Chapter 12: Basic Approaches to Leadership
Leadership is best defined as ________.
A) the ability to influence a group in goal achievement
B) keeping order and consistency in the midst of change
C) implementing the vision and strategy provided by management
D) coordinating and staffing the organization and handling day-to-day problems E) not a relevant
variable in modern organizations
Which theory differentiates leaders from nonleaders by focusing on personal qualities and characteristics? A) Fiedler’s perspective B) characteristic theory C) LPC D) contingency theory E) trait theory
According to a comprehensive review of the leadership literature, what is the most important trait of effective leaders? A) conscientiousness B) openness C) extraversion D) agreeableness E) emotional stability
Recent studies indicate that ________ may indicate effective leadership.
A) an endless supply of terrific ideas B) a compelling vision C) a highly analytical mind D) outstanding training E) emotional intelligence
Emotional intelligence is so critical to effective leadership because one of its core components is ________. A) conscientiousness B) empathy C) openness D) extroversion E) agreeableness
There is fairly strong evidence that traits can predict ________ more accurately than leadership effectiveness. A) leadership emergence B) extroversion in leaders C) leadership awareness D) leadership competence
E) the conscientiousness of leaders
If behavioral leadership theories are correct, then ________.
A) leadership behaviors are consistent
B) leaders are born with leadership behaviors C) leaders’ behavior should be altered D) leadership can be taught
E) women generally make better leaders than men
The two dimensions of leadership behavior explained in the Ohio State studies are ________. A) coercion and motivation -
B) concern for people and concern for production C) employee oriented and - production oriented
D) initiating structure and consideration
E) operant conditioning and classical conditioning
A leader high in initiating structure would do which of the following? A) seek consensus
B) exhibit laissez-faire type of leadership
C) maximize leader-member relations
D) assign group members to particular tasks
E) empower employees to make their own decisions
According to the Ohio State studies, the extent to which a leader is likely to have job relationships
characterized by mutual trust and respect for his/her employees is ________. A) consideration B) matrix - C) consensus building D) LPC E) maximization
The two dimensions of leadership behavior identified in the University of Michigan studies are ________. A) coercion and motivation B) emotional and rational - -
C) employee oriented and production oriented
D) initiating structure and consideration E) initiation and completion
The University of Michigan studies define a(n) ________ leader as one who takes a personal interest in the
needs of his/her subordinates. A) LMX B) contextual - C) employee oriented - D) consensus building E) consummate
If a leader’s main concern is accomplishing his/her group’s tasks, the University of Michigan studies label this leader ________. A) consideration-oriented B) managerial C) ineffective D) high achieving - E) production oriented
All contingency theories are based on the idea that effective leadership performance depends on ________.
A) the proper match between the leader’s style and the control the situation gives the
leader B) selecting the right leadership style based on the level of the followers’ readiness
C) using a leadership style that is appropriate to the situational conditions
D) making use of the best path for the goal that is identified E) none of the above
Which model represents the theory that effective group performance depends on the proper match between
a leader’s style and the degree to which the situation gives control to the leader?
A) Leader-Member Exchange Model
B) Fiedler’s Contingency Model
C) Hersey and Blanchard’s Situational Leadership Model
D) Vroom and Yetton’s Leader-Participation Model E) none of the above
In Fiedler’s model, if a respondent describes his or her least preferred co-worker in relatively positive terms,
then the respondent is considered to be ________. - A) relationship oriented - B) people oriented - C) consensus building - D) consideration focused E) unrealistic
If a survey respondent sees his or her least preferred co-worker in unfavorable terms, Fiedler would
categorize the respondent as ________. A) overly critical - B) task oriented C) emotionally deficient D) insightful - E) laissez faire
Fiedler labels the degree of confidence, trust, and respect that subordinates have in their leader as ________. A) leader-member relations
B) relationship orientation C) positional power - D) employee orientation E) none of the above
The degree to which job assignments are procedurized is classified in the Fiedler model as ________. A) leader-member relations
B) task orientation C) task structure D) initiating structure E) productivity oriented
Based on the contingency theory, if the leadership style does not match the situation, you should ________.
A) change the leader to fit the situation
B) change the situation to fit the leader
C) accept this circumstance as unchangeable D) either A or B
E) retrain the leader in a more appropriate style
What is the main principle of path-goal theory?
A) Successful leadership is achieved by selecting the right leadership style.
B) Stress is a form of situational unfavorableness and a leader’s reaction to it depends on his or her intelligence and experience.
C) Effective group performance depends on the proper match between the leader’s style and the degree to
which the situation gives control to the leader.
D) Leaders establish a special relationship with a small group of their followers because of time pressures.
E) The leader is responsible for providing followers with the information, support, or other resources
necessary for them to do their jobs.
Which of the following is not a key characteristic of a charismatic leader?
A) sensitivity to follower needs B) unconventional behavior C) vision and articulation D) task orientation E) willingness to take risks
Leaders who clarify role and task requirements to accomplish established goals exhibit a _________ style of leadership. A) transformational
B) transactional C) charismatic - D) self initiating E) situational
Which of the following would not be a likely outcome of a workplace governed by a transformational leader? A) lower employee morale
B) lower employee stress C) higher productivity D) lower turnover rates
E) higher employee satisfaction
Researchers are conducting a study of a company called Acme Corp, which they believe to be led by a
transformational leader. Which of the following, if true, would most support the conclusion that Acme’s
leader is a transformational leader?
A) Acme's top managers often conflict over defining the organization’s goals.
B) Acme’s goals tend to be very ambitious and to hold personal value for employees.
C) Creativity is discouraged among Acme employees.
D) Acme managers are cautious and rarely take risks.
E) Acme’s compensation plans are designed to reward short-term results.
Which of the following would best serve as evidence to support the conclusion that an individual is an authentic leader?
A) The leader is cautious about information sharing and tends to provide updates only to top management.
B) In business exchanges, the leader puts the company’s bottom line before his or her ideals.
C) The leader acts in the company’s best interest as long as those interests don’t conflict with his personal ambitions.
D) The leader continually questions his or her values.
E) The leader inspires a great deal of trust in his or her followers.
Chapter 13: Power and Politics
1. Power can be defined as ________.
A) the ability to influence the behavior of others
B) the actualization of the dependency of others
C) congruence between the goals of the leader and those being led
D) downward influence on one’s followers E) upward influence on one’s leaders
3. The most important aspect of power is probably that it ________.
A) is needed to get things done in an organization B) is a function of dependency C) tends to corrupt people D) is counter productive E) involves control
4. Which of the following statements is true concerning power? A) Trust and mistrust affect the expression of power.
B) A person can have power over you only if he or she controls something you desire.
C) Power requires some congruence between the goals of the leader and those being led.
D) To be effective, power must be actualized.
E) In order to have power, a person must impose their control over others.
5. Clifford has to work to support his family. He would like to go home before nine, but his boss says that he
must stay and complete an assignment. Clifford is ________ his boss, who controls his job. A) grateful to B) more powerful than C) dependent on D) similar to E) a leader to
6. Power does not require goal compatibility (leadership), merely (đơn thuần) ________. A) reliance B) communication C) confidence
D) dependence E) understanding
8. Leadership focuses on the ________.
A) downward influence of a leader on his or her followers B) importance of lateral and upward influence
patterns C) elimination of dependency relationships D) all of the above E) none of the above
9. Unlike leadership research, research on power tends to focus on ________.
A) individual styles in using power
B) strategies for goal attainment
C) tactics for gaining compliance
D) the administration of rewards
E) the effective use of threats
10. The two general groupings of power are ________.
A) informational and personal B) formal and informal C) informal and legitimate D) personal and formal E) static and fluid
12. When a bank robber points a gun at a bank employee, his base of power is ________. A) coercive B) punitive C) positional D) authoritative E) fractional
14. The opposite of coercive power is ________ power. A) referent B) reward C) legitimate D) charismatic E) resourcive
15. When your superior offers you a raise (tăng lương) if you will perform additional work beyond the
requirements of your job, he/she is exercising ________ power. A) legitimate B) coercive C) reward D) personal E) reflective
16. Legitimate power is based on ________.
A) positive rewards B) interpersonal trust C) structural position D) expert knowledge E) respect and admiration
17. Which of the following types of power requires acceptance of the leader’s authority by members of the organization? A) personal
B) organizational C) legitimate D) positional E) balanced
18. The power that the College Dean has been granted by the University over the faculty is termed ________ power. A) academic B) positional C) legitimate D) organizational E) balanced
19. ________ power is generally related to an individual’s unique characteristics. A) Personal B) Reward C) Legitimate D) Expert E) Idiosyncratic Answer: A
22. John was good with numbers, but he wasn’t sure what he wanted to study in college. His senior year in high
school he had a math teacher that he thought was awesome. Mr. Roury was the first mathematician that
spoke to John on his level and got him really excited about numbers. John joined the Math Club to spend
more time with Mr. Roury. John went on to study math and later engineering in college and today tells his
kids that he owes his career to Mr. Roury. Mr. Roury exhibited ________ power over John. A) leadership B) referent C) coercive D) reward E) legitimate Answer: B
23. Your physician has advised you to take a series of medications. You comply because of her ________ power. A) referent B) information C) formal D) expert E) personal Answer: D
24. Celebrities are paid millions of dollars to endorse products in commercials because the advertisers believe
the celebrities have ________ power. A) personal B) referent C) expert D) legitimate E) star Answer: B
25. Of the bases of power, research indicates that ________ power is most effective and important. A) personal B) coercive C) reward
D) legitimate E) formal Answer: A
26. Dependency is inversely proportional to ________.
A) the level of an individual’s personal power
B) the number of alternative sources of a particular resource
C) the type of informational analysis conducted in a situation
D) the financial resources required to solve a problem E) a leader’s influence over policy decisions Answer: B
27. Most organizations develop multiple suppliers rather than give their business to only one in order to ________.
A) increase knowledge and information B) reduce dependency C) maximize power D) develop interdependence E) avoid uncertainty Answer: B
28. Dependency is decreased when the resource you control is ________. A) important B) scarce C) easily replaced D) insufficient E) Static (k thay đổi) Answer: C
29. Which of the following is least likely to create dependency? A) importance B) scarcity C) nonsubstitutability D) power legitimacy E) supply and demand Answer: D
30. Rodrigo has developed a new technology for reading bar codes in grocery stores. There is no other
technology like his, but Rodrigo is not powerful because no one wants to change from the system that they
already have. Rodrigo is not able to create dependency because ________. A) his product is not scarce
B) his product is nonsubstitutable C) Rodrigo lacks expert power
D) his product is not important E) Rodrigo lacks reward power Answer: D
33. Joe comes to you with a request for funds for a project. He reminds you that company policy supports his
position. He is using the tactic of ________. A) coalitions B) consultation C) rational persuasion
D) legitimacy E) pressure Answer: D
34. James approaches his supervisor with data and a logical presentation supporting his request for additional
personnel. He is using ________. A) consultation B) legitimacy C) rational persuasion D) informational power E) exchange Answer: C
35. Which of the following is not effective as a lateral tactic of influence?
A) coalitions B) exchange C) pressure D) rational persuasion E) consultation Answer: C
38. Evidence suggests that ________ tends to be one of the most effective power tactics. A) pressure or coercion B) rational persuasion C)
personal appeals or friendship D) exchange or rewards E) flattery Answer: B
39. Most studies confirm that the concept of ________ is central to understanding sexual harassment. A) power B) sex C) reasonableness D) abuse E) love Answer: A
42. Which of the following is not a cost that an organization can incur due to the prevalence of sexual harassment? A) decreased productivity B)
increased employee health costs C) lower job satisfaction D)
increased legal and settlement costs E)
ineffective recruiting Answer: E
47. Activities that influence the distribution of advantages and disadvantages within an organization are known as ________. A) human resources B) political behaviors C) sexual harassment D) influential power moves E) interactive initiatives Answer: B
48. Political behaviors usually ________.
A) lie outside of an individual’s specified job requirements
B) are counter productive to individual goals
C) are seen only in large organizations
D) are frowned upon by organizational leaders E) are expected as part of
each job requirement Answer: A
52. An individual most likely to engage in political behavior would have all of the following except a/an ________. A) high need for power B) high ability to self monitor C) high charisma rating D) internal locus of control E)
high Machiavellian personality Answer: C
56. Reactive and protective behaviors designed to avoid action, blame, or change are termed ________. A) political behaviors
B) defensive behaviors C) protectionism D) impression management E) shielding bias Answer: B
57. Individuals who develop explanations and documentation to lessen their responsibility for negative
outcomes are demonstrating which of the following defensive behaviors? A) buffing B) justifying C) prevention
D) stretching E) misrepresenting Answer: A
58. Which of the following is not an organization factor contributing to a high rate of political behavior? A) promotion opportunities B) democratic decision making
C) self-serving senior managers D) low performance pressure E) low trust Answer: D
61. Delray is about to sit down with his boss for his performance review. Which IM technique should Delray
avoid using in the performance evaluation? A) ingratiation - B) self promotion C) flattery D) conformity E) favors Answer: B
Chapter 14: Conflict and Negotiation
If no one is aware of conflict, it is generally agreed that ________.
A) employee-employer relations will be good
B) conflict is subversive C) no conflict exists D) conflict is inevitable
E) conflict is psychologically driven as opposed to physically manifest Answer: C
The traditional view of conflict is the belief that conflict is ________. A) harmful B) natural C) necessary D) situationally-dependent E) neutral Answer: A
The traditional view of conflict argues that conflict ________. A) cannot be avoided
B) helps to generate discussion C) can be avoided D) improves productivity E) must be avoided Answer: E
Which of the following is not a cause of conflict, according to the traditionalist view? A)
general poor communication between people B)
lack of openness in the organization C)
trust between people in the organization D)
management failure to be responsive to employee needs E)
management failure to be responsive to employee aspirations Answer: C
The ________ view of conflict argues that conflict is necessary for a group to perform effectively. A) human relations
B) interactionist C) traditional D) functional E) reactive Answer: B
Encouraging group leaders to maintain an ongoing minimum level of conflict is part of the ________ view of conflict. A) functional B) traditional C) human relations
D) interactionist E) conjunctivist Answer: D
Which of the following types of conflict identified by the interactionist view is the least functional and the
most damaging to productivity? A) task
B) organizational C) relationship D) process E) institutional Answer: C
________ conflict supports the goals of the group and improves its performance. A) Formal B) Informal C) Functional D) Dysfunctional E) Reactive Answer: C
Conflict that relates to the content and goals of work is termed ________ conflict. A) job B) task C) relationship D) process E) communication Answer: B
________ conflicts are almost always dysfunctional. A) Task B) Job C) Relationship D) Process E) Functional Answer: C
For process conflict to be productive, it must be ________. A) kept high B) kept low - -
C) kept at low to moderate levels D) kept at moderate levels
E) subject to managerial control Answer: B
For task conflict to be productive, it should be ________. A) kept high B) kept low - -
C) kept at low to moderate levels
D) kept at moderate levels E) subject to managerial control Answer: C
Which of the following is not one of the problems that occurs when conflict is encouraged? A) increased group viability B) time lost on the job C) lingering hurt feelings
D) increased employee stress E) reductions in cooperation Answer: A
The first stage of the conflict process is termed ________.
A) cognition and personalization B) behavioral manifestation
C) potential opposition or incompatibility D) intention E) habituation Answer: C
The categories of causes or sources of conflict include all of the following except ________. A) communication B) structure C) group interaction D) personal variables E)
All of the above are causes or sources of conflict. Answer: C
Which of the following is not considered one of the potential sources of conflict? A) too much communication
B) group size and specialization C) value similarities
D) short job tenure E) too little communication Answer: C
High job specialization can lead to ________ conflict. A) communication B) structural - C) personal variable - D) job related E) team Answer: B
Stage II of the conflict process deals with conflict being ________. A) perceived and felt B) apparent and experienced C) expressed and perceived D) overt and covert E) internalized Answer: A
In which stage are conflict issues defined? A) potential opposition
B) cognition and personalization C) intuitions D) behavior E) reaction and transference Answer: B
________ intervene(s) between people’s perceptions and their overt behavior. A) Intuition B) Intention C) Cognition D) Attributions E) Attitudes Answer: B
In assessing intentions, cooperativeness is the degree to which ________.
A) one party attempts to satisfy the other party’s concerns
B) one party attempts to resolve conflict
C) both parties work toward a common goal
D) there is an absence of conflict
E) one party can empathize with the other Answer: A
The dimension of assertiveness refers to situations ________.
A) in which one party attempts to satisfy his/her own
concerns B) in which there is an expression of competition C)
involving a major behavior change D) that lead to conflict
E) in which one party behaves generously Answer: A
Which is not one of the five conflict-handling intentions? A) collaborating B) competing C) accommodating D) avoiding E) resisting Answer: E
The conflict-handling intention of collaborating is ________.
A) assertive and uncooperative B) assertive and cooperative
C) unassertive and uncooperative
D) unassertive and cooperative E) affective and reflective Answer: B
The conflict-handling intention of avoiding is ________.
A) assertive and uncooperative B) assertive and cooperative
C) unassertive and uncooperative
D) unassertive and cooperative E) assertive and reflective Answer: C
The conflict-handling intention of accommodating is ________.
A) assertive and uncooperative B) assertive and cooperative
C) unassertive and uncooperative
D) unassertive and cooperative E) reflective and emotional Answer: D
Which of the following conflict-handling orientations might involve attempting to find a win-win solution? A) avoiding B) collaborating C) accommodating D) compromising E) mollifying Answer: B
Angelina feels that her cubicle neighbor talks too loudly on the phone, but in other ways she is a great
neighbor. Angelina gets annoyed every time her neighbor’s phone rings, but she has decided it’s simply not
worth the trouble to talk to her neighbor. Angelina’s conflict intention is called ________. A) competing B) avoiding C) accommodating D) compromising E) collaborating Answer: B
Irma does not like a few of the standard operating procedures adapted for the new project. However, she
discussed the items with the team and told them that she realized she was in the minority and that she
would adapt the new procedures to maintain smooth operations within the team. This type of intention is called ________. A) sacrificing B) accommodating C) collaborating D) compromising E) competing Answer: B
In which stage of the conflict process does conflict become visible? A) illumination B) intentions
C) potential opposition or incompatibility D) behavior
E) cognition and personalization Answer: D
What is the overall goal of conflict management? A)
achieving the desired conflict level B) resolving conflict C) stimulating conflict D) identifying conflict E)
assessing the source of conflict Answer: A
Which one of the following might not be a functional outcome of the conflict process? A) stimulates creativity B) increases innovation
C) fosters environment of self-evaluation
D) relieves tensions E) avoids risk Answer: E
Conflict is dysfunctional when it ________.
A) provides a medium to release tension B) reduces group cohesiveness
C) fosters an environment of self-evaluation
D) provides a means for expressing frustration E) leads to change Answer: B
Negotiation can be defined as a process in which two or more parties exchange goods or services and
attempt to agree upon ________.
A) the exchange rate for those goods and services
B) acceptable bargaining strategies for obtaining the goods and services C) a model of
the negotiation process for resolving differences D)
effective arbitrators for disputes
E) the monetary value of the exchanged items Answer: A
The terms negotiation and ________ are used interchangeably. - A) win lose B) bargaining C) collaboration D) accommodating E) arbitration Answer: B