1
UBND XÃ HÙNG VIỆT
HỘI ĐNG THI CHN HSG
K THI CHN HC SINH GII LP 9 CP XÃ
NĂM HC 2025-2026
Đề thi môn: TING ANH
Thi gian: 150 phút (không kthi gian giao đề)
thi có 10 trang)
I. LISTENING (4.0 points
Part 1. Listen to the recording. Complete the form below. Write no more than two words or
numbers for each of the following blanks.
DVD Customer Profile
Occupation: Student
Have you owned a DVD player before? No
What is the maximum you want to spend on DVD player? (1) £
……………………………….
How often do you watch DVDs? (2)
……………………………….
What type of films do you enjoy? (3)
……………………………….
What other DVDs (non-film) do you watch? (4)
……………………………….
Player
Features
Cost
After-sales service
DB 30
Basic
£ 69
(5)
………………………………….
XL 643
Can also (6)
……………….
(7) £
…………………………
(8)
……………
at reduced
cost
Tri X 24
Will also play (9)
………….
£ 94 including (10)
…………
Guaranteed for 3 years
Write your answers here:
1.
6.
2.
7.
3.
8.
4.
9.
5.
10.
2
Part 2: You will hear part of a talk about a type of bird called a crane. Listen and decide
whether the following statements are True (T) or False (F). Write your answer in the
corresponding numbered boxes provided.
Statements
T/F
11. Cranes are a national bird in North Africa.
12. Three species of cranes are now in danger in the world.
13. The main habitat of cranes is wetlands where there is much water.
14. Cranes often collide with the power lines that are now found across
Southern Africa
15. Crane conservation in South Africa is coordinated by an organisation called
Engdangered Wildlife Trust.
Write your answers here:
11.
12.
13.
14.
15.
Part 3: You will hear a radio interview in which two web designers called Rob Thorn and Sophie
Unwin are discussing aspects of their work. For questions 1-5, choose the answer (А, В, or C)
which fits best according to what you hear (1 point).
16. Sophie says that the work of web designers
A. must reflect constant evolution in the field.
B. is subject to rigid time constraints.
C. should prioritise aesthetic considerations.
17. Sophie believes the success of a website depends on
A. the balance of text and illustration.
B. the emphasis on pictorial accuracy.
C. the logical organisation of its content.
18. The change from being a freelancer to working for a company has led Sophie to feel
A. relieved she carries less responsibility.
B. pleased she spends less time on administration.
C. disappointed she has less contact with clients.
19. What is Rob’s strategy when dealing with clients?
A. to overstate the time a project will take
B. to conduct meetings in a formal atmosphere
C. to focus on discussing financial details
3
20. Both Rob and Sophie say they find inspiration by
A. experimenting with other art forms.
B. appreciating new technological developments.
C. developing a heightened perception of everyday things.
Write your answers here:
16.
17.
18.
19.
20.
II. LANGUAGE (6.0 points)
Part 1. Phonetics (1.0 point)
Write the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word whose underlined part
is pronounced differently from the rest.
21.A. parachute B. cornstarch C. chef D. moustache
22.A. drought B. plough C. stout D. boutique
23.A. chic B. charity C. Michigan D. chauffeur
Write the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word whose stress pattern is
different from the other three of the group.
24.A. environmental B. biological C. agricultural D. geographical
25.A. mistake B. decline C. guitar D. windmill
Write your answers here:
21.
22.
23.
24.
25.
Part 2. Write the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct word or phrase
that best completes each of the following sentences. (3.0 points)
26. The carbon dioxide gas given ____ by the fermenting vat was known as “fixed air”.
A. off B. away C. out D. up
27. He stopped the thief right at the corner, and up ____________.
A. did a policeman walk B. a policeman walked
C. walked a policeman D. walk a policeman
28. Things in this shop are too expensive; I won't pay $500 for the fur coat because it is not
worth ____________.
A. that much all B. all that much C. that all much D. much all that
4
29. Team rules require that each player __________ responsible for memorizing one rule and
then for teaching that rule to all of the players.
A. is B. was C. be D. were
30. Auroras are created when the sun’s particles are caught in.
A. field the earth’s magnetic B. the field magnetic earth
C. the earth’s magnetic field D. the magnetic field earth
31. ______then what I know today, I would have saved myself a lot of time and trouble over the
years.
A.
If I know B. Did I know C. Had I known D. If I knew
32. We believe that these animals could be saved if our plans were ____________.
A. adopted B. practised C. exploited D. rehearsed
33. I’m afraid we will probably have a future ahead with little comfort, shortages of food and
clean water, and a threat of A.I.
A. cruel B. pessimistic C. grim D. fierce
34. The idea of glasses being a fashion item has been slow to ____________.
A. take in B. catch on C. put across D. set aside
35. Silence ___________ the theatre as the audience awaited the opening curtain with
expectation and excitement.
A. dropped out of B. hung over C. fell in with D. came between
36. I only touched his new car and he went crazy. He is over-protective of it and made a real
___________ in a teacup.
A. snow B. rain C. storm D. wind
37. The hungry customer ___________ that pizza in record time and ordered another.
A. boiled up B. tucked in C. chopped up D. bolted down
38. Because the first iPhone was a revolutionary product, it became a ___________ success.
A. rowing B. rowling C. howling D. bowling
39. Tracy: I am going to have an IELTS exam tomorrow morning.
Carly: ___________.
A. Break a leg. B. See you soon. C. Long time no see. D. You must go now.
40. Tom: - “You should never have agreed to help mend her car!”
Peter: “___________
A. Famous last words B. Well, you live and learn
C. It’s a small word D. You can’t win them all
5
Write your answers here:
26.
27.
28.
29.
30.
31.
32.
33.
34.
35.
36.
37
38.
39.
40.
Part 3. Read the text and use the bold words in brackets to form words that fit in the numbered
blanks. (1.0 point)
For many people Ludwig van Beethoven (1770-1827) is the most (41. influence)
________figure in the history of western classical music. His (42. ordinary) ________talent
was already clearly evident as a young man, (43. mercy) ________ surviving a somewhat (44.
convention) ________ upbringing during which his eccentric father would often force him to
take music lessons in the middle of the night. The young Beethoven's ability won him the
admiration of the leading contemporary musical figures. Throughout the 1790s he worked hard
to secure the interest of (45. wealth) ________ patrons. Such patronage enabled him to
concentrate on becoming a successful composer. Whatever his awe-inspiring musical
achievements were, his personal life was something of a disaster.
Write your answers here:
41.
42.
43.
44.
45.
Part 4. Identify 5 mistakes in the following passage and correct them. (1.0 point)
Line
Passage
1
2
3
4
5
6
7
8
9
10
Air and water pollution might be assumed to be less pressing in city of developing
countries because of lower levels of industrial development. But in fact hundred of
such cities have high concentrations of industry. Air, water, noise, and solid waste
pollution problems have increased rapidly and can have dramatic impacts for the
lives and health of city inhabitants on their economy, and on jobs. Even in a
relatively small city, just one and two factories dumping waste into the only nearest
river can contaminate everyone’s drinking, washing, and cooking water. Many
slums and shanties crowd close to hazardous industrial regions which no one else
wants to live. This proximity has magnified the risks for the poor, a fact
demonstrated by great lose of life and human suffering in various recent industrial
accidents.
Write your answer here:
Line
Error
Correction
Line
Error
Correction
0.
1
city
cities
46.
47.
48.
49.
50.
6
III. READING (6.0 points)
Part 1. Write the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct option that best
fits each of the numbered blanks. (2.0 points)
Royal Residences
Buckingham Palace, Windsor Castle and the Palace of Holyroodhouse are the official (51)
_____________ of the Sovereign and, as such, serve as both home and office for The Queen,
whose personal standard flies (52) _____________ Her Majesty is in residence.
These buildings are used extensively for State ceremonies and Official entertaining and are
opened to the (53) _____________ as much as these commitments allow. They are furnished with
fine pictures and (54) _____________ of art from the Royal Collection, which has been assembled
over four centuries by successive sovereigns. Many of the State Apartments and rooms at the
official residences have been in continuous use since their conception and many of the works of
art are (55) _____________ in the rooms for which they were originally (56) _____________.
The official residences are in (57) _____________ use and the style and manner in which they
are (58) _____________ to visitors reflects their working status. Rooms are kept as close to their
normal (59) _____________ as possible. Inevitably, opening times are subject to change at short
notice depending on circumstances.
The Royal Collection, which is owned by The Queen as Sovereign in trust for her successors and
the Nation, is administered by the Royal Collection Trust to which a proportion of admission and
other income from visitors is directed.
The remainder of this income funds the majority of the cost of restoring Windsor Castle which
was badly (60) _____________ by fire in November 1992.
51:A. venues B. residences C. situations D. occupation
52:A. whatever B. however C. whoever D. whenever
53:A. humans B. public C. peoples D. strangers
54:A. paintings B. statues C. works D. jobs
55:A. created B. explored C. produced D. displayed
56:A. instructed B. intended C. performed D. guarded
57:A. local B. national C. regular D. minor
58:A. designed B. shown C. given D. taken
59:A. feature B. location C. destination D. appearance
60:A. destroyed B. ruined C. damaged D. collapsed
Write your answers here:
51.
52.
53.
54.
55.
56.
57.
58.
59.
60.
7
Part 2. Read the passage below and fill each numbered blank with ONE suitable word. (2.0
points)
When a celebrity, a politician or other person (61) ___________ the media spotlight loses
their temper in public, they run the risk of (62) ___________ the headlines in the most
embarrassing way. For such uncontrolled (63) ___________ of anger are often triggered by (64)
___________ seem to be trivial matters and, if they are caught on camera, can make the person
appear slightly ridiculous. But it's not only the rich and famous who are prone to fits of rage.
According to recent surveys, ordinary people are increasingly tending to (65) ___________ their
cool in public. Yet, anger is a potentially destructive emotion that uses up a lot of energy and
creates a high (66) ___________ of emotional and physical stress - and it stops us thinking
rationally. Consequently, angry people often (67) ___________ up saying, and doing things they
later have to regret. So, how can anger be avoided? Firstly, diet and lifestyle may be to blame.
Intolerance and irritability certainly come to the surface when someone hasn't slept properly or
has (68) ___________ a meal, and any intake of caffeine can make things worse. Taking regular
exercise can help to ease and diffuse feelings of aggression, however, reducing the chances of an
angry response. But if something or someone (69) ___________ make you angry, it's advisable
not to react immediately. Once you've calmed down, things won't look half (70) ___________
bad as you first thought.
Write your answers here:
61.
62.
63.
64.
65.
66.
67.
68.
69.
70.
Part 3. Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to
indicate the correct answer to each of the questions. (2.0 points)
A survey is a study, generally in the form of an interview or a questionnaire, that provides
information concerning how people think and act. In the United States, the best-known surveys
are the Gallup poll and the Harris poll. As anyone who watches the news during presidential
campaigns knows, these polls have become an important part of political life in the United States.
North Americans are familiar with the many "person on the street" interviews on local
television news shows. While such interviews can be highly entertaining, they are not necessarily
an accurate indication of public opinion. First, they reflect the opinions of only those people who
appear at a certain location. Thus, such samples can be biased in favor of commuters, middle-
class shoppers, or factory workers, depending or which area the newspeople select. Second,
television interviews tend to attract outgoing people who are willing to appear on the air, while
they frighten away others who may feel intimidated by a camera. A survey must be based on a
precise, representative sampling if it is to genuinely reflect a broad range of the population.
In preparing to conduct a survey, sociologists must exercise great care in the wording of
questions. An effective survey question must be simple and clear enough for people to understand
it. It must also be specific enough so that there are no problems in interpreting the results. Even
questions that are less structured must be carefully phrased in order to elicit the type of
8
information desired. Surveys can be indispensable sources of information, but only if the sampling
is done properly and the questions are worded accurately.
There are two main forms of surveys: the interview and the questionnaire. Each of these
forms of survey research has its advantages. An interviewer can obtain a high response rate
because people find it more difficult to turn down a personal request for an interview than to throw
away a written questionnaire. In addition, an interviewer can go beyond written questions and
probe for a subject's underlying feelings and reasons. However, questionnaires have the
advantage of being cheaper and more consistent.
71. What does the passage mainly discuss?
A. The history of surveys in North America
B. The principles of conducting surveys
C. Problems associated with interpreting surveys
D. The importance of polls in American political life
72. The word "they" in line 6 refers to _______.
A. North Americans B. news shows C. interviews D. opinions
73. According to the passage, the main disadvantage of person-on-the-street interviews is that
they_______.
A. are not based on a representative sampling
B. are used only on television
C. are not carefully worded
D. reflect political opinions
74. The word "precise" in line 13 is closest in meaning to _______.
A. planned B. rational C. required D. accurate
75. According to paragraph 3, which of the following is most important for an effective survey?
A. A high number of respondents
B. Carefully worded questions
C. An interviewer's ability to measure respondents' feelings
D. A sociologist who is able to interpret the results
76. The word "exercise" in line 15 is closest in meaning to _______.
A. utilize B. consider C. design D. defend
77. The word "indispensable" is closest in meaning to______.
A. necessary B. complicated C. expensive D. simple
9
78. It can inferred from the passage that one reason that sociologists may become frustrated with
questionnaires is that _______.
A. respondents often do not complete and return questionnaires
B. questionnaires are often difficult to read
C. questionnaires are expensive and difficult to distribute
D. respondents are too eager to supplement questions with their own opinions
79. According to the passage, one advantage of live interviews over questionnaires is that live
interviews _______.
A. cost less B. can produce more information
C. are easier to interpret D. minimize the influence of the researcher.
80. The word "probe" in the last paragraph is closest in meaning to_______.
A. explore B. influence C. analyze D. apply
Write your answers here:
71.
72.
73.
74.
75.
76.
77.
78.
79.
80.
IV. WRITING (4.0 points)
Part 1. Rewrite each of the following sentences in such a way that it has a similar meaning to the
original one. (1.0 point)
81. It’s certain that he didn’t mean to hurt you.
→ He can’t……………………………………….
82. He worked very hard, but he was unable to earn enough for his living.
→ Hard-working…….
83. Provided your handwriting is legible, the examiners will accept your paper.
So long as the examiners…
84. We cannot make any comparison with her sacrifice.
Nothing ……………………………………………………………………
85. He’ll agree with my point of view, given a bit of time.
He’ll come….
Part 2. Rewrite each of the following sentences in such a way that it has a similar meaning to the
original one. The word given MUST NOT be altered in anyway. (1.0 point)
86. I found the plot of the book too complicated to follow.(HEAD)
→ I can’t …………………………………………………………………… the plot of the book.
87. Brian didn’t work here for very long, he had an important effect on the company. (MARK)
10
→ Despite not working here for very long, ……………………………………….the company.
88. His behaviors is generally unacceptable. (DRAW)
→ Generally, we should …………………………………………………………..such behaviors.
89. Julia soon calmed down and explained her problem to her parents. (PULLED)
Julia soon ……………………………………………………………………………
90. The manager was furious when he discovered I’d been on a social networking site while at
work. (THROAT)
The manager ………………………………………………………………………out I’d been
on a social networking site while at work.
Part 3. Paragraph writing (2.0 points)
How students can better protect themselves from the growing threat of online kidnapping? Write
a 150–200 word paragraph explaining your ideas.”
___The end___
11
NG DN CHẤM – HỌC SINH GII LP 9
Môn: Tiếng Anh
I. LISTENING (4.0 points
Part 1. Listen to the recording. Complete the form below. Write no more than two words or
numbers for each of the following blanks.
1. £ 85
6. record
2. three (times) a month
7. £ 71.99
3. thrillers
8. labour at reduced cost
4. comedy programs
9. CDs
5. parts
10. insurance
Part2: You will hear part of a talk about a type of bird called a crane. Listen and decide whether
the following statements are True (T) or False (F). Write your answer in the corresponding
numbered boxes provided.
Part 3: You will hear a radio interview in which two web designers called Rob Thorn and Sophie
Unwin are discussing aspects of their work. For questions 1-5, choose the answer (А, В, or C)
which fits best according to what you hear (1 point).
16. A
17. C
18. B
19. A
20. C
II. LANGUAGE (6.0 points)
Part 1. Phonetics (1.0 point)
Part 2. Write the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct word or phrase
that best completes each of the following sentences. (3.0 points)
26. A
27. C
28. B
29. C
30. C
31. C
32. A
33. C
34. B
35. B
36. C
37. D
38. C
39. A
40. B
11. F
12. F
13. F
14. T
15. T
21. B
22. D
23. B
24. A
25. D
12
Part 3. Read the text and use the bold words in brackets to form words that fit in the numbered
blanks. (1.0 point)
Part 4.
Identify 5 mistakes in the following passage and correct them. (1.0 point)
No
Line
Error
Correction
46
2
hundred
hundreds
47
4
for
on
48
6
and
or
49
8
which
where/ in which
50
9
lose
loss
III. READING (6.0 points)
Part 1. Write the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct option that best fits
each of the numbered blanks. (2.0 points)
51. B
52. D
53. B
54. C
55. D
56. B
57. C
58. B
59. D
60. C
Part 2. Read the passage below and fill each numbered blank with ONE suitable word. (2.0 points)
61. in
62.hitting/grabbing/ making
63. outbursts
64. what
65. lose
66. level
67. end
68. skipped
69. does
70. as
Part 3. Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate
the correct answer to each of the questions. (2.0 points)
71. B
72. C
73. A
74. D
75. D
76. A
77. A
78. A
79. B
80. A
IV. WRITING (4.0 points)
Part 1. Rewrite each of the following sentences in such a way that it has a similar meaning to the
original one. (1.0 point)
81. He can’t have meant to hurt you.
82. Hard-working as/though he was, he was unable to earn enough for his living.
83. So long as the examiners can read your handwriting, they will accept your paper.
84. Nothing can be compared with her sacrifice.
85. He’ll come round to my point of view, given a bit of time.
41.influential
42.extraordinary
43.mercifully
44.unconvetional
45.wealthy
13
Part 2. Rewrite each of the following sentences in such a way that it has a similar meaning to the
original one. The word given MUST NOT be altered in anyway. (1.0 point)
86. I can’t make head nor tail of the plot of the book.
87. Despite not working here for very long, Brian made his/a mark on the company.
88. Generally, we should draw the line at such behaviors.
89. Julia soon pulled herself together and explained her problem to her parents.
90. The manager jumped down my throat when he found out I’d been on a social
networking site while at work.
Part 3. Paragraph writing (2.0 points)
How students can better protect themselves from the growing threat of online kidnapping? Write a
150–200 word paragraph explaining your ideas.”
Suggested marking criteria:
1. Organization: (3 points)
- Paragraph has three parts (topic sentence, supporting sentences, concluding sentence)
- The idea is parallel
2. Content, coherence and cohesion: (12 points)
- Topic sentence: consists of topic and controlling idea.
- Supporting sentences: support directly the main idea stated in the topic sentence and
provide logical, persuasive examples.
- Concluding sentence: summarizes the main supporting ideas/ restates the topic sentence
and give personal opinion.
- The communicating intentions are expressed sufficiently and effectively.
- Appropriate transition signals.
3. Language use and accuracy: (5 points)
- A variety of vocabulary and structures appropriate to the level of English language for
lower -secondary school students.
- Good use and control of grammatical structures.
- Correct use of punctuation and spelling.
- Legible handwriting.
Penalty mark: If the whole paragraph is off-topic, it gets no mark.
Tổng đim toàn bài: 200 đim. Quy vthang đim 20 (200:10 = 20)
1
UBND XÃ HÙNG VIỆT
.HỘI ĐỒNG THI HSG LỚP 9
(Phiếu trả lời gồm: 04 trang)
KÌ THI CHỌN HỌC SINH GIỎI LỚP 9 CẤP XÃ
NĂM HỌC 2025 - 2026
MÔN: TIẾNG ANH
Thời gian làm bài: 150 phút.
PHẦN DÀNH CHO HỘI ĐỒNG PHÚC KHẢO
Đim bài thi
Bằng s: ...............................
Bằng ch: ............................
Họ tên ch
Giám kho 1 Giám kho 2
.................................... .....................................
Số phách
(do Chủ tịch Hi đng
phúc kho ghi)
%
================= Chủ tịch Hi đng phúc kho rc theo đưng nét đt này =================
PHẦN DÀNH CHO HỘI ĐỒNG CHẤM THI
Đim bài thi
Bằng s:……. ................
Bằng ch: .....................
Họ tên ch
Giám kho 1 Giám kho 2
............................. ..............................
Số phách
(do Chủ tịch HĐ
phúc kho ghi)
Số phách
(do Chủ tịch
Hội đng chm
thi ghi)
%
=================== Chủ tịch Hi đng chm thi rc theo đưng nét đt này ====================
PHẦN DÀNH CHO HỘI ĐỒNG COI THI
Họ tên chữ
Giám thị số 1 Giám thị số 2
......................................... .........................................
Số phách
(do Chủ tịch Hi đng
chm thi ghi)
THÍ SINH CẦN GHI ĐẦY ĐỦ CÁC MỤC DƯỚI ĐÂY
Họ và tên thí sinh:.........................................................................................................................
Ngày tháng năm sinh: ................................................................Nam / N:................................
Nơi sinh: ........................................................................................................................................
Học sinh lp: ....................... Trưng...........................................................................................
Phòng thi s: .............. Hi đng coi thi: ...................................................................................
Lưu ý:
- Thí sinh không đưc sử dụng bt ctài liu nào kể cả từ đin.
Số báo danh
2
PHIẾU TRẢ LỜI
I. LISTENING (4.0 points)
Part 1. (2.0 points)
1.
6.
2.
7.
3.
8.
4.
9.
5.
10.
Part 2. (1.0 point)
11.
12.
13.
14.
15.
Part 3. (1.0 point)
16.
17.
18.
19.
20.
II. LANGUAGE (6.0 points)
Part 1 (1.0 points)
21.
22.
23.
24.
25.
Part 2 (3.0 points)
26.
27.
28.
29.
30.
31.
32.
33.
34.
35.
36.
37.
38.
39.
40.
Part 3 (1.0 points)
41.
42.
43.
44.
45.
Part 4 (1.0 points)
Line
Error
Correction
Line
Error
Correction
46.
47.
48.
49.
50.
III. READING (6.0 points)
Part 1. (2.0 points)
51.
52.
53.
54.
55.
56.
57.
58.
59.
60.
Part 2. (2.0 points)
61.
62.
63.
64.
65.
66.
67.
68.
69.
70.
Part 3. (2.0 points)
71.
72.
73.
74.
75.
76.
77.
78.
79.
80.
3
IV. WRITING (4.0 points)
Part 1. (1.0 points)
81. …………………………………………………………………………………………………………..
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………..
82. …………………………………………………………………………………………………………..
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………..
83. …………………………………………………………………………………………………………..
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………..
84. …………………………………………………………………………………………………………..
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………..
85. …………………………………………………………………………………………………………..
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………..
Part 2. (1.0 points)
86. …………………………………………………………………………………………………………..
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………..
86. …………………………………………………………………………………………………………..
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………..
88. …………………………………………………………………………………………………………..
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………..
89. …………………………………………………………………………………………………………..
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………..
90. …………………………………………………………………………………………………………..
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………..
Part 3. Paragraph writing (2.0 points)
………………………………………………………………………………………………………….
………………………………………………………………………………………………………….
………………………………………………………………………………………………………….
………………………………………………………………………………………………………….
………………………………………………………………………………………………………….
………………………………………………………………………………………………………….
………………………………………………………………………………………………………….
………………………………………………………………………………………………………….
………………………………………………………………………………………………………….
………………………………………………………………………………………………………….
………………………………………………………………………………………………………….
………………………………………………………………………………………………………….
………………………………………………………………………………………………………….
4
………………………………………………………………………………………………………….
………………………………………………………………………………………………………….
………………………………………………………………………………………………………….
………………………………………………………………………………………………………….
………………………………………………………………………………………………………….
………………………………………………………………………………………………………….
………………………………………………………………………………………………………….
………………………………………………………………………………………………………….
………………………………………………………………………………………………………….
………………………………………………………………………………………………………….
………………………………………………………………………………………………………….
………………………………………………………………………………………………………….
………………………………………………………………………………………………………….
………………………………………………………………………………………………………….
………………………………………………………………………………………………………….
………………………………………………………………………………………………………….
………………………………………………………………………………………………………….
………………………………………………………………………………………………………….
………………………………………………………………………………………………………….
………………………………………………………………………………………………………….
………………………………………………………………………………………………………….
………………………………………………………………………………………………………….
………………………………………………………………………………………………………….
………………………………………………………………………………………………………….
………………………………………………………………………………………………………….
………………………………………………………………………………………………………….
………………………………………………………………………………………………………….
………………………………………………………………………………………………………….
………………………………………………………………………………………………………….
-------------------- HẾT --------------------
Lưu ý:
- Cán bộ coi thi không gii thích gì thêm.
- Học sinh không được sử dụng tài liệu trong thời gian làm bài.

Preview text:

UBND XÃ HÙNG VIỆT
KỲ THI CHỌN HỌC SINH GIỎI LỚP 9 CẤP XÃ
HỘI ĐỒNG THI CHỌN HSG NĂM HỌC 2025-2026
Đề thi môn: TIẾNG ANH ĐỀ CHÍ NH THỨC
Thời gian: 150 phút (không kể thời gian giao đề)
(Đề thi có 10 trang)
I. LISTENING (4.0 points
Part 1. Listen to the recording. Complete the form below. Write no more than two words or
numbers for each of the following blanks.
DVD Customer Profile
Occupation: Student
Have you owned a DVD player before? No
What is the maximum you want to spend on DVD player? (1) £ ……………………………….
How often do you watch DVDs? (2) ……………………………….
What type of films do you enjoy? (3) ……………………………….
What other DVDs (non-film) do you watch? (4) ………………………………. Player Features Cost After-sales service DB 30 Basic £ 69
(5) …………………………………. (8) XL 643 Can also (6) ……………at reduced ……………….
(7) £ ………………………… cost
Tri X 24 Will also play (9) …………. £ 94 including (10) ………… Guaranteed for 3 years
Write your answers here: 1. 6. 2. 7. 3. 8. 4. 9. 5. 10. 1
Part 2: You will hear part of a talk about a type of bird called a crane. Listen and decide
whether the following statements are True (T) or False (F). Write your answer in the
corresponding numbered boxes provided.
Statements T/F
11. Cranes are a national bird in North Africa.
12. Three species of cranes are now in danger in the world.
13. The main habitat of cranes is wetlands where there is much water.
14. Cranes often collide with the power lines that are now found across Southern Africa
15. Crane conservation in South Africa is coordinated by an organisation called Engdangered Wildlife Trust.
Write your answers here: 11. 12. 13. 14. 15.
Part 3: You will hear a radio interview in which two web designers called Rob Thorn and Sophie
Unwin are discussing aspects of their work. For questions
1-5, choose the answer (А, В, or C)
which fits best according to what you hear (1 point).

16. Sophie says that the work of web designers
A. must reflect constant evolution in the field.
B. is subject to rigid time constraints.
C. should prioritise aesthetic considerations.
17. Sophie believes the success of a website depends on
A. the balance of text and illustration.
B. the emphasis on pictorial accuracy.
C. the logical organisation of its content.
18. The change from being a freelancer to working for a company has led Sophie to feel
A. relieved she carries less responsibility.
B. pleased she spends less time on administration.
C. disappointed she has less contact with clients.
19. What is Rob’s strategy when dealing with clients?
A. to overstate the time a project will take
B. to conduct meetings in a formal atmosphere
C. to focus on discussing financial details 2
20. Both Rob and Sophie say they find inspiration by
A. experimenting with other art forms.
B. appreciating new technological developments.
C. developing a heightened perception of everyday things.
Write your answers here: 16. 17. 18. 19. 20. II. LANGUAGE (6.0 points)
Part 1. Phonetics (1.0 point)

Write the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word whose underlined part
is pronounced differently from the rest.
21.A. parachute B. cornstarch C. chef D. moustache 22.A. drought B. plough C. stout D. boutique 23.A. chic B. charity C. Michigan D. chauffeur
Write the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word whose stress pattern is
different from the other three of the group.
24.A. environmental B. biological C. agricultural D. geographical 25.A. mistake B. decline C. guitar D. windmill
Write your answers here: 21. 22. 23. 24. 25.
Part 2. Write the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct word or phrase
that best completes each of the following sentences. (3.0 points)

26. The carbon dioxide gas given ____ by the fermenting vat was known as “fixed air”. A. off B. away C. out D. up
27. He stopped the thief right at the corner, and up ____________.
A. did a policeman walk B. a policeman walked C. walked a policeman D. walk a policeman
28. Things in this shop are too expensive; I won't pay $500 for the fur coat because it is not worth ____________. A. that much all B. all that much C. that all much D. much all that 3
29. Team rules require that each player __________ responsible for memorizing one rule and
then for teaching that rule to all of the players. A. is B. was C. be D. were
30. Auroras are created when the sun’s particles are caught in.
A. field the earth’s magnetic
B. the field magnetic earth
C. the earth’s magnetic field
D. the magnetic field earth
31. ______then what I know today, I would have saved myself a lot of time and trouble over the years. A. If I know B. Did I know C. Had I known D. If I knew
32. We believe that these animals could be saved if our plans were ____________. A. adopted B. practised C. exploited D. rehearsed
33. I’m afraid we will probably have a future ahead with little comfort, shortages of food and
clean water, and a threat of A.I. A. cruel B. pessimistic C. grim D. fierce
34. The idea of glasses being a fashion item has been slow to ____________. A. take in B. catch on C. put across D. set aside
35. Silence ___________ the theatre as the audience awaited the opening curtain with expectation and excitement. A. dropped out of B. hung over C. fell in with D. came between
36. I only touched his new car and he went crazy. He is over-protective of it and made a real ___________ in a teacup. A. snow B. rain C. storm D. wind
37. The hungry customer ___________ that pizza in record time and ordered another. A. boiled up B. tucked in C. chopped up D. bolted down
38. Because the first iPhone was a revolutionary product, it became a ___________ success. A. rowing B. rowling C. howling D. bowling
39. Tracy: I am going to have an IELTS exam tomorrow morning. Carly: ___________. A. Break a leg. B. See you soon.
C. Long time no see. D. You must go now.
40. Tom: - “You should never have agreed to help mend her car!”
Peter: “___________” A. Famous last words
B. Well, you live and learn C. It’s a small word
D. You can’t win them all 4
Write your answers here: 26. 27. 28. 29. 30. 31. 32. 33. 34. 35. 36. 37 38. 39. 40.
Part 3. Read the text and use the bold words in brackets to form words that fit in the numbered blanks. (1.0 point)
For many people Ludwig van Beethoven (1770-1827) is the most (41. influence)
________figure in the history of western classical music. His (42. ordinary) ________talent
was already clearly evident as a young man, (43. mercy) ________ surviving a somewhat (44.
convention) ________ upbringing during which his eccentric father would often force him to
take music lessons in the middle of the night. The young Beethoven's ability won him the
admiration of the leading contemporary musical figures. Throughout the 1790s he worked hard
to secure the interest of (45. wealth) ________ patrons. Such patronage enabled him to
concentrate on becoming a successful composer. Whatever his awe-inspiring musical
achievements were, his personal life was something of a disaster.
Write your answers here:
41. 42. 43. 44. 45.
Part 4. Identify 5 mistakes in the following passage and correct them. (1.0 point) Line Passage 1
Air and water pollution might be assumed to be less pressing in city of developing 2
countries because of lower levels of industrial development. But in fact hundred of 3
such cities have high concentrations of industry. Air, water, noise, and solid waste 4
pollution problems have increased rapidly and can have dramatic impacts for the 5
lives and health of city inhabitants on their economy, and on jobs. Even in a 6
relatively small city, just one and two factories dumping waste into the only nearest 7
river can contaminate everyone’s drinking, washing, and cooking water. Many 8
slums and shanties crowd close to hazardous industrial regions which no one else 9
wants to live. This proximity has magnified the risks for the poor, a fact 10
demonstrated by great lose of life and human suffering in various recent industrial accidents.
Write your answer here: Line Error Correction Line Error Correction 0. 1 city cities 46. 47. 48. 49. 50. 5 III. READING (6.0 points)
Part 1. Write the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct option that best
fits each of the numbered blanks. (2.0 points) Royal Residences
Buckingham Palace, Windsor Castle and the Palace of Holyroodhouse are the official (51)
_____________ of the Sovereign and, as such, serve as both home and office for The Queen,
whose personal standard flies (52) _____________ Her Majesty is in residence.
These buildings are used extensively for State ceremonies and Official entertaining and are
opened to the (53) _____________ as much as these commitments allow. They are furnished with
fine pictures and (54) _____________ of art from the Royal Collection, which has been assembled
over four centuries by successive sovereigns. Many of the State Apartments and rooms at the
official residences have been in continuous use since their conception and many of the works of
art are (55) _____________ in the rooms for which they were originally (56) _____________.
The official residences are in (57) _____________ use and the style and manner in which they
are (58) _____________ to visitors reflects their working status. Rooms are kept as close to their
normal (59) _____________ as possible. Inevitably, opening times are subject to change at short
notice depending on circumstances.
The Royal Collection, which is owned by The Queen as Sovereign in trust for her successors and
the Nation, is administered by the Royal Collection Trust to which a proportion of admission and
other income from visitors is directed.
The remainder of this income funds the majority of the cost of restoring Windsor Castle which
was badly (60) _____________ by fire in November 1992. 51:A. venues B. residences C. situations D. occupation 52:A. whatever
B. however C. whoever D. whenever 53:A. humans B. public C. peoples D. strangers 54:A. paintings B. statues C. works D. jobs 55:A. created B. explored C. produced D. displayed 56:A. instructed B. intended C. performed D. guarded 57:A. local B. national C. regular D. minor 58:A. designed B. shown C. given D. taken 59:A. feature B. location C. destination D. appearance 60:A. destroyed B. ruined C. damaged D. collapsed
Write your answers here: 51. 52. 53. 54. 55. 56. 57. 58. 59. 60. 6
Part 2. Read the passage below and fill each numbered blank with ONE suitable word. (2.0 points)
When a celebrity, a politician or other person (61) ___________ the media spotlight loses
their temper in public, they run the risk of (62) ___________ the headlines in the most
embarrassing way. For such uncontrolled (63) ___________ of anger are often triggered by (64)
___________ seem to be trivial matters and, if they are caught on camera, can make the person
appear slightly ridiculous. But it's not only the rich and famous who are prone to fits of rage.
According to recent surveys, ordinary people are increasingly tending to (65) ___________ their
cool in public. Yet, anger is a potentially destructive emotion that uses up a lot of energy and
creates a high (66) ___________ of emotional and physical stress - and it stops us thinking
rationally. Consequently, angry people often (67) ___________ up saying, and doing things they
later have to regret. So, how can anger be avoided? Firstly, diet and lifestyle may be to blame.
Intolerance and irritability certainly come to the surface when someone hasn't slept properly or
has (68) ___________ a meal, and any intake of caffeine can make things worse. Taking regular
exercise can help to ease and diffuse feelings of aggression, however, reducing the chances of an
angry response. But if something or someone (69) ___________ make you angry, it's advisable
not to react immediately. Once you've calmed down, things won't look half (70) ___________ bad as you first thought.
Write your answers here: 61. 62. 63. 64. 65. 66. 67. 68. 69. 70.
Part 3. Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to
indicate the correct answer to each of the questions. (2.0 points)
A survey is a study, generally in the form of an interview or a questionnaire, that provides
information concerning how people think and act. In the United States, the best-known surveys
are the Gallup poll and the Harris poll. As anyone who watches the news during presidential
campaigns knows, these polls have become an important part of political life in the United States.
North Americans are familiar with the many "person on the street" interviews on local
television news shows. While such interviews can be highly entertaining, they are not necessarily
an accurate indication of public opinion. First, they reflect the opinions of only those people who
appear at a certain location. Thus, such samples can be biased in favor of commuters, middle-
class shoppers, or factory workers, depending or which area the newspeople select. Second,
television interviews tend to attract outgoing people who are willing to appear on the air, while
they frighten away others who may feel intimidated by a camera. A survey must be based on a
precise, representative sampling if it is to genuinely reflect a broad range of the population.
In preparing to conduct a survey, sociologists must exercise great care in the wording of
questions. An effective survey question must be simple and clear enough for people to understand
it. It must also be specific enough so that there are no problems in interpreting the results. Even
questions that are less structured must be carefully phrased in order to elicit the type of 7
information desired. Surveys can be indispensable sources of information, but only if the sampling
is done properly and the questions are worded accurately.
There are two main forms of surveys: the interview and the questionnaire. Each of these
forms of survey research has its advantages. An interviewer can obtain a high response rate
because people find it more difficult to turn down a personal request for an interview than to throw
away a written questionnaire. In addition, an interviewer can go beyond written questions and
probe for a subject's underlying feelings and reasons. However, questionnaires have the
advantage of being cheaper and more consistent.
71. What does the passage mainly discuss?
A. The history of surveys in North America
B. The principles of conducting surveys
C. Problems associated with interpreting surveys
D. The importance of polls in American political life
72. The word "they" in line 6 refers to _______.
A. North Americans B. news shows C. interviews D. opinions
73. According to the passage, the main disadvantage of person-on-the-street interviews is that they_______.
A. are not based on a representative sampling
B. are used only on television
C. are not carefully worded
D. reflect political opinions
74. The word "precise" in line 13 is closest in meaning to _______. A. planned B. rational C. required D. accurate
75. According to paragraph 3, which of the following is most important for an effective survey?
A. A high number of respondents
B. Carefully worded questions
C. An interviewer's ability to measure respondents' feelings
D. A sociologist who is able to interpret the results
76. The word "exercise" in line 15 is closest in meaning to _______. A. utilize B. consider C. design D. defend
77. The word "indispensable" is closest in meaning to______. A. necessary B. complicated C. expensive D. simple 8
78. It can inferred from the passage that one reason that sociologists may become frustrated with
questionnaires is that _______.
A. respondents often do not complete and return questionnaires
B. questionnaires are often difficult to read
C. questionnaires are expensive and difficult to distribute
D. respondents are too eager to supplement questions with their own opinions
79. According to the passage, one advantage of live interviews over questionnaires is that live interviews _______. A. cost less
B. can produce more information
C. are easier to interpret
D. minimize the influence of the researcher.
80. The word "probe" in the last paragraph is closest in meaning to_______. A. explore B. influence C. analyze D. apply
Write your answers here: 71. 72. 73. 74. 75. 76. 77. 78. 79. 80. IV. WRITING (4.0 points)
Part 1. Rewrite each of the following sentences in such a way that it has a similar meaning to the
original one. (1.0 point)
81. It’s certain that he didn’t mean to hurt you.
→ He can’t……………………………………….
82. He worked very hard, but he was unable to earn enough for his living. → Hard-working…….
83. Provided your handwriting is legible, the examiners will accept your paper.
→ So long as the examiners…
84. We cannot make any comparison with her sacrifice.
→ Nothing ……………………………………………………………………
85. He’ll agree with my point of view, given a bit of time. → He’ll come….
Part 2. Rewrite each of the following sentences in such a way that it has a similar meaning to the
original one. The word given MUST NOT be altered in anyway. (1.0 point)
86. I found the plot of the book too complicated to follow.(HEAD)
→ I can’t …………………………………………………………………… the plot of the book.
87. Brian didn’t work here for very long, he had an important effect on the company. (MARK) 9
→ Despite not working here for very long, ……………………………………….the company.
88. His behaviors is generally unacceptable. (DRAW)
→ Generally, we should …………………………………………………………..such behaviors.
89. Julia soon calmed down and explained her problem to her parents. (PULLED)
→ Julia soon ……………………………………………………………………………
90. The manager was furious when he discovered I’d been on a social networking site while at work. (THROAT)
→ The manager ………………………………………………………………………out I’d been
on a social networking site while at work.
Part 3. Paragraph writing (2.0 points)
How students can better protect themselves from the growing threat of online kidnapping? Write
a 150–200 word paragraph explaining your ideas.”
___The end___ 10
HƯỚNG DẪN CHẤM – HỌC SINH GIỎI LỚP 9 Môn: Tiếng Anh
I. LISTENING (4.0 points
Part 1. Listen to the recording. Complete the form below. Write no more than two words or
numbers for each of the following blanks.
1. £ 85 6. record
2. three (times) a month 7. £ 71.99 3. thrillers
8. labour at reduced cost
4. comedy programs 9. CDs 5. parts 10. insurance
Part2: You will hear part of a talk about a type of bird called a crane. Listen and decide whether
the following statements are True (T) or False (F). Write your answer in the corresponding
numbered boxes provided.
11. F 12. F 13. F 14. T 15. T
Part 3: You will hear a radio interview in which two web designers called Rob Thorn and Sophie
Unwin are discussing aspects of their work. For questions
1-5, choose the answer (А, В, or C)
which fits best according to what you hear (1 point).
16. A 17. C 18. B 19. A 20. C II. LANGUAGE (6.0 points)
Part 1. Phonetics (1.0 point) 21. B 22. D 23. B 24. A 25. D
Part 2. Write the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct word or phrase
that best completes each of the following sentences. (3.0 points)
26. A 27. C 28. B 29. C 30. C 31. C 32. A 33. C 34. B 35. B 36. C 37. D 38. C 39. A 40. B 11
Part 3. Read the text and use the bold words in brackets to form words that fit in the numbered blanks. (1.0 point)
41.influential 42.extraordinary 43.mercifully
44.unconvetional 45.wealthy Part 4.
Identify 5 mistakes in the following passage and correct them. (1.0 point) No Line Error Correction 46 2 hundred hundreds 47 4 for on 48 6 and or 49 8 which where/ in which 50 9 lose loss
III. READING (6.0 points)
Part 1. Write the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct option that best fits
each of the numbered blanks. (2.0 points) 51. B 52. D 53. B 54. C 55. D 56. B 57. C 58. B 59. D 60. C
Part 2. Read the passage below and fill each numbered blank with ONE suitable word. (2.0 points) 61. in 62.hitting/grabbing/ making 63. outbursts 64. what 65. lose 66. level 67. end 68. skipped 69. does 70. as
Part 3. Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate
the correct answer to each of the questions. (2.0 points) 71. B 72. C 73. A 74. D 75. D 76. A 77. A 78. A 79. B 80. A IV. WRITING (4.0 points)
Part 1. Rewrite each of the following sentences in such a way that it has a similar meaning to the
original one. (1.0 point)
81. He can’t have meant to hurt you.
82. Hard-working as/though he was, he was unable to earn enough for his living.
83. So long as the examiners can read your handwriting, they will accept your paper.
84. Nothing can be compared with her sacrifice.
85. He’ll come round to my point of view, given a bit of time. 12
Part 2. Rewrite each of the following sentences in such a way that it has a similar meaning to the
original one. The word given MUST NOT be altered in anyway. (1.0 point)
86. I can’t make head nor tail of the plot of the book.
87. Despite not working here for very long, Brian made his/a mark on the company.
88. Generally, we should draw the line at such behaviors.
89. Julia soon pulled herself together and explained her problem to her parents.
90. The manager jumped down my throat when he found out I’d been on a social
networking site while at work.
Part 3. Paragraph writing (2.0 points)
How students can better protect themselves from the growing threat of online kidnapping? Write a
150–200 word paragraph explaining your ideas.”

Suggested marking criteria:
1. Organization: (3 points)
- Paragraph has three parts (topic sentence, supporting sentences, concluding sentence) - The idea is parallel
2. Content, coherence and cohesion: (12 points)
- Topic sentence: consists of topic and controlling idea.
- Supporting sentences: support directly the main idea stated in the topic sentence and
provide logical, persuasive examples.
- Concluding sentence: summarizes the main supporting ideas/ restates the topic sentence and give personal opinion.
- The communicating intentions are expressed sufficiently and effectively.
- Appropriate transition signals.
3. Language use and accuracy: (5 points)
- A variety of vocabulary and structures appropriate to the level of English language for
lower -secondary school students.
- Good use and control of grammatical structures.
- Correct use of punctuation and spelling. - Legible handwriting.
Penalty mark: If the whole paragraph is off-topic, it gets no mark.
Tổng điểm toàn bài: 200 điểm. Quy về thang điểm 20 (200:10 = 20) 13 UBND XÃ HÙNG VIỆT
.HỘI ĐỒNG THI HSG LỚP 9
KÌ THI CHỌN HỌC SINH GIỎI LỚP 9 CẤP XÃ NĂM HỌC 2025 - 2026
(Phiếu trả lời gồm: 04 trang) MÔN: TIẾNG ANH
Thời gian làm bài: 150 phút.
PHẦN DÀNH CHO HỘI ĐỒNG PHÚC KHẢO Điểm bài thi Họ tên chữ ký Số phách
Giám khảo 1 Giám khảo 2
(do Chủ tịch Hội đồng
Bằng số : ............................... phúc khảo ghi)
Bằng chữ : ............................
.................................... .....................................
%================= Chủ tịch Hội đồng phúc khảo rọc theo đường nét đứt này =================
PHẦN DÀNH CHO HỘI ĐỒNG CHẤM THI Điểm bài thi Họ tên chữ ký Số phách Số phách (do Chủ tịch HĐ (do Chủ tịch
Giám khảo 1 Giám khảo 2 phúc khảo ghi) Hội đồng chấm
Bằng số:……. ................ thi ghi)
Bằng chữ : .....................
............................. ..............................
%=================== Chủ tịch Hội đồng chấm thi rọc theo đường nét đứt này ====================
PHẦN DÀNH CHO HỘI ĐỒNG COI THI Số phách Họ tên chữ ký
(do Chủ tịch Hội đồng
Giám thị số 1 Giám thị số 2 chấm thi ghi)
......................................... .........................................
THÍ SINH CẦN GHI ĐẦY ĐỦ CÁC MỤC DƯỚI ĐÂY Số báo danh
Họ và tên thí sinh:.........................................................................................................................
Ngày tháng năm sinh: ................................................................Nam / Nữ:................................
Nơi sinh: ........................................................................................................................................
Học sinh lớp: ....................... Trường...........................................................................................
Phòng thi số: .............. Hội đồng coi thi: ...................................................................................
Lưu ý: - Thí sinh không được sử dụng bất cứ tài liệu nào kể cả từ điển. 1 PHIẾU TRẢ LỜI I. LISTENING (4.0 points)
Part 1. (2.0 points)
1. 6. 2. 7. 3. 8. 4. 9. 5. 10. Part 2. (1.0 point) 11. 12. 13. 14. 15. Part 3. (1.0 point) 16. 17. 18. 19. 20. II. LANGUAGE (6.0 points)
Part 1 (1.0 points)
21. 22. 23. 24. 25. Part 2 (3.0 points) 26. 27. 28. 29. 30. 31. 32. 33. 34. 35. 36. 37. 38. 39. 40.
Part 3 (1.0 points)
41. 42. 43. 44. 45. Part 4 (1.0 points) Line Error Correction Line Error Correction 46. 47. 48. 49. 50. III. READING (6.0 points)
Part 1. (2.0 points)
51. 52. 53. 54. 55. 56. 57. 58. 59. 60. Part 2. (2.0 points) 61. 62. 63. 64. 65. 66. 67. 68. 69. 70. Part 3. (2.0 points) 71. 72. 73. 74. 75. 76. 77. 78. 79. 80. 2 IV. WRITING (4.0 points)
Part 1. (1.0 points)

81. …………………………………………………………………………………………………………..
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………..
82. …………………………………………………………………………………………………………..
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………..
83. …………………………………………………………………………………………………………..
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………..
84. …………………………………………………………………………………………………………..
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………..
85. …………………………………………………………………………………………………………..
………………………………………………………………………………………………………….. Part 2. (1.0 points)
86. …………………………………………………………………………………………………………..
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………..
86. …………………………………………………………………………………………………………..
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………..
88. …………………………………………………………………………………………………………..
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………..
89. …………………………………………………………………………………………………………..
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………..
90. …………………………………………………………………………………………………………..
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………..
Part 3. Paragraph writing (2.0 points)
………………………………………………………………………………………………………….
………………………………………………………………………………………………………….
………………………………………………………………………………………………………….
………………………………………………………………………………………………………….
………………………………………………………………………………………………………….
………………………………………………………………………………………………………….
………………………………………………………………………………………………………….
………………………………………………………………………………………………………….
………………………………………………………………………………………………………….
………………………………………………………………………………………………………….
………………………………………………………………………………………………………….
………………………………………………………………………………………………………….
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………. 3
………………………………………………………………………………………………………….
………………………………………………………………………………………………………….
………………………………………………………………………………………………………….
………………………………………………………………………………………………………….
………………………………………………………………………………………………………….
………………………………………………………………………………………………………….
………………………………………………………………………………………………………….
………………………………………………………………………………………………………….
………………………………………………………………………………………………………….
………………………………………………………………………………………………………….
………………………………………………………………………………………………………….
………………………………………………………………………………………………………….
………………………………………………………………………………………………………….
………………………………………………………………………………………………………….
………………………………………………………………………………………………………….
………………………………………………………………………………………………………….
………………………………………………………………………………………………………….
………………………………………………………………………………………………………….
………………………………………………………………………………………………………….
………………………………………………………………………………………………………….
………………………………………………………………………………………………………….
………………………………………………………………………………………………………….
………………………………………………………………………………………………………….
………………………………………………………………………………………………………….
………………………………………………………………………………………………………….
………………………………………………………………………………………………………….
………………………………………………………………………………………………………….
………………………………………………………………………………………………………….
………………………………………………………………………………………………………….
-------------------- HẾT -------------------- Lưu ý:
- Cán bộ coi thi không giải thích gì thêm.
- Học sinh không được sử dụng tài liệu trong thời gian làm bài.
4