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Solutions to the Review Questions at the End of Chapter 4  1. 
In the same way as we make assumptions about the true value of beta and not 
theestimated values, we make assumptions about the true unobservable disturbance 
terms rather than their estimated counterparts, the residuals. 
We know the exact value of the residuals, since they are defined by  . So we 
do not need to make any assumptions about the residuals since we already know their 
value. We make assumptions about the unobservable error terms since it is always the 
true value of the population disturbances that we are really interested in, although we 
never actually know what these are.  2. 
We would like to see no pattern in the residual plot! If there is a pattern in 
theresidual plot, this is an indication that there is still some “action” or variability left 
in yt that has not been explained by our model. This indicates that potentially it may be 
possible to form a better model, perhaps using additional or completely different 
explanatory variables, or by using lags of either the dependent or of one or more of the 
explanatory variables. Recall that the two plots shown on pages 157 and 159, where the 
residuals followed a cyclical pattern, and when they followed an alternating pattern are 
used as indications that the residuals are positively and negatively autocorrelated  respectively. 
Another problem if there is a “pattern” in the residuals is that, if it does indicate the 
presence of autocorrelation, then this may suggest that our standard error estimates for 
the coefficients could be wrong and hence any inferences we make about the 
coefficients could be misleading.  3. 
The t-ratios for the coefficients in this model are given in the third row after the 
standard errors. They are calculated by dividing the individual coefficients by their  standard errors. 
 = 0.638 + 0.402 x2t - 0.891 x3t   
(0.436) (0.291) (0.763) t-ratios  1.46 1.38 -1.17 
The problem appears to be that the regression parameters are all individually 
insignificant (i.e. not significantly different from zero), although the value of R2 and its 
adjusted version are both very high, so that the regression taken as a whole seems to 
indicate a good fit. This looks like a classic example of what we term near 
multicollinearity. This is where the individual regressors are very closely related, so 
that it becomes difficult to disentangle the effect of each individual variable upon the  dependent variable. 
The solution to near multicollinearity that is usually suggested is that since the problem 
is really one of insufficient information in the sample to determine each of the 
coefficients, then one should go out and get more data. In other words, we should switch      lOMoAR cPSD| 58583460
to a higher frequency of data for analysis (e.g. weekly instead of monthly, monthly 
instead of quarterly etc.). An alternative is also to get more data by using a longer 
sample period (i.e. one going further back in time), or to combine the two independent 
variables in a ratio (e.g. x2t / x3t ). 
Other, more ad hoc methods for dealing with the possible existence of near 
multicollinearity were discussed in Chapter 4: 
- Ignore it: if the model is otherwise adequate, i.e. statistically and in terms of each 
coefficient being of a plausible magnitude and having an appropriate sign. 
Sometimes, the existence of multicollinearity does not reduce the t-ratios on 
variables that would have been significant without the multicollinearity sufficiently 
to make them insignificant. It is worth stating that the presence of near 
multicollinearity does not affect the BLUE properties of the OLS estimator – 
i.e. it will still be consistent, unbiased and efficient since the presence of near 
multicollinearity does not violate any of the CLRM assumptions 1-4. However, in 
the presence of near multicollinearity, it will be hard to obtain small standard errors. 
This will not matter if the aim of the model-building exercise is to produce forecasts 
from the estimated model, since the forecasts will be unaffected by the presence of 
near multicollinearity so long as this relationship between the explanatory variables 
continues to hold over the forecasted sample. 
- Drop one of the collinear variables - so that the problem disappears. However, this 
may be unacceptable to the researcher if there were strong a priori theoretical 
reasons for including both variables in the model. Also, if the removed variable was 
relevant in the data generating process for y, an omitted variable bias would result. 
- Transform the highly correlated variables into a ratio and include only the ratio and 
not the individual variables in the regression. Again, this may be unacceptable if 
financial theory suggests that changes in the dependent variable should occur 
following changes in the individual explanatory variables, and not a ratio of them. 
4. (a) The assumption of homoscedasticity is that the variance of the errors is constant 
and finite over time. Technically, we write  . 
(b) The coefficient estimates would still be the “correct” ones (assuming that theother 
assumptions required to demonstrate OLS optimality are satisfied), but the problem 
would be that the standard errors could be wrong. Hence if we were trying to test 
hypotheses about the true parameter values, we could end up drawing the wrong 
conclusions. In fact, for all of the variables except the constant, the standard errors 
would typically be too small, so that we would end up rejecting the null hypothesis  too many times.   
(c) There are a number of ways to proceed in practice, including      lOMoAR cPSD| 58583460 - 
Using heteroscedasticity robust standard errors which correct for the problem 
byenlarging the standard errors relative to what they would have been for the situation 
where the error variance is positively related to one of the explanatory variables.  - 
Transforming the data into logs, which has the effect of reducing the effect of 
largeerrors relative to small ones. 
5. (a) This is where there is a relationship between the ith and jth residuals. Recall that 
one of the assumptions of the CLRM was that such a relationship did not exist. We want 
our residuals to be random, and if there is evidence of autocorrelation in the residuals, 
then it implies that we could predict the sign of the next residual and get the right answer 
more than half the time on average!  (b) 
The Durbin Watson test is a test for first order autocorrelation. The test 
iscalculated as follows. You would run whatever regression you were interested in, and 
obtain the residuals. Then calculate the statistic   
You would then need to look up the two critical values from the Durbin Watson tables, 
and these would depend on how many variables and how many observations and how 
many regressors (excluding the constant this time) you had in the model. 
The rejection / non-rejection rule would be given by selecting the appropriate region  from the following diagram:    (c) 
We have 60 observations, and the number of regressors excluding the 
constantterm is 3. The appropriate lower and upper limits are 1.48 and 1.69 
respectively, so the Durbin Watson is lower than the lower limit. It is thus clear that we 
reject the null hypothesis of no autocorrelation. So it looks like the residuals are  positively autocorrelated.  (d)        lOMoAR cPSD| 58583460
The problem with a model entirely in first differences, is that once we calculate the long 
run solution, all the first difference terms drop out (as in the long run we assume that 
the values of all variables have converged on their own long run values so that yt = yt-1 
etc.) Thus when we try to calculate the long run solution to this model, we cannot do it  because  there  isn’t  a  long  run  solution  to  this  model!  (e)   
The answer is yes, there is no reason why we cannot use Durbin Watson in this case. 
You may have said no here because there are lagged values of the regressors (the x 
variables) variables in the regression. In fact this would be wrong since there are no 
lags of the DEPENDENT (y) variable and hence DW can still be used.  6.   
The major steps involved in calculating the long run solution are to 
- set the disturbance term equal to its expected value of zero  - drop the time subscripts 
- remove all difference terms altogether since these will all be zero by the definitionof  the long run in this context. 
Following these steps, we obtain   
We now want to rearrange this to have all the terms in x2 together and so that y is the  subject of the formula:   
The last equation above is the long run solution.  7. 
Ramsey’s RESET test is a test of whether the functional form of the regression 
isappropriate. In other words, we test whether the relationship between the dependent 
variable and the independent variables really should be linear or whether a non-linear 
form would be more appropriate. The test works by adding powers of the fitted values 
from the regression into a second regression. If the appropriate model was a linear one, 
then the powers of the fitted values would not be significant in this second regression. 
If we fail Ramsey’s RESET test, then the easiest “solution” is probably to transform all 
of the variables into logarithms. This has the effect of turning a multiplicative model  into an additive one.      lOMoAR cPSD| 58583460
If this still fails, then we really have to admit that the relationship between the dependent 
variable and the independent variables was probably not linear after all so that we have 
to either estimate a non-linear model for the data (which is beyond the scope of this 
course) or we have to go back to the drawing board and run a different regression 
containing different variables.  8. 
(a) It is important to note that we did not need to assume normality in order 
toderive the sample estimates of and or in calculating their standard errors. We 
needed the normality assumption at the later stage when we come to test hypotheses 
about the regression coefficients, either singly or jointly, so that the test statistics we 
calculate would indeed have the distribution (t or F) that we said they would. 
(b) One solution would be to use a technique for estimation and inference which did not 
require normality. But these techniques are often highly complex and also their 
properties are not so well understood, so we do not know with such certainty how well 
the methods will perform in different circumstances. 
One pragmatic approach to failing the normality test is to plot the estimated residuals 
of the model, and look for one or more very extreme outliers. These would be residuals 
that are much “bigger” (either very big and positive, or very big and negative) than the 
rest. It is, fortunately for us, often the case that one or two very extreme outliers will 
cause a violation of the normality assumption. The reason that one or two extreme 
outliers can cause a violation of the normality assumption is that they would lead the 
(absolute value of the) skewness and / or kurtosis estimates to be very large. 
Once we spot a few extreme residuals, we should look at the dates when these outliers 
occurred. If we have a good theoretical reason for doing so, we can add in separate 
dummy variables for big outliers caused by, for example, wars, changes of government, 
stock market crashes, changes in market microstructure (e.g. the “big bang” of 1986). 
The effect of the dummy variable is exactly the same as if we had removed the 
observation from the sample altogether and estimated the regression on the remainder. 
If we only remove observations in this way, then we make sure that we do not lose any 
useful pieces of information represented by sample points. 
9. (a) Parameter structural stability refers to whether the coefficient estimates for a 
regression equation are stable over time. If the regression is not structurally stable, it 
implies that the coefficient estimates would be different for some sub-samples of the 
data compared to others. This is clearly not what we want to find since when we 
estimate a regression, we are implicitly assuming that the regression parameters are 
constant over the entire sample period under consideration.  (b)  1981M1-1995M12   
rt = 0.0215 + 1.491 rmt  RSS=0.189 T=180      lOMoAR cPSD| 58583460 1981M1-1987M10   
rt = 0.0163 + 1.308 rmt 1987M11- RSS=0.079 T=82  1995M12 
rt = 0.0360 + 1.613 rmt   RSS=0.082 T=98  (c) 
If we define the coefficient estimates for the first and second halves of the 
sampleas 1 and 1, and 2 and 2 respectively, then the null and alternative  hypotheses are  H0 : 1 = 2 and 1 = 2 and   H1 : 1 2 or 1 2  (d) 
The test statistic is calculated as  Test stat. =   
This follows an F distribution with (k,T-2k) degrees of freedom. F(2,176) = 3.05 at the 
5% level. Clearly we reject the null hypothesis that the coefficients are equal in the two  sub-periods. 
10. The data we have are 1981M1-   1995M12 
rt = 0.0215 + 1.491 Rmt   RSS=0.189 T=180  1981M1-1994M12 
rt = 0.0212 + 1.478 Rmt   RSS=0.148 T=168  1982M1-1995M12 
rt = 0.0217 + 1.523 Rmt   RSS=0.182 T=168 
First, the forward predictive failure test - i.e. we are trying to see if the model for 
1981M1-1994M12 can predict 1995M1-1995M12. 
The test statistic is given by   
Where T1 is the number of observations in the first period (i.e. the period that we 
actually estimate the model over), and T2 is the number of observations we are trying 
to “predict”. The test statistic follows an F-distribution with (T2, T1-k) degrees of 
freedom. F(12, 166) = 1.81 at the 5% level. So we reject the null hypothesis that the 
model can predict the observations for 1995. We would conclude that our model is no 
use for predicting this period, and from a practical point of view, we would have to 
consider whether this failure is a result of a-typical behaviour of the series out-ofsample 
(i.e. during 1995), or whether it results from a genuine deficiency in the model.      lOMoAR cPSD| 58583460
The backward predictive failure test is a little more difficult to understand, although no 
more difficult to implement. The test statistic is given by   
Now we need to be a little careful in our interpretation of what exactly are the “first” 
and “second” sample periods. It would be possible to define T1 as always being the first 
sample period. But I think it easier to say that T1 is always the sample over which we 
estimate the model (even though it now comes after the hold-out-sample). Thus T2 is 
still the sample that we are trying to predict, even though it comes first. You can use 
either notation, but you need to be clear and consistent. If you wanted to choose the 
other way to the one I suggest, then you would need to change the subscript 1 
everywhere in the formula above so that it was 2, and change every 2 so that it was a 1. 
Either way, we conclude that there is little evidence against the null hypothesis. Thus 
our model is able to adequately back-cast the first 12 observations of the sample.  11. 
By definition, variables having associated parameters that are not 
significantlydifferent from zero are not, from a statistical perspective, helping to 
explain variations in the dependent variable about its mean value. One could therefore 
argue that empirically, they serve no purpose in the fitted regression model. But leaving 
such variables in the model will use up valuable degrees of freedom, implying that the 
standard errors on all of the other parameters in the regression model, will be 
unnecessarily higher as a result. If the number of degrees of freedom is relatively small, 
then saving a couple by deleting two variables with insignificant parameters could be 
useful. On the other hand, if the number of degrees of freedom is already very large, 
the impact of these additional irrelevant variables on the others is likely to be  inconsequential.  12. 
An outlier dummy variable will take the value one for one observation in 
thesample and zero for all others. The Chow test involves splitting the sample into two 
parts. If we then try to run the regression on both the sub-parts but the model contains 
such an outlier dummy, then the observations on that dummy will be zero everywhere 
for one of the regressions. For that sub-sample, the outlier dummy would show perfect 
multicollinearity with the intercept and therefore the model could not be estimated.