Câu hỏi điện tử - Hàng không dân dụng | Học viện Hàng Không Việt Nam

PART 1: ELECTRICAL SYSTEM 1.
External power is used for aircraft when: A. During flight
B. On ground and during flight C. On ground 2.
Differential protection circuit is used to:
A. Detect short circuits (without circuit breaker)
B. Detect open phase in AC distribution systems.
C. Detect open phase in AC distribution systems.
D. Detect open phase in AC distribution systems. 3.
Main advantages of paral el operation are:
A. Share loads between generators and No power interrruption B. No power interrruption
C. Share loads between generators D. Isolated power supplies. 4.
On an aircraft equipped with an electrical flight control system such as A320, Main DC Power distribution works: A. In paral el operation
B. In paral el or isolated operation C. In isolated operation 5.
When two IDGs in twin engine aircraft fails, DC EMER bus is supplied by: A. Battery only
B. TR2 via DC bus2 or ESS TR via DC ESS bus
C. TR1 via DC bus1 or ESS TR via DC ESS bus 6.
The fuction of Static Inverter is A. Convert 115V AC to 28 V AC
B. Convert 115V three phases to 28V DC C. Convert 28V Dc to 115 V AC D. Convert 24V Dc to 115 V AC 7.
If generator load current in phase A is zero and in normal range for the other two
phases, the GCU triggers a protection circuit of: A. Open phase B. Short circuit C. Undervoltage D. Overvoltage 8.
GCU protection function can be divided into : A. 03 groups B. 05 groups C. 02 groups D. 04 groups 9.
If the CSD fail, the generator wil be affected: A. voltage B. frequency C. current D. Phase
10. GCU for the emergency generator provides the main functions:
A. Both paral el and isolated operation B. For isloated operation C. For paral el operation 11.
Manual action on bus tie pushbutton (switched to OFF) wil :
A. inhibit a closure of the bus tie power relays
B. prevent al generators from supplying to normal consumers
C. make power supply from left to right side or vice versa possible 12. When mixing electrolyte:
A. acid is always added to the water
B. water is always added to the acid
C. it is not important how water and acid are mixed. 13.
Which statement is NOT true for power source switching?
A. A power source switching always occurs when an existing power source is lost or when a
new power source becomes available.
B. Power source switching is performed by GCUs or GPCU via electrical motors
C. Automatic switching transfers power sources for flight operation whereas manual
switching mainly transfer ground power sources. 14.
Receptacles for external power connection consists of:
A. 04 thin, short pins & 02 thick, long pins
B. 03 thick, long pins & 01 thin, short pin
C. 03 thin, short pins & 02 thick, long pins
D. 04 thick, long pins & 02 thin, short pins 15.
Which of the fol owing is the most probable reason for overload condition?
A. Al gal eys and entertainment system are turned on simultaneously
B. One generator is switched off due to failures
C. Voltage and frequency regulators fail at the same time 16.
In order to provide a power source of 115VAC, 400Hz, Engine driven generator and
APU generator are instal ed in the aircraft. They are
A. Identical in function but different in operation B. Total y identical
C. Only different in rated power 17.
Electrical power supplying al systems to operate the aircraft safely is cal ed
Essential Power. Essential power supplies:
A. Captain’s navigation, communication equipment
B. Captain and First officer’s navigation and communication equipment
C. Captain’s navigation, communication equipment, important control and warning systems 18.
A Variable Speed Constant Frequency (VSCF) generator includes:
A. A generator (PMG, exciter, main generator), a rectifier, a DC filter, a static inverter, an AC filter, GCU, oil system
B. A generator (PMG, exciter, main generator), a rectifier, a DC filter, a static inverter, an AC filter, GCU
C. A generator (PMG, exciter, main generator), a rectifier, a DC filter, a static invert er, an AC filter 19. EMER GEN is driven by: A. An electrical motor B. A hydraulic motor C. Constant Speed Drive (CSD) 20.
During a normal engine shutdown, generator tripping is initiated by. A. underfrequency B. overcurrent C. Undervoltage 21.
A single-phase AC generator has twelve poles and it runs at 600 r.p.m. Which one of
the fol owing gives the output frequency of the generator? A. 60Hz B. 50Hz C. 120Hz. 22.
Ground power source switching must always be performed A. Manual y B. Automatical y
C. Both Automatical y and manual y 23. Ove -
r voltage protection circuits are activated. A. without time delay
B. after the pilot put the corresponding button.
C. Dependent on the magnitude of the overvoltage 24.
For twin-engine aircraft, AC ESS bus is normal y supplied by: A. Static inverter B. AC bus 1 C. AC bus 2 25.
Discharging a battery below 22V causes:
A. the polarity of the weakest cel to be inversed
B. the polarity of the weakest cel to be inversed & the battery not to be able to recharged in the aircraft
C. the battery not to be able to recharged in the aircraft 26.
In a multi-generator system, the generator which takes more than its reactive power share is protected by.
A. Over voltage and under frequency protecion circuits
B. Over voltage and under voltage protecion circuits
C. Over voltage and over frequency protecion circuits 27.
How long can the batteries provide sufficient electrical energy in emergency condition?
A. about 30 minutes with 24 V DC
B. about 50 minutes with 24 V DC
C. about 30 minutes with 28 V DC
D. about 60 minutes with 24 V DC 28. A fuse-type current limiter.
A. limits current flow to loads
B. Can be use as a radio suppressor
C. open a circuit after current condition has been exceeded 29. The output of TR units: A. 220VAC B. 28VDC C. 115 VAC 30. The CT is used to A. measure the AC current B. measure the voltage C. measure the DC current 31.
For twin engine aircraft, DC ESS bus is normal y supplied by: A. ESS TR via ESS AC bus B. TR2 via DC bus 2 C. TR1 via DC bus 1 32.
Each TRU has 02 basic protection circuits inside. They are:
A. Low current detection and overheat detection
B. Overvoltage and short circuit detection
C. Undervoltage and overheat detection 33.
How much electrical energy do AC consumers need about? A. 60 % B. 95 % C. 65% D. 5% 34.
Where does the GCU get its normal power?. A. Battery. B. PMG C. RAT. 35.
If the battery is switched off in flight, the.
A. Generator voltage fal s to Zero
B. Captain's instruments wil be powered from the stanby bus
C. battery is disconected from bus 36.
In a generator, the overvoltage failure is:
A. The voltage at the point of regulation exceeds 130V
B. The voltage at the terminal point exceeds 130V
C. The voltage at the point of regulation drops under 100V 37.
Battery capacity is measured in: A. amperes B. ampere-hours. C. Volts 38.
In Airbus aircraft, electrical data can be shown on:
A. Lower ECAM for AC data only, DC data not shown on any display units
B. Lower ECAM for AC and DC data
C. Upper ECAM for AC and DC data 39.
GCU detects an overvoltage condition when POR exceeds 130V. This occurs when:
A. Voltage regulator delivers too large exciter current
B. Generator drive speed regulation fails
C. There is an overload in distribution lines 40.
Thermal runway occurs when a battery is charged with: A. Constant voltage B. Constant current C. Battery discharged 41.
In multi-engine aircraft, If ground power sources include external power and APU
generator, these ground power sources:
A. cannot be switched in paral el
B. can be switched in paral el if one main generator fails
C. can be switched in paral el 42.
Which of the fol owings are considered distribution failures?
A. Overload; Open phase; Short-circuit
B. Over/under-voltage; over/under-frequency; underspeed
C. Underspeed, Differential protection 43.
Electrical power in aircraft is mainly used for:
A. Lighting (cockpit, cabin, exterior); Electronic devices (computers, controls, indications,
sensors). Heating needs hot air only
B. Heating (gal ey, anti-icing); Lighting (cockpit, cabin, exterior); Electronic devices
(computers, controls, indications, sensors). Pumps and valves needs hydraulic power
C. Heating (gal ey, anti-icing); Lighting (cockpit, cabin, exterior); Mechanical power
(pumps, valves, motion); Electronic devices (computers, controls, indications, sensors) 44.
AC power is generated using by
A. a constant speed generator or VSCF B. a constant speed generator
C. a constant speed generator or a static inverter or VSCF D. a static inverter 45.
The emergency generator supplies 115 V AC directly to A. AC Essential buses
B. AC Essential and Emergency Busses C. AC main buses 46. In thre -
e phase generator, voltage measured from one phase to another phase is A. 320V B. 115V C. 200V 47.
Which statement is NOT true for AC power sources used in modern jet aircraft?
A. They provide 115V, 400HZ, 3 phase power
B. They provide about 95% of the total electrical energy
C. Normal AC power sources provide DC power via TRUs 48.
At terminal block of a generator instal ed in modern aircraft, there are: A. 3 cables B. 4 cables C. 5 cables 49.
Output frequency of engine drive generator stays within 400Hz thanks to:
A. Constant Speed Drive (CSD) via control signal from GCU
B. Exciter current via control signal from GCU C. CBMU 50.
How many power sources are used for AC generation in modern aircraft? A. 06 B. 04 C. 05 D. 03 51.
Essential power distribution consists of A. Both AC and DC power B. DC power C. AC power 52.
Main components for electrical distribution are:
A. Power relays, circuit breakers and fuses
B. Power relays used as switching devices; circuit breakers and fuses as safety devices and
current transformers as measuring devices
C. Power relays used as safety devices; circuit breakers and fuses as switching devices and
current transformers as measuring devices 53.
For twin engine aircraft, if DC bus 1 fails, DC ESS bus is supplied by: A. ESS TR B. TR1 C. TR2 54.
In case of total loss of the normal power sources, emergency power distribution is switched to
A. Emergency generator (higher priority) or Batteries B. APU C. Emergency Generator D. Batteries 55.
When both APU and external power are available, the Aircraft wil use
A. Both APU and External power B. APU C. External power 56. GCU power supply is from:
A. Normal power: PMG; Backup power: Battery
B. Normal power: DC bus 1; Backup power: DC ESS bus
C. Normal power: AC bus 1; Backup power: AC ESS bus 57.
The function of NBPT (No Break Power Transfer) is A. prevent the overload B. Prevent the short circuit
C. Prevent a loss of power when power source switching 58. The function of VSCF :
A. Protection in during flight
B. Generate the 3 phase AC with constant frequency with variable speed input. C. Frequency regulation D. Vogtage regulator 59. The function of TR units is A. Convert 115V AC to 24 V AC
B. Convert 115V three phases to 28V DC C. Convert 24V Dc to 115 V AC 60.
Cooling methods affect the performance of generators such as load limit. Which
generators have a higher load limit, oil-cooled generators or air-cooled ones? A. Air-cooled generators B. Oil-cooled generators
C. Oil-cooled or air-cooled generators have the same load limit 61.
The light “AVAIL” in the cockpit il uminates when the quality of external power is
good. These lights are supplied by: A. Aircraft battery
B. The external power via a TR inside the GPCU C. A battery inside GPCU 62.
The battery charger controls the charging current by two methods: constant
current and constant voltage. When a battery is ful y charged, which charging method is used?
A. Constant current: to make a quick and safe charge
B. Constant current: to prevent battery overheat
C. Constant voltage: to compensate for battery self-discharge and to prevent overcharge 63.
In twin engine aircraft, Engine 1 and APU running, when you connect external
power, which unit checks whether power is ready or not?
A. GPCU (Ground Power Control Unit) only
B. GCU (Generator Control Unit) and GPCU (Ground Power Control Unit) C. APU GCU and GCU 64.
Which of the fol owing failures triggers automatic trip function without a time delay? A. Open phase B. Shorted circuit C. Overvoltage 65.
Electrical power supplying al systems to operate the aircraft safely is cal ed
Essential Power. Essential power supplies:
A. Captain’s navigation, communication equipment
B. Captain’s navigation, communication equipment, important control and warning systems
C. Captain and First officer’s navigation and communication equipment 66.
If the current of TR unit drops below about 2 A mpere:
A. TR unit is switched off and can be swtiched by a reset signal, during the flight.
B. TR unit is switched off, the warning message is in ECAM system page
C. TR unit is only switched off manual y by the coressponding button by the electrical 67.
What does happen when you open the secondary winding of a current transformer during normal operation?
A. The current transformer wil be decreased
B. the current transformer wil be damaged
C. The current transformer wil be increased 68.
What wil happen if overvoltage failure occurs?
A. The alarm “system failure” and GCR automatically trips
B. The engine wil be shutdown to protect the ele ctrical system
C. The alarm “system failure”, and GCR and GPR automatically trip 69.
In isolated operation, Main DC Power switching relay:
A. Normal y open and close if TR1 or TR2 is shorted
B. Normal y close and open if TR1 or TR2 fails
C. Normal y open and close if TR1 or TR2 fails 70.
When overload is detected, the protection circuit wil automatical y:
A. Open GCR (Generator Control Relay)
B. Switch off large loads such as gal eys
C. Open GPR (Generator Power Relay) 71.
Which of the fol owing is the most probable reason for the under-speed conditions?
A. Engine shutdown or engine start not completed
B. Faulty in generator windings C. Faulty GCU 72. In thre -
e phase generator, the voltage measured from one phase to neutral is A. 300 V B. 115V C. 200V 73.
A generator has two polepairs, if it generates a power with 400 Hz, the input speed is: A. 8000 RPM B. 6000 RPM C. 1200 RPM D. 2400 RPM 74.
When two IDGs in twin engine aircraft fails, AC EMER bus is supplied by: A. Static inverter only
B. EMER GEN or static inverter as the last power source C. EMER GEN only 75.
How much power can external power produce? A. 5 KW B. 60 KW to 90 KW C. 65 KW D. 1 KW 76.
Are two external power sources switched in paral el?
A. Yes, because they are the same parameters.
B. No, because ground power sources cannot be synchronized
C. Yes, because ground power sources can be synchronized 77.
No Break Power Transfer (NBPT) requires synchronization of:
A. Voltage, Frequency and phase angle B. Voltage and Frequency C. Voltage only 78.
In during the flight, The emergency power switching is
A. normal y automatic but Pilot can active by the corresponding button. B. only automatic C. only manual 79.
For twin engine aircraft, If AC bus 1 is shorted,
A. AC ESS bus is no longer powered
B. AC ESS bus is powered AC bus 2
C. AC ESS bus is powered by static inverter or EMER GEN 80.
Aircraft battery is used to supply:
A. the emergency power & the APU starter motor
B. normal DC buses & the APU starter motor
C. APU starter motor and Emergency Generator stater 81.
A Battery Charge Limiter (BCL) is designed to:
A. Monitor (1) and Monitor (2)
B. Monitor (2): battery voltage drop (below 23V) during discharge in flight
C. Monitor (1): charge current to prevent risk of thermal runway 82.
When aircraft is energized by APU, if you disconnect APU GCU, what might happen? A. APU GCU is damaged B. Nothing happens
C. Current transformer connected to APU GCU is damaged 83. GCU detects an ove -
r frequency when the frequency measured at the PMG exceeds
430Hz and under-frequency when it drops below 370Hz. If under-speed condition
presents, the automatic trip is inhibited in which case, over-frequency or under- frequency? A. Under-frequency only B. Over-frequency only
C. Both over-frequency and under-frequency 84.
The function of Load shedding is
A. Improves the reliability of the power relays
B. Increase loads when operating parrallel.
C. Improves the reliability of the power relays and Prevents an overload of the power
D. Prevents an overload of the power 85.
Which of the fol owing are considered AC generation failures?
A. Overload; Open phase; Short-circuit
B. Over/under-voltage; over/under-frequency; underspeed
C. Underspeed, Differential protection 86.
In paral el operation, if the difference between average current of al generator and
current of generator 1 exceeds 50A, what wil happen with bus tie switch for AC bus 1?
A. Bus tie for AC bus 1 wil close to isolate the AC bus 1, the failure of Gen 1 wil be
detected by protection circuits and wil be shutdown, AC bus 1 wil no be supplied power.
B. Bus tie for AC bus 1 wil open to isolate the AC bus 1, the failure of Gen 1 wil be
detected by protection circuits and wil be shutdown, AC bus 1 wil no be supplied power.
C. Bus tie for AC bus 1 wil open to isolate the AC bus 1, Gen 1 wil be shutdown, this bus tie wil close again. 87.
In paral el operation (multiengine aircraft), if the different phase of a line of
generator 1 and a live bus in AC distribution is 180 degrees, the different voltage between two lines is A. 320 V B. 0 V C. 115V D. 230 V 88.
In towing of the aircraft, a towing bus wil be supplied by A. Main AC power distribution B. Towing static inverter C. external power 89. DC power sources are: A. APU and Batteries B. TR Units C. TR Units and Batteries D. Batteries 90.
A modern brushless generator consists of:
A. Slip ring and brushes, main generator
B. Exciter generator, rotating rectifier, main generator
C. Permanent magnet generator, exciter generator, rotating rectifier, main generator 91.
When is the power of the corresponding generator ready?
A. Voltage and frequency are ok B. current is ok C. 115V, 400 HZ, no failure
D. No failure is detected by GCU 92.
In twin engine aircraft, when generator No.1 fails, bus tie switching wil automatical y:
A. closes 2 bus tie power relays
B. opens bus tie power relay 1 and closes bus tie power relay 2
C. opens 2 bus tie power relays 93.
In paral el operation, the load division circuit detects the unbalanced real load which is related to A. voltage of generator
B. Both voltage and frequency of generator C. frequency of generator 94. GC
U functions can be divided into:
A. Regulation; switching; monitor
B. Regulation; switching; control
C. Regulation; switching; protection
D. Protection; synchronization; monitor 95. Static inverter is used for A. Convert DC to AC B. Measure the current C. Convert AC to DC
D. Convert Voltages to voltages 96.
In a Brushless generator, the function of the PMG generator is A. Supply power for GCU
B. Supply power for AC main bus
C. Supply power for APU starting 97.
How many types of power are used for supplying power of GCU? A. 3 B. 1 C. 2 98.
Output voltage of engine driven generator remains 115VAC thanks to A. CBMU
B. Exciter current via control sinal from GCU
C. Constant Speed Drive (CSD) via control signal from GCU 99.
The function of split system breaker
A. Split the main power distribution into two parts when using second external power source
B. Control the generator control relays
C. Monitor the Circuit breakers D. Synchronization
100. In order to provide a power source of 115V, 400Hz. Engine driven generator and APU are A. Total y identical
B. Only different in rated power
C. Identical in function but different in operation
101. In multiengine aircraft, during automatic landing, the bus tie power relays are A. Only opened manual y B. Closed C. Opened automatical y
102. On the ground, when one external power push button is pressed, bus tie power relays are A. Control ed by GCU B. Closed automatical y C. Opened automatical y
103. When generators are running, what might happen if you disconnect between GCU and current transformer? A. Nothing happens
B. Current transformer connected to the generator is damaged C. GCU is damaged
104. In multiengine, the power relays of the bus tie switching are A. Normal y closed B. Normal y opened C. Control ed by CSD
105. Paral el operation is automatical y control ed and monitored by A. VSCF B. ECAS C. GCU D. GPCU
106. In an electrical system, which locations are not protected by Circuit breakers? A. GCU B. Large load C. Feeder lines D. Batteries
107. When the engine is shut down
A. Generator is only switched off manual y
B. Generator power is ready and stil supply power for system
C. Generator power is not ready amd the FAULT light in the generator push button on the electrical control panel
108. When is the Emergency generator used for supplying power for aircraft? A. Batteries failure B. External power failure
C. When no other generator is available during flight
D. Al engine driven generator failure
E. One-engine driven generator failure
109. Power distribution is divided into 3 parts: (1) Main power distribution, (2) Essential
power distribution, (3) Emergency power distribution. Which part supplies consumers to land the aircraft safely? A. (3) B. (2) C. (1)
110. In the normal condition (during flight), which power sources are used in aircraft? A. External power B. APU and External power C. Engine driven generators
D. External power and Engine driven generators
111. Which are Power sources used for AC Generation?
A. Engine driven generator; External power, Static inverter; APU; Emergency generator
B. Engine driven generator; External power, Static inverter; TR units; Emergency generator
C. Engine driven generator; External power, battery; APU; Emergency generator
D. Engine driven generator; External power, TR units; APU; Emergency generator
112. Which group does use the largest power in Aircraft? A. Lighting B. Heating C. Mechanical power D. Electronic devices PART 2: COMMUNICATION
1. Which radio communication systems are used in modern aircraft? A. HF, VHF, SATCOM and ACARS
B. HF, VHF, PA, ELT, SATCOM and ACARS C. HF, VHF and SATCOM
2. Which system al ows voice communication via radio signal over long distances (more than 200 nm)?
A. ACARS because radio signals are propagated by satel ites
B. VHF because radio signals travel in a direct line within a visual range
C. HF radio signals are partial y reflected by the ionosphere of the earth
3. Which statement is correct?
A. The lower frequency, the longer propagation with a sky wave
B. The lower frequency, the longer propagation with a ground wave
C. The lower frequency, the shorter propagation with a sky wave
4. Radio frequencies in aviation are divided into 8 frequency bands.
Which band is used by SATCOM or weather radar or radio altimeter?
A. UHF band (Ultra High Frequency): 300 MHz – 3000 MHz
B. SHF band (Super High Frequency): 3 GHz – 30 GHz
C. EHF band (Extremely High Frequency) 30 GHz – 300 GHz
5. Reception quality of which system is not always good due to daytime? A. SATCOM B. VHF C. HF
6. For radio communication, we need the fol owing components:
A. Microphone, Loudspeaker, Transceiver, Antenna
B. Microphone, Loudspeaker, Transmitter, Antenna
C. Microphone, Loudspeaker, Receiver, Antenna
7. A transmitter has 3 main components: an oscil ator, a modulator and a power amplifier.
What is the purpose of the oscil ator?
A. It generates the RF carrier frequency selected by pilots
B. It couples the audio signal to the RF signal with Amplitude or Frequency Modulation
C. It generates the necessary power to transmit the signal
8. For radio communication, a receiver has the fol owing components:
A. an oscil ator, a modulator and a power amplifier
B. a tuning circuit, a demodulator and an audio amplifier
C. an oscil ator, a modulator, a power amplifier, a tuning circuit, a demodulator and an audio amplifier
9. An antenna is most effective when its length is a minimum of a quarter of the
wavelength. Which system has a longer antenna? A. SATCOM B. VHF C. HF
10. Connection between the transceiver and the antenna is made by RF lines. Which type
is used for weather radar system? A. Co-axial cable only B. Waveguides only
C. Co-axial cable or Waveguide
11. There are different types of microphone used in cockpit for voice communication. They are:
A. Area microphone, hand-held microphone and integrated microphone
B. Hand-held microphone and integrated microphone
C. Area microphone and hand-held microphone
12. Static electricity generated due to air friction at sharp trailing edges must be
continuously discharged. If not, for communication purpose, it would make: A. the wing structure damaged
B. reception of radio signals disturbed
C. the wing structure damaged and reception of radio signals disturbed
13. The Audio Management Unit (AMU) controls al functions necessary for voice communications of:
A. Flight crew Cabin crew; Flight crew/ Cabin crew Passenger
B. Flight crew/ Cabin crew Maintenance staff C. Flight crew members only
14. The Cockpit Voice Recorder (CVR) receives al relevant signals from: A. Microphones directly B. AMU C. ACP
15. When the oxygen mask is in use, the highest priority microphone is:
A. The integrated microphone in the mask
B. The integrated microphone in the boomset
C. The microphone in the handset and hand-mik e
16. In order to use the boomset again after the oxygen mask is used, you have to: A. Reset the oxygen mask flag
B. Restore the oxygen mask in the stowage box
C. Reset the oxygen mask flag & Restore the oxygen mask in the stowage box
17. Flight crew members can communicate with each others via: A. Service interphone system B. Cabin interphone system C. Flight interphone system
18. Flight crew members can communicate with cabin crew via: A. Service interphone system B. Cabin interphone system C. Flight interphone system
19. Flight crew members can communicate with maintenance staff via: A. Service interphone system B. Cabin interphone system
C. Flight interphone system or service interphone system
20. Audio Control Panels (ACPs) al ow a separation of reception and transmission
channels. Reception selection is done by:
A. Pressing-in the corresponding pushbutton
B. Releasing the corresponding knob
C. Setting the corresponding switch to ON
21. Without any further action, service jacks are designed to connect interphone system
A. Automatical y when the aircraft is in flight by an air-ground sensing circuit
B. Whenever a communication boomset is connected to a service jack
C. Automatical y when the aircraft is on ground only
22. When you jack the aircraft and al shock absorbers are not compressed, which
interphone system wil be automatical y disabled? A. Flight interphone system B. Cabin interphone system C. Service interphone system
23. In cockpit, if you want to make a conversation with a maintenance staff i n the APU
compartment, look at the picture & choose the best action:
A. Make pushbutton/knob at 1 and 2 il uminated
B. Make pushbutton/knob at 2 il uminated only
C. Make pushbutton/knob at 2 and 3 il uminated
24. There are pushbuttons and knobs to respectively control transmission and reception of
VHF1, VHF2, VHF3, HF1, HF2 at each ACP. Which statement is true?
A. You can push 2 pushbuttons (lights il uminated) to activate the transmission of VHF1 and VHF2 at the same time
B. You can release 2 knobs (lights il uminated) to activate the reception of VHF1 and VHF2 at the same time
C. You can push 2 pushbuttons (lights il uminated) to activate the transmission of HF1 and HF2 at the same time
25. On an ACP, the radio transmission switch with 3 positions permits you to transmit or
receive audio signals. What happens if flight crew put the switch in the center position?
A. The selected communication system is in the reception mode
B. The selected communication system is in the transmission mode
C. Pilots can talk to each other when they use boomset (headset or oxygen mask)
26. On an ACP, a radio transmission switch with 3 positions permits you to transmit or to
receive audio signals. What happens if flight crew put the switch in the spring loaded position?
A. The selected communication system is in the reception mode
B. The selected communication system is in the transmission mode
C. Pilots can talk to each other when they use boomset or oxygen mask
27. On an ACP, a radio transmission switch with 3 positions permits you to transmit or to
receive audio signals. What happens if flight crew put the switch in the INTerphone position?
A. The selected communication system is in the reception mode
B. The selected communication system is in the transmission mode
C. Microphones are permanently connected to flight interphone system. Pilots can talk to
each other when they use boomset or oxygen mask
28. Which components have the Push To Talk (PTT) function?
A. Hand-mikes, handsets, RT switches, side-sticks/control columns
B. Hand-mikes, headsets, RT switches, side-sticks/control columns, and boomsets
C. Hand-mikes, headsets, RT switches
29. In order to talk to a VHF station when wearing an oxygen mask, the flight crew use:
A. Radio Transmission (RT) switch on the ACP (RAD position)
B. Push To Talk (PTT) switch on the control column or side-stick
C. Either RT switch on the ACP or PTT on the side stick/control column
30. If there is a malfunction (transmission or reception) in Captain ACP, his audio
equipment can be transferred to the overhead ACP: A. Automatical y
B. Manual y via audio switching to CAPT 3
C. Manual y via audio switching to F/O 3
31. Each pilot can connect his hand-held microphone (hand-mike) to the flight interphone system via the ACP by:
A. Selecting the FLT pushbutton
B. Switching the Radio Transmission (RT) switch to INT
C. Releasing the corresponding knob
32. Passenger Address (PA) system is to give information to passengers from:
A. Cockpit or cabin crew signals which is priority-control ed by AMU
B. Cockpit or cabin crew signals which is priority-control ed by CIDS
C. Cockpit or cabin crew signals, pre-recorded announcement, boarding music control ed by AMU
33. Loudspeakers in cabin wil give output signals according to a different p riority to
prevent a mixture of the audio signals. Chimes generated by PA system wil :
A. Always sound together with other audio signals
B. Always sound at the highest priority
C. Always sound at the lowest priority
34. Volume level of loudspeaker wil be automatical y increased when:
A. At least one engine is started (via engine oil pressure switch)
B. The oxygen masks are released after a cabin decompression (via 14,000ft. pressure switch)
C. engine oil pressure switch or 14,000 ft. pressure switch is activated
35. When the Captain presses the PA knob on his ACP (the light goes off), loudspeakers in cockpit wil :
A. Not sound Flight crew’s and Cabin crew’s announcement to passengers
B. Not sound Flight crew’s announcement to passengers
C. Cabin crew’s announcement to passengers
36. In order for the Solid state CVR to store the last 120 minutes of the flight in memory, it receive inputs from: A. 03 channels B. 04 channels C. 05 channels
37. On ground, the CVR starts recording:
A. Automatical y when al engines are completely started
B. Automatical y when aircraft is energized
C. By pressing a pushbutton on the control panel
38. All data recorded in the CVR can be erased:
A. When the aircraft is on ground and the parking brake is set
B. Whenever you press & hold the ERASE pushbutton on the control panel
C. Automatical y to keep the privacy of the crew after engines are shut down
39. On the CVR, there are some components such as:
A. A recorder itself, an Underwater Locator Beacon (ULB) & an microphone
B. A recorder itself, an ULB and a jack to connect headphone for testing C. A recorder itself, an ULB
40. In modern aircraft, there are 3 independent VHF systems. Which system is normal y
designed for the ACARS system? A. VHF 1 B. VHF 2 C. VHF 3
41. When the transmission works with the normal output power, which statement is NOT true for sidetone signal?
A. Pilots can hear his own voice in the headphones with sidetone
B. Sidetone signals come from ground station
C. Missing sidetone is always an indication for a system failure
42. The Radio Management Panel is used to:
A. Make frequency selections for VHF, HF, SATCOM and ACARS
B. Make frequency selections for VHF, HF
C. Control transmission and reception of VHF, HF, flight interphone
43. In the HF system, which mode gives better transmission efficiency? A. Amplitude Modulation (AM) B. Single Side Band (SSB)
C. Both AM and SSB have the same efficiency
44. In the HF system, you tune to the selected frequency by:
A. Pressing the radio transmission (RT) switch the first time
B. Pressing the PTT the first time
C. Pressing the RT or PTT switch the first time
45. When the tuning is complete and ready for your communication,
A. You hear a 1 KHz tone for up to 10 seconds B. The 1 KHz tone stops
C. The HF transmission light flashes on the RMP
46. The HF frequency range used in civil aviation is from: A. 2 MHz to 25 MHz B. 118 MHz to 137 MHz C. 3 GHz to 30 GHz
47. In the HF system, which component tunes the antenna to the HF frequency selected on the RMP? A. HF transceiver B. HF Antenna itself C. Antenna coupler
48. The ACARS is a datalink communication system designed to:
A. Transfer messages and data between the aircraft and the ground
B. Establish voice connection between the aircraft and the ground
C. Transfer messages, data & Establish voice connection between the aircraft and the ground
49. For datalink communication, depending on the aircraft position, the ACARS is
normal y designed to use in the fol owing priority order:
A. VHF 3 and then SATCOM system
B. VHF 1, VHF 2 and then SATCOM system
C. SATCOM and then VHF 3 system
50. Reports automatical y transmitted by the ACARS occur:
A. When al engines finish starting; or when the aircraft lifts off or touches down; or when first door is opened
B. At 120, 20 and 07 minutes after the arrival
C. Whenever engine problem is detected
51. Manual communication via the ACARS can be found in:
A. Loadsheet report, Cal request, ATC Request or Maintenance Report
B. Engine Report, Out/Off/On/In Reports
C. No way because the ACARS is working in automatic mode only
52. The ACARS Management Unit interfaces with:
A. MCDU, Printer, Dataloader, RMP3, VHF3 transceiver, Satel ite Data Unit (SDU), Flight
Management Computer (FMC), Inertial Reference System (IRS), Central Maintenance
Computer (CMC) and Aircraft Condition Monitoring System
B. MCDU, Printer, Dataloader, RMP3, VHF3 transceiver and SDU
C. MCDU, Printer, Dataloader, RMP3, VHF3 transceiver, SDU, FMC and IRS
53. The SATCOM system provides reliable world wide services such as:
A. Digital data transfer for ACARS, Cockpit Voice & Telex
B. Digital data transfer for ACARS, Passenger Voice, Telex & Fax
C. Digital data transfer for ACARS, Cockpit Voice & Telex, Passenger Voice, Telex & Fax
54. A typical SATCOM system includes:
A. Satel ite Data Unit (SDU), Radio Frequency Unit (RDF), High Power Amplifier (HPA), antenna
B. Diplexer and Low Noise Amplifier (D/LNA), Beam Steering Unit (BSU) and antenna
C. SDU, F\RFU, HPA, D/LNA, BSU and antenna
55. For normal SATCOM operation (both data and voice communications), make sure that:
A. The Inertial Reference System (IRS) and Low gain antenna are functional
B. The IRS and High gain antenna are functional
C. The IRS, Low & High Gain antennae are functional
56. Emergency locator transmitters (ELTs) help search-and-rescue crews to find an
accidental aircraft. Fixed ELTs transmit the fol owing frequencies: A. 121.5 MHz and 243 MHz
B. 121.5 MHz, 243 MHz and 406 MHz C. 243 MHz and 406 MHz