another life-long passion. ‘For 400, nearly 500 years, the hand

was involved with the camera. Artists were using the lens. Then for 160 years, you had chemical

photography. But that has now come to an end, and with digital photography, you have got the hand

back in the camera. This is why photography is changing and actually moving back towards

drawing and painting.’ And Hockney leans back and laughs. As well he might.

87. The result of David Hockney’s work is that ________

A. the theory has been accepted too quickly.

B. it is no longer understood how these artists painted.

C. the work of well-known artists has been discredited.

D. the artists’ works must be viewed differently.

88. The writer takes pains not to suggest that the painters were cheating because ________

A. Hockney could do fast, accurate pencil drawings using lenses.

B. he considers the use of lenses an acceptable technique.

C. as the paintings were studied, it became clear that lenses were used.

D. modern day artists use photography to help them.

89. Hockney considers that drawing became better in 1420 because ________

A. the improvement corresponded with the first improvement in lens making.

B. the depiction of objects suddenly gained greater importance in art.

C. each breakthrough in realism corresponded with a breakthrough in lens making.

D. new types of lenses spread across Italy from then onwards.

90. The old masters used lenses to ________

A. copy paintings.

B. keep a record of the image.

C. see coloured images.

D. improve on their abilities.

91. How did artists react when fixed photography was introduced?

A. They attempted to paint their subjects more realistically.

B. They responded by using lenses themselves to paint.

C. They turned to a more abstract style.

D. They began using computers instead of a camera.

92. What does the writer mean when he says that photography has ‘lost its veracity’?

A. Digital technology is increasingly being used in photography.

B. Artists are using computers to produce their work instead of brushes.

C. Photographs cannot be relied upon to produce a true image.

D. Digital technology allows images to be changed by hand.

93. What does the writer mean in paragraph 7 by ‘the Hockney case ________ comes full circle’?

A. Artists are reverting to an older style of painting.

B. Photography now involves earlier techniques.

C. Artists are increasingly using lenses again.

D. Painting and drawing have been superseded by photography.

Part 4: For questions 94-100, choose the answer (A, B. C or D) which you think fits best

according to the text. (7 points)

page 10/15

You are going to read an extract from an article about 19

th

century London.

Seven paragraphs have been removed from the extract. Choose from paragraphs A-H the one which

fits each gap (94-100). There is one extra paragraph which you do not need to use.

A Pioneering Study

When Booth conducted his survey, he had no precedents to guide him except occasional reports

from factory inspectors, royal commissions, the census and other statistical surveys. There had been

no inquiry into poverty in general, no breakdown of income and classes. In attempting to deal with

just these problems through his own observations, Booth, despite the defects of his methods, was a

pioneer.

94

There is an openness to reality, a willingness to look at squalor without coating it over with

moralistic language, and a humility before the plight of some of the poor, which give the writing a

literary distinctiveness truly reminiscent of Orwell’s own efforts to assert decency. It is journalistic

without seeming callous and sensationalist. ‘Here in Ferdinand Street,’ he writes of one packed

block of houses, ‘not an inch was lost, and the fingers of any one passer-by might have tapped at

any window or door as he passed along.’

95

He has a remarkably good ear for common speech and an eye for telling details. One pictures him

tall, stooped, notebook in hand, intent upon his subject, asking frequent questions, at times a trifle

self-deprecating, but never so aware of his posture as to lose sight of his inquiry. Booth was,

apparently, courteous almost to a fault, and his prose is a perfectly unaffected vehicle for such

decorum. Sometimes we are hardly conscious of the intrusion of his style. To judge from his

frequently tortured letters of self-doubt to his wife and other collaborators, his control was a

carefully contrived persona, yet the ease with which Booth is able to maintain the illusion is

striking.

96

Whether Booth’s manner, which lends so much dignity to the poor without special pleading, would

be as approbate to writing about them today is worth considering. Nowadays the writer about

poverty is likely to make much of his own motivations, to assert his involvement, or to agonise over

it, even attempting to de-class himself, and always questioning his relatedness because of the strain

of trying to relate.

97

Yet once he encountered the poor, his compassion was never tidy or priggish: it was what motivated

him to keep on learning and writing. Booth did not attempt to render poverty in its most existential

terms. Probably he would have found such efforts contemptible, for he truly believed that between

himself and the poor there was an unbridgeable gap of class and culture. But by forcing himself to

live among the poor, to make a confrontation with their lives, he achieved a human recognition. His

writing is never so opinionated that it does not reflect this.

98

Booth’s study of the poor also achieved its first objective: it gave the public some idea of the

page 11/15

dimensions and meaning of poverty in London. Never before had the middle classes been told in

such harrowing detail about the effects of moral decay and destitution, about the domestic lives of

the poor, about the oppression of work, the condition of women workers, the practice of sweating,

about the new immigrants.

99

He now found that the proportion in East London was close to thirty-five per cent; that of the

900,000 people in the district, 314,000 were poor; that of these far more than half (185,000)

belonged to families earning less than eighteen shillings a week; and that more than half of these in

turn (over 100,000) suffered from acute ‘distress’.

100

Booth’s evidence thus demolished the middle-class myth that poverty resulted from personal

failure, vice or improvidence. Despite himself, he implicitly lent support to the argument that

poverty was a collective, not an individual, responsibility.

A Booth uses metaphor and figurative language sparingly. There is a deliberate no-nonsense

quality to the prose which may be a trifle off-putting to those accustomed to learning of poverty

through the lyricism of a James Agee or the rhetorical indignation of James Baldwin. But, though

Booth’s primary aim was not to create literature but to describe reality, it is difficult to read his

writings today without reflecting on the literary strengths of such a method.

B And if the writing, like the thought, never manages to encompass the total reality behind

London poverty, it does manage to convey strength, resilience, patience, and a certain toughness of

observation which seems wholly pertinent to the harsh realities he was called upon to observe. He is

hardly ever censorious, never contemptuous and often gently humorous.

C Booth made a second important discovery. On the basis of information received from 4,000

poor people, he concluded that the cause of poverty in about eighty-five per cent of the cases was

either ‘employment’ (both lack of work and low pay) or ‘circumstances’ (large family and

sickness). ‘Habit’ (‘idleness, and thriftlessness’) accounted for only about fifteen per cent.

D Booth’s wanderings among the habitations of the poor on Chester, Eldon, Ferdinand and

Dutton streets, his tough-minded, empirical descriptions of housing, styles of dress, eating habits,

shops and employment, may recall George Orwell’s visits nearly fifty years later among the poor of

Wigan Pier.

E Politically and administratively, London had scarcely advanced beyond the Middle Ages. In

the 1880s with a population of over four million, it still lacked a water, sanitation and public health

system; it still suffered from periodic plagues of typhus and cholera; and its poor laws were as

archaic and oppressive as ever. There was no central government to speak of. Not until 1888 was a

County Council established to assume overall responsibility for education, sewage disposal,

housing and hospitals.

F Booth’s dry statistical data furnished incontestable proof that previous writers had been in

page 12/15

error; they had actually seen only a fraction of London poverty. In the Pall Mall Gazette of 1885,

the Social Democratic Federation had contended that twenty-five per cent of the working class was

poor, a statistic that Booth had then condemned as shockingly high.

G Stripped of abstractions, except for an occasional epithet which temper or compassion

provokes, it describes a reality only to be found on the streets of London. As Booth himself pointed

out in a letter to his assistant Ernest Aves, ‘I am afraid we are sure to shock very many good people

in the conclusions — the danger of hurting is rather to be found in the details necessary to support

these conclusions, It cannot be entirely avoided, but must never be wanton.’

H Booth’s prose shows none of the strains of such an engagement. No doubt he was inspired to

begin his researches chiefly because - like many other Englishmen of his class and era - he felt

vaguely threatened by the presence of so much poverty and wished to specify the problem in hopes

of finding the most appropriate solutions to it.

IV. WRITING (50 points)

Part 1: For questions 101-105, complete the second sentence so that it has a similar meaning

to the first sentence, using the word given. DO NOT CHANGE the word given. You must use

between three and eight words, including the word given. (10 points)

0. You’ve got to persuade the editor not to publish that story. OUT

You’ve got to ____ talk the editor out of publishing ____ that story.

101. Fewer people are buying fresh food since convenience foods have become available. DEMAND

Fresh food is _______________________________________________ of convenience food.

102. You must remember to pay the phone bill today whatever you do. ACCOUNT

On __________________________________________________ to pay the phone bill today.

103. He really wants to see animals living in the wild. INTENT

He ____________________________________________________ animals living in the wild.

104. It doesn’t look as though John wants to buy that house after all. DECIDED

John __________________________________________________ buying that house after all.

105. She’s not very good at arranging flowers. FLAIR

She _________________________________________________________ arranging flowers.

Part 2: (15 points)

page 13/15

…………………………………………………………………………………………………………

page 14/15

…………………………………………………………………………………………………………

Part 3: Write an essay of about 400 words to express your opinions on the following statement:

(25 points)

“We must say no to adult content in cartoons and other programs watched by children.”

…………………………………………………………………………………………………………

page 15/15

…………………………………………………………………………………………………………

- THE END -

page 1/3

SỞ GIÁO DỤC VÀ ĐÀO TẠO

THỪA THIÊN HUẾ

ĐÁP ÁN CHÍNH THỨC

(CÓ 03 TRANG)

KỲ THI CHỌN HỌC SINH GIỎI TỈNH

LỚP 12 THPT NĂM HỌC 2015-2016

Môn: TIẾNG ANH (CHUYÊN)

Thời gian làm bài:180 phút (Không kể thời gian giao đề)

ANSWER KEY

I. LISTENING (50 points)

Part 1: You will hear a man giving a lecture about nuclear fusion at university. Listen and

answer questions 1 -10.

Questions 1-3

1. B

2. B

3. C

Questions 4-5

Complete the sentences below. Write NO MORE THAN TWO WORDS AND/OR A

NUMBER for each answer.

4. 100 million/100,000,000

5. fusion reactor

Questions 6-10

Complete the summary below. Write NO MORE THAN TWO WORDS for each answer.

6. lasers

7. reactor

8. (fusion) reaction

9. steam

10. 1/one kilogram/kg

Part 2: You will hear part of a talk about shopping centres. For questions 11 – 19, complete

the sentences with a word or a short phrase.

11. total sensory

design

12. roundabouts

13. shiny surfaces

14. stone; wood

15. People Like

Us/PLUs

16. exclusive;

discount

17. Home

Comfortables

18. Budget

Optimists

19. Young

Survivors

Part 3: You will hear a radio interview with a chef about the process of eating. For questions

20-25, choose the answer CA, B, C or D) which fits best according to what you hear.

20. D

21. B

22. A

23. C

24. C

25. A

II. LEXICO-GRAMMAR (30 points)

Part 1: Circle the best answer (A, B, C, or D) to complete each of the following sentences.

26. C

27. B

28. A

29. A

30. B

31. B

32. A

33. C

34. A

35. D

Part 2: For questions 36-45, write the correct form of each bracketed word.

36. financially 37. correspondingly 38. repeatedly 39. astronomical 40. excess

41. successful 42. spectacular 43. interminable 44. bidder 45. obscenity

Part 3: For questions 46 – 55, read the following text which has ten words or phrases used

wrongly. Underline them and correct them. Write your correction on each numbered space

provided.

page 2/3

1. This strategy worked very effective => This strategy worked very effectively

2. keen and committal => keen and committed

3. in the spot => on the spot

4. very delighted => absolutely delighted

5. the same grade of commitment => the same level of commitment

6. not making their fair share => not doing their fair share

7. to put up to the situation => to put up with the situation

8. to hand out my resignation => to hand in my resignation

9. another job in => another job with

10. I’m far on the way! => I’m well on the way!

III. READING (50 points)

Part 1: For questions 56-61, read the following passages and decide which answer (A, B, C, or

D) best fits each gap. (6 points)

56. B

57. C

58. A

59. B

60. B

61. C

Part 2: For questions 62-71, read the text below and think of the word which best fits each

space. Use only ONE word in each gap. (15 points)

62. such

63. no/few

64. this

65. dreamed/thought

66. works/examples

67. scarcely/hardly

68. for

69. places

70. first

71. aims/purpose(s)

Part 3: For questions 72-86, read the following text and answer the questions. (15 points)

Questions 72-76

Choose the correct heading for each paragraph (A-F) from the list of headings below

Paragraph A ____v____

72. Paragraph B ___ viii___

73. Paragraph C ____iii____

74. Paragraph D ___ vii ___

75. Paragraph E ____vi____

76. Paragraph F ____i____

Questions 77-81

Answer the questions below using NO MORE THAN THREE WORDS for each answer.

77. yoga and pilates 78. research was limited 79. more active

80. a diverse range 81. (in) higher education

Questions 82-86

Complete the summary below. Choose no more than three words form the passage for each answer.

82. dual purpose 83 . growing concern 84. child obesity 85. life-long involvement

86. early variety

Part 4: For questions 87-93, choose the answer (A, B. C or D) which you think fits best

according to the text. (7 points)

87. D

88. B

89. A

90. D

91. C

92. C

93. B

Part 4: For questions 94-100, choose the answer (A, B. C or D) which you think fits best

according to the text. (7 points)

94 D

page 3/3

95 A

96 B

97 H

98 G

99 F

100 C

IV. WRITING (50 points)

Part 1: For questions 101-105, complete the second sentence so that it has a similar meaning

to the first sentence, using the word given. DO NOT CHANGE the word given. You must use

between three and eight words, including the word given. (10 points)

0. You’ve got to persuade the editor not to publish that story. OUT

You’ve got to ____ talk the editor out of publishing ____ that story.

101. Fresh food is ... less in demand due to/because of the availability... of convenience food.

102. On ... no account must you forget ... to pay the phone bill today.

103. He ... is intent on seeing .... animals living in the wild.

104. John ... seems to have decided against .... buying that house after all.

105. She .... doesn’t have much (of a) flair for .... arranging flowers.

Part 2: (15 points)

1. Content (5 points)

Arguing and supporting their points of view

2. Organisation and cohesion (4 points)

Clear organisation of ideas, with suitable paragraphing and linking

3. Grammar (3 points)

Using good grammar in standard English.

4. Variety of vocabulary (3 points)

Using a large variety of vocabulary.

Part 3: (25 points)

1

. Content (8 points)

Arguing and supporting their points of view

2. Organisation and cohesion (7 points)

Clear organisation of ideas, with suitable paragraphing and linking

3. Grammar (5 points)

Using good grammar in standard English.

4. Variety of vocabulary (5 points)

Using a large variety of vocabulary.

- THE END -

Tuyển tập đề thi học sinh giỏi và chọn đội tuyển Học sinh giỏi quốc gia THPT năm học 2015-2016 Tập 1

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