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Tài liệu ôn thi tuyển sinh THPT
Tài liệu ôn thi tuyển sinh THPT dành cho ôn luyện các Kỳ thi học sinh giỏi THPT dành cho các bạn học sinh, sinh viên tham khảo, ôn tập, chuẩn bị cho kì thi. Mời các bạn cùng đón xem nhé !
Môn: Chủ đề: Reading 36 tài liệu
Trường: Tài liệu dành cho học sinh chuyên Anh 761 tài liệu
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Tác giả:
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TRƯỜNG ĐẠI HỌC Y TẾ CÔNG CỘNG
BỘ MÔN NGOẠI NGỮ TIẾNG ANH
TÀI LIỆU ÔN THI TUYỂN SINH SAU ĐẠI HỌC
CÁC LỚP THẠC SĨ YTCC, QLBV & KTXNYH ` Nội dung
I. Cấu trúc bài thi
ĐỀ THI TUYỂN SINH SAU ĐẠI HỌC NĂM 20xx
Đối tượng: Thạc sĩ YTCC/ Thạc sĩ QLBV/ Thạc sĩ KTXNYH
Môn thi: TIẾNG ANH - Mã đề thi: THS-20xxxxx
(Thời gian làm bài: 120 phút, không kể thời gian phát đề)
PAPER ONE: READING (10 ĐIỂM)
Read the following passages then circle the best answer to each question. Circle A, B, C or D PASSAGE 1
(10 câu – 2,5 điểm mỗi câu đúng 0,25 điểm) PASSAGE 2
(10 câu – 2,5 điểm mỗi câu đúng 0,25 điểm) PASSAGE 3
(10 câu – 2,5 điểm mỗi câu đúng 0,25 điểm) PASSAGE 4
(10 câu – 2,5 điểm mỗi câu đúng 0,25 điểm)
PAPER TWO: WRITING (10 ĐIỂM) WRITING 1 (3 điểm)
Viết tương tác – viết thư hoặc email
Thí sinh được yêu cầu viết một lá thư theo một tình huống của đề bài có độ dài khoảng 120 từ WRITING 2 (7 điểm) Viết luận
Thí sinh được yêu cầu viết một bài luận có độ dài khoảng 250 từ vựng về chủ đề.
-------------Hết------------
Tổng 2 bài 20 điểm chia 2 quy về thang điểm 10 (lấy tròn 1 số thập phân sau dấu phảy, thí sinh
đạt từ 5,0 điểm trở lên (điểm các bài Paper One, Paper Two không dưới 30%) là đạt yêu cầu môn tiếng Anh. 1
II. Kiến thức ngữ pháp cần ôn luyện:
1. Các thì trong tiếng Anh Các thì hiện tại Các thì quá khứ Các thì tương lai 2. Các câu điều kiện
Câu điều kiện loại 1
Câu điều kiện loại 2
Câu điều kiện loại 3 3. Câu nói gián tiếp Câu trần thuật Câu hỏi
Câu mệnh lệnh, thỉnh cầu, đề nghị, lời mời v v. 4. Thể bị động 5. Mệnh đề quan hệ Mệnh đề xác định
Mệnh đề không xác định
6. So sánh tính từ / trạng từ So sánh hơn So sánh cao nhất So sánh bằng So sánh kép
7. Danh từ đếm được/ danh từ không đếm được 8. Câu hỏi Câu hỏi trực tiếp Câu hỏi gián tiếp Câu hỏi láy đuôi
9. Một số cấu trúc câu thông dụng
III. Tài liệu tham khảo
1. Cambridge (2010). Cambridge Preliminary English Test 1- 6 for schools with answers:
Examination papers from the University of Cambridge - ESOL Examinations-
Cambridge University Press, Cambridge.
2. Murphy R (2019). English Grammar in Use: A self-study reference and practice book
for intermediate learners of English, Fifth edition, Cambridge University Press, Cambridge.
3. Naylor H and Murphy R (2007). Essential Grammar in Use Supplementary Exercises,
Second edition, Cambridge University Press, Cambridge.
4. Vince M (2014). Intermediate Language Practice, Third edition, Macmillan, Ho Chi Minh city. 5. Links:
https://elt.oup.com/student/englishfile/intermediate3/grammar/?cc=vn&selLanguage=en
https://elt.oup.com/student/headway/int/grammar/?cc=vn&selLanguage=en
https://elt.oup.com/student/solutions/int3rdedition/grammar/?cc=vn&selLanguage=en
https://elt.oup.com/student/project/level4/unit01/grammar/?cc=vn&selLanguage=en
IV. Bài luyện (từ trang 14 đến trang 57) 2
HƯỚNG DẪN LÀM BÀI THI ĐỌC Kỹ năng thi: Đọc Mục đích
Kiểm tra các tiểu kĩ năng Đọc khác nhau, có độ khó từ bậc 3 đến bậc 5: đọc hiểu thông tin chi
tiết, đọc hiểu ý chính, đọc hiểu ý kiến, thái độ của tác giả, suy ra từ thông tin trong bài và đoán
nghĩa của từ trong văn cảnh. Thời gian: 60 phút
Số câu hỏi/nhiệmvụ bài thi
4 bài đọc, 40 câu hỏi nhiều lựa chọn (A-B-C-D)
Thí sinh đọc 4 văn bản về các vấn đề khác nhau, độ khó của văn bản tương đương bậc 3-5 với
tổng số từ dao động từ 1900-2050 từ. Thí sinh trả lời các câu hỏi nhiều lựa chọn sau mỗi bài
đọc. Mỗi bài đọc có 10 câu hỏi trắc nghiệm đi kèm lựa chọn A-B-C-D
Thông thường, thí sinh cũng cảm thấy khá choáng ngợp với bài đọc dài và nhiều từ vựng khó.
Các dạng câu hỏi trong bài Đọc hiểu
- Nhận biết đại từ - Tìm thông tin chi tiết - Tìm ý chính - Đọc đoán ý tác giả
- Thông tin suy ra từ trong bài
- Điền câu vào văn bản - Giải nghĩa câu
02 kỹ năng Đọc hiểu quan trọng: skimming & scanning
2 kỹ năng Đọc hiểu chính: skimming và scanning
Hai kỹ năng Đọc này cực kỳ quan trọng không chỉ trong tiếng Anh mà cả tiếng Việt.
Điểm giống nhau ở chỗ, cả hai kỹ năng này đều là đọc lướt để lấy thông tin. Tuy
nhiên, trong khi skimming là kỹ năng đọc lướt để lấy thông tin tổng quan thì scanning
lại nhằm mục đích lấy thông tin chi tiết, chẳng hạn như một con số, ngày tháng, lí do… Các bước Skimming
- Đọc tiêu đề bài đọc - Đọc đoạn đầu tiên
- Đọc câu đầu tiên của các đoạn sau - Đọc đoạn cuối cùng Các bước scanning
- Luôn nghĩ trong đầu thông tin cần tìm
- Phỏng đoán dạng thông tin có thể phải tìm như con số, danh từ riêng…
- Phân tích cấu trúc bài đọc trước khi bắt dầu scan. Bài thi Đọc thường là bài
đọc khá dài, vì vậy cần dùng kĩ năng skim để xác định được đoạn văn bản nào có thể 3
chứa thông tin cần tìm. Sau khi định vị được thông tin, đọc toàn bộ câu để lấy thông tin chi tiết.
- Lưu ý, khi scan, có thể bạn sẽ phải bỏ qua nhiều nội dung mà không cần hiểu chúng.
Để làm tốt phần thi Đọc hiểu, đầu tiên, thí sinh cần xác định được rõ câu hỏi thuộc
loại nào và áp dụng kỹ năng Đọc gì. Ngoài ra, việc bổ trợ vốn từ vựng có ý nghĩa then
chốt. Yếu tố cuối cùng giúp thí sinh làm tốt bài thi Đọc là kỹ năng Đọc dưới áp lực
thời gian. Thông thường thí sinh thường cảm thấy thiếu thời gian khi Đọc. Việc luyện
tập một bài đầy đủ theo đúng thời gian quy định giúp thí sinh tăng tốc trong kỳ thi Đọc.
Một số điểm cần lưu ý khi luyện Đọc
Giai đoạn đầu đọc sẽ rất chậm
Đối với những người học không chuyên tiếng Anh và ít tiếp xúc với tiếng Anh thì khi bắt
đầu luyện đọc sẽ cảm thấy tốc độ rất chậm do có quá nhiều từ mới nên cứ phải tra từng từ từng
chữ mới hiểu được. Giải pháp là nên chọn lọc những bài Đọc mà chủ đề quen thuộc hơn để
luyện trước. Mục đích là vừa để người học làm quen với tiếng Anh, vừa để có đủ vốn từ vựng
đã biết để phán đoán nghĩa của những từ chưa biết. Như vậy, việc hiểu tổng thể toàn văn bản
không bị ảnh hưởng gì.
Hãy tập trung vào nội dung đang đọc thay vì tập trung học tiếng Anh
Hãy cố gắng hiểu nghĩa của câu dựa trên vốn từ vựng đã biết kết hợp với việc phán đoán. Dành
quá nhiều thời gian tra từ, ghi chép cấu trúc câu chỉ làm tốc độ đọc chậm lại, hơn nữa sẽ khiến
người học cảm thấy dễ bị nản chí. Trên thực tế, bài đọc thường chứa khá nhiều từ mới cả với
những người học chuyên tiếng Anh.
Thông thường, từ vựng được chia thành 02 loại: từ vựng cần biết và không cần biết. Những từ
cần biết là những từ thông dụng và thường người học sẽ ghi nhớ chúng do gặp nhiều lần.
Ngược lại, có những từ mang nghĩa chuyên ngành, ít gặp thì dù có tra từ điển nhưng
có lẽ người học sẽ lại quên chúng nhanh chóng. Thực hành Đọc hiểu PASSAGE 1- Questions 1-10
Ever wondered what it feels like to have a different job? Here, four people with very
different careers reveal the trade secrets of their working day. Luc
My day typically starts with a business person going to the airport, and nearly always
ends with a drunk. I don't mind drunk people. Sometimes I think they're the better
version of themselves: more relaxed, happier, honest. Only once have I feared for my
life. A guy ran out at a traffic light and so I sped up before his brother could run, too.
He seemed embarrassed and made me drop him at a car park. When we arrived, the first
guy was waiting with a boulder, which went through the windscreen, narrowly missing
my head. But the worst people are the ones who call me “Driver!” Harry
I not only provide appearance for my client, I also do damage control. We've had clients 4
involved in lawsuits, divorces or drugs. One mistakenly took a gun to an airport. On the
red carpet – at the Academy Awards or the Golden Globes – I'm the person making my
client look good. The other day at an Oprah Winfrey event, the carpet wasn't put down
properly and my clients almost went flying – I had to catch them. They can make some
strange requests, too. At a black-tie gala at the White House, two clients hated the dinner
and insisted that we circle around Washington DC to find a KFC open at 1 a.m. I had to
go in wearing a gown and order so they could eat it in the car. Jennifer
I could teach you to do a basic brain operation in two weeks. But what takes time and
experience is doing it without wrecking the brain of the patients - learning your limitations takes years.
I ended up working as a pediatric neurosurgeon because children make better recoveries
from brain damage than adults. So it's more rewarding in terms of outcome and I find
their resilience really inspiring. It's taken me a decade to become comfortable
discussing an operation with children, but they have to be able to ask questions. You
have to show them respect. Sometimes their perspective is funny; most teenage girls
just want to know how much hair you'll shave off.
I don't get upset by my job. These children are dying when they come in and I do
whatever I can to make them better. Solange
When you become a judge after years of being a barrister and trying to make points that
win cases, you have to remember that a huge part of what you do is listening - to
advocates, to witnesses, to defendants. Behind closed doors most judges, even very
experienced ones, are much more anxious about their work than most people might
think. We agonise over what we do and the decisions we have to make. It would be
bizarre to say that as a judge, we learn to be less judgmental. But as you see the complex
and difficult lives of the people who end up in front of you, you realise that your job is
not so much to judge them as to ensure that everyone receives justice.
1. In the first paragraph, what best paraphrases the sentence ‘My day typically starts
with a business person going to the airport, and nearly always ends with a drunk’?
A. Normally, I will take a business person and a drunk at the airport.
B. Normally, I will go to the airport in the morning and come back with a drunk.
C. Normally, my first passenger will be a businessman and my last one a drunk.
D. Normally, I will drive a businessman to the airport and come back almost drunk.
2. What does Harry probably do for a living? A. A tour guide B. An agent C. A lawyer D. A driver
3. The word ‘circle’ in line 17 could be best replaced by A. drive 5 B. look C. walk D. ride
4. In lines 23-24, what does Jennifer mean when she says, ‘Learning your
limitations takes years’?
It takes a person a long time to
A. control his weakness in a brain operation.
B. understand what he cannot help.
C. perform even a basic operation.
D. be able to perform a brain surgery.
5. The word ‘their’ in line 25 refers to A. patients’ B. neurosurgeons’ C. children’s D. adults’
6. The word ‘perspective’ in line 28 is closest in meaning to A. question B. worry C. view D. prospective
7. According to the passage, whose job involves in a large part listening to others? A. Luc’s B. Harry’s C. Jennifer’s D. Solange’s
8. According to the passage, who is likely to meet different types of people every day? A. Luc B. Harry C. Jennifer D. Solange
9. The word ‘ones’ in line 34 refers to A. judges B. barristers C. advocates D. defendants
10. What is the purpose of this passage?
A. To inform people of what to expect in those jobs.
B. To report what different people do and think about their jobs.
C. To raise awareness of the importance of different jobs.
D. To discuss the advantages and disadvantages of these jobs. 6 Hướng dẫn trả lời Câu 1: C
Từ “drunk” dễ gây nhầm lẫn với ý nghĩa tính từ “bị say” nhưng khi đặt trong văn cảnh
bài “I don’t mind drunk people”, ta có thể hiểu là người say. Như vậy, ý nghĩa của
câu: thông thường một ngày của tôi bắt đầu bằng việc chở một doanh nhân đến sân
bay và gần như luôn kết thúc ngày làm việc chở một người say. Câu 2: B
Dạng thông tin chi tiết cần xác định từ khóa Harry và do a living
Công việc của Harry liên quan đến nhiều lĩnh vực như provide appearance (vẻ bề
ngoài), damage control (kiểm soát rủi ro). We've had clients involved in lawsuits, divorces or drugs Câu 3: A
Cuối đoạn văn, tác giả nói “they could eat it in the car” Câu 4: D
I could teach you to do a basic brain operation in two weeks. (Chỉ mất 2 tuần để tôi có
thể dạy bạn cách phẫu thuật não cơ bản) But what takes time and experience is doing it
without wrecking the brain of the patients - learning your limitations takes years.
(nhưng sẽ mất nhiều thời gian và kinh nghiệm để phẫu thuật não mà không làm hỏng não của bệnh nhân) Câu 5: C
Dạng câu tham chiếu, đại từ thay thế cho danh từ đứng phía trước nó. Đặt vào văn cảnh
trong bài, “So it's more rewarding in terms of outcome and I find their resilience really
inspiring.” (bởi vậy kết quả xứng đáng hơn và tôi cảm thấy rất hào hứng với sự hồi phục của trẻ em.) Câu 6: C Câu 7: D
Câu hỏi dạng thông tin chi tiết, từ khóa “large part listening to others” = “a huge part
of what you do is listening” Câu 8: A
Câu hỏi dạng thông tin chi tiết , từ khóa“likely to meet different types of people every
day” (ai có thể gặp gỡ nhiều loại người hàng ngày) Luc (driver) Câu 9: A Câu hỏi tham chiếu
Behind closed doors most judges, even very experienced ones (Đằng sau những cánh
cửa khép lại thì hầu hết thẩm phán, kể cả những người rất nhiều kinh nghiệm) Câu 10: B
Câu hỏi ý chính, thông tin ở phần đầu tiên của bài
“Ever wondered what it feels like to have a different job? Here, four people with very
different careers reveal the trade secrets of their working day.” (Đã từng bao giờ tự
hỏi cảm xúc thế nào khi làm một công việc khác? Sau đây 4 người làm 4 nghề khác
nhau tiết lộ những bí mật về ngày làm việc của họ) 7
~ To report what different people do and think about their jobs. (kể lại 4 người làm gì
và nghĩ gì về công việc của mình)
HƯỚNG DẪN LÀM BÀI THI VIẾT Kỹ năng thi: Viết Mục đích
Kiểm tra kĩ năng Viết tương tác và Viết luận Thời gian: 60 phút
Số câu hỏi/nhiệmvụ bài thi 2 bài viết
Dạng câu hỏi/nhiệm vụ bài thi
Bài 1(3 điểm): Viết một bức thư/ thư điện tử có độ dài khoảng 120 từ.
Bài 2 (7 điểm): Thí sinh viết một bài luận khoảng 250 từ về một chủ đề cho sẵn, sử dụng lí do
và ví dụ cụ thể để minh họa cho các lập luận.
HƯỚNG DẪN VIẾT THƯ (VIẾT TƯƠNG TÁC)
Nội dung các bài học trong phần viết thư hướng dẫn người học chi tiết cách viết thư thân
mật, trang trọng theo các mục đích viết khác nhau (cung cấp thông tin, cảm ơn, thư
yêu cầu, thư phàn nàn…). Bên cạnh đó, người học cũng được hướng dẫn chi tiết cách phân bổ
thời gian hợp lý khi viết thư, tìm hiểu các tiêu chí chấm điểm bài viết.
07 loại bài viết thư thường gặp trong bài thi Writing 1
Trong phần thi thứ nhất, đề bài đưa ra một tình huống và yêu cầu thí sinh viết một lá thư.
Trước tiên, cần xác định được rõ bức thư thuộc loại nào (trang trọng hay thân
mật) vì ngôn ngữ áp dụng cho mỗi loại sẽ không giống nhau. Ngoài ra, dựa vào mục
đích viết thư, có thể chia bài viết thư thành 7 loại sau:
1. Thank-you letters: Thư cảm ơn
2. Complaint letter: Phàn nàn hoặc yêu cầu thông tin
3. Invitation letter: Thư mời
4. Apology letter: Thư xin lỗi
5. Request letter: Thư yêu cầu
6. Advice letter: Thư khuyên nhủ
7. Information giving leter: Thư cung cấp thông tin
Trước khi bắt đầu viết thư, thí sinh cần phải nắm rõ được bài viết là formal hay
informal, mục đích viết để cung cấp thông tin hay đưa lời khuyên hay phàn nàn…
04 tiêu chí chấm điểm bài thi viết thư
Dù là dạng viết thư nào, thì giám khảo cũng sẽ chấm điểm dựa trên 4 yếu tố Task
Fulfilment, Organization, Vocabulary và Grammar.
1. Task Fulfilment: Đáp ứng, giải quyết các yêu cầu mà đề bài đưa ra một cách hiệu quả.
2. Organization: Các ý kiến, thông tin trong bài viết phải có sự logic, cấu trúc 8 chặt chẽ
3. Vocabulary: Bạn nên sử dụng những từ, cụm từ đa dạng, phù hợp với văn phong của bài viết
4. Grammar: Sử dụng các cấu trúc ngữ pháp một cách linh hoạt, và chính xác
Các bước thực hành viết thư
Để đạt được kết quả tốt cho bài viết thư, hãy thực hiện tuần tự theo các bước sau.
Hãy lưu ý phân bổ thời gian hợp lý cho bài viết thư. Thí sinh nên dành tối đa 20 phút cho bài viết này.
Trước khi viết (3 – 5 phút) phân tích đề bài và lên dàn ý
- Đọc kĩ đề bài để xác định xem thư thuộc loại nào: trang trọng hay thân mật, mục
đích viết thư để làm gì (cảm ơn, cung cấp thông tin, yêu cầu…)
- Xác định câu hỏi trong đề bài để biết những ý chính cần trả lời. Không nhất thiết
phải trả lời các ý theo trình tự đề bài mà quan trọng là cần sắp xếp theo trật tự logic.
Trong khi viết (13 phút)
- Dựa vào dàn ý chi tiết để viết thành một lá thư hoàn chỉnh.
- Lưu ý về việc chia đoạn, sử dụng từ nối liên kết ý, viết câu phức và sử dụng
nhiều các cụm từ cố định (collocation).
Sau khi viết (2 phút) kiểm tra bài viết
Bạn hãy dành một chút thời gian để kiểm tra các lỗi về chính tả và ngữ pháp nếu có.
Thực hành viết một lá thư hoàn chỉnh Đề bài:
This is part of a letter you received from an English speaking friend.
I’m planning to visit you in September with my parents. Can you suggest some
activities in your area? What kinds of clothes should I pack?
Write an email responding to Ann. You should write at least 120 words. You do not
need to include your name or addresses. Your response will be evaluated in terms of
Task Fulfilment, Organization, Vocabulary and Grammar.
Trước khi viết (3 – 5 phút) phân tích đề bài và lên dàn ý
- Thư thuộc thể loại thân mật viết cho một người bạn với mục đích cung cấp thông tin về chuyến đi. - Các ý trong bài viết: + activities: Spend time at the beach
Visit the city, the old town Attend the music festival + kinds of clothes:
Light summer dresses, skirts, trousers, a sweater or a jacket for the evenings. Swimming costumes
+ Ngôn ngữ đưa lời khuyên: should, you will be fine 9 10
HƯỚNG DẪN VIẾT LUẬN
Viết luận hướng dẫn cách viết mở bài, kết bài, viết một đoạn thân bài và hướng
dẫn chi tiết cách viết từng dạng bài khác nhau như dạng Advantage-disadvantage
(trình bày ưu điểm- nhược điểm), dạng Opinion (trình bày quan điểm, nêu ý kiến),
dạng Problem-solution (Nêu vấn đề - giải pháp) hay Cause-effect (nêu nguyên nhân – hệ quả).
Sau đó tìm hiểu cách phân bổ thời gian cho bài viết luận, xem các tiêu chí mà giám khảo dung để chấm điểm.
Thí sinh được yêu cầu viết một bài luận có độ dài khoảng 250 từ vựng về chủ đề đã cho. Thời gian: 40 phút.
You should spend about 40 minutes on this task.
Read the following text from a book about tourism.
Tourism has become one of the fastest growing industries in the world. Millions of
people today are travelling farther and farther throughout the year. Some people
argue that the development of tourism has had negative effects on local communities;
others think that its influences are positive.
Write an essay to an educated reader to discuss the effects of tourism on local
communities. Include reasons and any relevant examples to support your answer.
You should write at least 250 words. Your response will be evaluated in terms of Task
Fulfillment, Organization, Vocabulary and Grammar.
Các loại bài luận thường gặp
1. Discussion: thảo luận về ưu và nhược điểm của một vấn đề
2. Opinion: câu hỏi về quan điểm của bạn về một vấn đề
3. Problem - solution: Nêu vấn đề và giải pháp
Cause - effect là một dạng bài thuộc problem – solution. Nêu nguyên nhân và hệ quả của một vấn đề.
Đề bài có thể chỉ yêu cầu viết về một mặt (nguyên nhân hoặc hệ quả của vấn đề) kèm giải pháp giải pháp
Phương pháp làm bài:
Bước 1: Đọc và xác định đề bài
Trước tiên, cần đọc kỹ yêu cầu đề bài và xác định xem bài viết thuộc thể loại nào,
ngôn ngữ thường dùng với mỗi loại viết ra sao.
Bước 2: Làm dàn ý chi tiết cho bài viết và viết mở bài (khoảng 10 phút)
Bước 3: Viết 2 – 3 đoạn thân bài (25 phút)
Bước 4: Viết kết bài và kiểm tra lỗi chính tả, từ vựng (khoảng 5 phút)
Trong quá trình luyện tập, dành nhiều thời gian bổ trợ từ vựng theo chủ điểm viết vì
thi Viết không chỉ kiểm tra kiến thức ngôn ngữ mà kiểm tra cả kiến thức nền bằng tiếng Anh. 11
04 tiêu chí chấm điểm bài thi viết luận
Giám khảo sẽ chấm bài viết dựa trên 4 yếu tố Task Fulfilment, Organization, Vocabulary và Grammar.
1. Task Fulfilment: Đáp ứng, giải quyết các yêu cầu mà đề bài đưa ra một cách hiệu quả.
2. Organization: Các ý kiến, thông tin trong bài viết phải có sự logic, cấu trúc chặt chẽ.
3. Vocabulary: Bạn nên sử dụng những từ, cụm từ đa dạng, phù hợp với văn phong của bài viết.
4. Grammar: Sử dụng các cấu trúc ngữ pháp một cách linh hoạt, và chính xác. Cố
gắng sử dụng nhiều câu phức.
Để làm tốt được bài luận, cần nắm chắc cấu trúc của một bài viết luận, phát triển ý
một cách chặt chẽ và hãy đọc thật nhiều bài viết mẫu để có ý tưởng cho bài viết của mình. Thực hành viết luận Read the following text.
Since its development in the 1970s, the Internet has become a key tool for obtaining
information and for communication all over the world.
Write an essay to an educated reader to discuss the advantages and disadvantages of
the Internet. Include reasons and any relevant examples to support your answer.
You should write at least 250 words. Your response will be evaluated in terms of Task
Fulfillment, Organization, Vocabulary and Grammar.
Các bước thực hành viết bài
Bước 1: Đọc và xác định đề bài
Bài thuộc thể loại advantage/ disadvantage nêu ưu nhược điểm về một vấn đề.
Bước 2: Làm dàn ý chi tiết cho bài viết và viết mở bài (khoảng 10 phút)
Một số từ/cụm từ cho bài ưu nhược điểm:
- benefits, advantages, pros, good/ plus points
- drawbacks, disadvantages, cons, downsides, bad points
- A brings/ offers several benefits/ drawbacks.
- There are some benefits of A. Benefits - Make work easier
+ Sending emails, using video conferencing thanks to the Internet
+ in the past/ travel long distanaces for meetings. - Social life becomes easier
+ keep in contact with family and friends through email and social networking websites.
+ meetings, parties and social events for large groups of people 12
- Finding out information online is much quicker Drawbacks
- make people lazy. people go shopping or chat online
- A lot of information on the Internet is not correct.
Bước 3: Viết 2 – 3 đoạn thân bài (25 phút)
Bước 4: Viết kết bài và kiểm tra lỗi chính tả, từ vựng (khoảng 5 phút) Sample
Nowadays the Internet is widely used in our daily lives and work. The Internet brings
both benefits and drawbacks, which will be discussed below.
On the one hand, there are many advantages of the Internet. Firstly, the Internet has
made work much easier. Sending emails and using video conferencing in the workplace
have made business quicker and more efficient. For example, in the past, people often
had to travel long distances for meetings and now they can video call instead. Also,
thank to the Internet, social life becomes easier. Nowadays people can keep in contact
with family and friends through email and social networking websites more easily.
People can give friends and relatives their news quickly and easily. In addition,
meetings, parties and social events for large groups of people are easier to organize in
this way. Finally, finding out information online is much quicker than visiting libraries
or making expensive phone calls.
On the other hand, the Internet has several downsides. Some people say that the
Internet makes people lazy. For example, people now do lots of things online, like
shopping and socializing, when it might be better for them to do these things in the
‘real’ world. Furthermore, the Internet contains a lot of information which is not
correct. This is because anyone can put anything they want on the Internet and it is not
always checked for accuracy or truth. Users need to be sure that the websites they look
at are reliable sources of information.
In conclusion, the Internet offers both advantages and disadvantages. It is important
that know how to use it effectively. Total: 268 words
Những cụm từ thường dùng trong viết luận Tiếng Anh
Firstly / first: đầu tiên First of all: mở đầu là Secondly: thứ hai là Thirdly: thứ ba là Moreover: thêm vào đó Furthermore: xa hơn nữa
What’s more + adj: thêm nữa là
In conclusion: kết luận là
To conclude: để kết luận 13 To sum up: tổng hợp lại
Generally / In the general: nhìn chung
In my opinion/ In my view/ From my point of view: Theo ý kiến của tôi / Theo quan điểm của
tôi / Theo quan điểm của tôi.
I (strongly) believe/think (that): Tôi tin rằng / tôi nghĩ rằng.
My opinion is...: Ý kiến của tôi là
To my mind,…: Theo suy nghĩ của tôi, thì...
The way I see it,…: Theo cách tôi nhìn nhận,…
As far as I am concerned,…: Theo như tôi biết, thì...
It seems/appears to me that…: Dường như / hình như với tôi
I (do not) agree with …: Tôi đồng ý với / không đồng ý với...
I strongly/absolutely/totally/certainly/partially | agree with/approve of/support/disagree with.
I am totally against: Tôi chắc chắn / hoàn toàn / hoàn toàn / chắc chắn / một phần | đồng ý với /
tán thành / ủng hộ / không đồng ý với.
I am (not) convinced that…: Tôi tin chắc rằng / Tôi không tin chắc...
It is my firm belief that…: Tôi tin chắc rằng PRACTICE 1
PAPER ONE: READING (10 ĐIỂM)
Read the following passages then circle the best answer to each question.
Circle A, B, C or D PASSAGE 1
Scientists do not yet thoroughly understand just how the body of an individual becomes
sensitive to a substance that is harmless or even wholesome for the average person. Milk, wheat,
and egg, for example, rank among the most healthful and widely used foods. Yet these foods
can cause persons sensitive to them to suffer greatly. At first, the body of the individual is not
harmed by coming into contact with the substance. After a varying interval of time, usually
longer than a few weeks, the body becomes sensitive to it, and an allergy has begun to develop.
Sometimes it's hard to figure out if you have a food allergy, since it can show up so many
different ways. Your symptoms could be caused by many other problems. You may have
rashes, hives, joint pains mimicking arthritis, headaches, irritability, or depression. The most
common food allergies are to milk, eggs, seafood, wheat, nuts, seeds, chocolate, oranges, and
tomatoes. Many of these allergies will not develop if these foods are not fed to an infant until
her or his intestines mature at around seven months. Breast milk also tends to be protective.
Migraines can be set off by foods containing tyramine, phenathylamine, monosodium
glutamate, or sodium nitrate. Common foods which contain these are chocolate, aged cheeses,
sour cream, red wine, pickled herring, chicken livers, avocados, ripe bananas, cured meats,
many Oriental and prepared foods (read the labels!). Some people have been successful in
treating their migraines with supplements of B-vitamins, particularly B6 and niacin. Children
who are hyperactive may benefit from eliminating food additives, especially colorings, and
foods high in salicylates from their diets. A few of these are almonds, green peppers, peaches, 14
tea, grapes. This is the diet made popular by Benjamin Feingold, who has written the book
“Why your Child is Hyperactive”. Other researchers have had mixed results when testing
whether the diet is effective.
1. The topic of this passage is ______. A. infants and allergies B. reactions to foods C. food and nutrition D. a good diet
2. According to the passage, the difficulty in diagnosing allergies to foods is due to ______.
A. the vast number of different foods we eat
B. the use of prepared formula to feed babies
C. lack of a proper treatment plan
D. the similarity of symptoms of the allergy to other problems
3. The word "symptoms" is closest in meaning to______. A. diagnosis B. indications C. diet D. prescriptions
4. The phrase "set off" is closest in meaning to ______. A. identified B. triggered C. avoided D. relieved
5. What can be inferred about babies from this passage?
A. They should have a carefully restricted diet as infants.
B. They may become hyperactive if fed solid food too early.
C. They can eat almost anything.
D. They gain little benefit from being breast fed.
6. The word "hyperactive" is closest in meaning to ______.
A. inquisitive B. overly active
C. unusually low activity D. excited
7. The author states that the reason that infants need to avoid certain foods related to allergies
has to do with the infant's ______.
A. lack of teeth B. poor metabolism
C. inability to swallow solid foods
D. underdeveloped intestinal tract
8. The word "these" refers to ______. A. food additives B. foods high in salicylates C. food colorings D. innutritious foods
9. Which of the following was a suggested treatment for migraines in the passage?
A. Getting plenty of sodium nitrate
B. Avoiding all Oriental foods
C. Using Vitamin B in addition to a good diet D. Eating more ripe bananas
10. According to the article the Feingold diet is NOT ______.
A. verified by researchers as being consistently effective
B. beneficial for hyperactive children
C. designed to eliminate foods containing certain food additives D. available in book form 15 PASSAGE 2 IMAGE AND THE CITY
In the city, we are barraged with images of the people we might become. Identity is
presented as plastic, a matter of possessions and appearance; and a very large proportion of the
urban landscape is taken up by slogans, advertisements, flatly photographed images of folk
heroes – the man who turned into a sophisticated dandy overnight by drinking a particular brand
of drink, the girl who transformed herself into a femme fatale with a squirt of cheap scent. The
tone of the wording of these advertisements is usually pert and facetious, comically drowning in
its own hyperbole. But the pictures are brutally exact: they reproduce every detail of a style of
life, down to the brand of cigarette-lighter, the stone in the ring, and the economic row of books on the shelf.
Even in the business of the mass-production of images of identity, this shift from the
general to the diverse and particular is quite recent. Consider another line of stills: the back-lit,
soft-focus portraits of the first and second generations of great movie stars. There is a degree of
romantic unparticularity in the face of each one, as if they were communal dream-projections of
society at large. Only in the specialized genres of westerns, farces and gangster movies were
stars allowed to have odd, knobby cadaverous faces. The hero as loner belonged to history or
the underworld: he spoke from the perimeter of society, reminding us of its dangerous edges.
The stars of the last decade have looked quite different. Soft-focus photography has
gone, to be replaced by a style which searches out warts and bumps, and emphasizes the
uniqueness not the generality of the face. Voices, too, are strenuously idiosyncratic; whines,
stammers and low rumbles are exploited as features of “star quality”. Instead of romantic heroes
and heroines, we have a brutalist, hard-edged style in which isolation and egotism are assumed as natural social conditions.
In the movies, as in the city, the sense of stable hierarchy has become increasingly exhausted;
we no longer live in a world where we can all share the same values, and the same heroes. (It is
doubtful whether this world, so beloved of nostalgia moralists, ever existed; but lip-service was
paid to it, the pretence, at last, was kept up.) The isolate and the eccentric push towards the
centre of the stage; their fashions and mannerisms are presented as having as good a claim to the
limelight and the future as those of anyone else. In the crowd on the underground platform, one
may observe a honeycomb of fully-worked-out worlds, each private, exclusive, bearing little
comparison with its nearest neighbour. What is prized in one is despised in another. There are
no clear rules about how one is supposed to manage one’s body, dress, talk, or think. Though
there are elaborate protocols and etiquettes among particular cults and groups within the city,
they subscribe to no common standard.
For the new arrival, this disordered abundance is the city’s most evident and alarming
quality. He feels as if he has parachuted into a funfair of contradictory imperatives. There are so
many people he might become, and a suit of clothes, a make of car, and a brand of cigarettes,
will go some way towards turning him into a personage even before he has discovered who that
personage is. Personal identity has always been deeply rooted in property, but hitherto the
relationship has been a simple one – a question of buying what you could afford, and leaving
your wealth to announce your status. In the modern city, there are so many things to buy, such a
quantity of different kinds of status, that the choice and its attendant anxieties have created a new pornography of state.
The leisure pages of the Sunday newspapers, fashion magazines, TV plays, popular
novels, cookbooks, window displays all nag at the nerve of our uncertainty and snobbery.
Should we like American cars, hard-rock hamburger joints, Bauhaus chairs…? Literature and
art are promoted as personal accessories, the paintings of Mondrian or the novels of Samuel 16
Beckett “go” with certain styles like matching handbags. There is in the city a creeping
imperialism of taste, in which more and more commodities are made over to being mere
expressions of personal identity. The piece of furniture, the pair of shoes, the book, the film, are
important not so much in themselves but for what they communicate about their owners; and
ownership is stretched to include what one likes or believes in as well as what one can buy.
1. What does the writer say about advertisements in the first paragraph?
A. They often depict people that most other people would not care to be like.
B. The pictures in them accurately reflect the way that some people really live.
C. Certain kinds are considered more effective in cities than others.
D. The way in which some of them are worded is cleverer than it might appear.
2. What does a “femme fatale” refer to?
A. a beautiful woman who spends her time enjoying herself
B. a gorgeous woman who realizes most men’s dream C. a potential good wife
D. an attractive woman who may bring unhappiness to men
3. The word “facetious” is closest in meaning to _____. A. flippant B. prevalent C. impudent D. complacent
4. The writer says that if you look at a line of advertisements on a tube train, it is clear that _____.
A. city dwellers have very diverse ideas about what image they would like to have
B. some images in advertisements have a general appeal that others lack
C. city dwellers are more influenced by images on advertisements than other people are
D. some images are intended to be representative of everyone’s aspirations
5. What does the writer imply about portraits of old movie stars?
A. They reflected an era in which people felt basically safe.
B. They made people feel that their own faces were rather unattractive.
C. They tried to disguise the less attractive features of their subjects.
D. Most people did not think they were accurate representations of the stars in them.
6. What does the writer suggest about the stars of the last decade?
A. Most people accept that they are not typical of society as a whole.
B. They make an effort to speak in a way that may not be pleasant on the ear.
C. Some of them may be uncomfortable about the way they come across.
D. They make people wonder whether they should become more selfish.
7. The writer uses the crowd on an underground platform to exemplify his belief that _____.
A. no one in a city has strict attitudes towards the behavior of others
B. no single attitude to life is more common than another in a city
C. people in cities would like to have more in common with each other
D. views of what society was like in the past are often accurate
8. The writer implies that new arrivals in a city may _____.
A. acquire a certain image without understanding what that involves
B. underestimate the importance of wealth
C. decide that status is of little importance
D. change the image they wish to have too frequently
9. The novels of Samuel Beckett is an example of _____.
A. classic literature works that make their owners feel superior to other people
B. literature works of high artistic value
C. possessions that show owners’ identity
D. what is wanted by the majority in the society 17
10. What point does the writer make about city dwellers in the final paragraph?
A. They are unsure as to why certain things are popular with others.
B. They are keen to be the first to appreciate new styles.
C. They want to acquire more and more possessions.
D. They are aware that judgments are made about them according to what they buy. PASSAGE 3
A survey is a study, generally in the form of an interview or a questionnaire, which
provides information concerning how people think and act. In the United States, the best-known
surveys are the Gallup poll and the Harris poll. As anyone who watches the news during
campaigns presidential knows, these polls have become an important part of political life in the United States.
North Americans are familiar with the many “person on the street” interviews on local
television news shows. While such interviews can be highly entertaining, they are not
necessarily an accurate indication of public opinion. First, they reflect the opinions of only those
people who appear at a certain location. Thus, such samples can be biased in favor of
commuters, middle-class shoppers, or factory workers, depending on which area the newspeople
select. Second, television interviews tend to attract outgoing people who are willing to appear on
the air, while they frighten away others who may feel intimidated by a camera. A survey must be
based on a precise, representative sampling if it is to genuinely reflect a broad range of the population.
In preparing to conduct a survey, sociologists must exercise great care in the wording of
questions. An effective survey question must be simple and clear enough for people to
understand it. It must also be specific enough so that there are no problems in interpreting the
results. Even questions that are less structured must be carefully phrased in order to elicit the
type of information desired. Surveys can be indispensable sources of information, but only if the
sampling is done properly and the questions are worded accurately.
There are two main forms of surveys: the interview and the questionnaire. Each of these
forms of survey research has its advantages. An interviewer can obtain a high response rate
because people find it more difficult to turn down a personal request for an interview than to
throw away a written questionnaire. In addition, an interviewer can go beyond written questions
and probe for a subject’s underlying feelings and reasons. However, questionnaires have the
advantage of being cheaper and more consistent.
1. What does the passage mainly discuss?
A. The importance of polls in American political life
B. Problems associated with interpreting surveys
C. The history of surveys in North America
D. The principles of conducting surveys
2. The word "they" in the passage refers to _______. A. interviews B. opinions C. North Americans D. news shows
3. According to the passage, the main disadvantage of person-on-the-street interviews is that they _______.
A. are used only on television B. are not carefully worded C. reflect political opinions
D. are not based on a representative sampling 18
4. The word "precise" in the passage is closest in meaning to _______. A. rational B. accurate C. planned D. required
5. According to paragraph 3, which of the following is most important for an effective survey?
A. A high number of respondents
B. A sociologist who is able to interpret the results C. Carefully worded questions
D. An interviewer's ability to measure respondents' feelings
6. The word "exercise" in the passage is closest in meaning to _______. A. utilize B. design C. consider D. defend
7. The word "elicit" in the passage is closest in meaning to _______. A. rule out B. bring out C. compose D. predict
8. It can be inferred from the passage that one reason that sociologists may become frustrated
with questionnaires is that _______.
A. respondents are too eager to supplement questions with their own opinions
B. questionnaires are expensive and difficult to distribute
C. respondents often do not complete and return questionnaires
D. questionnaires are often difficult to read
9. According to the passage, one advantage of live interviews over questionnaires is that live interviews _______. A. cost less
B. minimize the influence of the researcher C. are easier to interpret
D.can produce more information
10. Which of the following terms is defined in the passage? A. Response rate
B. Representative sampling C. Public opinion D. Survey PASSAGE 4
Leonardo da Vinci was born on April 15, 1452, in the small Tuscan town of
Vinci, near Florence. He was the son of a wealthy Florentine public official and a peasant
woman. In the mid-1460s, the family settled in Florence, where Leonardo was given the best
education that Florence could offer. He rapidly advanced socially and intellectually. He was
handsome, persuasive in conversation, and a fine musician and improviser. About in 1466 he
apprenticed as a studio boy to Andrea Del Verrocchio. In Verrocchio’s workshop, Leonardo
was introduced to many activities, from the painting of altarpieces and panel pictures to the
creation of large sculptural projects. In 1472, he was entered in the painter’s guild of Florence,
and in 1476, he was still mentioned as Verrocchio’s assistant. In Verrocchio’s Baptism of
Christ, the kneeling angel at the left of the painting is by Leonardo.
In 1478, Leonardo became an independent master. His first commission, to paint an
altarpiece for the chapel of the Palazzo Vecchino, the Florentine town hall, was never executed.
His first large painting, The Adoration of the Magi, left unfinished, was ordered in 1481 for the
Monastery of San Donato a Scopeto, Florence. Other works ascribed to his youth are the so-
called Benois Madonna, the portrait Ginerva de’ Benci, and the unfinished Saint Jerome.
In 1482, Leonardos career moved into high gear when he entered the service of the duke
of Milan, Ludovico Sforza, having written the duke an astonishing letter in which he stated that
he could build portable bridges; that he knew the techniques of constructing bombardments and
of making cannons; that he could build ships as well as armored vehicles, catapults, and other
war machines; and that he could execute sculpture in marble, bronze, and clay. He served as a
principal engineer in the duke’s numerous military enterprises and was so active also as an 19
architect. In addition, he assisted the Italian mathematician Luca Pacioli in the celebrated work Divina Proportione.
Evidence indicates that Leonardo had apprentices and pupils in Milan, for whom he
probably wrote the various texts later compiled as Treatise on Painting. The most important of
his own paintings during the early Milan period was The Virgin of the Rocks, two versions of
which exist; he worked on the compositions for a long time, as was his custom, seemingly
unwilling to finish what he had begun.
From 1495 to 1496, Leonardo labored on his masterpiece, The Last Super, a mural in
the refectory of the Monastery of Santa Maria Delle Grazie, Milan. Unfortunately, his
experimental use of oil on dry plaster was technically unsound, and by 1500 its deterioration
had begun. Since 1726 attempts have been made, unsuccessfully, to restore it; a concerted
restoration and conservation program, making use of the latest technology, was begun in 1977
and is reversing some of the damage. Although much of the original surface is gone, the majesty
of the composition and the penetrating characterization of the figures give a fleeting vision of its vanished splendor.
During his long stay in Milan, Leonardo also produced other paintings and drawings,
most of which have been lost, theater designs, architectural drawings, and models for the dome
of Milan Cathedral. His largest commission was for a colossal bronze monument to Francesco
Sforza, father of Ludovico, in the courtyard of Castello Sforzesco. In December 1499, however,
the Sforza family was driven from Milan by French forces; Leonardo left the statue unfinished
and he returned to Florence in 1500.
1. What is NOT mentioned about the young Leonardo da Vinci?
A. He was physically attractive. B. He was a talented speaker C. He was well-connected
D. He was gifted in many fields of art.
2. The word “apprenticed” in paragraph 1 is closest in meaning to _______. A. cleaned B. painted C. studied D. mastered
3. What can be inferred about Andrea Del Verrocchio? A. He was a writer. B. He was well-known. C. He was poor. D. He had many students.
4. How old was Leonardo da Vinci when he became an independent master? A. 23 B. 25 C. 26 D. 28
5. The pronoun “he” in paragraph 3 refers to_______. A. Leonardo da Vinci B. The duke C. Sforza D. Milan
6. What is NOT mentioned as a work by a young Leonardo da Vinci? A. The Adoration of the Magi B. Ginerva de’ Benci C. Donato a Scopeto D. Saint Jerome
7. The word “catapults” in paragraph 3 is probably_______ A. an animal B. a method of transportation C. a food D. an arm
8. Which of the following sentences best paraphrases the information in the passage?
“He worked on the compositions for a long time, as was his custom, seemingly unwilling to
finish what he had begun.”
A. Leonardo felt the need to work on his works for as long a time as was needed to achieve perfection. 20
B. For some reasons, Leonardo da Vinci took an extraordinarily long time to finish many creations.
C. Leonardo kept working until everything seemed perfect.
D. Leonardo would start many projects at the same time, but they would never finish together.
9. The word “concerted” in paragraph 5 is closest in meaning to_______. A. musical B. artistic C. organized D. painful
10. What is NOT mentioned as a creation of Leonardo da Vinci’s while he was in Milan? A. theatre designs B. architectural drawings C. models of bronze horses
D. models for church domes
PAPER TWO: WRITING (10 ĐIỂM) WRITING 1 (3 điểm)
You should spend about 20 minutes on this task.
You live in Ho Chi Minh city. You just took a trip to Ha Long Bay with your English friend
named Daisy. You received an email from her after she returned to Liverpool. Read part of her email below.
I hope you like the photos we took in Ha Long Bay. Did you get home all right?
I’m back at work now, but it’s a bit difficult to start again. I wish we were still on holiday.
Why don’t we plan another trip this spring if you’ve got time and money? Any suggestions where we could go?
Write a reply to Daisy. In your email, you have to tell her that you really like the photos and the
time you got together, describe a problem you had at the airport on the way home to her and
suggest the time and place for the next trip.
You should write at least 120 words. WRITING 2 (7 điểm)
You should spend about 40 minutes on this task. Read the following text from a book about peer group.
As children grow older, they become increasingly involved with their peer group, a
group whose members are about the same age and have similar interests. The peer
group- along with the family and the school- is one of the three main socializing
agents. The peer group is both a positive and negative influence in our lives.
(Academic Encounters- Life in Society, chapter 2, page 35)
Write an essay to an educated reader to discuss the effects of peer group on children. Include
reasons and any relevant examples to support your answer. You should write at least 250 words. 21 PRACTICE 2
PAPER ONE: READING (10 ĐIỂM)
Read the following passages then circle the best answer to each question. Circle A, B, C or D PASSAGE 1
Sex-trait stereotypes may be defines as a set of psychological attributes that
characterize men more frequently than women. Thus, males are often described as ambitious,
unemotional, and independent and, on the other hand, selfish, unrefined, and insensitive.
Females are described as emotional, irrational, high-strung, and tentative. In spite of the
egalitarian movement, recent studies have demonstrated that sex-trait stereotypes remain
common among young adults today. In fact, such stereotyping has proved to be the
psychological justification for social beliefs concerning the appropriateness of various activities
for men and women that further perpetuate the different sex roles traditionally ascribed to men and women.
The awareness of sex – trait stereotypes in the United States develops a linear fashion
between the ages of four and ten. Generally, knowledge of male stereotypical characteristics
develops earlier, whereas knowledge of female characteristics increases more rapidly between
the ages of four and seven. While the reasons for this learning are not fully understood, evidence
suggests that at the preschool level children’s literature and television programs provide
powerful models and reinforcement for stereotyped views.
Studies designed to compare sex-trait stereotypes cross-nationally show a high degree of
correspondence in the characteristics ascribed to men and women. As findings have been
obtained in the other countries, two hypotheses have been advanced to explain the
commonalities in sex-trait stereotyping. One states that cultural similarities play a role in the
psychological characteristics attributed to men and women, and the second states that the
general picture is one of cultural relativism.
1. The passage is probably an excerpt from an article on ______.
A. sociology B. demographics C. psychotherapy D. sociobiology
2. Which of the following statements is supported in the passage?
A. The beliefs of young adults are more common among the old.
B. The beliefs of young adults have shown little change.
C. Young adults have participated in many common studied.
D. The egalitarian movement has been a resounding success.
3. The word “ambitious” is closest in meaning to ______.
A. anxious B. ambiguous C. enterprising D. honest
4. The word “high-strung” is closest in meaning to ______.
A. nervous B. hideous C. high-class D. fair-minded
5. The word “perpetuate” is closest in meaning to ______.
A. perplex B. maintain C. mount D. personalize
6. According to the passage, characterizations of men and women as having particular sets of attributed are ______. A. found in several countries
B. reflected in modern fashion C. uniform across all groups
D. contingent on a socioeconomic class 22
7. It can be inferred from the second paragraph that young children learn about sex-trait stereotypes ______. A. by watching their parents
B. when their learning is reinforced
C. by being exposed to various media D. after they start school
8. It can be inferred from paragraph that social beliefs precipitate ______.
A. nontraditional gender roles
B. the rationalization for stereotyping
C. the on-going egalitarian change
D. concerns for the legitimacy of sex traits
9. The author of the passage would most probably agree with which of the following statements?
A. Social attitudes are not likely to change radically
B. Social attitudes toward women have been updated and made more balanced.
C. Social attitudes toward men are continually nullified and modernized.
D. The women’s liberation movement has borne little fruit.
10. Which of the following is the best title for the passage?
A. A Cross – examination of Stereotypical Behaviors
B. A Relativist Perspective on Stereotyping
C. The Pervasiveness of Sex – Trait Stereotypes
D. A Unilateral Approach to Sex – Trait Stereotyping PASSAGE 2
MOBILE PHONES: ARE THEY ABOUT TO TRANSFORM OUR LIVES?
We love them so much that some of us sleep with them under the pillow, yet we are
increasingly concerned that we cannot escape their electronic reach. We use them to convey our
most intimate secrets, yet we worry that they are a threat to our privacy. We rely on them more
than the Internet to cope with modern life, yet many of us don’t believe advertisements saying
we need more advanced services.
Sweeping aside the doubts that many people feel about the benefits of new third
generation phones and fears over the health effects of phone masts, a recent report claims that
the long-term effects of new mobile technologies will be entirely positive so long as the public
can be convinced to make use of them. Research about users of mobile phones reveals that the
mobile has already moved beyond being a mere practical communications tool to become the
backbone of modern social life, from love affairs to friendship to work.
The close relationship between user and phone is most pronounced among teenagers,
the report says, who regard their mobiles as an expression of their identity. This is partly
because mobiles are seen as being beyond the control of parents. But the researchers suggest
that another reason may be that mobiles, especially text messaging, were seen as a way of
overcoming shyness. The impact of phones, however, has been local rather than global,
supporting existing friendship and networks, rather than opening users to a new broader
community. Even the language of texting in one area can be incomprehensible to anybody from another area.
Among the most important benefits of using mobile phones, the report claims, will be a
vastly improved mobile infrastructure, providing gains throughout the economy, and the
provision of a more sophisticated location-based services for users. The report calls on 23
government to put more effort into the delivery of services by mobile phone, with suggestion
including public transport and traffic information and doctors’ text messages to remind patients
of appointments. There are many possibilities. At a recent trade fair in Sweden, a mobile
navigation product was launched. When the user enters a destination, a route is automatically
downloaded to their mobile and presented by voices, pictures and maps as they drive. In future,
these devices will also be able to plan around congestion and road works in real time. Third
generation phones will also allow for remote monitoring of patients by doctors. In Britain,
scientists are developing an asthma management solution using mobiles to detect early signs of an attack.
Mobile phones can be used in education. A group of teachers in Britain use third
generation phones to provide fast internet service to children who live beyond the reach of
terrestrial broadband services and can have no access to online information. ‘As the new
generation of mobile technologies takes off, the social potential will vastly increase,’ the report argues.
1. What does the writer suggest in the first paragraph about our attitudes to mobile phones?
A. We are worried about using them so much.
B. We have contradictory feelings about them.
C. We need them more than anything else to deal with modern life.
D. We cannot live without them.
2. What does “them” in paragraph 2 refer to? A. new mobile technologies B. benefits C. doubts D. long-term effects
3. What is the connection between social life and mobile phones?
A. Mobile phones make romantic communication easier.
B. Mobile phones enable people to communicate while moving around.
C. Modern social life relies significantly on the use of mobile phones.
D. Mobile phones encourage people to make friends.
4. Why do teenagers have such a close relationship with their mobile phones?
A. They are more inclined to be late than older people.
B. They feel independent when they use them.
C. They tend to feel uncomfortable in many situations.
D. They use text messages more than any other group.
5. Which of the following is NOT true?
A. People can overcome shyness by using texting to communicate things that make them uncomfortable.
B. There is no need to suspect the harmfulness of mobile phones.
C. Mobile phone is considered as a means for the youth to show their characters.
D. Mobile phones are playing a wide range of roles in people’s life.
6. In what sense has the impact of phones been “local” in paragraph 3?
A. People tend to communicate with people they already know.
B. Users generally phone people who live in the same neighbourhood.
C. It depends on local dialects.
D. The phone networks use different systems.
7. How might mobile phones be used in the future?
A. To show bus and train timetables
B. To give the address of the nearest doctor’s surgery C. To arrange deliveries D. To cure diseases 24
8. The navigation product launched in Sweden is helpful for drivers because _________.
A. it shows them how to avoid road works
B. it can suggest the best way to get to a place
C. it tells them which roads are congested
D. it provides directions orally
9. What is the general attitude of the report described here?
A. The government should take over the mobile phone networks.
B. There are problems with mobile phones that cannot be overcome.
C. Mobile phones can have a variety of very useful applications.
D. Manufacturers need to produce better equipment.
10. The word “pronounced” in paragraph 3 is closest in meaning to _________. A. obvious B. overwhelmed C. serious D. voiced PASSAGE 3
The languages spoken by early Europeans are still shrouded in mystery. There is
no linguistic continuity between the languages of Old Europe (a term sometimes used for
Europe between 7,000 and 3,000 B.C.) and the languages of the modern world, and we cannot
yet translate the Old European script. Scholars have deciphered other ancient languages, such as
Sumerian, Akkadian, and Babylonian, which used the cuneiform script, because of the
fortuitous discovery of bilingual inscriptions. When cuneiform tablets were first discovered in
the 18th century, scholars could not decipher them. Then inscriptions found in Iran at the end of
the 18th century provided a link: these inscriptions were written in cuneiform and in two other
ancient languages, Old Persian and New Elamite – languages that had already been deciphered.
It took several decades, but scholars eventually translated the ancient cuneiform script via the
more familiar Old Persian language.
Similarly, the hieroglyphic writing of the Egyptians remained a mystery until French
troops unearthed the famous Rosetta stone in the late 18th century. The stone carried the same
message written in ancient Greek, Egyptian hieroglyphs, and Egyptian hieratic, a simplified
form of hieroglyphs. The Rosetta stone thwarted scholars’ efforts for several decades until the
early 19th century when several key hieroglyphic phrases were decoded using the Greek
inscriptions. Unfortunately, we have no Old European Rosetta stone to chart correspondences
between Old European script and the languages that replaced it.
The incursions of Indo-European tribes into Old Europe from the late 5th to the early 3rd
millennia B.C. caused a linguistic and cultural discontinuity. These incursions disrupted the Old
European sedentary farming lifestyle that had existed for 3,000 years. As the Indo-Europeans
encroached on Old Europe from the east, the continent underwent upheavals. These severely
affected the Balkans, where the Old European cultures abundantly employed script. The Old
European way of life deteriorated rapidly, although pockets of Old European cultural remained
for several millennia. The new peoples spoke completely different languages belonging to the
Indo-European linguistic family. The Old European language or languages, and the script used
to write them, declined and eventually vanished.
1. What is the main topic of the passage?
A. Reason for the failure to understand the written records of Old European culture.
B. Influences on the development of Old European script.
C. Similarities between Old European script and other ancient writing systems.
D. Events leading to the discovery of Old European script. 25
2. According to the passage, New Elamite is _________.
A. a language that was used in Europe about 3,000 years ago
B. a modern language that came from Old Persian
C. one of the languages spoken by the Old Europeans
D. a language that was understood by the late 18th century
3. When does the passage suggest that ancient Egyptian hieroglyphic script was finally deciphered?
A. At around the same time as cuneiform script was deciphered.
B. Shortly before the Rosetta stone was unearthed.
C. As soon as additional bilingual inscriptions became available to scholars.
D. A few decades after the hieratic script was decoded.
4. According to the passage, which of the following is TRUE of the Rosetta stone?
A. It was found by scholars trying to decode ancient languages.
B. It contains two versions of hieroglyphic script.
C. Several of its inscriptions were decoded within a few months of its discovery.
D. Most of its inscriptions have still not been decoded.
5. According to the passage, scholars were able to decipher cuneiform form with the help of _________.
A. the Sumerian, Akkadian, and Babylonian languages B. Old Persian
C. tablets written in Old European
D. languages spoken in 18th century Iran
6. The word “fortuitous” in the 1st paragraph is closest in meaning to _________. A. important B. immediate C. early D. lucky
7. The word “them” in the 1st paragraph refers to _________.
A. Sumerian, Akkadian, and Babylonian B. bilingual inscriptions C. cuneiform tablets D. scholars
8. The word “thwarted” in the 2nd paragraph is closest in meaning to _________ A. continued B. influenced C. encouraged D. frustrated
9. According to the passage, Indo-European incursions caused Old European population to ________.
A. separated into different tribes B. move eastward
C. change their ways of living and obtain food
D. start recording historical events in writing
10. The author mentions the Balkans in the passage in order to explain why _________.
A. Indo-European languages were slow to spread in Old Europe
B. the inhabitants of Old Europe were not able to prevent Indo-European incursions
C. the use of the Old European script declined
D. the Old European culture survived for a time after the Indo-European incursions 26 PASSAGE 4
Scientists believe that dinosaurs came into being about 180 million years ago and died
out about 60 million years ago. Since dinosaurs were reptiles, they must have developed from
reptiles that lived before them.
The first reptiles appeared long before the dinosaurs. They were able to live in water and
on land. They hatched eggs and the young ones had legs and lungs. They could breathe air and probably ate insects.
Then the other reptiles became larger and stronger. Some looked like big lizards and
others like turtles. They had short tails, thick legs and big heads. They ate plants.
The first dinosaurs to develop resembled their reptile ancestors. They were slender and
probably no bigger than a turkey and, like a turkey, they walked on their hind legs. Some kinds
remained small, but others grew heavier and longer. There were even a few that were six meters
long, weighing as much as an elephant. They had small heads and short, blunt teeth, which were
only good for eating plants. They lived in low, swampy places.
Then came the next period in the Age of the Reptiles. Some of the plant-eating dinosaurs
became so large that even four legs could not support them on land. These were the largest of all
the reptiles. The largest dinosaurs were probably the biggest animals that ever walked the Earth.
They had to spend most of their lives in rivers and swamps. One of these giants was the
Brontosaurus, 25 meters long and weighing about 40,000 kilograms!
At the same time, other dinosaurs were able to walk about on land. One of these, the
Allosaurus, was 10 meters long, had sharp teeth and claws and fed on the Brontosaurus and other plant eaters!
Dinosaurs developed in many different ways, but none of them ever developed a good
brain. One of the reasons dinosaurs disappears may be that they were just not bright enough to
know how to survive and escape from all their natural enemies. But some scientists believe that
changes in the Earth and in climate killed off the dinosaurs. Swamps dried up and mountains
appeared, making life difficult for dinosaurs that couldn’t live on dry land. Also, changes in
climate produced changes in vegetation, and since many dinosaurs were plant eaters, their food
supply disappeared. Finally as the Earth began to have seasons, shifting from hot summers to
snowy winters, dinosaurs could not fit themselves to these changes and gradually became extinct.
There are other scientists who believe that the dinosaurs disappeared because of an
incident that happened 65 million years ago. An enormous and very heavy asteroid hit the Earth.
There was a huge explosion and this caused tons of dust to be blasted into the Earth’s
atmosphere. There was such a thick layer of dust covering our Earth that it blocked out sunlight
for as long as five years. That was how plants died and the dinosaurs were deprived of food.
Eventually they starved to death.
1. Which of the following statements about the first reptiles is NOT true? A. They laid eggs.
B. They were the ancestor of dinosaurs.
C. They were both land and sea animals. D. They existed about 180 million years ago.
2. What did the earliest reptiles feed on? A. insects B. reptiles C. plants D. mammals
3. In the passage, the word “resembled” means _______. A. lived as long as
B. existed at the same time as
C. survived in the same way as D. had similarities to
4. How were the first dinosaurs similar to reptiles?
A. They walked on their fore legs. B. They were plant eaters. 27
C. They were of the same size. D. They had big heads.
5. When did the Earth begin to have seasons? A. 100 million years ago B. 65 million years ago C. 180 million years ago D. 60 million years ago
6. From the fifth paragraph, we know that _______.
A. the Brontosaurus fed on other smaller dinosaurs
B. the Brontosaurus had sharp claws and teeth
C. the largest of the dinosaurs had two legs that couldn’t support them.
D. giant dinosaurs lived mostly in swamps and rivers
7. Which of the following statements that appears in the passage is considered a fact?
A. Dinosaurs were developed from reptiles.
B. Dinosaurs became extinct 60 million years.
C. The Age of the Reptiles was the period when reptiles ruled the Earth.
D. The first reptiles ate insects.
8. When an asteroid hit the Earth 65 million years ago, the following things happened, EXCEPT _______.
A. many types of vegetation died
B. there were tons of dust on Earth
C. there was no sunlight on Earth for a long period D. there was a big explosion
9. According to the passage, dinosaurs disappeared NOT because_______.
A. they were killed by enemies
B. they were killed in an explosion
C. they couldn’t adapt to climatic changes D. they died of starvation
10. According to the next text, which is the correct order of appearance of the dinosaurs?
I. The first dinosaurs were about the size of a turkey.
II. Then came the large reptiles that ate plants.
III. The earliest reptiles ate insect.
IV. Then some dinosaurs grew to be as big as elephants. A. I, III, IV, II B. IV, III, II, I C. II, III, I, IV
D. III, II, I, IV
PAPER TWO: WRITING (10 ĐIỂM) WRITING 1 (3 điểm)
You should spend about 20 minutes on this task. You recently received an email from your
English-speaking friend, Pat, inviting you to visit and stay with his family. Read part of Pat’s email below.
You said you’d like to come and stay for a while in the summer, so I’m writing to ask if you’d like to visit in July.
By the way, it’s my brother Tim’s 18th birthday on 10th July so try to be here then, because
there’ll be a big special party to go to. Lots of our friends and relatives will be there!
I’m on holiday in July too, so perhaps we could go camping for a few days as well?
If you’re coming, let me know if there’s anything else you’d particularly like to do. Then I can make some plans.
Write an email responding to Pat. You should write at least 120 words. You are not allowed to include your name 28 WRITING 2 (7 điểm)
You should spend about 40 minutes on this task. Read the following text from a book about the Internet.
The Internet is an amazing information resource. Students, teachers, and researchers
use it as an investigating tool. Journalists use it to find information for stories. Doctors
use it to learn more about unfamiliar diseases and the latest medical developments.
Ordinary people use it for shopping, banking, bill-paying, and communicating with
family and friends. However, while there are many positive developments associated
with the Internet, there are also certain fears and concerns. (Academic Encounters-
Life in Society, chapter 6, page 129)
Write an essay to an educated reader to discuss the negative effects of the Internet. Include
reasons and any relevant examples to support your answer.
You should write at least 250 words. PRACTICE 3
PAPER ONE: READING (10 ĐIỂM)
Read the following passages then circle the best answer to each question. Circle A, B, C or D PASSAGE 1
In this era of increased global warming and diminishing fossil fuel supplies, we
must begin to put a greater priority on harnessing alternative energy sources. Fortunately, there
are a number of readily available, renewable resources that are both cost- effective and earth-
friendly [1]. Two such resources are solar power and geothermal power.
Solar energy, which reaches the earth through sunlight, is so abundant that it could meet
the needs of worldwide energy consumption 6,000 times over. And solar energy is easily
harnessed through the use of photovoltaic cells that convert sunlight to electricity. In the US
alone, more than 100, 000 homes are equipped with solar electric systems in the form of solar
panels or solar roof tiles. And in other parts of the world, including many developing countries,
the use of solar system is growing steadily [2].
Another alternative energy source, which is abundant in specific geographical areas, is
geothermal power, which creates energy by tapping heat from below the surface of the earth.
Hot water and steam that are trapped in underground pools are pumped to the surface and used
to run a generator, which produces electricity. Geothermal energy is 50,000 times more
abundant than the entire known supply of fossil fuel resources and as with solar power, the
technology needed to utilize geothermal energy is fairly simple. A prime example of effective
geothermal use in Iceland, a region of high geothermal activity where there are over 80 percent
of private homes, are heated by geothermal power [3].
Solar and geothermal energy are just two of promising renewable alternatives to
conventional energy sources. The time is long overdue to invest in the development and use of 29
alternative energy on global scale [4].
1. What is the main topic of this passage?
A. The benefits of solar and wind power over conventional energy sources.
B. Two types of alternative energy sources that should be further utilized.
C. How energy resources are tapped from nature.
D. Examples of the use of energy sources worldwide.
2. According to the passage, why should we consider using alternative energy sources?
A. Because fossil fuels are no longer available.
B. Because global warming has increased the amount of sunlight that reaches the earth.
C. Because they are free and available worldwide.
D. Because conventional energy resources are being depleted, and they cause environmental damage.
3. Which of the following words could best replace the word “harnessing”? A. capturing B. harassing C. depleting D. exporting
4. According to the passage, what can be inferred about solar roof tiles?
A. They are being used in many undeveloped countries.
B. They can convert geothermal energy to electricity.
C. They are more expensive than solar panels.
D. They contain photovoltaic cells.
5. According to the passage, how is solar energy production similar to geothermal energy production?
A. They both require the use of a generator.
B. They both use heat from the earth’s surface.
C. They both require fairly simple technology.
D. They are both conventional and costly.
6. Where is the best place in the passage to insert the following sentence? “Although the US is
not utilizing geothermal resources to this extent, the Western US has a similar capacity to
generate geothermal power” A. [1] B. [2] C. [3] D. [4]
7. According to the passage, which of the following is true about solar power?
A. There is very little of it available in Iceland.
B. It is being used in 100, 000 private homes worldwide.
C. It is 6,000 times more powerful than energy from fossil fuels.
D. There is enough of it to far exceed the energy needs of the world.
8. What can be inferred about the use of geothermal energy in Iceland?
A. It is widely used form of energy for heating homes.
B. Twenty percent of the geothermal energy created is used to heat businesses.
C. It is not effective for use in private homes.
D. It is 80 times more effective than traditional forms of energy.
9. What does the author imply about alternative energy sources?
A. Many different types of alternative energy sources exist.
B. Most alternative energy sources are too impractical for private use.
C. Alternative energy is too expensive for developing countries to produce.
D. Solar and geothermal energy are the effective forms of alternative power.
10. What best describes the author’s purpose in writing the passage?
A. To warn people about the hazards of fossil fuel use.
B. To convince people of the benefits of developing alternative energy sources.
C. To describe the advantages and disadvantages of alternative energy use.
D. To outline the problems and solutions connected with global warming. 30 PASSAGE 2
Television has transformed politics by changing the way in which information is
disseminated, by altering political campaigns, and by changing citizen's patterns of response to
politics. By giving citizens independent access to the candidates, television diminished the role
of the political party in the selection of the major party candidates. By centering politics on the
person of the candidate, television accelerated the citizen's focus on character rather than issues.
Television has altered the forms of political communication as well. The messages on
which most of us rely are briefer than they once were. The stump speech, a political speech
given by traveling politicians and lasting 3/2 to 2 hours, which characterized nineteenth-century
political discourse, has given way to the 30- second advertisement and the 10 second "sound
bite" in broadcast news. Increasingly the audience for speeches is not that standing in front of
the politician but rather the viewing audience who will hear and see a snippet of the speech on the news.
In these abbreviated forms, much of what constituted the traditional political discourse
of earlier ages has been lost. In 15 or 30 seconds, a speaker cannot establish the historical
context that shaped the issue in question, cannot detail the probable causes of the problem, and
cannot examine alternative proposals to argue that one is preferable to others. In snippets,
politicians assert but do not argue.
Because television is an intimate medium, speaking through it require a changed
political style that was more conversational, personal, and visual than that of the old style stump
speech. Reliance on television means that increasingly our political world contains memorable
pictures rather than memorable words. Schools teach us to analyze words and print. However, in
a word in which politics is increasingly visual, informed citizenship requires a new set of skills.
Recognizing the power of television's pictures, politicians craft staged events, called
pseudo-event, designed to attract media coverage. Much of the political activity we see on
television news has been crafted by politicians, their speechwriters, and their public relations
advisers for televised consumption. Sound bites in news and answers to questions in debates
increasingly sound like advertisements.
1. The main point of the passage is that __________.
A. citizens in the United States are now more informed about political issues because of television coverage
B. citizens in the United States prefer to see politicians on television instead of in person
C. politics in the United States has become substantially more controversial since the introduction of television
D. politics in the United States has been significantly changed by television
2. It can be inferred from the passage that before the introduction of television political parties __________.
A. had more influence over the selection of political candidates
B. spent more money to promote their political candidates C. attracted more members D. received more money
3. The author mentions the "stump speech" in paragraph 2 as an example of __________.
A. an event created by politicians to attract media attention
B. an interactive discussion between two politicians
C. political presentation typical of the 19th century
D. a style of speech common to televised political events 31
4. The phrase "given way to" in paragraph 2 can be best replaced by __________. A. added interest to B. modified C. imitated D. been replaced by
5. The word "that" in paragraph 2 refers to __________. A. audience B. broadcast news
C. politician D. advertisement
6. According to the passage, traditional political discourse was more successful than televised
speeches because it __________.
A. allows news coverage of political candidates
B. places political issues within a historical context
C. makes politics seem more intimate to citizens
D. provides detailed information about a candidate’s private behavior
7. By saying that "politicians assert but do not argue", the author means that politicians __________.
A. make claims without providing reasons for the claims
B. take stronger positions on issues than in the past
C. enjoy explaining the issue to broadcasters
D. dislike having to explain their own positions on issues to citizens
8. It can be inferred from paragraph 4 that __________.
A. politicians will need to learn to become more personal when meeting citizens
B. politicians who are considered very attractive are favored by citizens over politicians who are less attractive
C. citizens tend to favor a politician who analyzed the issue over one who does not
D. citizens will need to learn how to evaluate visual political images in order to become better informed
9. According to paragraph 5, staged political events are created so that politicians can __________.
A. create more time to discuss political issues
B. obtain more television coverage for themselves
C. spend more time talking to citizens in person
D. engage in debates with their opponents
10. The passage supports the statement that __________.
A. Political presentations today are more like advertisements than in the past
B. Politicians today tend to be more familiar with the views of citizens than in the past
C. Citizens today are less informed about a politician's character than in the past
D. Political speeches today focus more on details about issues than in the past PASSAGE 3
Industrialization came to the United State after 1790 as North American entrepreneurs
increased productivity by reorganizing work and building factories. These innovations in
manufacturing boosted output and living standards to an unprecedented extent; the average per
capita wealth increased by nearly 1 percent per year – 30 percent over the course of a
generation. Goods that had once been luxury items became part of everyday life.
The impressive gain in output stemmed primarily from the way in which workers made
goods, since the 1790's, North American entrepreneurs – even without technological
improvements – had broadened the scope of the outwork system that mace manufacturing more
efficient by distributing materials to a succession of workers who each performed a single step
of the production process. For example, during the 1820's and 1830's the shoe industry greatly 32
expanded the scale and extend of me outwork system. Tens of thousands of rural women, paid
according to the amount they produced, fabricated the "uppers" of shoes, which were bound to
the soles by wage-earning journeymen shoemakers in dozens of Massachusetts towns, whereas
previously journeymen would have made the enduring shoe. This system of production made
the employer a powerful "shoe boss" and eroded workers' control over the pace and conditions
of labor. However, it also dramatically increased the output of shoes while cutting their price.
For tasks that were not suited to the outwork system, entrepreneurs created an even more
important new organization, the modem factory, which used power-driven machines and
assembly-line techniques to turn out large quantities of well-made goods. As early as 1782 the
prolific Delaware inventor Oliver Evans had built a highly automated, laborsaving flour mill
driven by water power. His machinery lifted the grain to the top of the mill, cleaned it as it fell
into containers known as hoppers, ground the grain into flour, and then conveyed the flour back
to the top of the mill to allow it to cool as it descended into barrels. Subsequently,
manufacturers made use of new improved stationary steam engines to power their mills. This
new technology enabled them to build factories in the nation's largest cities, taking advantage of
urban concentrations of inexpensive labor, good transportation networks, and eager customers.
1. What is the passage mainly about?
A. The difficulties of industrialization in North America
B. The influence of changes in manufacturing on the growth of urban centers
C. The rapid speed of industrialization in North America
D. Improved ways of organizing the manufacturing of goods
2. The word "boosted" is closest in meaning to _________. A. ensured B. raised C. arranged D. discouraged
3. The word "scope" is closest in meaning to _________. A. value B. popularity C. extent D. diversity
4. The author mentions the shoe industry in the second paragraph to provide an example of how _________.
A. entrepreneurs increased output by using an extended outwork system
B. entrepreneurs used technological improvements to increase output
C. rural workers responded to "shoe bosses"
D. changes in the outwork system improved the quality of shoes
5. All of the following are mentioned as effects of changes in the shoe industry during the
1820's and 1830's EXCEPT _________.
A. an increase in the worker's dependence on entrepreneurs
B. an increase in the wages paid to journeymen shoemakers
C. a decline in the workers ability to control the speed of production
D. a decrease in the price of shoes
6. All of the following are true of the outwork system EXCEPT _________.
A. It involved stages of production.
B. It was more efficient than the systems used before 1790.
C. It made many employers less powerful than they had been before.
D. It did not necessarily involve any technological improvements.
7. The word "prolific" is closest in meaning to _________. A. efficient B. productive C. self-employed D. progressive
8. According to the passage, how did later mills differ from the mills differ from the mill built by Oliver Evans?
A. They were located away from large cities.
B. They used new technology to produce power. 33
C. They did not allow flour to cool before it was placed in Barrels.
D. They combined technology with the outwork system.
9. The passage mentions which of the following as a result of improvements in factory machinery?
A. It became easier for factory' owners to find workers and customers.
B. Manufacturers had to employ more highly skilled workers.
C. The amount of power required for factories operate was reduced.
D. Factories could operate more than one engine at a time.
10. The word "eager" is closest in meaning to _________. A. wealthy B. knowledgeable C. regular D. enthusiastic PASSAGE 4 THE CREATORS OF GRAMMAR
No student of a foreign language needs to be told that grammar is complex. By
changing word sequences and by adding a range of auxiliary verbs and suffixes, we are able to
communicate tiny variations in meaning. We can turn a statement into a question, state whether
an action has taken place or is soon to take place, and perform many other word tricks to convey
subtle differences in meaning. Nor is this complexity inherent to the English language. All
languages, even those of so-called 'primitive' tribes have clever grammatical components. The
Cherokee pronoun system, for example, can distinguish between 'you and I', 'several other
people and I' and 'you, another person and I'. In English, all these meanings are summed up in
the one, crude pronoun 'we'. Grammar is universal and plays a part in every language, no
matter how widespread it is. So the question which has baffled many linguists is - who created grammar?
At first, it would appear that this question is impossible to answer. To find out how
grammar is created, someone needs to be present at the time of a language's creation,
documenting its emergence. Many historical linguists are able to trace modern complex
languages back to earlier languages, but in order to answer the question of how complex
languages are actually formed, the researcher needs to observe how languages are started from
scratch. Amazingly, however, this is possible.
Some of the most recent languages evolved due to the Atlantic slave trade. At that time,
slaves from a number of different ethnicities were forced to work together under colonizer's
rule. Since they had no opportunity to learn each other's languages, they developed a make-
shift language called a pidgin. Pidgins are strings of words copied from the language of the
landowner. They have little in the way of grammar, and in many cases it is difficult for a
listener to deduce when an event happened, and who did what to whom. [1] Speakers need to
use circumlocution in order to make their meaning understood. [2] Interestingly, however, all it
takes for a pidgin to become a complex language is for a group of children to be exposed to it at
the time when they learn their mother tongue. [3] Slave children did not simply copy the strings
of words uttered by their elders, they adapted their words to create a new, expressive language.
[4] Complex grammar systems which emerge from pidgins are termed creoles, and they are invented by children.
Further evidence of this can be seen in studying sign languages for the deaf. Sign
languages are not simply a series of gestures; they utilize the same grammatical machinery that
is found in spoken languages. Moreover, there are many different languages used worldwide.
The creation of one such language was documented quite recently in Nicaragua. Previously, all
deaf people were isolated from each other, but in 1979 a new government introduced schools for 34
the deaf. Although children were taught speech and lip reading in the classroom, in the
playgrounds they began to invent their own sign system, using the gestures that they used at
home. It was basically a pidgin. Each child used the signs differently, and there was no
consistent grammar. However, children who joined the school later, when this inventive sign
system was already around, developed a quite different sign language. Although it was based
on the signs of the older children, the younger children's language was more fluid and compact,
and it utilized a large range of grammatical devices to clarify meaning. What is more, all the
children used the signs in the same way. A new creole was born.
Some linguists believe that many of the world's most established languages were creoles
at first. The English past tense -ed ending may have evolved from the verb 'do'. 'It ended' may
once have been 'It end-did'. Therefore it would appear that even the most widespread languages
were partly created by children. Children appear to have innate grammatical machinery in their
brains, which springs to life when they are first trying to make sense of the world around them.
Their minds can serve to create logical, complex structures, even when there is no grammar present for them to copy.
1. In paragraph 1, why does the writer include information about the Cherokee language?
A. To prove that complex grammar structures were invented by the Cherokees.
B. To show how simple, traditional cultures can have complicated grammar structures.
C. To show how English grammar differs from Cherokee grammar.
D. To demonstrate how difficult it is to learn the Cherokee language.
2. What can be inferred about the slaves' pidgin language?
A. It contained complex grammar.
B. It was based on many different languages.
C. It was difficult to understand, even among slaves.
D. It was created by the land-owners.
3. All the following sentences about Nicaraguan sign language are true EXCEPT______.
A. The language has been created since 1979.
B. The language incorporates signs which children used at home.
C. The language is based on speech and lip reading.
D. The language was perfected by younger children.
4. In paragraph 3, where can the following sentence be placed ___________.
“It included standardized word orders and grammatical markers that existed in neither the
pidgin language, nor the language of the colonizers.” A. [4] B. [3] C. [1] D. [2]
5. The phrase “From scratch” in paragraph 2 is closest in meaning to_________________. A. in simple cultures B. from the very beginning
C. by using written information D. by copying something else
6. “Make-shift” in paragraph 3 is closest in meaning to _______________. A. complicated and expressive B. private and personal C. simple and temporary D. extensive and diverse
7. Which sentence is closest in meaning to the sentence?
“Grammar is universal and plays a part in every language, no matter how widespread it is.”
A. The grammar of all languages is the same, no matter where the languages evolved.
B. Languages which contain a lot of grammar are more common that languages that contain a little.
C. All languages, whether they are spoken by a few people or a lot of people, contain grammar. 35
D. Some languages include a lot of grammar, whereas other languages contain a little.
8. All of the following are features of the new Nicaraguan sign language EXCEPT ______________.
A. The hand movements were smoother and smaller.
B. All children used the same gestures to show meaning.
C. The meaning was clearer than the previous sign language.
D. New gestures were created for everyday objects and activities.
9. Which idea is presented in the final paragraph?
A. Children say English past tenses differently from adults.
B. The English past tense system is inaccurate.
C. Linguists have proven that English was created by children.
D. English was probably once a creole.
10. The word 'consistent' in paragraph 4 could best be replaced by____________. A. natural B. predictable C. uniform D. imaginable
PAPER TWO: WRITING (10 ĐIỂM) WRITING 1 (3 điểm)
You should spend about 20 minutes on this task. You have received a letter from your English-
speaking friend, Sam, asking you about a festival in your country. Read part of Sam’s email below.
I’m studying different festivals from around the world for a project I’m doing. Can you tell
me which is the most important festival in your region and when it happens?
Also I’d be very grateful for any information you could give me about the festival itself.
If you think it is worth it, perhaps I could come and see what it’s like. What do you think? If
I come, will you be free? I'd like to see you again and perhaps we could visit the festival together.
Write a letter responding to Sam. You should write at least 120 words. You are not allowed to include your name. WRITING 2 (7 điểm)
You should spend about 40 minutes on this task. Read the following text from a book about advertizing.
Advertizing is a very common feature of all our daily media. In fact, in most
daily newspapers, advertizing makes up the majority of the content. Very
large amounts of money are spent on advertizing. A television commercial can
easily cost many thousands of dollars per second. (Academic Encounters- Life
in Society, chapter 5, page 117) 36
Write an essay to an educated reader to discuss both advantages and disadvantages of
advertizing. Include reasons and any relevant examples to support your answer.
You should write at least 250 words. PRACTICE 4
PAPER ONE: READING (10 ĐIỂM)
Read the following passages then circle the best answer to each question. Circle A, B, C or D PASSAGE 1
Cooperation is the common endeavor of two or more people to perform a task or reach a
jointly cherished goal. Like competition and conflict, there are different forms of cooperation,
based on group organization and attitudes.
In the first form, known as primary cooperation, group and individual fuse. The group
contains nearly all of each individual’s life. The rewards of the group’s work are shared with
each member. There is an interlocking identity of individual, group and task performed. Means
and goals become one, for cooperation itself is valued.
While primary cooperation is most often characteristic of preliterature societies,
secondary cooperation is characteristic of many modern societies. In secondary cooperation,
individuals devote only part of their lives to the group. Cooperation itself is not a value. Most
members of the group feel loyalty, but the welfare of the group is not the first consideration.
Members perform tasks so that they can separately enjoy the fruits of their cooperation in the
form of salary, prestige, or power. Business offices and professional athletic teams are examples of secondary cooperation.
In the third type, called tertiary cooperation or accommodation, latent conflict underlies the
shared work. The attitudes of the cooperating parties are purely opportunistic: the organization
is loose and fragile. Accommodation involves common means to achieve antagonistic goals: it
breaks down when the common means cease to aid each party in reaching its goals. This is not,
strictly speaking, cooperation at all, and hence the somewhat contradictory term antagonistic
cooperation is sometimes used for this relationship.
1. What is the author’s main purpose in the first paragraph of the passage?
A. To urge readers to cooperate more often
B. To offer a brief definition of cooperation
C. To explain how cooperation differs from competition and conflict
D. To show the importance of group organization and attitudes
2. The word “cherished” in paragraph 1 is closest in meaning to _______ A. defined B. agreed on C. prized D. set up
3. The word “fuse” in paragraph 2 is closest in meaning to _______ A. explore B. unite C. evolve D. react
4. Which of the following statements about primary cooperation is supported by information in the passage?
A. It is usually the first stage of cooperation achieved by a group of individuals attempting to cooperate.
B. It is most commonly seen among people who have not yet developed reading and writing skills.
C. It is an ideal that can never be achieved. 37
D. It was confined to prehistoric times.
5. According to the passage, why do people join groups that practice secondary cooperation?
A. To experience the satisfaction of cooperation.
B. To associate with people who have similar backgrounds.
C. To get rewards for themselves. D. To defeat a common enemy.
6. Which of the following is an example of the third form of cooperation as it is defined in the fourth paragraph?
A. Students form a study group so that all of them can improve their grades.
B. Members of a farming community share work and the food that they grow.
C. Two rival political parties temporarily work together to defeat a third party.
D. A new business attempts to take customers away from an established company.
7. Which of the following is NOT given as a name for the third type of cooperation? A. Tertiary cooperation B. Antagonistic cooperation C. Accommodation D. Latent conflict
8. The word “fragile” in paragraph 4 is closest in meaning to ______. A. involuntary B. poorly planned C. inefficient D. easily broken
9. As used throughout the passage, the term “common” is closest in meaning to which of the following? A. popular B. vulgar C. ordinary D. shared
10. Which of the following best describes the overall organization of the passage?
A. The author provides a number of concrete examples and then draws a conclusion
B. The author presents the points of view of three experts on the same topic
C. The author compares and contrasts two types of human relations
D. The author describes a concept by analyzing its three forms PASSAGE 2
The cause of tooth decay is acid, which is produced by bacteria in the mouth. The acid
removes minerals from tooth enamel, allowing tooth decay to begin; the saliva in your mouth
encourages remineralization and neutralizes the acid. The rate at which bacteria in the mouth
produce acid depends on the amount of plaque on the teeth, the composition of the microbial
flora, and whether the bacteria of the plaque have been “primed” by frequent exposure to sugar.
To keep your teeth healthy, a regular dental hygiene program should be followed.
Removing plaque with a toothbrush and dental floss temporarily reduces the numbers of
bacteria in the mouth and thus reduces tooth decay. It also makes the surfaces of the teeth more
accessible, enabling saliva to neutralize acid and remineralize lesions. If fluoride is present in
drinking water when teeth are forming, some fluoride is incorporated into the enamel of the
teeth, making them more resistant to attack by acid. Fluoride toothpaste seems to act in another
way, by promoting the remineralization of early carious lesions.
In addition to a regular dental hygiene program, a good way to keep your teeth healthy is
to reduce your intake of sweet food. The least cavity-causing way to eat sweets is to have them
with meals and not between. The number of times you eat sweets rather than the total amount
determines how much harmful acid the bacteria in your saliva produce. But the amount of
sweets influences the quality of your saliva. Avoid, if you can, sticky sweets that stay in your
mouth a long time, also try to brush and floss your teeth after eating sugary foods. Even rinsing 38
your mouth with water is effective. Whenever possible, eat foods with fiber, such as raw carrot
sticks, apples, celery sticks, etc. that scrape off plaque, acting as a toothbrush. Cavities can be
greatly reduced if these rules are followed when eating sweets.
1. What does this passage mainly discuss? A. Good nutrition. B. Food with fiber.
C. Ways to keep your teeth healthy.
D. Fluoridization and cavities.
2. The word “plaque” in the first paragraph is closest in meaning to __________.
A. a flat piece of metal fixed to the wall to show the address B. cavities in the teeth
C. saliva produced in the mouth full of food
D. a substance containing bacteria on the surface of teeth
3 According to the passage, all of the following statements about plaque are true EXCEPT __________.
A. it consists of acid producing bacteria
B. it is not affected by eating sweets
C. it can be removed from teeth by brushing and flossing
D. it reduces the positive effect of saliva
4. We can infer from the passage that one benefit of fluoride to healthy teeth is _________.
A. it strengthens tooth enamel B. it stimulates tooth enamel C. it makes teeth whiter
D. it is replacement for brushing and flossing in dental care
5. The word “it” in the second paragraph refers to __________. A. dental floss B. bacteria C. removal of plaque D. plaque
6. What can be concluded from the passage about sweets?
A. All sweets should be avoided.
B. Sweets should be eaten with care.
C. It is better to eat sweets a little at a time throughout the day.
D. Sticky sweets are less harmful than other sweets.
7. The phrase “scrape off’ in the third paragraph is closest in meaning to __________. A. repel B. rub together with C. remove D. dissolve
8. It can be inferred from the passage that foods with fiber are __________. A. sugary B. expensive C. sticky D. abrasive
9. According to the passage, the value of eating foods with fiber is that __________. A. they contain vitamin A
B. they are less expensive than a toothbrush
C. they are able to remove the plaque from your teeth D. they contain no sugar
10. The author of the passage states that the amount of acid produced by the bacteria in your saliva increases __________.
A. with the amount of sweets you eat
B. with the number of times you eat sweets
C. if you eat sweets with your meals D. if you eat sticky sweets 39 PASSAGE 3
The history of clinical nutrition, or the study of the relationship between health and how
the body takes in and utilizes food substances, can be divided into four distinct eras: the first
began in the nineteenth century and extended into the early twentieth century when it was
recognized for the first time that food contained constituents that were essential for human
function and that different foods provided different amounts of these essential agents. Near the
end of this era, research studies demonstrated that rapid weight loss was associated with
nitrogen imbalance and could only be rectified by providing adequate dietary protein associated with certain foods.
The second era was initiated in the early decades of the twentieth century and might be
called "the vitamin period." Vitamins came to be recognized in foods, and deficiency syndromes
were described. As vitamins became recognized as essential food constituents necessary for
health, it became tempting to suggest that every disease and condition for which there had been
no previous effective treatment might be responsive to vitamin therapy. At that point in time,
medical schools started to become more interested in having their curricula integrate nutritional
concepts into the basic sciences. Much of the focus of this education was on the recognition of
deficiency symptoms. Herein lay the beginning of what ultimately turned from ignorance to
denial of the value of nutritional therapies in medicine. Reckless claims were made for effects
of vitamins that went far beyond what could actually be achieved from the use of them.
In the third era of nutritional history in the early 1950's to mid-1960's, vitamin therapy
began to fall into disrepute. Concomitant with this, nutrition education in medical schools also
became less popular. It was just a decade before this that many drug companies had found their
vitamin sales skyrocketing and were quick to supply practicing physicians with generous
samples of vitamins and literature extolling the virtue of supplementation for a variety of health-
related conditions. Expectations as to the success of vitamins in disease control were
exaggerated. As is known in retrospect, vitamin and mineral therapies are much less effective
when applied to health-crisis conditions than when applied to long-term problems of under
nutrition that lead to chronic health problems.
1. What does the passage mainly discuss?
A. The effects of vitamins on the human body
B. The history of food preferences from the nineteenth century to the present
C. The stages of development of clinical nutrition as a field of study.
D. Nutritional practices of the nineteenth century
2. It can be inferred from the passage that which of the following discoveries was made during
the first era in the history of nutrition?
A. Protein was recognized as an essential component of diet.
B. Vitamins were synthesized from foods.
C. Effective techniques of weight loss were determined.
D. Certain foods were found to be harmful to good health.
3. The word "tempting" is closest in meaning to ______. A. necessary B. attractive C. realistic D. correct
4. It can be inferred from the passage that medical schools began to teach concepts of nutrition in order to _______.
A. convince medical doctors to participate in research studies on nutrition
B. encourage medical doctors to apply concepts of nutrition in the treatment of disease
C. convince doctors to conduct experimental vitamin therapies on their patients
D. support the creation of artificial vitamins 40
5. The word "Reckless" is closest in meaning to ______. A. Recorded B. Irresponsible C. Informative D. Urgent
6. The word "them" refers to ______. A. therapies B. claims C. effects D. vitamins
7. Why did vitamin therapy begin losing favor in the 1950’s?
A. The public lost interest in vitamins.
B. Medical schools stopped teaching nutritional concepts.
C. Nutritional research was of poor quality
D. Claims for the effectiveness of vitamin therapy were seen to be exaggerated.
8. The phrase "concomitant with" is closest in meaning to ______. A. in conjunction with B. prior to C. in dispute with D. in regard to
9. The word "skyrocketing" is closest in meaning to ______. A. internationally popular B. increasing rapidly C. acceptable D. surprising
10. The paragraph following the passage most probably discusses ______.
A. The fourth era of nutrition history
B. Problems associated with undernutrition
C. How drug companies became successful
D. Why nutrition education lost its appeal PASSAGE 4
At 7pm on a dark, cold November evening, thousands of people are making their way
across a vast car park. They're not here to see a film, or the ballet, or even the circus. They are
all here for what is, bizarrely, a global phenomenon: they are here to see Holiday on Ice. Given
that most people don't seem to be acquainted with anyone who's ever been, the show's statistics
are extraordinary: nearly 300 million people have seen Holiday on Ice since it began in 1943; it
is the most popular live entertainment in the world.
But what does the production involve? And why are so many people prepared to spend
their lives travelling round Europe in caravans in order to appear in it? It can't be glamorous,
and it's undoubtedly hard work. The backstage atmosphere is an odd mix of gym class and
workplace. A curtained-off section at the back of the arena is laughably referred to as the girls'
dressing room, but is more accurately described as a corridor, with beige, cracked walls and
cheap temporary tables set up along the length of it. Each girl has a small area littered with pots
of orange make-up, tubes of mascara and long false eyelashes.
As a place to work, it must rank pretty low down the scale: the area round the ice-rink
is grey and mucky with rows of dirty blue and brown plastic seating and red carpet tiles. It's an
unimpressive picture, but the show itself is an unquestionably vast, polished global enterprise:
the lights come from a firm in Texas, the people who make the audio system are in California,
but Montreal supplies the smoke effects; former British Olympic skater Robin Cousins is now
creative director for the company and conducts a vast master class to make sure they're ready
for the show's next performance.
The next day, as the music blares out from the sound system, the cast start to go through
their routines under Cousins' direction. Cousins says, The aim is to make sure they're all still
getting to exactly the right place on the ice at the right time - largely because the banks of lights
in the ceiling are set to those places, and if the skaters are all half a metre out they'll be
illuminating empty ice. Our challenge,' he continues, 'is to produce something they can sell in a
number of countries at the same time. My theory is that you take those things that people want 41
to see and you give it to them, but not in the way they expect to see it. You try to twist it. And
you have to find music that is challenging to the skaters, because they have to do it every night.'
It may be a job which he took to pay the rent, but you can't doubt his enthusiasm. 'The
only place you'll see certain skating moves is an ice show,' he says, 'because you're not allowed
to do them in competition. It's not in the rules. So the ice show world has things to offer which
the competitive world just doesn't.' Cousins knows what he's talking about because he skated for
the show himself when he stopped competing - he was financially unable to retire. He learnt the
hard way that you can't put on an Olympic performance every night. 'I'd be thinking, these
people have paid their money, now do your stuff, and I suddenly thought, "I really can't cope.
I'm not enjoying it".' The solution, he realized, was to give 75 per cent every night, rather than
striving for the sort of twice-a-year excellence which won him medals.
To be honest, for those of us whose only experience of ice-skating is watching top-class
Olympic skaters, some of the movements can look a bit amateurish, but then, who are we to
judge? Equally, it's impossible not to be swept up in the whole thing; well, you'd have to try pretty hard not to enjoy it.
1. According to paragraph 1 the writer is surprised to see that although Holiday on Ice is popular ______.
A. people often prefer other types of show
B. people prefer to see a film, the ballet, or the circus
C. most people consider it as a holiday
D. few people know someone who has seen it
2. From the phrase "it must rank pretty low down the scale" in paragraph 3 we can infer that ______.
A. Holiday on Ice has rather poor working condition
B. Holiday on Ice has a very dirty place to work
C. skaters do not enjoy working in this place
D. skaters do not earn much money from the job
3. Which of the following adjectives can be used to describe the backstage area? A. glamorous B. relaxing C. messy D. old
4. It is mentioned in paragraph 3 that ______.
A. many companies are involved in the production
B. it is difficult to find suitable equipment
C. the show needs financial support
D. the show has been staged in many places
5. For Robin Cousins, the aim of the rehearsal is ______.
A. to keep in time with the music B. to adjust the spotlights
C. to be acquainted with the stage
D. to position the skaters on the ice
6. Cousins's theory on how to produce shows for different audiences is that ______.
A. he adapts movements to suit everyone B. he selects suitable music
C. he presents performances in an unexpected way
D. he varies the routines every night
7. It is suggested in paragraph 5 that skating in shows ______.
A. enables skaters to visit a variety of places
B. is as competitive as other forms of skating
C. can be particularly well paid
D. allows skaters to try out original skating moves 42
8. The pronoun "them" in paragraph 5 refers to ______. A. certain skating moves B. some famous skaters C. some live performances D. certain ice shows
9. The phrase "the hard way" in paragraph 5 most likely means ______. A. by working very hard
B. by having expectations of others
C. through personal experience D. through doing things again and again
10. Which of the following is the writer's conclusion of Holiday on Ice?
A. Olympic ice-skating is more enjoyable than Holiday on Ice.
B. Everyone should enjoy watching Holiday on Ice.
C. Holiday on Ice requires more skills than Olympic ice-skating.
D. It is hard to know who really enjoys Holiday on Ice.
PAPER TWO: WRITING (10 ĐIỂM) WRITING 1 (3 điểm)
You should spend about 20 minutes on this task.
You have received the following letter from your English-speaking friend, Sam, asking you
about how to get to your apartment from the airport. Read part of Sam’s email below.
Thanks for inviting me to stay with you when I visit your country next month. I'm not sure
how to get to your apartment from the airport.
Could you write back giving me some basic instructions? What would be the best method
of transport for me? I'd prefer one that isn't too expensive!
Just one other thing - what will the weather be like when I get there? Just so I'll know what clothes to pack!
Write a letter responding to Sam. You should write at least 120 words. You are not allowed to include your name. WRITING 2 (7 điểm)
You should spend about 40 minutes on this task.
Write an essay in response to the following topic.
The Internet has brought about many changes to our daily life. Nowadays we
are doing things such as mailing, contacting, banking and communication
much faster. Do these developments bring more advantages than disadvantages?
Give reasons and include any relevant examples to support your answers.
You should write at least 250 words. 43 PRACTICE 5
PAPER ONE: READING (10 ĐIỂM)
Read the following passages then circle the best answer to each question. Circle A, B, C or D PASSAGE 1
"The economic history of the United States", one scholar has written, "is the
history of the rise and development of the capitalistic system". The colonists of the eighteenth
century pushed forward what those of the seventeenth century have begun: the expansion and
elaboration of an economy born in the great age of capitalist expansion.
Our excellent natural resources paved the way for the development of abundant capital
to increase our growth. Capital includes the tools - such as: machines, vehicles, and buildings -
that makes the outputs of labor and resources more valuable. But it also includes the funds
necessary to buy those tools. If a society had to consume everything it produced just to stay
alive, nothing could be put aside to increase future productions. But if a farmer can grow more
corn than his family needs to eat, he can use the surplus as seed to increase the next crop, or to
feed workers who build tractors. This process of capital accumulation was aided in the
American economy by our cultural heritage. Saving played an important role in the European
tradition. It contributed to American’s motivation to put something aside today for the tools to buy tomorrow.
The great bulk of the accumulated wealth of America, as distinguished from what was
consumed, was derived either directly or indirectly from trade. Though some manufacturing
existed, its role in the accumulation of capital was negligible. A merchant class of opulent
proportions was already visible in the seaboard cities, its wealth as the obvious consequence of
shrewd and resourceful management of the carrying trade. Even the rich planters of tidewater
Virginia and the rice coast of South Carolina finally depended for their genteel way of life upon
the ships and merchants who sold their tobacco and rice in the markets of Europe. As colonial
production rose and trade expanded, a business community emerged in the colonies, linking the
provinces by lines of trade and identity of interest.
1. The word “it” in the third sentence of paragraph 2 refers to ______. A. resource B. capital C. labour D. growth
2. According to the passage, capital includes all of the following EXCEPT ______. A. factories B. tractors C. money D. workers
3. According to the passage, the emergence of a business community in the colonies was a result of ______. A. efficient saving B. the immigration
C. the existence of manufacturing
D. the success of production and trade
4. The word ‘negligible’ in the third paragraph is closest in meaning to ______. A. able to be neglected B. very important C. necessary to be neglected D. not very important
5. The phrase ‘put aside’ in the second paragraph is closest in meaning to ______. A. hidden B. reviewed C. saved D. consumed
6. With what subject is this passage mainly concerned? A. Geography B. Economics C. Finance D. Culture 44
7. The phrase ‘paved the way’ in the second paragraph is closest in meaning to ______. A. accumulated B. supported C. resembled D. paid for
8. It can be inferred from the passage that the European ancestors of early Americans __________. A. were accustomed to saving B. were good farmers C. sent many tools to America
D. taught their skills to their offspring
9. The word ‘funds’ in the second paragraph is closest in meaning to ______. A. capital B. money C. resource D. labour
10. According to the passage, which of the following would lead to accumulating capital?
A. Training workers who produce goods. B. Consuming what is produced
C. Planting more of a crop than what is needed
D. Studying the culture history of the country PASSAGE 2
Quite different from storm surges are the giant sea waves called tsunamis, which derive
their name from the Japanese expression for "high water in a harbor". These waves are also
referred to by the general public as tidal waves, although they have relatively little to do with
tides. Scientists often refer to them as seismic sea waves, far more appropriate in that they do
result from undersea seismic activity.
Tsunamis are caused when the sea bottom suddenly moves, during an underwater
earthquake or volcano, for example, and the water above the moving earth is suddenly
displaced. This sudden shift of water sets off a series of waves. These waves can travel great
distances at speeds close to 700 kilometers per hour. In the open ocean, tsunamis have little
noticeable amplitude, often no more than one or two meters. It is when they hit the shallow
water the coast that they increase in height, possibly up to 40 meters.
Tsunamis often occur in the Pacific because the Pacific is an area of heavy seismic
activity. Two areas of the Pacific well accustomed to the threat of tsunamis arc Japan and
Hawaii. Because the seismic activity that causes tsunamis in Japan often occurs on the ocean
bottom quite close to the islands, the tsunamis that hit Japan often comes with little warning and
can therefore prove disastrous. Most of the tsunamis that hit the Hawaiian Islands, however,
originate thousands of miles away near the coast of Alaska, so these tsunamis have a much
greater distance to travel and the inhabitants of Hawaii generally have time for warning of their imminent arrival.
Tsunamis are certainly not limited to Japan and Hawaii. In 1755, Europe experienced a
calamitous tsunami, when movement along the fault lines near the Azores caused a massive
tsunami to sweep onto the Portuguese coast and flood the heavily populated area around Lisbon.
The greatest tsunami on record occurred on the other side of the world in 1883 when the
Krakatoa volcano underwent a massive explosion, sending waves more than 30 meters high
onto nearby Indonesian islands; the tsunami from this volcano actually traveled around the
world and was witnessed as far away as the English Channel.
1. The paragraph preceding this passage most probably discusses ______. A. tidal waves B. tides C. underwater earthquakes D. storm surges 45
2. According to the passage, all of the following are true about tidal waves EXCEPT that ______.
A. they refer to the same phenomenon as seismic sea waves
B. they are caused by sudden changes in high and low tides
C. this terminology is not used by the scientific community
D. they are the same as tsunamis
3. The world "displaced" in the second paragraph is closest in meaning to ______. A. filtered B. moved C. not pleased D. located
4. It can be inferred from the passage that tsunamis ______.
A. cause severe damage in the middle of the ocean
B. are often identified by ships on the ocean
C. generally reach heights greater than 40 meters
D. are far more dangerous on the coast than in the open ocean
5. As used in the passage, water that is "shallow" isn't ______. A. deep B. tidal C. coastal D. clear
6. A main difference between tsunamis in Japan and in Hawaii is that tsunamis in Japan are more likely to ______. A. originate in Alaska B. arrive without warning C. be less of a problem
D. come from greater distances
7. The possessive "their" in the third paragraph refers to ______. A. the Hawaiian islands B. the inhabitants of Hawaii C. these tsunamis D. thousands of miles
8. A "calamitous" tsunami in the last paragraph is one that is ______. A. extremely calm B. at fault C. disastrous D. expected
9. From the expression "on record" in the last paragraph, it can be inferred the tsunami that
accompanied the Krakatoa volcano ______.
A. might not be the greatest tsunami ever
B. occurred before efficient records were kept
C. was not as strong as the tsunami in Lisbon
D. was filmed as it was happening
10. The passage suggests that - the tsunami resulting from the Kr- volcano ______.
A. was far more destructive close to the source than far away B. resulted in little damage
C. caused volcanic explosions in the English Channel
D. was unobserved outside of the Indonesian islands PASSAGE 3
Reality television is genre of television programming which, it is claimed, presents
unscripted dramatic or humorous situation, documents actual events, and features ordinary
rather than professional actors. It could be described as a form of artificial or “heightened”
documentary. Although the genre has existed in some form or another since the early years of
television, the current explosion of popularity dates from around 2000.
Reality television covers a wide range of television programming formats, from game or
quiz shows which resemble the frantic, often demeaning programmes produced in Japan in the
1980s and 1990s (a modern example is Gaki no tsukai), to surveillance - or voyeurism - focused
productions such as Big Brother. 46
Critics say that the term “reality television” is somewhat of a misnomer and that such
shows frequently portray a modifies and highly influenced form of reality, with participants put
in exotic location or abnormal situations, sometimes coached to act in certain ways by off-
screen handlers, and with events on screen manipulated through editing and other post- production techniques.
Part of reality television’s appeal is due to its ability to place ordinary people in
extraordinary situations. For example, on the ABC show, The Bachelor, an eligible male dates a
dozen women simultaneously, traveling on extraordinary dates to scenic locales. Reality
television also has the potential to turn its participants into national celebrities, outwardly in
talent and performance programs such as Pop Idol, though frequently Survivor and Big Brother
participants also reach some degree of celebrity.
Some commentators have said that the name “reality television” is an inaccurate
description for several styles of program included in the genre. In competition- based programs
such as Big Brother and Survivor, and other special-living- environment shows like The Real
World, the producers design the format of the show and control the day-to-day activities and the
environment, creating a completely fabricated world in which the competition plays out.
Producers specifically select the participants, and use carefully designed scenarios, challenges,
events, and settings to encourage particular behaviours and conflicts. Mark Burnett, creator of
Survivor and other reality shows, has agreed with this assessment, and avoids the word “reality”
to describe his shows; he has said, “I tell good stories. It really is not reality TV. It really is unscripted drama.”
1. In the first line, the writer says “it is claimed” because ______.
A. they are agree with the statement
B. everyone agrees with the statement
C. no one agrees with the statement
D. they want to distance themselves from the statement
2. Reality television has ______. A. always been this popular
B. been popular since before 2000
C. only been popular since 2000
D. been popular since approximately 2000 3. Japan ______.
A. is the only one place to produce demeaning TV shows
B. has produced demeaning TV shows copied elsewhere C. produced Big Brother
D. invented surveillance focused productions
4. People have criticized reality television because ______. A. it is demeaning B. it uses exotic locations
C. the name is inaccurate D. it shows reality
5. Reality TV appeals to some because ______.
A. it shows eligible males dating women B. it uses exotic locations
C. it shows average people in exceptional circumstances
D. it can turn ordinary people into celebrities 6. Pop Idol ______.
A. turns all its participants into celebrities
B. is more likely to turn its participants into celebrities than Big Brother
C. is less likely to turn its participants into celebrities than Big Brother 47 D. is a dating show
7. The term “reality television” is inaccurate ______. A. for all programs
B. just for Big Brother and Survivor
C. for talent and performance programs
D. for talent and performances programs
8. Producers choose the participants ______. A. on the ground of talent
B. only for special-living- environment shows
C. to create conflict among other things D. to make a fabricated world 9. Paul Burnett ______.
A. was a-participant on Survivor B. is a critic of reality TV
C. thinks the term “reality television” is inaccurate
D. writes the script for Survivor
10. Shows like Survivor ______. A. are definitely reality TV B. are scripted
C. have good narratives D. are theatre PASSAGE 4
Being aware of one’s own emotions – recognizing and acknowledging feelings as they
happen – is at the very heart of Emotional Intelligence. And this awareness encompasses not
only moods but also thoughts about those moods. People who are able to monitor their feelings
as they arise are less likely to be ruled by them and are thus better able to manage their emotions.
Managing emotions does not mean suppressing them; nor does it mean giving free rein
to every feeling. Psychologist Daniel Goleman, one of several authors who have popularized the
notion of Emotional Intelligence, insisted that the goal is balance and that every feeling has
value and significance. As Goleman said, “A life without passion would be a dull wasteland of
neutrality, cut off and isolated from the richness of life itself.” Thus, we manage our emotions
by expressing them in an appropriate manner. Emotions can also be managed by engaging in
activities that cheer us up, soothe our hurts, or reassure us when we feel anxious.
Clearly, awareness and management of emotions are not independent. For instance, you
might think that individuals who seem to experience their feelings more intensely than others
would be less able to manage them. However, a critical component of awareness of emotions is
the ability to assign meaning to them – to know why we are experiencing a particular feeling or
mood. Psychologists have found that, among individuals who experience intense emotions,
individual differences in the ability to assign meaning to those feelings predict differences in the
ability to manage them. In other words, if two individuals are intensely angry, the one who is
better able to understand why he or she is angry will also be better able to manage the anger.
Self-motivation refers to strong emotional self-control, which enables a person to get
moving and pursue worthy goals, persist at tasks even when frustrated, and resist the temptation
to act on impulse. Resisting impulsive behavior is, according to Goleman, “the root of all emotional self-control.”
Of all the attributes of Emotional Intelligence, the ability to postpone immediate
gratification and to persist in working toward some greater future gain is most closely related to 48
success – whether one is trying to build a business, get a college degree, or even stay on a diet.
One researcher examined whether this trait can predict a child’s success in school. The study
showed that 4-year-old children who can delay instant gratification in order to advance toward
some future goal will be “far superior as students” when they graduate from high school than
will 4-year-olds who are not able to resist the impulse to satisfy their immediate wishes.
1. Which of the following can we infer from paragraph 1?
A. If people pay attention to their feelings, they will not be able to manage them.
B. If people pay attention to their feelings, they can control their emotions better.
C. People who can manage their emotions will be controlled by them.
D. Some people can understand their feelings better than others.
2. The word “soothe” in paragraph 2 could be best replaced by ______. A. worsen B. reduce C. weaken D. relieve
3. According to paragraphs 1 to 3, people should be aware of their emotions so that they can ______. A. stop feeling angry
B. manage their emotions appropriately
C. experience feelings more intensively D. explain their emotions to others
4. From paragraph 2, we can see that Daniel Goleman ______.
A. wrote about Emotional Intelligence
B. studied how people manage their emotions
C. trained people to increase their Emotional Intelligence
D. treated patients who had emotional problems
5. All of the following are mentioned in paragraph 2 about our emotions EXCEPT ______. A. we can manage our emotions
B. we should ignore some feelings C. every feeling is important
D. emotions are part of a satisfying life
6. The word “critical” in paragraph 3 is closest in meaning to ______. A. indecisive B. inessential C. dynamic D. important
7. The word “them” in paragraph 3 refers to ______. A. intense emotions B. psychologists C. individuals D. individual differences
8. In paragraph 3, the author explains the concept of awareness and management of emotions by ______.
A. giving an example of why people get angry
B. describing how people learn to control their emotions
C. comparing how two people might respond to an intense emotion
D. explaining why some people are not aware of their emotions
9. The word “pursue” in paragraph 4 mostly means ______. A. be involved in something
B. improve or develop something C. try to achieve something D. find out about something
10. According to paragraph 5, children might be more successful in school if they can resist
impulses because they can ______.
A. have more friends at school
B. easily understand new information
C. focus on their work and not get distracted D. be more popular with their teachers 49
PAPER TWO: WRITING (10 ĐIỂM) WRITING 1 (3 điểm)
You have invited an American businessman, Mr. Noah Watson, to give a talk at your English
club monthly meeting. Read part of his letter below.
I would be glad to come and give a talk to your English club. In order to make a good
preparation, I would like some information about my audience. I could talk about my
either experience when starting up my company or some general rules when doing
business. Which one would be more interesting?
Also, I am staying in a hotel in the city center. Could you tell me where the meeting is and how to get there?
Write a letter responding to Mr. Noah Watson. You should write at least 120 words. You are not allowed to include your name. WRITING 2 (7 điểm)
You should spend about 40 minutes on this task.
Organized tours to remote community and other countries are increasingly
popular. Is it a positive or negative development for local people and the local environment?
Write an essay to an educated reader to discuss the effects of tourism. Include reasons and any
relevant examples to support your answer. You should write at least 250 words. PRACTICE 6
PAPER ONE: READING (10 ĐIỂM)
Read the following passages then circle the best answer to each question. Circle A, B, C or D PASSAGE 1
Sharks have gained an unfair reputation for being fierce predators of large sea animals.
Humanity's unfounded fear and hatred of these ancient creatures is leading to a worldwide
slaughter that may result in the extinction of many coastal shark species. The shark is the victim
of a warped attitude of wildlife protection; we strive only to protect the beautiful, non-
threatening parts of our environment. And, in our efforts to restore only non-threatening parts of
our earth, we ignore other important parts.
A perfect illustration of this attitude is the contrasting attitude toward another large sea
animal, the dolphin. During the 1980s, environmentalists in the United States protested the use
of driftnets for tuna fishing in the Pacific Ocean since these nets also caught dolphins. The
environmentalists generated enough political and economic pressure to prevent tuna companies
from buying tuna that had been caught in driftnets. In contrast to this effort on behalf of the
dolphins, these same environmentalists have done very little to help save the Pacific Ocean
sharks whose population has decreased nearly to the point of extinction. Sharks are among the 50
oldest creatures on earth, having survived in the seas for more than 350 million years. They are
extremely efficient animals, feeding on wounded or dying animals, thus performing an
important role in nature of weeding out the weaker animals in a species. Just the fact that
species such as the Great White Shark have managed to live in the oceans for so many millions
of years is enough proof of their efficiency and adaptability to changing environments. It is time
for us humans, who may not survive another 1,000 years at the rate we are damaging the planet,
to cast away our fears and begin considering the protection of sharks as an important part of a
program for protection of all our natural environment.
1. With which of the following topics is this passage primarily concerned?
A. Sharks are efficient creatures with bad reputations.
B. Sharks are some of the oldest creatures on earth.
C. Sharks illustrate a problem in wildlife protection.
D. The campaign to save dolphins was not extended to save sharks.
2. The word "protested" is closest in meaning to which of the following? A. prescribed B. objected to C. protected D. reflected on
3. How did environmentalists manage to protect dolphins?
A. They prevented fishermen from selling them for meat.
B. They pressured fishermen into protecting dolphins by law.
C. They brought political pressure against tuna companies.
D. They created sanctuaries where dolphin fishing was not allowed.
4. About how long have sharks lived on the planet? A. 25 million years B. 150 million years C. 350 million years D. 500 million years
5. The author uses the phrase "weeding out" to mean _______.
A. strengthening something that is weak
B. feeding something that is hungry
C. encouraging something that is efficient
D. getting rid of something that is unwanted
6. The phrase "managed to live" is used to infer that _______. A. surviving was difficult B. migration was common C. procreation was expanding D. roaming was necessary
7. The phrase "to cast away" means most nearly _______. A. to throw off B. to bring in C. to see through D. to set apart
8. What is the author's tone in this passage? A. explanatory B. accusatory C. gentle D. proud
9. Which of the following best describes the organization of this passage? A. order of importance B. cause and effect C. statement and example D. chronological order
10. Which of the following is NOT mentioned in the passage?
A. We are only protecting the beautiful and non-threatening parts of our environment.
B. Worldwide slaughter of sharks may lead to the extinction of these animals.
C. Environmentalists didn't approve of using driftnets to catch tuna because they also caught dolphins.
D. Tuna fishing is one of the causes that lead to the decrease in the number of tuna in the Pacific Ocean. 51 PASSAGE 2
Hummingbirds are small, often brightly colored birds of the family Trochilidae that live
exclusively in the Americas. About 12 species are found in North America, but only the ruby-
throated hummingbird breeds in eastern North America and is found from Nova Scotia to
Florida. The greatest variety and number of species are found in South America. Another
hummingbird species is found from southeastern Alaska to northern California.
Many hummingbirds are minute. But even the giant hummingbird found in western
South America, which is the largest known hummingbird, is only about 8 inches long and
weighs about two-thirds of an ounce. The smallest species, the bee hummingbird of Cuba and
the Isle of Pines, measures slightly more than 5.5 centimeters and weighs about two grams.
Hummingbirds’ bodies are compact, with strong muscles. They have wings shaped like
blades. Unlike the wings of other birds, hummingbird wings connect to the body only at the
shoulder joint, which allows them to fly not only forward but also straight up and down,
sideways, and backward. Because of their unusual wings, hummingbirds can also hover in front
of flowers so they can suck nectar and find insects. The humming-bird’s bill, adapted for
securing nectar from certain types of flowers, is usually rather long and always slender, and it is
curved slightly downward in many species.
The hummingbird’s body feathers are sparse and more like scales than feathers. The
unique character of the feathers produces brilliant and iridescent colors, resulting from the
refraction of light by the feathers. Pigmentation of other feathers also con-tributes to the unique
color and look. Male and female hummingbirds look alike in some species but different in most
species; males of most species are extremely colorful.
The rate at which a hummingbird beats its wings does not vary, regardless of whether it
is flying forward, flying in another direction, or merely hovering. But the rate does vary with the
size of the bird- the larger the bird, the lower the rate, ranging from 80 beats per second for the
smallest species to 10 times per second for larger species. Researchers have not yet been able to
record the speed of the wings of the bee humming-bird but imagine that they beat even faster.
Most hummingbirds, especially the smaller species, emit scratchy, twittering, or squeaky
sounds. The wings, and sometimes the tail feathers, often produce humming, hissing, or
popping sounds, which apparently function much as do the songs of other birds.
1. According to the passage, where are hummingbirds found?
A. In North and South America. B. Throughout the world. C. In South America only. D. In North America only.
2. The author indicates that the ruby-throated hummingbird is found . A. in California
B. in the eastern part of North America C. in South America D. throughout North America
3. The word “minute” in paragraph 2 is closest in meaning to _________. A. extremely fast B. organized C. unique D. extremely tiny
4. What does the author imply about the rate hummingbirds’ wings beat?
A. Although the bee hummingbird is the smallest, its wings don’t beat the fastest.
B. The hummingbird’s wings beat faster when it is sucking nectar than when it is just flying.
C. The speed at which a bee hummingbird’s wings beat is not actually known.
D. The rate is not much different than that of other birds of its size.
5. The author indicates that a hummingbird’s wings are different from those of other birds because _________.
A. they are controlled by a different section of the brain 52
B. they attach to the body at one point only
C. they attach to the body at more points than other birds
D. they attach and detach from the body
6. The author implies that the hummingbird’s unique wing structure makes it similar to what type of vehicle? A. A rocket. B. A jet airplane. C. A sea plane. D. A helicopter.
7. The word “bill” in paragraph 3 is closest in meaning to _________. A. tail B. body C. beak D. wing
8. The word “sparse” in paragraph 4 is closest in meaning to _________. A. unique B. meager C. fishlike D. thick
9. According to the passage, what causes the unique color and look of hummingbirds? A. The color of the feathers.
B .The pigmentation of the body. C. The rapidity of flight.
D. The structure of the feathers as well as pigmentation.
10. The author indicates that hummingbirds emit noise from their _________. A. unique vocal chords B. wing movement only C. song only
D. wing and possibly tail movement PASSAGE 3
As the twentieth century began, the importance of formal education in the United States
increased. The frontier had mostly disappeared and by 1910 most Americans lived in towns and
cities. Industrialization and the bureaucratization of economic life combined with a new
emphasis upon credentials and expertise to make schooling increasingly important for economic
and social mobility. Increasingly, too, schools were viewed as the most important means of
integrating immigrants into American society.
The arrival of a great wave of southern and eastern European immigrants at the turn of
the century coincided with and contributed to an enormous expansion of formal schooling. By
1920 schooling to age fourteen or beyond was compulsory in most states, and the school year
was greatly lengthened. Kindergartens, vacation schools, extracurricular activities, and
vocational education and counseling extended the influence of public schools over the lives of
students, many of whom in the larger industrial cities were the children of immigrants. Classes
for adult immigrants were sponsored by public schools, corporations, unions, churches,
settlement houses, and other agencies.
Reformers early in the twentieth century suggested that education programs should suit
the needs of specific populations. Immigrant women were once such population. Schools tried
to educate young women so they could occupy productive places in the urban industrial
economy, and one place many educators considered appropriate for women was the home.
Although looking after the house and family was familiar to immigrant women,
American education gave homemaking a new definition. In preindustrial economies,
homemaking had meant the production as well as the consumption of goods, and it commonly
included income-producing activities both inside and outside the home, in the highly
industrialized early-twentieth-century United States, however, overproduction rather than
scarcity was becoming a problem. Thus, the ideal American homemaker was viewed as a
consumer rather than a producer. Schools trained women to be consumer homemakers cooking,
shopping, decorating, and caring for children "efficiently" in their own homes, or if economic 53
necessity demanded, as employees in the homes of others. Subsequent reforms have made these
notions seem quite out-of-date.
1. The paragraph preceding the passage probably discusses ___________.
A. the industrialization and the bureaucratization of economic life the United States in the nineteen century.
B. the formal schooling in the United States in the nineteen century.
C. the urbanization in the United States in the nineteen century.
D. the most important means of integrating immigrants into American society in the nineteen century.
2. It can be inferred from paragraph 1 that one important factor in the increasing importance of
education in the United States was ___________.
A. the expanding economic problems of schools
B. the growing number of schools in frontier communities
C. an increase in the number of trained teachers
D. the increased urbanization of the entire country
3. The word "means" in the passage is closest in meaning to ___________. A. qualifications B. method C. advantages D. probability
4. The phrase "coincided with" in the passage is closest in meaning to ___________.
A. happened at the same time as B. ensured the success of C. was influenced by D. began to grow rapidly
5. According to the passage, one important change in United States education by the 1920's was that ___________.
A. the amount of time spent on formal education was limited
B. new regulations were imposed on nontraditional education
C. adults and children studied in the same classes
D. most places required children to attend school
6. “Vacation schools and extracurricular activities” are mentioned in the passage to illustrate ___________.
A. activities that competed to attract new immigrants to their programs.
B. alternatives to formal education provided by public schools
C. the importance of educational changes
D. the increased impact of public schools on students
7. According to the passage, early-twentieth century education reformers believed that ___________.
A. special programs should be set up in frontier communities to modernize them
B. corporations and other organizations damaged educational progress
C. different groups needed different kinds of education
D. more women should be involved in education and industry
8. The word "it" in the passage refers to ___________. A. education B. consumption C. production D. homemaking
9. Women were trained to be consumer homemakers as a result of ___________.
A. scarcity in the highly industrialized early-twentieth-century United States
B. economic necessity in the highly industrialized early-twentieth-century United States
C. income-producing activities in the highly industrialized early-twentieth-century United States
D. overproduction in the highly industrialized early-twentieth-century United States
10. Which paragraph mentions the importance of abilities and experience in formal schooling? A. Paragraph 2 B. Paragraph 4 C. Paragraph 1 D. Paragraph 3 54 PASSAGE 4
Traditional education creates, in time, an incomplete image on family’s gender roles.
From generation to generation children interiorize theirs parent’s model known as “separated
world’s myth ” - a wife and a mother only cooking , doing laundry and taking care of the child
“contrasting” with a husband and a father working or fixing different things. According to this
mentality each partner has established responsibilities in private and public life that other one couldn’t take over.
Changing traditional gender roles seems to be difficult not because woman or man don’t
have the necessary skills for other one’s tasks but because everyone carries on a symbol of his
“world”. Society’s evolution especially on woman valorization redefines gender roles
promoting a woman more active, ambitious and independent and a man more emotional and involved in household tasks.
Women of our days have more liberty to choose between the “family model” – these
ones are being more obedient and anchored in tradition (the feminine type) and the “feminist
model” – who’s priority is the career (the anti-feminine type) or the middle model adopted by
the “double career” type of woman – profession and family. On the base of any of these choices
are variables like social-status, race, education level, culture’s values etc.
We are assisting to a reprioritization of woman needs and so professional success
became more interesting and even attractive than family one probably because it brings
something new. Women are motivated to choose the career by elements as the wish for financial
independency, the need to prove her capacities, to open and better integrate in modern society
and the possibility to control and not being only controlled. All this reasons offer her a psychological equilibrium.
Most of the men consider women’s career as a conflict source having arguments like:
women will neglect theirs family attributions, the imminent change of man’s authority, his
incertitude concerning the professional competition and the risk to deteriorate the marital
relation. Even at first side man and children are felling the stress generated by the new status of
woman, she’s living an interior conflict as well. Woman need to understand her need for self-
accomplishment but the remains of traditional mentality still affect her modern vision.
So our children should make a difference on gender roles perspective but we are in a
vicious circle because every family is raising their kids for a passed time, influenced by their
own mentality and resistance to change. The main idea is that both women and men should
consider this role’s exchange like a challenge and also accept that a man as well as a woman can do anything with willing.
1. What does the reading passage mainly discuss?
A. Children’s perspective on the discrimination.
B. The domination of men’s roles over women’s.
C. Gender roles in modern society.
D. The interior conflicts in women’s roles over men’s.
2. In the first paragraph, the phrase “separated world’s myth” refers to _______.
A. children’s opinions on their world which is also their family
B. children’s false view on the different and unexchangeable roles of their parents
C. children’s thoughts on their mothers’ domination roles over their fathers.
D. children’s ideas on what responsibilities their parents should be take charge of
3. What is the main idea of the second paragraph?
A. Men’s and women’s roles cannot be easily exchanged since their lack of necessary skills. 55
B. In the development of society, men become more involved in household chores while women
are more active and independent.
C. The exchange between men’s and women’s roles turns out challenging because of an invisible default.
D. Society’s evolution is unlikely to happen due to the constancy of men’s and women’s roles.
4. Which of the following words can best replace the word “anchored in” in the third paragraph?
A. conflicted with B. attached to C. accustomed to D. connected with
5. What does the word “one” in paragraph four refer to?
A. reprioritization B. success C. woman D. need
6. Which of the followings is NOT mentioned as one of the women’s needs for reprioritization?
A. The need to manage their own lives on their own earnings.
B. The need to show their abilities in order to be recognized by the public.
C. The need of integration into modern society.
D. The need to possibly bring something new.
7. In the fifth paragraph, what does the author imply by saying “she’s living an interior conflict as well”?
A. The remains of traditional mentality still affect women’s modern vision.
B. Women still do not know how to manage the conflicts with men.
C. The opposition from their husbands and children is so strong that women cannot overcome it.
D. Men and children always feel the stress with the domination of women’s roles.
8. The word “deteriorate” in the fifth paragraph can be best replaced by _______. A. worsen B. reduce C. devastate D. decline
9. What does the writer advise people to do by this reading passage?
A. Children should be taught about their particular roles when they are young.
B. Men and women have to understand their roles with satisfaction.
C. Men and women roles’ exchange is impossible and children should understand it with willing.
D. Children should learn that society’s evolution is no good for men at all.
10. Who may possibly write this passage? A. An anthropologist B. A historian C. A professor D. A psychologist
PAPER TWO: WRITING (10 ĐIỂM) WRITING 1 (3 điểm)
You should spend about 20 minutes on this task. Your English-speaking friend, Mary, whom
you haven’t met for a long time, sent you an email. Read part of her email below.
Do you remember me? We met when you visited my high school in Oxford during your
summer trip to England 3 years ago. We haven’t heard from each other for a long time,
right? Anyway, how are you? What have you been doing? You always wanted to be a teacher.
Here some of my news. I’m studying Laws at Oxford University. I think I have changed
a lot over the years. I don’t like thrillers anymore. I prefer history books now. Do you
remember Pete, the tall thin guy with glasses? He’s on the same courses as me. We are best friends now! 56
Well, I must finish now because I have an exam tomorrow. It would be really good if we could get together again.
Write back soon and tell me all your news.
Write a reply to Mary. In your email, you have to tell her you still remember her and the time
you visited her high school, tell her all your news, and ask her to send your regards to Pete. You
should write at least 120 words. You are not allowed to include your name. WRITING 2 (7 điểm)
You should spend about 40 minutes on this task.
Studying abroad may be one of the most beneficial experiences for a student. When
studying abroad, students have the opportunity to study in a foreign nation and obtain
an international degree which is an advantage for their future personal development
and better job opportunities. However, students also have a number of difficulties such
as language barriers and homesickness.
Write an essay to an educational reader to discuss the advantages and disadvantages of studying
overseas. Include reasons and any relevant examples to support your answer.
You should write at least 250 words. - THE END- 57 58