(Vòng 2) Đề thi chọn đội tuyển dự thi Học sinh giỏi Quốc gia THPT môn Tiếng Anh tỉnh Ninh Bình năm 2018-2019

SỞ GD&ĐT NINH BÌNH
ĐỀ THI CHỌN HỌC SINH GIỎI THPT CẤP TỈNH
Năm học: 2018 – 2019 ĐỀ THI CHÍNH THỨC MÔN: TIẾNG ANH
Ngày thi: 12/9/2018
(Thời gian 180 phút, không kể thời gian phát đề)
Đề thi gồm 4 phần, trong 10 trang
HỌ TÊN, CHỮ KÍ CỦA SỐ PHÁCH ĐIỂM BÀI THI GIÁM KHẢO
(Do CTHĐ chấm ghi)
Giám khảo số 1:................................
Bằng số:................/18.0 điểm ............................................................
Bằng chữ:............................
Giám khảo số 2:................................
..............................................
............................................................
(Thí sinh làm bài trực tiếp vào các tờ đề thi)
PART A: LISTENING. (3,0 POINTS)
- Bài nghe gồm 2 phần, thí sinh được nghe 2 lần.
- Hướng dẫn làm bài chi tiết cho thí sinh bằng tiếng Anh đã có trong từng phần nghe.
- Mở đầu và kết thúc bài nghe có tín hiệu nhạc.
Part 1. You will hear a report on how English has become a global language. For
questions 1-10, complete the sentences with a word or short phrase. Write your answers
in the numbered boxes. (2.0 points)
The spread of English around the globe means it is now termed a (1) __________. English first
started to spread when explorers made voyages of (2) __________ to the other side of the world.
The influence of Britain in the past and the influence of American businesses are the (3)
__________ which give English its present significance.
The number of people whose (4) __________ is English is significantly greater in the USA than in the (5) __________.
It is difficult to (6) __________ the communicative functions of English in some countries. It
is sometimes suggested that English is (7) __________ superior to other languages.
People tend to judge languages using subjective rather than (8) __________.
English sentence structure is (9) __________.
Language success is (10) __________ on a variety of different things. Your answers: 1. 2. 3. 4. 5. 6. 7. 8. 9. 10. 1
Part 2. You will hear an interview with Dr. Maurice Harman, an expert on obesity. For
question 11-15, choose the answer (A, B, C or D) which fits best according to what you hear.
Write your answers in the numbered boxes. (1.0 point)
11. According to Dr. Harman, what is true about the problem of obesity?
A. Other health campaigns have indirectly addressed it.
B. It makes people more aware of their bodies.
C. People only care about it when they realize that their clothes don’t fit.
D. There has been an increase in attacks on sufferers.
12. In the last 20 years, _____.
A. various false statistics have been released
B. cases of obesity have risen quite significantly
C. several organizations have been set up to help
D. our attitude to the problem of obesity has got worse
13. Dr. Harman, suggests that _____.
A. eating fast food once a week causes obesity
B. young people are unable to eat properly
C. restaurants have been shown to be unwilling to help
D. obesity is linked to the spread of fast food outlets
14. Which of the following can cause obesity?
A. Incurable medical conditions.
B. Very common health problems.
C. A relaxed lifestyle and home-cooked meals.
D. Inherited complaints and eating disorders.
15. The doctor says that an eating disorder can be caused if the person _____.
A. is suffering from depression
B. is too comfortable with food
C. eats too much on one occasion
D. sometimes eat when they are bored Your answers: 11. 12. 13. 14. 15.
PART B: VOCABULARY AND GRAMMAR (4, 5 POINTS)
I. Choose the correct answer (A, B, C or D) to complete each of the sentences. Write your
answers in the numbered boxes. (1.5 point)
1. Fiona didn’t like but she gave rather _____ a picture of the situation. A. defaced B. distorted C. disfigured D. disguised
2. Honesty and generosity are among the obvious _____ of Ninh Binh people. A. possessions B. traits C. ethics D. characters
3. In this ever-changing world, you should sometimes be _____ to prophecies from futurologists. A. unaffected B. invulnerable C. impervious D. aloof
4. Only the highest standards of conduct are _____ for a man in his position. A. admissible B. accessible C. approving D. favorable
5. According to the latest _____ poll, the government is more popular now than at any time since the election. A. opinion B. conviction C. belief D. idea 2
6. The boy _____ with astonishment when he heard he got the scholarship. A. gasp B. seize C. grasp D. catch
7. It is impossible to say at what point along the continuum a _____ becomes a separate language. A. dialect B. tongue C. speech D. communication
8. The students had no money left and took out a loan to _____ him over until the end of term. A. last B. tend C. keep D. tide
9. They appear _____ these days. It seems that their work is not going quite well. A. within limits B. out of line C. on edge D. off limits
10. He asked the dentist to give him a local anesthetic because he has a low _____ of pain. A. tolerance B. endurance C. level D. capacity
11. Many students spend tremendous amount of time on social networks and they are always _____ adequate sleep. A. derived from B. deprived of C. run out D. taken away
12. The most powerful force in a teenager’s life is probably _____ pressure. A. friend B. peer C. company D. youth
13. Lack of money will _____ a change of the plan. A. maximize B. reiterate C. necessitate D. reciprocate
14. John refused to put his career in _____ by opposing his boss. A. jeopardy B. hazard C. risk D. stake
15. Some students in Ninh Binh were _____ with extraordinary abilities. A. entitled B. entrusted C. endowed D. ensured Your answers: 1. 2. 3. 4. 5. 6. 7. 8. 9. 10. 11. 12. 13. 14. 15.
II. Complete each of the following sentences below with a suitable particle. Write your
answers in the numbered boxes. (1.0 point)
1. Scientists are mystified by the sudden rise in global temperature. They are unable to account _____ it.
2. I’m looking forward to the match between Vietnam and UAE. What time do they kick _____?
3. At weekends, many people like to immerse themselves _____ the peaceful and quiet
atmosphere of the Thung Nham valley in Ninh Binh.
4. She stood _____ her opponents’ criticisms and was eventually proved right.
5. She was quite disappointed because her rival had done her _____ the reward.
6. I was lucky to light _____ a knowledgeable tour guide during my trip to Phat Diem cathedral.
7. Son Tung rounded _____ the concert with his greatest hits. So everyone went home happy.
8. The little girl decided to go _____ game show “Who is millionaire” in the hope that she would win a prize.
9. The new teacher has a very pleasant manner. I’m sure the children will take _____ her at once.
10. We’ve had some hard times recently, but I think things are beginning to look _____. Your answers: 1. 2. 3. 4. 5. 6. 7. 8. 9. 10. 3
III. Complete each of the following sentences below with the correct form of the word
given in the brackets. Write your answers in the numbered boxes. (1.0 point)
1. She gave him a __________ smile. (SISTER)
2. The car veered onto the wrong side of the road and collided with a(n) __________ truck. (COME)
3. That the math teacher in Ho Chi Minh city kept silent for a long time really __________ her students. (NERVE)
4. Those clothes do nothing for your __________. (STREET)
5. Looking into her face, he felt an __________ joy in seeing his child many times. (EXPRESS)
6. They had a (n) __________ party after the victory of Vietnam football team over Japan team
and it lasted until small hours. (ROAR)
7. The talks were totally __________. We didn’t reach agreement on anything at all. (PRODUCE)
8. A(n) __________ person always tries to be fair and reasonable, and always listens to other people’s opinions. (MIND)
9. His complicated instructions made it __________ difficult for the students to follow the procedure. (NEED)
10. Many youngsters are suffering from __________ which is now recognized as a serious medical condition. (SHOP) Your answers: 1. 2. 3. 4. 5. 6. 7. 8. 9. 10.
IV. The passage below contains 10 errors. Underline the errors and write the correct
forms in the boxes provided. (1.0 point) 1
In Britain, as children’s rights to citizens have strengthened over recent years, 2
a strong presumption in favor of involving children in decisions on matters 3
that directly affect them have adopted in a number of areas of law, public 4
policy and professional practice, for example, school councils. Yet 5
surprisingly few is known about how far children’s participation extends to 6
their home lives and the routine business of everyday life. A recent study, as 7
regards discussions and in-deep interviews with 117 children aged between 8
eight and ten, examined how and by what extent the children were involved in 9
shaping their own and their families’ domestic lives. Many of the findings 10
were illuminated. The ways in which families made decisions involved a 11
subtle, complex and dynamic set of processes on what children could exert a 12
decisive influence. Most families operated democracy but children would 13
accept the ultimate authority of their parents provided that they felt their 14
parents acted “fairly”. For children, “fairness” had more to do with being 15
treated equitably than simple having the decision made in their favor. 16
Children could use claims to fairness like a moral lever in negotiations with parents. 4 Line Error Correction Line Error Correction 1. 6. 2. 7. 3. 8. 4. 9. 5. 10.
PART C: READING COMPREHENSION (6.0 POINTS)
I. Read the passage and fill in each blank with ONE suitable word. Write your answer in
the numbered boxes. (2.0 points)
Because of their exceptional hearing capabilities, their echolocation sense and the
importance of sound in the underwater world, all dolphins were (1) _____ of as primarily
“auditory animals.” Vision was believed to be not particularly well developed, even in oceanic
dolphins, and of secondary importance at (2) _____. We now know, however, that oceanic
dolphins have excellent (3) _____ and that vision plays an important part in their natural
world. Research has shown that dolphins can see (4) _____ well both underwater and in air. In
contrast, we humans are visually (5) _____ underwater unless we wear weak facemask or
goggles. The dolphin instead seems to rely on adaptations of the optical qualities of is cornea
and lens to allow it to see well in air or underwater. The dolphin eye, though lacking color
vision, is highly (6) _____ to light in the blue region of the visible spectrum, which is in
keeping with its off-shore blue-green underwater world. Dolphins, like dogs and cats see well
at night or in the dim light of its underwater world. Dolphin eyes are laterally placed, providing
a wide field of view enabling the dolphin to see (7) _____, laterally, and even rearward. Also,
unlike our eyes, the dolphin’s eyes act independently. In air vision helps the dolphin to keep in
contact with more instant leaping members of its group, to detect circling birds that may (8)
_____ the presence of prey fish, and to recognize land features in its coastal habitat.
Laboratory studies have confirmed that vision is an important information (9) _____ for the
dolphin. It is clear, therefore, that we should regard dolphins as both (10) _____ and visual
specialists, making their way through their world through both sound and vision, just like us. Your answers: 1. 2. 3. 4. 5. 6. 7. 8. 9. 10.
II. Reading the following passage and choose the correct answer (A, B, C or D) to each of
the questions. Write your answers in the numbered boxes. (2.0 points)
The term “art deco” has come to encompass three distinct but related design trends of
the 1920’s and 1930’s. The first was what is frequently referred to as “zigzag moderne” - the
exotically ornamental style of such skyscrapers as the Chrysler Building in New York City and
related structures such as the Paramount Theater in Oakland, California The word “zigzag”
alludes to the geometric and stylized ornamentation of zigzags, angular patterns, abstracted
plant and animal motifs, sunbursts, astrological imagery, formalized fountains, and related
themes that were applied in mosaic relief and mural form to the exterior and interior of the
buildings. Many of these buildings were shaped in the ziggurat form, a design resembling an 5
ancient Mesopotamian temple tower that recedes in progressively smaller stages to the
summit, creating a staircase-like effect.
The second manifestation of art deco was the 1930’s streamlined moderne” style – a
futuristic-looking aerodynamic style of rounded corners and horizontal bands known as “speed
stripes”. In architecture, these elements were frequently accompanied by round windows,
extensive use of glass block, and flat rooftops.
The third style, referred to as cither “international stripped classicism,” or simply
“classical moderne,” also came to the forefront during the Depression, a period of severe
economic difficult in the 1930’s. This was a more conservative style, blending a simplified
modernistic style with a more austere form of geometric and stylized relief sculpture and other
ornament, including interior murals. May buildings in this style were erected nationwide
through government programs during the Depression.
Although art deco in its many forms was largely perceived as thoroughly modern, it was
strongly influenced by the decorative arts movements that immediately preceded it. For
example, like “art nouveau” (1890-1910), art deco also used plant motifs, but regularized the
forms into abstracted repetitive patterns rather than presenting them as flowing, asymmetrical
foliage, Like the Viennese craftspeople of the Wiener Werkstatte, art deco designers worked
with exotic materials, geometricized shapes, and colorfully ornate patterns. Furthermore, like
the artisans of the Arts and Crafts Movement in England and the United States, art deep
practitioners considered it their mission to transform the domestic environment through well-
designed furniture and household accessories.
1. What aspect of art deco does the passage mainly discuss?
A. The influence of art deco on the design of furniture and household accessories.
B. Ways in which government programs encouraged the development of art deco.
C. Architectural manifestations of art deco during the 1920’s and 1930’s.
D. Reasons for the popularity of art deco in New York and California.
2. The word “encompass” in line 1 is closest in meaning to _____. A. separate B. include C. replace D. enhance
3. The phrase “The first” refers to _____. A. the term “art deco” B. design trends C. the 1920’s and 1930’s D. skyscrapers
4. The author mentions “an ancient Mesopotamian temple tower” in order to _____.
A. describe the exterior shape of certain “art deco” buildings
B. explain the differences between ancient and modern architectural steles
C. emphasize the extent of architectural advances
D. argue for a return to more traditional architectural design
5. The streamlined moderne style is characterized by all of the following EXCEPT _____. A. animal motifs B. flat roofs
C. round windows D. “speed stripes”
6. The phrase “came to the forefront” is closest in meaning to _____. A. grew in complexity B. went through a process C. changed its approach D. became important
7. According to the passage, which of the following statements most accurately describes the
relationship between art deco and art nouveau? 6
A. They were art forms that competed with each other for government support during the Depression era.
B. They were essentially the same art form.
C. Art nouveau preceded art deco and influenced it.
D. Art deco became important in the United States while art nouveau became popular in England.
8. According to the passage, a building having an especially ornate appearance would most
probably have been designed in the style of _____. A. zigzag moderne B. streamlined moderne C. classical moderne
D. the Arts and Crafts Movement
9. According to the passage, which of the following design trends is known by more than one name? A. Zigzag moderne B. Streamlined moderne
C. International stripped classicism D. Arts and Crafts Movement
10. The passage is primarily developed as _____.
A. the historical chronology of a movement
B. a description of specific buildings that became famous for their unusual beauty
C. an analysis of various trends within an artistic movement
D. an argument of the advantages of one artistic form over another Your answers: 1. 2. 3. 4. 5. 6. 7. 8. 9. 10.
III. Read the following passage and do the tasks that follow. Write your answers in the
numbered boxes. (2.0 points)
A. A constellation is a group of stars which when viewed collectively appear to have a
physical proximity’ in the sky. Constellation boundaries and definitions as used today in
Western culture, and as defined by the International Astronomical Union (IAU), were
formalised in 1930 by Eugene Delporte. There are 88 official constellations as recognised by
the IAU, those visible in the northern hemisphere being based upon those established by the
ancient Greeks, the constellations of the southern hemisphere – since invisible to the Greeks
due to geographical location – were not defined until later in the early modem era.
B. Arguably, the twelve constellations through which the sun passes – as used to
represent the signs of the zodiac to define birth characteristics – are the most culturally
significant and well known of those established by the ancient Greeks. Cultural differences in
Interpretation and definition of star constellations mainly relate to these zodiac interpretations,
Chinese constellations, for example, which are different to those defined in the western world
due to the independent development of ancient Chinese astronomy, includes 28 ‘Xiu’ or
‘mansions’ instead of the 12 western zodiac counterparts. In Hindu/Vedic astronomy, in which
constellations are known as ‘rashis’, 12 rashi corresponding directly to the twelve western star
signs are acknowledged; these are however, divided again into 27 ‘Nakshatras’ or ’lunar
houses’. Many cultures have an intricate mythology behind the stars and their constellations. In
Greek mythology, for example Pegasus, the winged horse, is said to have sprung from the 7
decapitated head of Medusa, and later was used by the God King Zeus to carry thunder and
lightning to Earth, before being put into a constellation.
C. In Western astronomy, all modern constellation names derive from Latin, some stars
within the constellations are named using the genitive form of the Latin word by using the
usual rules of Latin grammar. For example, the zodiac sign for the Fish constellation Pisces
relates to Piscium. In addition, all constellation names have a standard three-letter abbreviation
as assigned by the IAU, under which, for example, Pisces becomes PSC.
D. Some star patterns often wrongly considered constellations by laymen are actually
‘asterisms’ – a group of stars that appear to form patterns in the sky - and are not in fact one of
the 88 officially divided areas truly defined as a constellation. A famous example of an
asterism oft mistaken for a constellation is the Big Dipper’ (as it is termed in North America)
or the ‘Plough’ as it is known in the UK. In astronomical terms, this famous star formation is
in fact considered only part of the larger constellation known as Ursa Major.
E. In order to identify the position of stars relative to the Earth, there are a number of
different celestial coordinate systems that cart provide a detailed reference point in space.
There are many different systems, all of which are largely similar with the exception of a
difference in the position of the fundamental plane – the division between northern and
southern hemispheres. The five most common celestial systems are the Horizontal system, the
Equatorial system, the Ecliptical system, the Galactic system and the Supergalactic system.
F. The launch of the Hubble space telescope in April 1990 changed the way that
astronomers saw the universe, providing detailed digital images of constellations, planets and
gas - clouds that had never been seen before. Compared to ground-based telescopes, Hubble is
not particularly large, with a primary mirror diameter of 2.4 meters (94.5 inches). Hubble
would be considered a medium-size telescope on the ground. However, the combination of its
precision optics, state-of-the-art instrumentation, and unprecedented pointing stability and
control, allows Hubble to more than make up for its lack of size, giving it a range of well over 12 billion light years.
G. The telescope’s location above the Earth’s atmosphere also has a number of significant
advantages over land based telescopes. The atmosphere bends light due to a phenomenon known
as diffraction (this is what causes starlight to appear to twinkle and leads to the often blurred
images seen through ground-based telescopes). The Hubble Space Telescope can also observe
infrared light that would otherwise be blocked by the atmosphere as the wavelength (distance
between successive wave crests) of ultraviolet light is shorter than that of visible light.
H. Despite early setbacks – one of the reflective mirrors had to be replaced after finding
that it had been ground incorrectly and did not produce the images expected – the telescope has
reignited interest in space amongst the general public – a requirement, given that taxpayer
funding paid for the research, deployment and maintenance of the telescope.
Questions 1-5: Choose the correct heading for paragraphs A-F from the list of headings below. List of Headings
i. Different methods of locating and identifying
ii. A better view of the constellations
iii. Technological advances in research and development 8
iv. Atmospheric weaknesses of telescopes in orbit
v. Different interpretations of star groupings vi. Common misconceptions
vii. Bypassing terrestrial limitations
viii. Renewed interest in the stars
ix. Ethnic differences in celestial mapping
x. Formal marking of constellations
xi. Universal myths of constellations
xii. Historical and modern reference
1. Paragraph A _______ 2. Paragraph B _______ 3. Paragraph C _______ 4. Paragraph D _______ 5. Paragraph F _______
Questions 6-10: Complete the summary below using NO MORE THAN TWO WORDS.
Despite an initial flaw in a (6) __________, the Hubble space telescope is superior to
telescopes on land as it can identify (7) __________ which would not normally reach the
Earth’s surface. This is all the more impressive given that Hubble is only classified as a (8)
__________ telescope. Being above the atmosphere, it also has the advantages of not being
affected by (9) __________, which would otherwise lead to (10) __________ images. Your answers: 1. 2. 3. 4. 5. 6. 7. 8. 9. 10.
PART D: WRITING (4, 5 POINTS)
I. Complete the second sentence so that it has a similar meaning to the first sentence
using word given. Do not change the given word. (1.0 point)
1. Sonia had promised to come but she told lies. (BACK)
Sonia was ………………………………………………………………………………………..
2. Any correspondence from Camellia office must be solved before other affairs. (PRIORITY)
Any correspondence ……………………………………………………………………………
3. My daughter is determined to become a stewardess. (SIGHTS)
My daughter sets ………………………………………………………………………………..
4. Police arrested Johnson because they thought he was involved in the robbery. (SUSPICION)
Johnson was detained …………………………………………………………………………..
5. It took the fire fighters three hours to extinguish the fire. (SUCCEED)
Only after ……………………………………………………………………………………….
II. Write an essay (3, 5 points)
The performance of Vietnam national football team in ASIAD is widely considered a
regrettable but successful failure. In your opinion what is a so-called “successful failure”? To
what extent do you agree with the opinion that there are more to be gained from failure than
from success? How do you find it useful to your work and life? 9
Write an essay (250 -300 words) presenting your answers.
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