CHAPTER 1: CUSTOMER CARE
1/ Due to the importance of quality service, manager should:
a. Understand excellent service is key success
b. Hire more front line employees c. Communicate with customers
d. Decide which services can be offered
2/ All of these are recovery strategies for service, except: a. Apology b. Invitation c. Empathy d. Compensation
3/ The internal service is for employees of which staff category?: a. Primary service employees b. Service support employees c. The two above
d. Affiliated service employees
4/ The challenges of technology in the hospitality workplace can be understood as: a. Difficult to call b. Inconvenient to meet
c. It may not have accurate perception d. All of the above
5/ The importance of quality service is in long-term, it costs …. times more money to attract new buyers: a. 5-6 b. 4-5 c. 3-4 d. 6-7
6/ All of these are not a consequence of service failure, except: a. Distraction b. Dissatisfaction c. Discrimination d. Dissemination
7/ Which is the manifestation of contact overload syndrome?: a. Fatigue b. Detachment as robotic c. The two above d. Feel guilty
8/ The prevalence of technology in the hospitality industry can be counted as:
a. Computer-mediated communication b. Text c. Shopping online d. All of the above
9/ To define the target customer by to: a. Know various needs b. Offer different promotions c. Call for feedback d. Set new goal
10/ All of the below are used to assess service quality, except: a. Accurately measure
b. Based on quantity of customer c. Observe and evaluate d. Time consuming
11/ What is the consequence of service failure?: a. Decline customer confidence
b. Decrease morale and performance c. The two above d. Degrade service facilities
12/ The principle of customer service and the telephone is: a. Answer by second ring b. Self introduction c. Listen carefully d. All of the above
13/ One unique nature of service is production and comsumption occur: a. Simultaneously b. Feasibly c. Possibly d. Alternatively
14/ All of the below do not explain assessing service quality, except:
a. Similar perceptions of customers
b. Partial subjective from customer c. Measure costs/group d. Monitor customer by camera
15/ How should service employees response for service recovery?: a. Timely b. Meaningfully c. The two above d. Broadly
CHAPTER 2: COMMUNICATING IN ORGANIZATIONS
16/ The successful oral or written communication require eight essential elements, one of them is: a. Be enough b. For whom c. Use repetition d. By meeting
17/ The vocal variety in the effective speaking consists of: a. Tone, stress, accuracy b. Accent, pattern, words c. Inflection, rate, volume d. Fluency, knowledge, timely
18/ One importance of effective listening is that it: a. Make speaker talks clearer
b. Proves listerner has more knowledge c. Decreases conflict d. Builds relationships
19/ The communication that is informal, as a social interaction, and disseminates fastly is called: a. Grapevine b. Vertical communication c. Applewine d. Surrounding communication
20/ In the story of miscommunication between the Americans and Canadians, the Canadians replies: a. “This is a rock” b. “This is a lighthouse” c. “This is a building” d. “This is a port”
21/ The paralanguage in the effectively speaking is: a. The way to express feelings b. The way to convince people c. The way to say words d. The way to explain a story
22/ The effective listening can help employees to accomplish tasks with: a. No problem
b. The help from other employees c. Less conflicts d. Fewer misunderstandings
23/ In the Grapevine communication, rumors are negative and can be prevented and eliminated by: a. Downward communication b. Upward communication c. Horizontal communication d. Vertical communication
24/ Feedback is a …. that sender receives from partner of communication: a. Response b. Message c. Reflection d. Statement
25/ The fluency in communication refers to the:
a. Accurate speaking with using filters
b. Accurate pronunciation without using filters
c. Accurate speaking without using filters
d. Accurate pronunciation with using filters
26/ One factor that influences the listening is: a. Problem b. Position c. Power d. Personal traits
27/ The …. model takes into account the way message is distorted from both sides: a. Disordered communication b. Expanded communication c. Confusing communication d. Minimized communication
28/ In speaking, a pause can draw what from listener?: a. Curiosity b. Thinking c. Attention d. Question
29/ In the Brownell’s HURIER listening model, the 2nd R is: a. Remembering b. Reacting c. Repeating d. Responding
30/ The following functions of downward communication are correct, except: a. Prove managerial power b. Establish trust c. Use redundancy and channels d. Make message important
CHAPTER 3: UNDERSTANDING THE DIVERSE ENVIRONMENT
Kahoot: 31, 32,,34, 35, 37, 38, 39, 40, 41,42
31/ Which the below is correct for overcoming resistance of employees to take initiative:
a. Open a meeting and call for voluntary
b. Instruct employees that taking initiative is building skills
c. Encourage and support employees even when they make mistake
d. Show that initiative is a rule of company
32/ A technique of managing a diverse workforce is developing empathy, which is: a. Not giving advice b. Closely listen to employees
c. Anticipate difficulties workers will encounter d. All of the above
33/ In a diverse workforce, to invite employees to films, seminars, discussions is referred to:
a. Educate workers and supervisors regarding cultural differences
b. Orient employees to the work environment
c. Create a hospitable atmosphere for the organization
d. Have some training time beside the work time
34/ Stereotyping is the belief that:
a. People in a typical group agree the final decision
b. People in a specific group share similar traits and behaviors
c. People in a department work on a same project
d. People in the organization contribute to the common goal
35/ The inability to verbally communicate in a diverse workforce can:
a. Hinder performance of employees b. Cause anger for employees
c. Cause frustration for employees d. All of the above
36/ One of the six themes for manager to impove cross-cultural skills is:
a. Orient employees to the work environment
b. Frequently talk to employees
c. Strive to solve diverse cultural problems
d. Take some courses of international culture
37/ Stereotypes and culture biases can lead to: a. Right decisions b. False assumptions c. Right discussions d. False planning
38/ In the individual differences, time is not: a. Uniform among cultures b. Different among cultures c. Inapropriate among cultures d. Uncommon among cultures
39/ Due to specific behavioral differences of employees, the manager should respond:
a. Negatively to negative comments
b. Neutrally to negative comments
c. Positively to negative comments d. None to negative comments
40/ The technique of becoming more adaptable in managing diverse workforce is: a. Be flexible b. Accept suggestions c. Prepare for changes d. All of the above
41/ People can hold certain biases and/or prejudices against other cultures, and so:
a. Become ethnocentric as own way is best b. Create stress for oneself c. Become easy
d. Create motivation for others
42/ In the working culture, some employees prefer transference and others prefer to stay, this is called: a. Individual differences b. Personal characteristics c. Self decision d. Own’s favor
43/ In working towards cross-cultural understanding, manager should be taught:
a. Self-responsibility of success communication
b. Satisfy with his/her cultural understanding
c. Specialized vocabulary of industry
d. Common errors of pronunciation are normal
44/ By asking more questions in a diverse workforce, manager can: a. Have more learning
b. Expand the understanding of individuals
c. Understand more employees’ backgrounds d. All of the above
45/ Manager should know that to acknowledge the diversity is the first step for: a. Effective management b. High promotion c. Useful power d. Right objectives
CHAPTER 4: THE POWER OF TEAMS IN HOSPITALITY
46/ The main benefit of team in hospitality industry is that team can:
a. Give frequent solidarity among team members
b. Give strong cooperation in each department
c. Give good image for the organization
d. Give consistent superior service that pleases guests
47/ The characterictic of bringing individuals together with request of commitment is defined as: a. Group cohesiveness b. Group norms c. Groupthink d. Group dynamics
48/ One of the first steps to build an effective team is:
a. Selecting responsible members b. Increasing member trust
c. Explaining the norms of team
d. Setting commitment for member
49/ To lead a team, teamleader should: a. Have power b. Sign contract c. Anticipate challenges d. None of the above
50/ The importance of team buiding in hospitality industry is to: a. Increase spirit b. Protect the rights c. Decrease conflicts d. Establish trust
51/ A set of rules, assumptions or expectations that members show what behavior good or bad is called: a. Group norms b. Group cohesiveness c. Group cooperation d. Group policy
52/ Increase member trust, create appropriate environment, establish team goals is the first steps to build:
a. The problem-solving process of team b. An effective team c. The initiatives of team d. A competitive team
53/ In selecting team members, teamleader should depend on:
a. Member jobs are interrelated
b. Specific members work on particular project c. The two above d. None of the above
54/ The type of team that is composed of several front desk staff, assistant manager is called: a. Cross-functional team b. Interdepartmental team c. Self-directed team d. Quality team
55/ The characteristic that team member fails to participate fully and contributes less time to group is: a. Violated norm b. Invalid trait c. Indifferent behavior d. Social loafing
56/ The first phase of team problem-soving process is named: a. Identify the problem b. Select the members c. Establish the plan d. Choose the team leader
57/ Conflict can arise in the cross-functional team if: a. Purpose is not decided b. Goal is not shared c. Objective is not set d. Assignment is not equal
58/ The linking function of team consists of three forms:
a. Vertical, horizontal, interrelated
b. Dependent, independent, particular
c. Organizational, departmental, sectional
d. External, internal, informal
59/ The advantageous way to gather information as know in advance for group is: a. Conduct a survey b. Meet to air complaints c. Invite outside consultant d. Ask responsible manager
60/ The factor that influences virtual team effectiveness is defined as:
a. Organization culture supports communication and trust
b. Consider cultural differences c. The two above
d. Focus on decision made by techonology
CHAPTER 5: GROUP PROBLEM SOLVING AND DECISION MAKING
61/ The vigilant interaction theory can be used for group to make decision, but it can create: a. Faulty decision b. Member conflict c. Wrong goal d. Time consumming
62/ The goal of the unstructured technique for group decision making is to:
a. Promote constructive criticism
b. Reach consensus among all members c. Establish member solidarity d. Obtain various solutions
?63/ The normative and informational influences can create which impact in group dynamics: a. Groupthink b. Deindividuation c. Conformity d. Loafing
64/ In group decision making, “the manner in which group talk about the problem” is referred to the: a. Vigilant interaction theory b. Centralization of authority c. Item contingent model d. Information exchange factor
65/ In the methods for group decision making, the structured techniques promote: a. Consensus among members b. Constructive criticism c. Decisive ideas d. Adaptation to norms
?66/ Understand the impact of group dynamics is to understand various:
a. Elements of group decision process b. Ways of group building
c. Types of relationships in group
d. Options of group cooperation
67/ All the conditions below are wrong when using group decision making, except: a. Based on experiences b. Guidances of high manager c. Compromise among members
d. Quality of decision is critical
68/ When establishing the ground rules for group problem-solving behavior, the group should:
a. Create deadline for completion
b. Lead to various perspectives
c. Divide group to small groups
d. Focus on whole brainstorming
69/ Information exchange can affect group decision when members: a. Aim to be promoted b. Hide personal problems c. Are motivated to contribute d. None of the above
70/ The decision that 2 members discuss, then 3rd member joins, next 4th member, finally four discuss is: a. Stepladder technique b. Dialectical inquiry c. Vote model d. Consensus mapping
?71/ Deindividuation occurs when people are prevented from situational factors in a group and as: a. Mixed individuals b. Separate individuals c. Decisive individuals d. Cooperative individuals
72/ To give the group a convenient time to make a change or interruption in problem solving is to: a. Set pause b. Manage breakpoint c. Define silence d. Control rest
73/ The condition that members try to avoid status loss in group decision is referred to: a. Members perception b. Indifferent behavior c. Information exchange d. None of the above
?74/ While technology is available for group decision making of virtual team, concern is for the no use of : a. Intellectual capital b. Local resources c. Typical areas d. International opportunities
75/ The force that can be shifted within group as group’s goals and needs change is called: a. Conformity b. Power c. Groupthink d. Deviance CHAPTER 6: MANAGING TIME
76/ Berger and Merritt show how many managers rate poor for their time management skills?: a. 38 b. 40 c. 42 d. 44
77/ One element that the Time Mastery Profile of Douglas and Baker assesses is: a. Procastination b. Budget c. Training d. Break time
78/ Set a task of the week and strive for it on the defined week, this is for: a. Group task b. Minor task c. Important task d. Individual task
79/ Although technology can support time management, it can also create:
a. Difficulty to call or meet customers b. Distraction c. Time waste d. All of the above
80/ One characteristic of the hospitality workplace is that employees:
a. Confront with continuous crisis b. Do not have relocation c. Earn high wages d. Are not stressful
81/ Which is the correct guideline for effective delegation?:
a. Ensure employees have private place
b. Provide full info/resources to employees c. Supervise employees closely
d. Delegate only when being overworked
82/ To identify time traps, the manager reviews the time log then: a. Set a task of the week b. Report to higher managers c. Analyze time wastes d. Collaborate with employees
83/ Regarding the prevalence of technology use in business, report shows that:
a. 10% workers spend 4+ hours/day for email
b. The use of one email to all is popular
c. IM also speeds up communication d. All of the above
84/ Management positions create time management challenges, as employees get conflicts in: a. Balancing family and career
b. Balancing family and salaries
c. Balancing relaxation and career
d. Balancing promotion and happiness
85/ In time management, manager should know that time:
a. Can be planned past for today
b. Can be planned today for past
c. Can be planned today for future
d. Can be planned future for today
86/ All the below behaviors for paperwork management are correct, except: a. Require acting, one by one
b. Require reading, set two piles c. Require discarding d. Require transfering
87/ Adapt to the needs of time management, how is the responsiveness of organizations?: a. Decreased b. Increased c. Equal d. Careless
88/ If time is managed well, the 80/20 theory of Vilfredo Pareto reflects the appropriate ratio of: a. Efforts/Results b. Negotiation/Cooperation c. Results/Efforts d. Cooperation/Negotiation
89/ In managing incoming mails, the assistant manager should not do all the below, except: a. Work on all mails b. Leave all mails for manager
c. Use different names for mails
d. Forward important mails to manager
90/ Regarding technology and time management, the functions of hospitality industry is likely to be: a. Humanized b. Automated c. Customized d. Simplified CHAPTER 7: MANAGING STRESS
91/ Which is not a physiological consequence of excessive stress?: a. Heart disease b. Hypertension c. Backbone pain d. Headache
92/ One way we cause our own stress is that we have the “can’ts”, it means that we: a. Criticize ourselves b. Blame than solve issue
c. Give up before begin working
d. Believe failure before try something
93/ The key practice of stress inoculation in internal control of stress is to:
a. Imagine a stress-producing mental image b. Think true c. Concentrate on breathing d. Calm the mind down
94/ The common programs that ensure employees are healthy with mentally alert is called: a. Gathering programs b. Wellness programs c. Socializing programs d. Stressless programs
95/ Depression is a psychological consequence of excessive stress, which does not include: a. Prolonged anxiety b. Feel guilty c. Angry d. Uninterested
96/ Change, uncertainties of lifestyle, and different values can cause stress to people, as called as: a. Alternative stress b. Influence stress c. Life stress d. Decision stress
97/ Meditation is an internal control of stress in which people: a. Think true b. Bring back mind wanders c. Learn causes of stress d. Imagine positive things
98/ Organizations initiate many ways to reduce the stress in work place for all human, due to the: a. Leave of employees b. Cost of stress
c. Competition with other organizations d. Policy of government
99/ Stress can be defined as any threatening: a. Occasional stimulus b. Conditional stimulus c. External stimulus d. Internal stimulus
100/ One behavioral consequence of excessive stress is violent tendencies, for example: a. Desk rage b. Brute force in family c. Drunken fight d. All of the above
101/ One reason that we cause our own stress is criticism, which means we: a. Are hard on ourselves b. Ought to do c. Give up before begin d. Believe failure before try
102/ Which is not a basic principle of proper diet and nutrition that can cope stress?:
a. Consume more vegetable and whole grain
b. Reduce saturated fat and cholesterol c. Use more spices d. Limit sweet and salt
103/ Which is one physical symptom when stress occurs?: a. Respiration decreases b. Heart pumps slower c. Glucose releases d. Muscles are loose
104/ The example of eating disorder as a consequence of excessive stress can be identified as:
a. Increase or decrease appetite b. Anorexia c. Bulimia d. All of the above
105/ Besides eating safely, we should do the following to cope stress, but not: a. Control portion of calories
b. Include daily physical activities c. Drink alcohol in excess d. Get enough sleep
CHAPTER 8: PROMOTING CREATIVITY
106/ In the application of SCAMPER to traditional check-out in hotel, the Substitute can be: a. Check-out by phone
b. Check-out by television channel c. The two above d. Check-out by room servicer
107/ To ask lots of questions and engage in some complex mental processes is the condition for: a. Responsive creativity b. Proactive creativity c. Collective creativity d. None of the above
108/ The technique of free association for improving creativity can be explained as:
a. Start something, let mind wanders, write down intriguing boxes
b. Select subject, gather information, analyze deeply
c. Find private place, intitiate ideas, connect them to issue
d. Use past case, find similarity, consider reapply or not
109/ In a creative group, the procedure that group follows to search for ideas is called: a. The speech b. The discussion formats c. The right ideas d. The rating scheme
110/ The creativity block “It’s not the time for art, young men …” has its sledgehammer:
a. “Use every crayon in the box …”
b. “Look for new and better flowers …”
c. “Cross the boundaries into new flower gardens …”
d. “Painting should be fun …”
111/ The definition of proactive creativity is: a. Response to known problem b. Prioritize tasks c. Complete a group decision d. None of the above
112/ In the example of free association for creativity, the bar manager comes up with solution: a. Best smile competition
b. Discount for people of 18 year age c. Free snacks
d. Buy two drinks free the third
113/ In developing a creative group, before discussion, people should :
a. Understand discussion format b. Give the speech c. Decide for an issue d. Set time frame
114/ How many pairs of block and sledgehammer of creativity exist: a. 4 b. 5 c. 6 d. 7
115/ In creativity, the tool of key helps to open …. and glue unites useful ….: a. Doors/Rooms b. Boxes/Ideas c. Door/Things d. Boxes/Contents
116/ One of the techniques for improving creativity using outside source is: a. List b. Free association c. Metaphor d. SCAMPER
117/ To develop a creative group, after giving the speech and practicing a discussion format, the group: a. Chooses the right solutions b. Chooses the right ideas
c. Carry out the right solutions d. Carry out the right ideas
118/ The process of one thought evokes another thought for the creativity is called: a. Rememberings b. Recollectings c. Rehearsings d. Remindings
119/ The creativity technique of using proverb is to glue contents of a box that contain a:
a. Rule to contents of other boxes
b. Theme to contents of other boxes
c. Purpose to contents of other boxes
d. Solution to contents of other boxes
120/ In a creative group, if many right ideas exist, the goup needs to select idea(s) based on two criteria: a. Feasible/Prioritized b. Necessary/Desirable c. Appropriate/Beneficial d. Local/Expanded
CHAPTER 9: SETTING PERSONAL AND PROFESSIONAL GOALS
121/ In the mission-based goals of an organization, every employees should: a. Be in the same way b. Establish their own goals
c. Contribute to group decision
d. Belong to each department project
122/ The SMART goals is one of the methods for goal setting, in which the acronyms S and T are: a. Synthetic, Thinkable b. Specific, Timely c. Selective, Totaled d. Searching, Transitional
123/ In using visualization to achieve goal, the “key is to … accomplishment-success in details”: a. Anticipate b. Complete c. Imagine d. Eliminate
124/ The middle stage in group development for goal-setting is the period of group: a. Dynamic and interaction b. Policies, goals, and trusts
c. Sense of togetherness and alignment d. All of the above
125/ In the organizational goal setting, individual goals must be:
a. Shared among some individuals of group
b. Not prioritized by organizational goals
c. Stood separately from work and life
d. Solved individually than by group or organization
126/ The management tool that stresses the need for participation in goal setting is called: a. Management by options b. Management by objectives c. Management by optimums d. Management by occupancies
127/ To achieve goal, we can set objectives because they are as …. goals that step to main goal: a. Internal b. Inserted c. Interim d. Independent
128/ The beginning stage of the group development in goal-setting process is the phase in which:
a. Members test and feel their ways along b. Anxiety can happen c. Dissatisfaction can occur d. All of the above
129/ In organizational goal setting, the action plan requires: a. Flexible deadlines b. Specific group c. Aspect of decision d. None of the above
130/ The acronym SMART is a method for goal setting, in which the letter M is: a. Measurable b. Meaningful c. Mastered d. Motivated
131/ In achieving goal, the use of note, action, or behavior that reminds goal to managers is called: a. Maintaining goal attention b. Creating goal aids c. Holding goal responsibility d. Pushing goal progress
132/ To achieve a personal goal, one should: a. Develop a calm attitude b. Put oneself on attention c. Imagine accomplishment d. Follow fixed orientation
133/ In the management by objectives, supervisor periodically meet subordinates to set goals and: a. Evaluate achievement extent b. Give new guidelines c. Participate in to work
d. Reward or punish subordinates
134/ The selected criteria for evaluating goal achievement must be based on: a. Organization mission b. Measurement outcome c. Employees benefits d. Manager responsibility
135/ After visualization of achieving personal goal, an objective should be set is: a. Research similar case b. Have enough budget c. Set up time frame d. Determine the phases CHAPTER 10: MANAGING CONFLICT
136/ Conflict management in organization is defined as a process of diagnosing a situation and then:
a. Reporting and waiting solution from high manager
b. Selecting and implementing intervention strategy
c. Recording and informing to director board
d. Separating and assigning new works for parties
137/ Usually, the unequal resource allocations generate what kind of conflict? a. Interdepartmental conflicts b. Interpersonal conflicts c. Organizational conflicts d. Functional conflicts
138/ Which strategy of conflict management that requires each party to gives up some values?: a. Competing b. Accomodating c. Compromising d. Collaborating
139/ The below requirements for mediation and negotiation of conflict are correct, except:
a. Parties come by choice, not by force
b. Parties should “give-and-take”
c. Parties must want to find an agreement
d. Parties need to use out-of-work time
140/ The devil’s advocacy takes opposite perspective from the rest of group and may: a. Prevent groupthink b. Increase groupthink c. Decrease groupthink d. Neutralize groupthink
141/ Functional conflict is useful in pushing an organization forward to:
a. Complete the organization mission b. Navigate inevitable change
c. Surpass the limitations of operation
d. Recognize the cultural diversity
142/ One among five strategies of conflict management is accomodating, which is: a. Be away without dealing
b. Each party give up some values
c. Appease one without attend other
d. Working together for solutions
143/ The following details for mediation are incorrect, except:
a. Refer to power to decide solution
b. Report discussion of parties to director c. Make the conflict publicly d. Know and use diagnosing
144/ Which is the positive variety of conflict and can foster organizational excellence?: a. Functional conflict b. Perspective conflict c. Fundamental conflict d. Potential conflict
145/ One of the five factors of diagmosing conflict is:
a. Understand relationships of parties b. Search parties’ culture
c. Look at the behavioral pattern of parties d. Only use interview
146/ The strategy of competing in conflict management is understood as:
a. Appease one without attend other b. Forceful use of authority c. To be away without dealing
d. Working together for solutions
147/ One tip for thwarting negative behaviors and encouraging positive behaviors for difficult people is: a. Give them works immediately
b. Refer to team for problem-solving
c. Provid orientation with details
d. Leave enough time for self-learning
148/ The cost analysis in diagnosing conflict does not include: a. Facilities b. Time c. Money d. Human resources
149/ What type of difficul people who used to be talkative and exhibit negative reaction? a. Overbearing behavior b. Passive-aggressive behavior c. Shrinking violets d. Nonconformists
150/ Manager should provide …. and thoughtful-problem solving in dealing with difficult people: a. Timely b. Decisive c. Sensitive d. Constructive
CHAPTER 11: MOTIVATING EMPLOYEES
151/ Following Maslows’s needs theory, if the first basic needs are not met, individuals:
a. Leave these needs then moving to next needs level
b. Satisfy next needs level then returning to basic needs later
c. Resolve them then motivating to next higher-order needs d. The two closest above
152/ In the operant conditioning theory, the component of reward after long time unmotivated is called: a. Discrimination b. Extinction c. Recovery d. None of the above
153/ In the expectancy/valence theory, to self-ask “If I perform at that level what will happen?” means: a. Performance to outcome b. Performance to desirability c. Performance to challenge d. Performance to reward
154/ The Maslows’s needs theory is based on: a. Orderly diversity b. Base-end development c. Hierarchical progression d. The two closest above
155/ Positive reinforcement and extinction are two components of the theory : a. Vigilant interaction b. Critical contingencies c. Reward motivation d. None of the above
156/ In the expectancy/valence theory, the “desirability to a particular outcome” is for the question:
a. How do I feel about those things that will happen?
b. If I perform at that level what will happen?
c. Can I perform at that level if I try? d. Why I need this value?
157/ If employees in organization are motivated, they will: a. Work their hardest b. Increase output
c. Complete quantitatively and qualitatively d. All of the above
158/ The esteem needs of Maslow can be divided to two stages:
a. 1st the desire to live, 2nd to establish safety
b. 1st the desire to achieve, 2nd to establish reputation
c. 1st the desire to belong, 2nd to establish relationship
d. 1st the desire to fulfill, 2nd to establish potential
159/ Which factor that the need theory of Herzberg and Alderfer have in common?: a. Hygiene factors
b. Frustration-regression phenomenon c. Esteem needs d. None of the above
160/ Hammer outlines six rules for applications of operant conditioning theory, which is one?:
a. Should reward all people the same
b. Should punish all people the same
c. Don’t reward all people the same
d. Don’t punish all people the same
161/ To apply the expectancy/valence theory, for specific task, manager should choose employee who:
a. Feels motivated to perfgorm well
b. Feels convenient to perform well
c. Feels proactive to perform well
d. Feels confident to perform well
162/ Communication is a source of motivation, in which effective manager should:
a. Give employees chances to speak out
b. Encourage employees to express their needs
c. Work with employees to reach their goals d. All of the above
163/ …. is the need to strive for ultimate fulfillment of one’s potential in all endeavors: a. Motivation b. Self-actualization c. Esteem d. Creativity
164/ Don’t reprimand in front of others is one application rule for the theory: a. Herzberg need hierarchy b. Alderfer need hierarchy c. Operant conditioning d. Expectancy/valence
165/ People in same company develop different …. of what kinds of behavior lead to rewards: a. Learning b. Thinking c. Experiences d. Expectancies
CHAPTER 12: COUNSELING EMPLOYEES
166/ Counseling in organization is the process of:
a. Guiding someone’s problem and offering him/her a solution
b. Listening to someone’s problem and guiding him/her to solve
c. Guiding someone’s problem and reffering him/her to a therapist
d. Listening to someone’s problem and planning him/her to perform